Quiz #1: Chapter 1 – Human AnatomyACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals

1) When comparing the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, which of the following statements is correct?

a. The medial epicondyle is more toward the front of the body than the lateral epicondyleb. The medial epicondyle is more toward the back of the body than the lateral epicondylec. The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyled. The medial epicondyle is more away from the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle

Explanationc. The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyleThe term “medial” means “toward the midline of the body,” while the term “lateral” means “away from the midline of the body.”ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 2

2) Which of the following is NOT one of four types of tissue found in the human body?

a. Muscularb. Nervousc. Epitheliald. Vascular

Explanationd. Vascular The four primary types of tissue are muscular, nervous, connective, and epithelial.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 3

3) Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout the body?

a. Plasmab. Red blood cellsc. White blood cellsd. Platelets

Explanationa. PlasmaThe liquid component of blood, called plasma, is responsible for carrying hormones, plasma proteins, food materials (e.g., carbohydrates, amino acids, lipids), ions (e.g., sodium, chloride, bicarbonate), and gases (e.g., oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide) throughout the body.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 3–4

4) When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the tricuspid valve?

a. Right atriumb. Left atriumc. Right ventricled. Left ventricle

Explanationc. Right ventricleBlood passes through the tricuspid valve on its way from the right atrium to the right ventricle.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 6

5) The average person’s breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20 to 30 liters per minute while at rest.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseHumans normally breathe approximately 5 to 6 liters of air per minute through the nose when at rest, but use the mouth as the primary passageway for air when ventilation is increased to approximately 20 to 30 liters per minute during exercise.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 8

6) Which of the following movements takes place in the frontal plane?

a. Depression of the scapulaeb. Flexion at the elbowc. Extension at the hipd. Supination at the wrist

Explanationa. Depression of the scapulaeThe movements that take place in the frontal plane are as follows:

Abduction Adduction Elevation Depression Inversion Eversion

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 21

7) Which of the following statements about flexibility is CORRECT?

a. As people age, flexibility naturally increases due to decreased collagen levels.b. Males are generally more flexible than females.c. Collagen is made up of proteins that limit motion and resist stretch.d. The build-up of scar tissue after injury often increases flexibility.

Explanationc. Collage is made up proteins that limit motion and resist stretch.Structures containing large amounts of collagen tend to limit motion and resist stretch. Thus, collagen fibers are the main constituents of tissues such as ligaments and tendons that are subjected to a pulling force. Regarding the other options, flexibility decreases with aging, females are generally more flexible than males, and scar tissue limits flexibility.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 30 & 32

8) Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed with resistance?

a. Rhomboid major and rhomboid minorb. Pectoralis minor and serratus anteriorc. Levator scapulae and trapeziusd. Teres major and latissimus dorsi

Explanationc. Levator scapulae and trapeziusThese two muscles that act at the shoulder girdle to elevate the scapula are effectively targeted by shoulder shrugs.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 35 & 38

9) The birddog is an effective exercise for which of the following muscles that act at the trunk?

a. Multifidib. Erector spinaec. Rectus abdominisd. Transverse abdominis

Explanationa. MultifidiThe multifidi, which contribute to spinal stability during trunk extension, rotation, and side-bending, are effectively targeted by the birddog.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 43

10) Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction?

a. Anterior musclesb. Posterior musclesc. Medial musclesd. Lateral muscles

Explanationc. Medial musclesThe medial hip muscles (i.e., those hip muscles closer to the midline of the body), including the pectineus, adductor brevis, adductor longus, gracilis, and adductor magnus, are primarily responsible for hip adduction.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 44

Quiz #2: Chapter 2 – Exercise PhysiologyACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals

1) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity?

a. Decreased anxiety and depressionb. Improved lipid profilec. Improved glucose controld. Increased diastolic blood pressure

Explanationd. Increased diastolic blood pressureSome of the benefits of regular exercise include improved cardiovascular function, lowered systolic and diastolic blood pressure, decreased body weight and fat mass, improved lipid profile, improved glucose control, decreased anxiety and depression, enhanced feelings of well-being, decreased incidence of several cancers (e.g., colon, breast, prostate), and decreased incidence of osteoporosis.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 67–68

2) Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseThe amount of blood pumped during each heartbeat is called the stroke volume. Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate, and therefore is defined as the amount of blood pumped per minute.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 70

3) Very little of the __________ a person consumes is used for energy production.

a. Fatb. Carbohydratec. Proteind. Fiber

Explanationc. ProteinOf the three macronutrients, relatively little protein is used for energy production except in extreme cases of caloric restriction. Protein is principally used in the growth and repair of tissue or is excreted. ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 71–72

4) Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-out exertion?

a. Phosphagen systemb. Anaerobic glycolysisc. Aerobic glycolysisd. Beta oxidation

Explanationa. PhosphagenThe total amount of ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) stored in muscle is very small, and thus the amount of energy available for muscular contraction is extremely limited. There is probably enough energy available from the phosphagens for only about 10 seconds of all-out exertion, if there were not continual resynthesis of ATP.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 72

5) Low-intensity exercise is the best way to lose weight because it burns a higher percentage of fat than exercise at a higher intensity.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseDuring high-intensity exercise, the total number of calories burned is much higher than during low-intensity exercise, and negates the higher percentage coming from fat. During low-intensity bouts, a higher percentage of calories is coming from fat, but the total number of fat calories is less than during high-intensity workouts. It is important to remember that the total number of calories burned is what determines weight loss, regardless of the source of those calories.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 76

6) At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing?

a. Immediately after the commencement of exerciseb. As the body approaches steady statec. During steady-state trainingd. After the cessation of exercise

Explanationd. After the cessation of exerciseThe energy produced after the cessation of exercise (excess postexercise oxygen consumption – EPOC) is used to replenish the depleted phosphagens, to eliminate accumulated lactate if it has not already been cleared from the blood, and to restore other homeostatic conditions (e.g., thermoregulation, tissue resynthesis). As the body returns to normal temperature, the metabolic rate will return to normal.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 79

7) Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing exercise?

a. Increase in respiratory capacityb. Improved cardiac output efficiencyc. Increase in bone densityd. Improved lean body mass

Explanationc. Increase in bone densityThe concept of the SAID principle is that the body will adapt to the specific challenges imposed upon it, as long as the program progressively overloads the system being trained. Studies have shown that weightbearing exercise promotes improved bone density, which is a key factor in the prevention of osteoporosis, particularly in women.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 81–82

8) Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose?

a. Vasopressinb. Cortisolc. Norepinephrined. Estrogen

Explanationb. CortisolCortisol is a glucocorticoid and plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose during prolonged exercise by promoting protein and triglyceride breakdown. Cortisol is also a major stress hormone and is elevated when the body is under too much stress, either from too much exercise or inadequate regeneration.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 84

9) Replacing body fluid as it is lost is an important guideline to follow whether exercising in the heat or in the cold.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. TrueReplacing body fluids as they are lost is important when exercising in either the heat or the cold. In the cold, fluid loss may not be as obvious as when exercising in the heat. However, when exercising in cold air, large amounts of water are lost from the body during respiration.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 86 & 89

10) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary symptoms of altitude sickness?

a. Shortness of breathb. Profuse sweatingc. Headached. Nausea

Explanationb. Profuse sweatingWhile shortness of breath, headache, and nausea (along with lightheadedness) are all symptoms of altitude sickness, profuse sweating is one of the primary symptoms of heat exhaustion.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 87 & 89

Quiz #3: Chapter 3 – Fundamentals of Applied KinesiologyACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals

1) Which of Newton’s laws of motion is described as follows? A body at rest will stay at rest and a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force.

a. Law of gravityb. Law of reactionc. Law of inertiad. Law of acceleration

Explanationc. Law of inertiaNewton’s first law of motion, known as the law of inertia, states that a body at rest will stay at rest and that a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force. In addition, a body’s inertial characteristics are proportional to its mass, which is why it is harder to start (or stop) moving a heavy object than a lighter one.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 106

2) Which of the following is an example of a multiplanar movement from the anatomical position?

a. Depression of the scapulaeb. Pronation of the forearmc. Dorsiflexion of the ankled. Opposition of the thumb

Explanationd. Opposition of the thumbOpposition of the thumb is a movement unique to primates and humans that follows a semicircle toward the little finger. Each of the other movements is uniplanar.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 109

3) Assuming a client is lifting the same amount of weight, he or she can create more resistance by moving the weight closer to the working joint.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseTo create more resistance with the same amount of weight, move the weight farther from the working joint. To lessen the resistance as fatigue occurs, move the weight closer to the working joint.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 112

4) A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction?

a. Unipennateb. Bipennatec. Multipennated. Longitudinal

Explanationd. LongitudinalPenniform muscles, which include unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate muscles, are designed for higher force production than longitudinal muscles. Longitudinal muscles are long and thin and have parallel fibers that run in the same direction as the length of the muscle. This type of fiber arrangement allows for speed of contraction.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 112–113

5) Static balance exercises often involve _______________.

a. Widening the base of supportb. Narrowing the base of supportc. Shifting the line of gravity outside the base of supportd. Shifting the line of gravity through rotary motion

Explanationb. Narrowing the base of supportTo work on static balance with a client or class participant, the fitness professional can make the individual’s base of support narrower to stimulate adaptation to the imposed demand. Widening the base of support lessens the balance challenge.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 115–116

6) What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg?

a. Adductorsb. Abductorsc. Internal rotatorsd. External rotators

Explanationa. AdductorsDuring side-lying leg lifts (lower leg), the adductors work concentrically in the upward phase and eccentrically in the downward phase.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 121

7) The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg?

a. Anterior tibial compartmentb. Posterior tibial compartmentc. Deep posterior compartmentd. Superficial posterior compartment

Explanationd. Superficial posterior compartmentThe soleus, gastrocnemius, and popliteus are all located in the superficial posterior compartment of the lower leg and serve as primary plantarflexors of the ankle joint.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 123

8) When evaluating a new client’s posture, a personal trainer notices a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. What postural deviation does this client have?

a. Kyphosisb. Lordosisc. Flat backd. Sway back

Explanationd. Sway backSway-back posture is a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. It is often accompanied by rounded shoulders, a sunken chest, and a forward-tilted head. If an individual has this postural abnormality and cannot actively assume a neutral-spine posture, the fitness professional should refer him or her to a physician.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 128

9) Which of the following muscles plays a vital role (with the mulitfidi) in providing feedback to the central nervous system about spinal joint position before dynamic forces in the extremities destabilize the spine?

a. Transverse abdominisb. Rectus abdominisc. Internal obliquesd. External obliques

Explanationa. Transverse abdominisCoactivation of the transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles occur before any movements of the limbs. Specifically, these two muscles are activated an average of 30 milliseconds before shoulder movement and 110 milliseconds before leg movement. What is the importance of this temporal pattern of trunk muscle recruitment? The transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles are thought to play a vital

role in providing feedback about spinal joint position, and thus forewarn the central nervous system about impending dynamic forces to be created in the extremities that may destabilize the spine.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 133

10) “Shoulder girdle” is the formal term for the _______________.a. S/C jointb. A/C jointc. S/T articulationd. G/H joint

Explanationc. S/T articulationShoulder girdle is the formal term for scapulothoracic (S/T) articulation, which consists of the muscles and fascia connecting the scapula to the thorax.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 134

Quiz #4: Chapter 4 – NutritionACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals

1) Carbohydrates, which are the body’s preferred energy source, contain how many kilocalories per gram?

a. 2 kcal/gb. 4 kcal/gc. 7 kcal/gd. 9 kcal/g

Explanationb. 4 kcal/gMade up of chains of sugar molecules, carbohydrates contain about 4 kcal/g. Proteins also contain 4 kcal/g, while fat contains 9 kcal/g and alcohol contains 7 kcal/g.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 160

2) Contributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat absorption, metabolizing fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions of which nutrient?

a. Proteinb. Carbohydratec. Cholesterold. Omega-3 fatty acids

Explanationc. CholesterolCholesterol, a fat-like, waxy, rigid four-ring structure, plays an important role in cell membrane function. It also helps to make bile acids (which are important for fat absorption), metabolize fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K), and make vitamin D and some hormones such as estrogen and testosterone.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 162

3) Which of the following MUST be consumed in the diet?

a. Vitamin Kb. Biotinc. Vitamin Dd. Folate

Explanationd. FolateVitamins must be consumed through food with only three exceptions: vitamin K and biotin can also be produced by normal intestinal flora (bacteria that live in the intestines and are critical for normal gastrointestinal function), and vitamin D can be self-produced with sun exposure.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 162

4) A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her intake of folic acid. What would be the BEST response?

a. Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentilsb. Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetablesc. Green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain productsd. Milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts

Explanationa. Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentilsThese foods are the best sources of folate, or folic acid. Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables are good sources of vitamin C; green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products are good sources of vitamin K; and milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts are good sources of choline.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 164

5) Which of the following minerals has a recommended dietary allowance (RDA) that is more than twice as high for women than it is for men?

a. Zincb. Ironc. Phosphorusd. Copper

Explanationb. IronThe RDA for iron for women is 18 mg, while it is only 8 mg for men. Iron plays an essential role in hemoglobin formation, improves blood quality, and increases resistance to stress and disease.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 165

6) A client must achieve a 1,000-calorie deficit per day in order to lose 1 lb per week.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. False3,500 calories = 1 lb. Therefore, a 1,000 calorie per day deficit will lead to a loss of 2 lb per week. The Dietary Guidelines recommend that those trying to lose weight aim for a 500-calorie deficit per day, achieved through decreased caloric intake and/or increased physical activity. Over the course of a week, the 3,500 calorie deficit should lead to a loss of 1 pound. For optimal long-term success and overall health, gradual weight loss of no more than 1 to 2 pounds per week is best. ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 174

7) Which of the following is NOT among the 10 insights gleaned from the experiences of the National Weight Control Registry?

a. Eat breakfastb. Be mindfulc. Avoid the scaled. Be optimistic

Explanationc. Avoid the scaleWhile it is not advisable to become obsessive about weight to the nearest 0.01 pounds, people who maintain their weight loss keep tabs on the scale, weighing themselves at least once per week.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 176

8) In most cases, athletic performance will improve when the individual is on a low-fat diet where fat intake is below 15% of total calories.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseThe American Dietetic Association recommends that athletes consume a comparable proportion of food from fat as the general population—that is, 20 to 25% of total calories. There is no evidence of a performance benefit from a very low-fat diet (<15% of total calories) or from a high-fat diet (>30% of total calories).ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 182

9) A client with which of the following conditions should receive comprehensive nutrition counseling before beginning an exercise program?

a. Osteoporosisb. Hyponatremiac. Hypertensiond. Diabetes

Explanationd. DiabetesIt is especially important for people with diabetes to balance nutrition intake with exercise and insulin or other medications in order to maintain a regular blood sugar level throughout the day. All individuals with diabetes who have not already had a comprehensive nutrition consultation prior to beginning an exercise program should be referred to a registered dietitian for an evaluation and nutrition education.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 188

10) A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic index to guide him as he “refuels” after practices and matches. Which of the following would be the BEST snack choice?

a. Dried fruitb. Rye breadc. Oatmeald. Strawberries

Explanationa. Dried fruitHigh-GI carbohydrates, including dried fruit, are best for refueling. Rye bread is a medium-GI carbohydrates, while oatmeal and strawberries are low-GI carbohydrates.ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 179

Quiz #5: Chapter 5 – Physiology of TrainingACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals

1) The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart, is located in which chamber of the heart?

a. Right atriumb. Right ventriclec. Left atriumd. Left ventricle

Explanationa. Right atriumThe SA node is located on the posterior wall of the right atrium, while the atrioventricular node (AV node) is located on the floor of that same chamber.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 214

2) Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state exercise?

a. Increasing heart rateb. Increasing stroke volumec. Increasing vasoconstriction in non-working musclesd. Releasing vasopressin and aldosterone

Explanationb. Increasing stroke volumeThe following changes take place to preserve blood volume:

A progressive increase in heart rate at steady-state exercise to maintain cardiac output and offset the small decrease in stroke volume associated with the fluid loss

A compensation in blood pressure via further vasocontriction in the non-exercising regions to maintain peripheral resistance and blood pressure

A release of hormones—antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin, and aldosterone—to help reduce water and sodium losses from the body

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 216

3) Tidal volume decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2).

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. TrueDuring submaximal exercise (before reaching VT2), ventilation increases linearly with oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. This occurs primarily through an increase in tidal volume

(i.e., the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per breath). At higher or near-maximal intensities, the frequency of breathing becomes more pronounced and minute ventilation rises disproportionately to the increases in oxygen consumption. Tidal volume decreases as breathing rate increases.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 217

4) What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during physical activity?

a. Insulinb. Norepinephrinec. Epinephrined. Cortisol

Explanationc. EpinephrineIn addition to its effects on the cardiovascular and metabolic systems, epinephrine dilates the respiratory passages to aid in moving air into and out of the lungs, and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during exercise.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 218

5) Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells?

a. Growth hormoneb. Glucagonc. Insulind. Cortisol

Explanationd. CortisolCortisol is a glucocorticoid released from the adrenal cortex that stimulates free fatty acid (FFA) mobilization from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver (i.e., gluconeogenesis), and decreases the rate of glucose utilization by the cells. Its effect is slow, however, allowing other fast-acting hormones such as epinephrine and glucagon to primarily deal with glucose and FFA mobilization.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 219

6) What is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) anaerobically?

a. Proteinb. Fatc. Cholesterold. Carbohydrate

Explanation

d. Carbohydrate Carbohydrate serves as the major food fuel for the metabolic production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is a chemical compound required for all cellular work. Importantly, carbohydrate is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates ATP anaerobically. This is crucial during maximal exercise that requires rapid energy release above levels supplied by aerobic metabolism.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 220

7) Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise?

a. Convectionb. Radiationc. Evaporationd. Excretion

Explanationc. EvaporationThough evaporation accounts for only 20% of thermoregulation while at rest, it accounts for approximately 80% of thermoregulation during exercise.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 225

8) What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise?

a. Decreased cardiac stressb. Improved VO2maxc. Enhanced oxygen delivery to working musclesd. Reduced work environment for the heart

Explanationc. Enhanced oxygen delivery to working musclesA physical-performance advantage of reduced blood viscosity, which is direct result of the increased blood volume, is that it enhances oxygen delivery to the active skeletal muscles, because the blood flows more easily through the vessels, including the capillaries. The other three choices are associated with increases in heart size and volume.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 227

9) During what phase of the general adaptation syndrome will a client see progressive increases in muscle size and strength?

a. Shock phaseb. Adaptation phasec. Alarm phased. Exhaustion phase

Explanation

b. Adaptation phaseThe adaptation phase, or resistance phase, generally begins around weeks four through six and represents major muscular adaptations (biochemical, mechanical, and structural). This phase is characterized by progressive increases in muscle size and strength.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 232

10) An individual is using a resistance band to perform very short-duration (less than 2 seconds per stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of eight repetitions. What flexibility-training technique is this person using?

a. Ballistic stretchingb. Dynamic stretchingc. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitationd. Active isolated stretching

Explanationd. Active isolated stretchingActive isolated stretching follows a design similar to a traditional strength-training workout. Instead of holding stretches for 15 to 30 seconds at a point of resistance (i.e., mild discomfort), stretches are never held for more than two seconds. The stretch is then released, the body segment returned to the starting position, and the stretch is repeated for several repetitions.ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 243

Quiz #6: Chapter 1 – Role and Scope of Practice for the Personal TrainerACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Most health benefits occur with at least __________ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity.

a. 60 minutes b. 75 minutesc. 150 minutesd. 180 minutes

Explanationc. 150 minutesMost health benefits occur with at least 150 minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, Chapter 1, p. 4

2) Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum?

a. They are able to provide detailed dietary planning to combat chronic illnessesb. They are at the top of the allied healthcare pyramid due to the extended time they spend with

clientsc. They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians’ general

recommendationsd. They are licensed professionals who can prescribe specific exercise programs

Explanationc. They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians’ general recommendationsWhile other members of the allied healthcare continuum might also give patients or clients guidelines for general exercise (e.g., “try to walk up to 30 minutes per day, most days of the week”), few of them actually teach clients how to exercise effectively. This is where personal trainers hold a unique position in the allied healthcare continuum.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, Chapter 1, p. 6

3) What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification?

a. To protect the public from harmb. To prove mastery of the professionc. To increase one’s earning potentiald. To provide hands-on experience

Explanation

a. To protect the public from harmThe primary purpose of a certification is to protect the public from harm by assessing if the professional can perform the job in a safe and effective manner. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 7

4) Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of “scope of practice”?

a. The legal range of services that professionals in a given filed can provideb. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplacec. The setting in which the services can be providedd. Guidelines or parameters that must be followed

Explanationb. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplaceA scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 7

5) According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalsePersonal trainers can design exercise programs once clients have been released from rehabilitation, but they cannot “rehabilitate” clients after injury.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 8

6) As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow __________ of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam.

a. 1 to 3 monthsb. 3 to 6 monthsc. 6 to 9 monthsd. 9 to 12 months

Explanationb. 3 to 6 monthsAs a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow three to six months of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 10

7) Diagnosing the cause of a client’s lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer’s scope of practice.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseFitness professionals must never “diagnose” a client’s condition or “prescribe” any treatment.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 11

8) To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of _____ hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certificate in ________________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.

a. 10; cardiopulmonary resuscitationb. 20; risk managementc. 20; cardiopulmonary resuscitationd. 30; risk management

Explanationc. 20; cardiopulmonary resuscitationACE certifications are valid for two years from the date earned, expiring on the last day of the month. To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certificate in cardiopulmonary resuscitation and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 12

9) What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer’s assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them?

a. Refer the client to the health club’s sales teamb. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physicianc. Check that the facility’s insurance policy covers the sale of these productsd. Stop training the client until he or she agrees to stop using these products

Explanationb. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physicianThe personal trainer can help the client understand that fitness goals can be reached without supplements and that supplements can have negative and potentially harmful side effects. If a client insists on using dietary supplements, the personal trainer should refer the client to a qualified physician or registered dietitian for guidance.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 14

10) Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament?

a. Recommending the use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medicationsb. Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his or her next tournamentc. Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the sorenessd. Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas

Explanationd. Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areaDiscussing the proper technique for icing the affected area is the appropriate response. The other options all fall outside the ACE scope of practice.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 15

Quiz #7: Chapter 2 – Principles of Adherence and MotivationACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Adherence is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseFor the purposes of a fitness professional, exercise adherence refers to voluntary and active involvement in an exercise program. Motivation is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 26

2) More than ____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.

a. 25b. 50c. 60d. 75

Explanationb. 50More than 50% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 26–27

3) Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for physical activity?

a. Personal attributesb. Physical attributesc. Environmental factorsd. Physical-activity factors

Explanationb. Physical attributesThe potential determinants for physical activity can be broken down into three categories:

• Personal attributes• Environmental factors• Physical-activity factors

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27

4) General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings?

a. Older adultsb. Menc. Those with fewer years of educationd. Those in a lower socioeconomic bracket

Explanationb. Men Men demonstrate higher and more consistent activity adherence than women. Lower levels of physical activity participation are seen with increasing age, fewer years of education, and low income.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27

5) What is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity?

a. Activity historyb. Obesity levelc. Cardiovascular disease statusd. Social support network

Explanationa. Activity historyActivity history is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable. In supervised exercise programs, past program participation is the most reliable predictor of current participation. This relationship between past participation and current participation is consistent across gender, obesity, and coronary heart disease status.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27–28

6) ________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program.

a. Perceived lack of timeb. Lack of access to facilitiesc. Lack of social supportd. Lack of improvement

Explanationa. Perceived lack of timePerceived lack of time is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program. The perception of not having enough time to exercise is likely a reflection of not being interested in or enjoying the activity, or not being committed to the activity program.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 28

7) Which of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to adhere to a supervised physical-activity program?

a. A highly motivator beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise programb. An individual who perceives his health to be poor and had been encouraged by his doctor to

exercisec. An obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are common in his

familyd. A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his

health

Explanationd. A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his healthA belief in personal control over health outcomes is a consistent predictor of unsupervised exercise activity participation among healthy adults. Regarding the other options, the drop-out rate in vigorous-intensity exercise programs is almost twice as high as in moderate-intensity activity programs; those who perceive their health to be poor are unlikely to start or adhere to an activity program; and obese individuals are typically less active than normal-weight individuals, and are less likely to adhere to supervised exercise programs.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27–29

8) Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one’s own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior?

a. Intrinsic motivationb. Self-efficacyc. Extrinsic motivationd. Locus of control

Explanationb. Self-efficacySelf-efficacy is defined as the belief in one’s own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 30

9) When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED?

a. Long-term goalsb. Outcome goalsc. Negative goalsd. Performance goals

Explanationc. Negative goalsSetting negative goals puts the focus on the behavior that should be avoided, not the behavior to be achieved. It is important that the client is thinking about achievement, not avoidance.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 33

10) What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse?

a. Enhancing the client’s assertivenessb. Developing a system of social supportc. Planning ahead and being preparedd. Signing behavioral contracts

Explanationc. Planning ahead and being preparedThe most important tool in dealing with a relapse is planning ahead and being prepared. Personal trainers should educate their clients about the potential occurrence of a relapse and prepare them in advance, so that they are able to get back on track with their activity programs soon after experiencing a relapse.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 34

Quiz #8: Chapter 3 – Communication and Teaching TechniquesACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Which of the following presents the four stages of the client–trainer relationship in their proper order?

a. Investigation, planning, action, rapportb. Rapport, investigation, planning, actionc. Rapport, planning, investigation, actiond. Planning, rapport, investigation, action

Explanationb. Rapport, investigation, planning, actionThe four stages of the client–trainer relationship, in their proper order, are rapport, investigation, planning, and action. The rapport stage involves setting a foundation of mutual understanding and trust; the investigation stage involves reviewing the client's health and fitness data and history; the planning stage involves designing an exercise program in partnership with the client; and the action stage is when the client begins exercising. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 40

2) A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseA loud, tense voice tends to make people nervous. Personal trainers should try to develop a voice that is firm and confident to communicate professionalism.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 42

3) Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer?

a. Standing with an open body positionb. Seated while leaning slightly forwardc. Standing with hands on hipsd. Seated behind a desk with legs crossed

Explanationc. Standing with hands on hipsAn open, well-balanced, erect body position communicates confidence, while a rigid, hands-on-hips stance may be interpreted as aggressive.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 42

4) What personality style does a client have if he scores high on the sociability scale and low on the dominance scale?

a. Deliberatorb. Directorc. Collaboratord. Expressor

Explanationc. CollaboratorCollaborators are high on the sociability scale and low on the dominance scale. They tend to be emotionally open, relationship oriented, and favor relationships over results.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 43

5) When working with a client whose personality style is classified as “expressor,” which of the following approaches would be the BEST option for a personal trainer?

a. Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client’s thoughts and provoke ideasb. Be clear, concise, and business-like; appeal to the need for action and problem-solvingc. Be candid, open and patient, personally interested and supportive, and goal orientedd. Provide consistent, accurate follow-ups; supply information to supply the need for detail

Explanationa. Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client’s thoughts and provoke ideasOffering incentives and rewards, stimulating the client’s thoughts, and provoking ideas are effective techniques when working with “expressors.” The other techniques listed are more effective when working with other common personality styles.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 43

6) A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points and feelings in a client’s communication is using which method of effective listening?

a. Encouragingb. Paraphrasingc. Reflectingd. Summarizing

Explanationc. ReflectingThe personal trainer can use the listening technique of reflecting to demonstrate understanding or seek clarification by trying to restate the main points and feelings in the client’s communication. The client can correct a conclusion if it is wrong, or explore the reflection in more depth if it is correct. Reflections should help to move the conversation in productive directions as well as indicate effective listening.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 47

7) “I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week” is an example of which type of goal?

a. SMART goalb. Process goalc. Product goald. Time-bound goal

Explanationb. Process goalA process goal is something that the client does, as opposed to something he or she achieves. Process goals are easy to track and provide short-term successes.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 48

8) Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client–trainer relationship?

a. Rapportb. Investigationc. Planningd. Action

Explanationc. PlanningMotivational interviewing refers to a method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to make a decision to change their behavior. Motivational interviewing may help clients feel the need to become more active and make a decision to start exercising. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 50–51

9) The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order?

a. Correct errors; provide reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving

b. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving

c. Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors

d. Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well

Explanationb. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improvingFeedback should do three things:

• Provide reinforcement for what was done well• Correct errors

• Motivate clients to continue practicing and improvingThe correcting of errors, which may be seen as the more “negative” point, should be sandwiched between reinforcement and motivation.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 54

10) Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning?

a. Cognitiveb. Associativec. Autonomousd. Affective

Explanationb. AssociativeIn the associative stage of learning, clients begin to master the basics and are ready for more specific feedback that will help them refine the motor skill.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 58

Quiz #9: Chapter 4 – Basics of Behavior Change and Health PsychologyACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem?

a. Transtheoretical model of behavioral changeb. Health belief modelc. Self-efficacy modeld. Stages-of-change model

Explanationb) Health belief modelThe health belief model predicts that people will engage in a health behavior (e.g., exercise) based on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 64

2) What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information?

a. Past performance experienceb. Imaginal experiencec. Vicarious experienced. Emotional state

Explanationa) Past performance experiencePast performance experience is the most influential source of self-efficacy information. Personal trainers should ask clients about their previous experiences with exercise, fitness facilities, and personal trainers. These previous experiences will strongly influence self-efficacy.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 66

3) People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa) TruePeople with low self-efficacy will be more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are non-threatening and easy to accomplish. They will display minimal effort to protect themselves in the face of a challenge—since failing when not working hard will be a lesser blow to their self-efficacy than failing when doing their best—and, if faced with too many setbacks, they are likely to lose faith, give up, and drop out of the program.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 67

4) A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual’s stage of change?

a. Contemplationb. Preparationc. Actiond. Maintenance

Explanationb) PreparationThe preparation stage is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program. Activity during the preparation stage may be a sporadic walk, or even a periodic visit to the gym, but it is inconsistent. People in the preparation stage are ready to adopt and live an active lifestyle.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 67

5) Which of the following intervention strategies would be LEAST APPROPRIATE when working with someone in the precontemplation stage?

a. Make inactivity a relevant issueb. Provide information about the risks of being inactive and the benefits of being activec. Provide information from multiple sources (e.g., news, posters, pamphlets, general health-

promotion material)d. Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys

Explanationd) Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoysThis intervention is most appropriate for someone in the preparation stage.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 69

6) ________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.

a. Processes of changeb. Self-efficacyc. Operant conditioningd. Decisional balance

Explanationd. Decisional balanceOne of the four components of the transtheoretical model, decisional balance refers to the number of pros and cons that an individual perceives about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 69

7) Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased?

a. Positive reinforcementb. Negative reinforcementc. Extinctiond. Punishment

Explanationc) ExtinctionExtinction occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 73

8) A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using?

a. Stimulus controlb. Observational learningc. Shapingd. Operant conditioning

Explanationa) Stimulus controlStimulus control refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy behaviors. Simple and effective stimulus-control strategies may include choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work; keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items for a workout; having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts; and writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 74

9) When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated?

a. Whenever the client has a relapse into inactivityb. After the client finishes his final purchased workoutc. Never; they should be permanent documentsd. When goals are met or programs are modified

Explanationd) When goals are met or programs are modifiedIt is important that a written agreement is reviewed and adjusted at all program-modification points. Similarly, the behavior contract must be revised and updated as goals are met and programs are modified.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 74

10) After several months of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client’s self-efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer provides to the client?

a. The trainer should increase the amount of external feedbackb. The amount of feedback should not changec. The trainer should taper the amount of external feedbackd. The trainer should immediately stop providing external feedback

Explanationc) The trainer should taper the amount of external feedbackAs self-efficacy and ability build, trainers should taper off the amount of external feedback they provide, encouraging the clients to start providing feedback for themselves. Clients must learn to reinforce their own behaviors by providing internal encouragement, error correction, and even punishment.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 75

Quiz #10: Chapter 5 – Introduction to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training ModelACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model in their proper order.

• Stability and mobility training• Movement training• Load training• Performance training

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. TrueThe proper order of the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is as follows: stability and mobility training, movement training, load training, and performance training. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 86

2) During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus?

a. Stability and mobility trainingb. Movement trainingc. Load trainingd. Performance training

Explanationc) Load trainingThe focus of phase 3, or load training, is on applying external resistances, or loads, to functional movement patterns. Phase 3 applies the traditional resistance-training methodology for endurance, hypertrophy (or strength-endurance), and strength to the client’s particular goals.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 88

3) A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance training will be working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorespiratory training.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. FalseWhile these two phases both represent phase 3 of their respective training components, it is important to understand that each client will progress from one phase to the next according to his or her unique

needs, goals, and available time to commit to training. Many clients will be at different phases of the two training components based on their current health and fitness levels.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 86

4) It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb) FalseNo assessments of muscular strength or endurance are required prior to designing and implementing an exercise program during this phase. Assessments that should be conducted early in this phase include basic assessments of posture, balance, movement, and range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 89

5) During which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced?

a. Phase 1b. Phase 2c. Phase 3d. Phase 4

Explanationc) Phase 3During phase 3, or load training, assessments of muscular strength and endurance are introduced to facilitate program design and quantify progress.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 90

6) No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase of cardiorespiratory training.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa) TrueNo assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase, since many of the clients who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 93

7) What is a PRIMARY goal of introducing interval training during phase 2 of a client’s cardiorespiratory training program?

a. To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exerciseb. To add variety to the program to avoid boredomc. To help the client exercise at intensities beyond the first ventilatory thresholdd. To increase the client’s adherence to the program by improving his or her mood state

Explanationa) To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exerciseThe goal of interval training will be to improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise performed at VT1, and to improve the client’s ability to utilize fat as a fuel source.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 93

8) A client who is in phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT Model is beginning to utilize the three-zone training model based on ventilatory threshold. Approximately what percentage of his time should be spent training between VT1 and VT2?

a. >80%b. 70–80%c. 10–20% d. <10%

Explanationd) <10%The full cardiorespiratory exercise program should be composed of:

• Zone 1 (at or below VT1): 70–80% of training time• Zone 2 (between VT1 and VT2): <10% of training time• Zone 3 (at or above VT2): 10–20% of training time

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 94

9) Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT Model generally have goals related to _____________.

a. Long-duration, moderate-intensity events requiring great enduranceb. Long-duration events of a nearly constant speed and intensityc. Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance eventsd. Short-duration, high-intensity events requiring explosive power but little endurance

Explanationc. Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance eventsClients working in this phase of cardiorespiratory training will be training for competition and have specific goals that relate to short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events, such as speeding up to stay with a pack in road cycling.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 95

10) What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?

a. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes

b. To move them through the various phases of the ACE IFT Model with the ultimate goal of improving fitness and performance

c. To reach the stage of resistance training during which external loads are introduced, as this will improve their performance of activities of daily living

d. To teach them the importance of daily exercise and continuing with their programs even during times of illness or discomfort

Explanationa. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successesThe most important goal with all clients is to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 95

Quiz #11: Chapter 6 – Building Rapport and the Initial Investigation StageACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the client’s goals and objectives.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb) FalseThe first objective when meeting a prospective client is to first build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual; gathering information on the client’s goals and objectives is secondary.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 100

2) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening?

a. Identifying the absence or presence of known diseaseb. Identifying the individual’s stage of behavioral change c. Identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from exercise or

physical activityd. Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically

supervised programs

Explanationb) Identifying the individual’s stage of behavioral change The purposes of the pre-participation screening include the following:

Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease

Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control

Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program

Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 105

3) Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who answers “yes” to the following questions on the PAR-Q?

“Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs (for example, water pills) for your blood pressure or heart c condition?”

“In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?”

a. Slowly and progressively start becoming more physically activeb. Take part in a fitness appraisal before beginning exercisec. Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisald. Delay becoming much more physically active until feeling better

Explanationc) Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisalIf a person answers “yes” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q, he or she should talk with a doctor by phone or in person BEFORE starting to become much more physically active or BEFORE having a fitness appraisal. He or she should also tell the doctor about the PAR-Q and which questions were answered YES.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 106

4) Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?

a. Body mass index of 28 kg/m2

b. HDL cholesterol of 66 mg/dLc. Serum cholesterol of 195 mg/dLd. Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg

Explanationd) Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHgSystolic blood pressure > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure > 90 mmHg, confirmed by measurements on at least two separate occasions, is considered to be a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 108

5) For which of the following clients would a medical exam and graded exercise test be recommended before training begins?

a. Low-risk client wanting to perform moderate exerciseb. Low-risk client wanting to perform vigorous exercisec. Moderate-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercised. High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise

Explanationd) High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exerciseA medical exam and GXT before exercise are recommended for moderate-risk clients engaged in vigorous exercise and high-risk clients engaged in moderate or vigorous exercise.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 109

6) Which of the following documents represents a client’s voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit against the personal trainer?

a. Informed consent formb. Release of liability waiverc. Behavioral contractd. Medical release form

Explanation

b) Release of liability waiverThis document is used to release a personal trainer from liability for injuries resulting from a supervised exercise program, and represents a client’s voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 110

7) After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscles surrounding the injury begin?

a. Two hoursb. Two daysc. Two weeksd. Two months

Explanationb. Two daysDisuse atrophy of the muscles surrounding an injury may begin after just two days of inactivity.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 117

8) Which of these medications causes a dose-related decrease in a person’s resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates?

a. Beta blockersb. Antihistaminesc. Antidepressantsd. Diuretics

Explanationa) Beta blockersBeta blockers inhibit the effects of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) throughout the body and reduce resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 120

9) Which medication has no primary affect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to water and electrolyte imbalances?

a. ACE inhibitorsb. Calcium channel blockersc. Diureticsd. Bronchodilators

Explanationc) DiureticsDiuretics are medications that increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. They have no primary effect on the heart rate, but they can cause water and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 121

10) Which of the following must be included as part of every client’s pre-participation screening?

a. Body-composition testingb. Movement screensc. Static posture assessmentd. Health-risk appraisal

Explanationd) Health-risk appraisalRegardless of the assessments selected and how the assessment timelines are structured, trainers should remember that a health-risk appraisal must be included as a pre-participation screen.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 121–122

11) Which of the following is NOT cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory exercise test?

a. Leg crampingb. Complaints of severe fatiguec. Nausea and lightheadednessd. Heavy breathing due to intense exercise

Explanationd) Heavy breathing due to intense exerciseWhile shortness of breath, wheezing, and difficult or labored breathing are on the list of symptoms that call for an immediate end to an exercise test, heavy breathing due to the intensity of the exercise is not.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 122

12) Which of the following is NOT a reason that the average resting heart rate for women is higher than that of men?

a. Smaller heart chamber sizeb. Lower sympathetic drivec. Lower blood volumed. Lower hemoglobin levels

Explanationb) Lower sympathetic driveThe higher values found in the female RHR are attributed in part to:

• Smaller heart chamber size• Lower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body• Lower hemoglobin levels in women

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 125

13) _______________ represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle.

a. Resting blood pressureb. Maximal blood pressurec. Systolic blood pressured. Diastolic blood pressure

Explanationd) Diastolic blood pressureDiastolic blood pressure represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle, or between beats when the heart relaxes. It is the minimum pressure that exists within one cardiac cycle.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 125

14) A client’s blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the personal trainer classify this client?

a. Normalb. Prehypertensionc. Stage 1 hypertensiond. Stage 2 hypertension

Explanationb) PrehypertensionIndividuals are classified as prehypertensive when systolic blood pressure is 120–139 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure is 80–89 mmHg.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 128

15) Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived exertion scale is CORRECT?

a. When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion.

b. When using the 0–10 scale, an RPE of 6 corresponds to a heart rate of 60 bpmc. When using the 6–20 scale, an RPE of 11 is considered “somewhat hard”d. Most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale to be very easy and intuitive

Explanationa. When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion. Regarding the other choices, the 0–10 RPE scale does not directly correspond with heart rate, an RPE of 11 on the 6–20 scale is considered “fairly light,” and most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale difficult, as they find any level of exercise to be fairly hard.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 129

Quiz #12: Chapter 7 – Functional Assessments: Posture, Movement, Core, Balance, and FlexibilityACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Which of the following is a non-correctible factor related to postural deviations?

a. Side dominanceb. Structural deviationsc. Lack of joint stabilityd. Lack of joint mobility

Explanationb. Structural deviationsThe non-correctible factors related to postural deviations are as follows:

• Congenital conditions (e.g., scoliosis)• Some pathologies (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)• Structural deviations (e.g., tibial or femoral torsion, femoral anteversion)• Certain types of trauma (e.g., surgery, injury, amputations)

The other choices are correctible factors.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 136

2) When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is best to focus on enhancing muscular strength before shifting the focus to improving the client’s posture.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseGiven the propensity many individuals have toward poor posture, an initial focus of trainers should be to restore stability and mobility within the body and attempt to “straighten the body before strengthening it.”ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 137

3) Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle ________________.

a. Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femurb. Causes a lengthening of the calf muscles and limits ankle dorsiflexionc. Has little effect on the rest of the body’s kinetic chaind. Moves the calcaneus into inversion, lifting the inside of the heel slightly off the ground

Explanationa. Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femurAnkle pronation forces internal rotation at the knee and places additional stresses on some knee ligaments and the integrity of the joint itself. Additionally, as pronation tends to move the calcaneus into

eversion, this may actually lift the outside of the heel slightly off the ground (moving the ankle into plantarflexion). In turn, this may tighten the calf muscles and potentially limit ankle dorsiflexion.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 140

4) The coupling relationship between tight __________ and __________ is defined as the lower-cross syndrome.

a. Rectus abdominis; hamstringsb. Hip flexors; erector spinaec. Rectus abdominis; erector spinaed. Hip flexors; hamstrings

Explanationb. Hip flexors; erector spinaeTight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles, producing an anterior pelvic tilt. This coupling relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as the lower-cross syndrome. A posterior pelvic tilt is caused by tightness in the rectus abdominis and hamstrings.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 142

5) Which pelvic tilt screen may be invalid if the individual exhibits well-developed gluteal muscles?

a. The relationship of the ASIS and PSISb. The appearance of lordosis in the lumbar spinec. The alignment of the pubic bone to the ASISd. The degree of flexion or hyperextension in the knees

Explanationb. The appearance of lordosis in the lumbar spineThis technique may be invalid if an individual exhibits well-developed gluteal muscles, which will create a larger space and a perception of increased lordosis.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 143

6) An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. TrueAn elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle, while a depressed shoulder may present with more forward rounding of the scapula.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 144–145

7) When performing a shoulder screen and observing the client from a posterior view, a trainer notices an outward protrusion of the vertebral borders, but not the inferior angles, of the scapulae. What deviation is most likely being observed?

a. Scapular protractionb. Kyphosisc. Sway-back postured. Winged scapulae

Explanationa. Scapular protractionNoticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed “scapular protraction,” while noticeable protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed “winged scapulae.”ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 145

8) What is the objective of conducting clearing tests prior to the performance of movement screens?

a. To determine the client’s health and fitness levelb. To identify any movements that exacerbate painc. To identify clients who are unable to perform basic movements without losing balanced. To address any static postural deviations prior to introducing movement

Explanationb. To identify any movements that exacerbate painPrior to administering any movement screens, trainers should screen their clients for any potential contraindications associated with pain by using basic clearing tests. The objective when conducting clearing tests is to ensure that pain is not exacerbated by movement. Any client who exhibits pain during a clearing test should be referred to his or her physician and should not perform additional assessments for that part of the body.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 150

9) During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak?

a. Stance-leg hip flexorsb. Gluteus medius and maximusc. Hip adducts and tensor fascia lataed. Rectus abdominis and hip extensors

Explanationd. Rectus abdominis and hip extensorsIf a client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward torso lean, he or she likely has overactive or tight stance-leg hip flexors and underactive or weak rectus abdominis and hip extensors.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 154

10) During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight?

a. Rectus femorisb. Iliopsoasc. Primary hip flexorsd. Hamstrings

Explanationa. Rectus femorisWhen a client is unable to flex the knee to 80 degrees, a personal trainer should suspect tightness in the rectus femoris, which does not allow the knee to bend.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 161

11) In your notes regarding a client performing the external and internal shoulder rotation tests, you recorded that the client displayed potential tightness in the infraspinatus and teres major. What might you have observed during the test that led to that conclusion?

a. Client externally rotated the forearms 90 degrees to touch the matb. Client displayed discrepancies between arms when externally rotating the forearms c. Client internally rotated the forearms 70 degrees toward the matd. Client displayed discrepancies between arms when internally rotating the forearms

Explanationd. Client displayed discrepancies between arms when internally rotating the forearms If a client displays an inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees, or shows discrepancies between the limbs, there are two possible reasons: potential tightness in the lateral rotators of the arm (i.e., infraspinatus and teres minor) or the joint capsule and ligaments may be tight and limit rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 165

12) Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing the sharpened Romberg test?

a. The client’s feet move on the floorb. The client’s eyes openc. The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural controld. The client’s arms move from the folded position

Explanationc. The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural controlDuring the sharpened Romberg test, the trainer should continue to time the client’s performance until one of the following occurs: the client loses postural control and balance, the client’s feet move on the floor, the client’s eyes open, the client’s arms move from the folded position, or the client exceeds 60 seconds with good postural control. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 167

13) A male client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds. How would you rate this client’s performance?

a. Excellentb. Goodc. Faird. Poor

Explanationb. GoodA male client who is able to hold the stork-stand position for 41 to 50 seconds is categorized as “good.” ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 168

14) Apley’s scratch test is usually performed in conjunction with which of the following pairs of tests?

a. Sharpened Romberg test and stork-stand balance testb. Thomas test and passive straight-leg raise testc. Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerusd. Blood pressure cuff test and muscle-length test

Explanationc. Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerusApley’s scratch test involves multiple and simultaneous movements of the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joints in all three planes. This represents a challenge in evaluating shoulder movement and identifying movement limitations. To identify the source of the limitation, trainers can first perform various isolated movements in single planes to locate potentially problematic movements. Consequently, the scratch test is completed in conjunction with the shoulder flexion-extension test and the internal-external rotation test of the humerus.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 162

15) Which of the following joint movements from the anatomical position has an average range of motion of 0 degrees in healthy adults?

a. Lumbar rotationb. Elbow extensionc. Subtalar inversiond. Hip extension

Explanationb. Elbow extensionWhile elbow flexion has an average range of motion of 145 degrees, extension is not possible at the elbow.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 158

Quiz #13: Chapter 8 – Physiological AssessmentsACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

a. Monitor her progress closely and stop the test if her pain worsensb. Allow her to complete the test, as treadmill tests measure cardiorespiratory fitness, not

muscular endurancec. Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professionald. Have her rest for a few minutes and rehydrate before continuing the test from the stopping

point

Explanationc. Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professionalDuring the administration of any exercise test involving exertion, trainers must always be aware of identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare professional. These symptoms include:

• Onset of angina, chest pain, or angina-like symptoms• Significant drop (>10 mmHg) in systolic blood pressure (SBP) despite an increase in exercise

intensity• Excessive rise in blood pressure (BP): SBP >250 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) >115

mmHg• Excess fatigue, shortness of breath, or wheezing (does not include heavy breathing due to

intense exercise)• Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration,

especially around the mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skin• Increased nervous system symptoms (e.g., ataxia, dizziness, confusion, syncope)• Leg cramping or claudication• Subject requests to stop• Physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue• Failure of testing equipment

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 174

2) Which of the following is NOT one of three sites used when performing skinfold measurements on a male client?

a. Chestb. Thighc. Abdomen d. Triceps

Explanationd. TricepsFor men, the three skinfold sites are the chest, thigh, and abdomen. The triceps, thigh, and suprailium are the three skinfold sites for women.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 178

3) After performing skinfold measurements with a male client, his body-fat percentage is calculated to be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat percentage?

a. Athleteb. Fitnessc. Averaged. Obese

Explanationd. ObeseIn males, a body-fat percentage of 25% or higher is considered obese.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 184

4) _______________ provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height.

a. BMIb. DEXAc. MRId. NIR

Explanationa. BMIBMI, or body mass index, is an anthropometric measure that provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height. The other three options are forms of body-composition assessment.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 185

5) Which of these assessments measures a client’s anaerobic capacity?

a. Which of these assessments measures a client’s anaerobic capacity?b. Vertical jump testc. Kneeling overhead tossd. 300-yard shuttle run

Explanationd. 300-yard shuttle runThis test assesses anaerobic capacity or the highest rate of sustainable power over a predetermined distance. The other three tests assess a client’s anaerobic power, which involves a single repetition or event and represents the maximal amount of power the body can generate.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 235

6) What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client’s health is considered at risk?

a. 0.79b. 0.82c. 0.86d. 0.95

Explanationc. 0.86A female client’s health is considered at risk when her WHR is at or above 0.86. For men, that threshold is 0.95.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 188

7) Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of _______________ during maximal exercise.

a. Blood oxygen levelsb. Exhaled airc. Core temperatured. Caloric expenditure

Explanationb. Exhaled airVO2max, an excellent measure of cardiorespiratory efficiency, is an estimation of the body’s ability to use oxygen for energy, and is closely related to the functional capacity of the heart. Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of exhaled air during maximal exercise.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 189

8) A personal trainer can accurately estimate VO2max from a client’s heart-rate response to exercise.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. TrueResearch demonstrates that as workload increases, so do heart rate and oxygen uptake. In fact, heart rate and oxygen uptake exhibit a fairly linear relationship to workload. This relationship allows the personal trainer to accurately estimate VO2max from the heart-rate response to exercise with fairly good accuracy.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 189

9) If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity?

a. 0.6 mL/kg/min

b. 6 mL/kg/minc. 10.5 mL/kg/mind. 21 mL/kg/min

Explanation d. 21 mL/kg/min1 MET is equal to 3.5 mL/kg/min, so 6 METs = 6 x 3.5 mL/kg/min = 21 mL/kg/minACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 191

10) Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a client with asthma?

a. Cycle ergometer testb. Treadmill testc. Ventilatory threshold testd. Step test

Explanationc. Ventilatory threshold testThis type of testing is not recommended for:

• Individuals with certain breathing problems [asthma or other chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)]

• Individuals prone to panic/anxiety attacks, as the labored breathing may create discomfort or precipitate an attack

• Those recovering from a recent respiratory infectionACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 202

11) The end-point of the VT2 threshold test is determined by the client’s ability to recite the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseThe end-point of the talk test for VT1 (not the VT2 threshold test) is determined by the client’s ability to recite the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 202

12) Individuals who are short in stature may not be good candidates for which type of testing?

a. Cycle ergometer testsb. Treadmill testsc. Ventilatory threshold testsd. Step tests

Explanationd. Step testsIndividuals who are short in stature are not good candidates for step testing, as they may have trouble with the step height, especially during the McArdle step test.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 208

13) Which of the three tests included in McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery is a timed test involving a static, isometric contraction of the anterior muscles, stabilizing the spine until the individual exhibits fatigue and can no longer hold the assumed position?

a. Trunk flexor endurance testb. Trunk lateral endurance testc. Trunk extensor endurance test

Explanationa. Trunk flexor endurance testThe flexor endurance test is the first in the battery of three tests that assesses muscular endurance of the deep core muscles. It is a timed test involving a static, isometric contraction of the anterior muscles, stabilizing the spine until the individual exhibits fatigue and can no longer hold the assumed position.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 217

14) A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-repetition maximum of 225 pounds on the bench press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise is __________.

a. 225 poundsb. 0.84c. 35 poundsd. 1.18

Explanationd. 1.18 Relative strength is the maximum force a person is able to exert in relation to his or her body weight and is calculated using the formula: Relative strength = Absolute strength/Body weight, where Absolute strength is defined as the one-repetition maximum. In this case, Relative strength = 225 pounds/190 pounds = 1.18ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 221

15) A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills?

a. 300-yard shuttle runb. 40-yard dashc. Pro agility testd. Margaria-Kalamen stair climb

Explanationc. Pro agility testThe pro agility test quickly and simply measures an individual’s ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again. In fact, the National Football League and USA Women’s Soccer Team use this assessment as part of their battery of tests.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 237

Quiz #14: Chapter 9 – Functional Programming for Stability-Mobility and MovementACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Which of the following joints favors stability over mobility?

a. Ankleb. Kneec. Thoracic spined. Glenohumeral

Explanationb. KneeIn terms of mobility and stability of joints along the kinetic chain, the knee favors stability over mobility, while the other three options favor mobility.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 247

2) Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the anterior, inferior surface of the pelvis in an effort to maintain a neutral pelvic position?

a. Erector spinaeb. Hamstringsc. Rectus abdominisd. Hip flexors

Explanationc. Rectus abdominisMaintenance of a neutral pelvic position is achieved via opposing force-couples between four major muscle groups that all have attachments on the pelvis. The rectus abdominis pulls upward on the anterior, inferior pelvis, while the hip flexors pull downward on the anterior, superior pelvis. On the posterior surface, the hamstrings pull downward on the posterior, inferior pelvis, while the erector spinae pull upward on the posterior, superior pelvis.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 250

3) When trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by reestablishing appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a personal trainer should begin by targeting which region of the body?

a. Lumbar spineb. Thoracic spinec. Hipsd. Shoulders

Explanationa. Lumbar spineThe process begins by targeting an important proximal region of the body, the lumbar spine, which encompasses the body’s center of mass and the core. As this region is primarily stable, programming should begin by first promoting stability of the lumbar region through the action and function of the core. Once an individual demonstrates the ability to stabilize this region, the program should then progress to the more distal segments.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 251

4) After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _______________.

a. Static balanceb. Mobility and stability in the distal extremitiesc. Stability of the scapulothoracic spined. Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine

Explanationd. Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spineA programming sequence that promotes stability and mobility within the body will adhere to the basic principle that proximal stability facilitates distal mobility. With this in mind, the next step after establishing stability in the lumbar spine is to address mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 252

5) Which stretching technique is MOST appropriate for deconditioned clients to perform DURING a workout?

a. Dynamic stretchingb. Active isolated stretchingc. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitationd. Myofascial release

Explanationb. Active isolated stretchingActive isolated stretching is the best choice for deconditioned clients during a workout. Dynamic stretching is only appropriate for conditioned clients and athletes, while myofascial release and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation are more suitable during the warm-up and cool-down.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 253

6) Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15 to 60 seconds?

a. Dynamic stretchingb. Static stretchingc. Active isolated stretchingd. Ballistic stretching

Explanationb. Static stretching Static stretches should be taken to the point of tension, with clients performing a minimum of four repetitions and holding each repetition for 15 to 60 seconds.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 253

7) A skilled performance athlete who has established good flexibility would like to address functional flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two types of stretching would be the BEST choices for this client?

a. Active isolated stretching and dynamic stretchingb. Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretchingc. Static stretching and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitationd. Myofascial release and active isolated stretching

Explanationb. Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretchingDynamic and ballistic stretches are appropriate during a pre-exercise stretching routine for athletes interested in improving their functional flexibility.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 253

8) Which of the following muscles is part of the outer layer of the core?

a. Multifidib. Diaphragmc. Quadratus lumborumd. Latissimus dorsi

Explanationd. Latissimus dorsiThe outermost layer consists of larger, more powerful muscles that span many vertebrae and are primarily responsible for generating gross movement and forces within the trunk. Muscles in this region include the rectus abdominis, erector spinae, external and internal obliques, iliopsoas, and latissimus dorsi.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 255

9) The strengthening of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of maximal voluntary contraction in a supported, isolated environment.

a. True b. False

Explanationa. TrueThe strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of MVC in a supported, more isolated environment. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 254

10) A key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseDuring open kinetic chain (OKC) movements, a key role of the serratus anterior is to control movement of the scapulae against a more fixed ribcage. During closed kinetic chain movements, however, where the distal segment is more fixed, a key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 274

11) The center of mass is generally slightly lower in men due to their increased body mass and narrower stance.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseThe location of the center of mass varies in individuals by body shape, size, and gender, being slightly higher in males due to greater quantities of musculature in the upper body.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 281

12) Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise?

a. Narrowing the base of supportb. Lowering the center of massc. Looking up and down during the exercised. Closing the eyes

Explanationb. Lowering the center of massLowering the center of mass will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise, while the other choices will all increase the balance challenge.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 283

13) Standing on a single leg and taking a step mandates stability in each of the following regions EXCEPT the __________.

a. Stance legb. Hipc. Torsod. Raised leg

Explanationd. Raised leg

Standing efficiently on a single leg mandates stability in the stance-leg, hip, and torso, while simultaneously exhibiting mobility in the raised leg if stepping is involved.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 292

14) Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility?

a. Pushing movementsb. Bend-and-lift movementsc. Rotational movementsd. Pulling movements

Explanationc. Rotational movementsThe need for thoracic mobility is greater during rotational movements than with pushing and pulling movements, given the three-dimensional nature of the movement patterns. Performing these exercises without thoracic mobility or lumbar stability may compromise the shoulders and hips, and increase the likelihood for injury.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 304

15) Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement pattern during the movement-training phase?

a. Wood-chopb. Unilateral rowc. Lunged. Hip hinge

Explanationa. Wood-chopThe wood-chop is a rotational movement. The unilateral row is a pulling movement, the lunge is a single-leg movement, and the hip hinge is a bend-and-lift movement.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 304–306

Quiz #15: Chapter 10 – Resistance Training: Programming and ProgressionsACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and movement speed?

a. Muscular enduranceb. Muscular powerc. Absolute strengthd. Relative strength

Explanationb. Muscular powerMuscular power is the product of muscular strength and movement speed. Assuming that an individual’s movement speed remains the same, an increase in muscular strength is accompanied by a proportional increase in muscular power. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 317

2) Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a client’s exercise program?

a. Balanceb. Flexibilityc. Body compositiond. Aerobic capacity

Explanationa. BalanceThe skill-related parameters are as follows: power, speed, balance, agility, coordination, and reactivity. The other three options are health-related parameters.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 318

3) Training frequency is inversely related to both training __________ and training __________.

a. Volume; typeb. Type; intensityc. Volume; intensityd. Type; duration

Explanationc. Volume; intensityTraining frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity. Less vigorous exercise sessions produce less muscle microtrauma, require less time for tissue remodeling, and can be performed more frequently. More vigorous exercise sessions produce more muscle microtrauma, require more time for tissue remodeling, and must be performed less frequently for optimum results.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 318

4) A client’s resistance-training regimen involves performing four sets of each exercise, with each set containing four repetitions. This training volume BEST addresses which training goal?

a. Muscular hypertrophyb. Muscular endurancec. Muscular strengthd. General muscle fitness

Explanationc. Muscular strengthMuscular strength is addressed with any training regimen involving the performance of two to six sets of six or fewer repetitions.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 321

5) What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training protocol?

a. Adding resistance in 5% incrementsb. Adding repetitions to the setc. Adding sets to the workoutd. Reducing the rest intervals

Explanationb. Adding repetitions to the setThe double-progressive strength-training protocol may be used with any repetition range. The first progression is adding repetitions, and the second progression is adding resistance in 5% increments.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 324

6) According the principle of reversibility, a client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength at about __________ that it was gained

a. The same rateb. Twice the ratec. One-tenth the rated. One-half the rate

Explanationd. One-half the rateA client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength at about one-half the rate that it was gained. For example, if an individual increased his or her leg press strength by 50% over a 10-week training period, he or she would lose half of that strength gain after 10 weeks of no resistance exercise, and all of his or her strength gain after 20 weeks without training.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 326

7) After progressing to the load-training phase of the ACE IFT Model, a client has mastered the stability and mobility exercises from the previous phases and no longer needs to include them in each workout.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseRegardless of the specific objective of the load-training program, it is recommended that stability and mobility exercises be included in the warm-up and cool-down activities.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 333

8) What aspect of muscular fitness is BEST addressed by a client adhering to the following regimen?• Frequency: Provide at least 72 hours recovery time between exercises for the same muscle

groups• Intensity: Between 70 and 80% of maximum resistance, reaching fatigue between 50 and 70

seconds• Repetitions: Eight to 12• Sets: Three to four sets with 30 to 60 seconds rest between successive training sets• Type: A combination of multijoint and single-joint exercises using various techniques, including

breakdown training and assisted training

a. Muscular hypertrophyb. Muscular strengthc. Muscular powerd. Muscular endurance

Explanationa. Muscular hypertrophyThis workout program would best address muscular hypertrophy. Muscle hypertrophy training typically involves lower weightloads and higher repetitions than muscular-strength training, but higher weightloads and lower repetitions than muscular-endurance training. The recommended training intensity for muscle hypertrophy is about 70 to 80% of maximum resistance (or a repetition range of eight to 12).ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 338

9) A plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?

a. Muscular hypertrophyb. Muscular strengthc. Muscular powerd. Muscular endurance

Explanationc. Muscular power

To improve the production of muscular force and power, plyometric exercise can be implemented. Plyometric exercise incorporates quick, powerful movements and involves the stretch-shortening cycle [an active stretch (eccentric contraction) of a muscle followed by an immediate shortening (concentric contraction) of that same muscle].ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 343

10) Which of the following types of plyometric drills provides the highest intensity?

a. Multiple linear jumpsb. Jumps in placec. Hops and boundsd. Multidirectional jumps

Explanationc. Hops and bounds Hops and bounds are the most intense of the options listed. Hops involve taking off and landing with the same foot, while bounds involve the process of alternating feet during the take-off and landing. Hops and bounds emphasize horizontal speed and are performed repeatedly with no rest between actions.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 344 & 346

Quiz #16: Chapter 11 – Cardiorespiratory Training: Programming and ProgressionsACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Most health benefits occur with at least __________ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity.

a. 60 minutesb. 75 minutesc. 150 minutesd. 180 minutes

Explanationc. 150 minutesMany of the recommendations from the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans are derived from the knowledge that most health benefits occur with at least 150 minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity and that the benefits of physical activity far outweigh the possibility of adverse outcomes.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 374

2) A client performs regular moderate- to vigorous-intensity activity at 85% of his maximum heart rate. What is his fitness classification?

a. Poor/fairb. Fair/averagec. Average/goodd. Good/excellent

Explanationc. Average/goodAn individual in this category will perform “habitual physical activity: Regular moderate-to-vigorousIntensity” at 80–91% of maximum heart rate and 65–80% of %HRR/VO2max or VO2R.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 377

3) During the talk test, a client is able to speak, but not very comfortably. At approximately what intensity is this client working?

a. Below VT1b. Just above VT1c. Just below VT2d. Above VT2

Explanationb. Just above VT1Studies in a variety of populations have demonstrated that the talk test is a very good marker of VT1. Typically, below the VT1, people will respond to any of a number of speech-provoking stimuli (normal

conversation, a structured interview, reciting a standard paragraph) by stating that they can speak comfortably. Above VT1, but below a second metabolic marker called the second ventilatory threshold (VT2), they will be able to speak, but not comfortably.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 382

4) In which zone of the three-zone training model is an individual exercising if he or she is working at a heart rate equal to his or her second ventilatory threshold?

a. Zone 1b. Zone 2c. Zone 3

Explanationc. Zone 3Zone 3 reflects heart rates at or above VT2, while zone 1 reflects heart rates below VT1 and zone 2 reflects heart rates from VT1 to just below VT2. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 385

5) A client is performing 250 minutes of exercise each week and has a weekly caloric expenditure of approximately 1,700 calories. What is this client’s physical fitness classification?

a. Poor-fairb. Fair-averagec. Average-goodd. Good-excellent

Explanationb. Fair-averageA client in the “fair-average” category will be exercising 30–90 minutes/day and 200–300 minutes/week, and will be expending between 1,500 and 2,000 calories each week. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 386

6) Which exercise variable is it MOST appropriate for a personal trainer to manipulate in the early stages of an exercise program?

a. Durationb. Intensityc. Frequencyd. Type

Explanationa. DurationExercise duration is probably the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially, building the exercise session by 10%, or five to 10 minutes every week or two over the first four to six weeks. Thereafter, and once adherence is developed, trainers can implement progressions by increasing exercise frequency and then exercise intensity.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 387

7) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client be working at an RPE of 3 to 4?

a. Phase 1b. Phase 2c. Phase 3d. Phase 4

Explanationa. Phase 1During phase 1, training should focus on steady-state exercise in zone 1, which can be gauged by the client’s ability to talk (below talk test threshold) and/or work at an RPE of 3 to 4 (moderate to somewhat hard).ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 394

8) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a trainer administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2?

a. Phase 1b. Phase 2c. Phase 3d. Phase 4

Explanationc. Phase 3During phase 3, the focus is on designing programs to help clients who have endurance performance goals and/or are performing seven or more hours of cardiorespiratory exercise per week. This is the most appropriate time to administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 394

9) Stop-and-go game-type activities are an appropriate choice for both youth and older adult exercisers.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseWhile youth often excel at and enjoy these activities, older adults are generally less tolerant of stop-and-go game-type activities (along with heavy training loads, rapid increases in training load, and single-mode exercise).ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 406

10) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should low zone 2 intervals be introduced into a client’s program?

a. Phase 1b. Phase 2c. Phase 3d. Phase 4

Explanationb. Phase 2This phase of cardiorespiratory training is dedicated to enhancing the client’s aerobic efficiency by progressing the program through increased duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when possible, and the introduction of zone 2 intervals.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 397

Quiz #17: Chapter 13 – Mind-Body ExerciseACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Which form of mind-body exercise is BEST described as a form of moving meditation?

a. Niab. Yogac. Tai chid. Pilates

Explanationc. Tai chiTai chi, the martial art derivative of qigong, is best described as a moving meditation.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 454

2) Which type of yoga program is BEST suited for individuals who are new to yoga?

a. Restorative yogab. Integral yogac. Bikram yogad. Ashtanga yoga

Explanationa. Restorative yogaThis style of hatha yoga is perhaps most appropriate for those who are just embarking on a yoga program because of the use of props and the elementary nature of the poses.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 459

3) Which type of yoga is also known as “power yoga”?

a. Anusara yogab. Ashtanga yogac. Viniyogad. Kripalu yoga

Explanationb. Ashtanga yogaThe asanas in Ashtanga yoga are sequenced in groups of poses that range from moderate to very difficult. The sequence pace and pose difficulty is what often characterizes Ashtanga as “power yoga.”ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 462

4) Which term, also the name of a type of yoga, is synonymous with what is also called “serpent power,” or the coiled-up energy contained in the body?

a. Bikramb. Kundalinic. Kripalud. Anusara

Explanationb. KundaliniAlso called the yoga of awareness, kundalini yoga’s principal purpose is to awaken the serpent power (kundalini, or coiled-up energy) with postures, breath control, chanting, and meditation.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 462

5) Which form of tai chi is the most practiced in the West today?

a. Original Chen styleb. Chang stylec. Yang styled. Wu style

Explanationc. Yang styleOriginated by Yang Luchan in the 1800s, the Yang form is the most widely practiced form in the West today. The original Yang form consists of 108 movements (Yang Long Form); however, the Yang 24–Short Form is a popular modification practiced today.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 466

6) An older adult client who is interested in trying mind-body exercise has decided that tai chi might be the best fit for her needs and abilities. Which form of tai chi would you recommend?

a. Original Chen styleb. Chang stylec. Wu styled. Sun style

Explanationd. Sun styleBecause the sun style involves a higher stance than other forms, it is often the easiest for older adults to learn. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 466

7) Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise involves floor work and as well as work done on a machine called a reformer?

a. Niab. Pilatesc. Alexander Techniqued. Feldenkrais Method

Explanationb. PilatesPilates is based on the idea that there is a core set of postural muscles that help to keep the body balanced and are essential to providing good support to the spine. This method is divided into two modalities, floor/mat work and work on a Reformer, a piece of resistance equipment originally developed by Joseph H. Pilates.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 466–467

8) Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise includes a moderate-level aerobic component that fosters spontaneity?

a. Niab. Pilatesc. Alexander Techniqued. Feldenkrais Method

Explanationa. NiaUnlike other mind-body exercise programs, Nia also includes a moderate-level aerobic component to address cardiorespiratory endurance. The aerobic segment is designed to foster creativity and spontaneity rather than strict adherence to standard group movement patterns.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 468

9) One of the means of objectively assessing the success of a mind-body exercise program is to record baseline and serial blood-pressure measurements.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. TrueBaseline and serial resting blood pressure measurement is also an accepted outcome measure responsive to four to six weeks of mind-body exercise—especially if the participant has a resting blood pressure in the prehypertension or higher range (i.e., >120/80 mmHg).ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 469

10) __________ is the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention, and exhalation.

a. Asanab. Sivanandac. Viniyogad. Pranayama

Explanationd. PranayamaIn the yogic and qigong traditions, breathing functions as an intermediary between the mind and body. Pranayama (the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention, and exhalation) is often practiced in conjunction with meditation and yoga asanas but can stand by itself as an important mind-body exercise method. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 463

Quiz #18: Chapter 14 – Exercise and Special PopulationsACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) Which of the following is NOT a common manifestation of atherosclerosis?

a. Strokeb. Arrhythmiasc. Anginad. Heart attack

Explanationb. ArrhythmiasAtherosclerosis is the underlying cause of cerebral and peripheral vascular diseases. Manifestations of atherosclerosis include angina, heart attack, stroke, and intermittent claudication.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 481

2) During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and balance and, when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

a. Myocardial infarctionb. Claudicationc. Diabetesd. Stroke

Explanationd. StrokeThe warning signs of a stroke are as follows:

Sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arms, or legs Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or understanding others Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes Sudden walking problems, dizziness, or loss of balance and coordination Sudden severe headache with no known cause

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 485

3) A client’s physician provides the following guideline regarding the intensity of exercise for a new client: “An RPE of 11 to 16 (6 to 20 scale) is the preferred exercise intensity.” With which condition is this client MOST likely coping?

a. Hypertensionb. Cancerc. Type 2 diabetesd. Fibromyalgia

Explanationc. Type 2 diabetes

Individuals with type 2 diabetes can exercise at a moderate intensity of 11 to 16 on the 6 to 20 ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) scale. The other three options all require a light to moderate intensity of 9 to 13 on the RPE scale.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 493

4) A male client brings a form from his primary care physician reporting the following test results: Waist circumference: 41 inches Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 38 mg/dL Blood pressure: 128/80 mmHg Fasting blood glucose: 93 mg/dL

This client currently has the metabolic syndrome.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseThe metabolic syndrome is defined as the presence of three or more of the following components:

Elevated waist circumference Men >40 inches (102 cm) Women >35 inches (88 cm)

Elevated triglycerides > 150 mg/dL

Reduced HDL cholesterol Men <40 mg/dL Women <50 mg/dL

Elevated blood pressure > 130/85 mmHg

Elevated fasting blood glucose > 100 mg/dL

This client has only two of these components (elevated waist circumference and reduced HDL cholesterol).ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 494

5) A client’s physician provides the following guideline regarding the mode of exercise for a new client: “Swimming is the recommended mode of exercise; upper-body resistance-training exercises are not appropriate.” With which of the following conditions is this client MOST likely coping?

a. Osteoporosisb. Arthritisc. Asthmad. Fibromyalgia

Explanationc. AsthmaSwimming may be particularly beneficial for individuals with asthma because it allows them to inhale the moist air just above the surface of the water. For some clients with asthma, upper-body exercises such as arm cranking, rowing, and cross-country skiing may not be appropriate because of the higher ventilation demands.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 494

6) Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with which of the following diseases or disorders?

a. Osteoporosisb. Diabetesc. Arthritisd. Low-back pain

Explanationa. OsteoporosisFor clients with osteoporosis, the mechanical stress associated with weightbearing or resistance-training activities produces strain on bone tissue and stimulates bone deposition and resulting gains in bone mass and strength.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 502

7) For clients with which of the following diseases or disorders is it MOST important to develop a “regular” pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise?

a. Low-back painb. Chronic fatigue syndromec. Fibromyalgiad. Cancer

Explanationb. Chronic fatigue syndromeWhen working with clients with CFS, the goal is to develop a “regular” pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise. Low-intensity exercise is recommended.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 509

8) How often should low-back exercises be performed in order to yield the maximum benefit?

a. 2–3 days/weekb. 4–5 days/weekc. 5–6 days/weekd. 7 days/week

Explanationd. 7 days/weekWhile there is a common belief that exercise sessions should be performed at least three times per week, it appears that low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed daily.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 511

9) When programming exercise to help a client reduce low-back pain, it is most important to focus on muscular strength, as opposed to muscular endurance.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationb. FalseLow-back exercises performed for maintenance of health need not emphasize strength; rather, more repetitions of less-demanding exercises will assist in the enhancement of endurance and strength. Given that endurance has more protective value than strength, strength gains should not be overemphasized at the expense of endurance. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 511

10) Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a MINIMUM of _____ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week.

a. 120b. 150c. 225d. 240

Explanationb. 150Individuals seeking weight loss should include exercise as a key component of their programs, and overweight and obese adults should accumulate more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week, and when possible, more than 225 minutes per week.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 511

Quiz #19: Chapter 15 – Common Musculoskeletal Injuries and Implications for ExerciseACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition

1) The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the __________.

a. Anterior cruciate ligamentb. Medial collateral ligamentc. Patellad. Menisci

Explanationd. MenisciThe most commonly reported knee injury is damage to the menisci. The menisci have an important role within the knee due to their multiple functions—shock absorption, stability, joint congruency, lubrication, and proprioception.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 536

2) What type of injury can be classified as longitudinal, oblique, transverse, or compression?

a. Stress fracturesb. Sprainsc. Bursitisd. Shin splints

Explanationa. Stress fracturesLongitudinal, oblique, transverse, and compression are the four types of stress fractures, which often occur in distance runners, track athletes, and court sport athletes (e.g., volleyball, basketball).ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 536

3) What is the first phase of healing after an injury occurs?

a. Remodeling phaseb. Inflammation phasec. Proliferation phased. Fibroblastic phase

Explanationb. Inflammation phaseThe first phase of healing is the inflammatory phase, which can typically last for up to six days, depending on the severity of the injury. The focus of this phase is to immobilize the injured area and begin the healing process. Increased blood flow occurs to bring in oxygen and nutrients to rebuild the damaged tissue.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 537

4) Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication to stretching?

a. Joint hypermobilityb. Pain in the affected areac. Presence of osteoporosisd. Joint swelling

Explanationa. Joint hypermobilityThe absolute contraindications to stretching are as follows:

A fracture site that is healing Acute soft-tissue injury Post-surgical conditions Joint hypermobility An area of infection

The other three choices are all relative contraindications.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 538

5) Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as __________.

a. Golfer’s elbowb. Jumper’s kneec. Tennis elbowd. Runner’s knee

Explanationc. Tennis elbowLateral epicondylitis, which is commonly called “tennis elbow,” is defined as an overuse or repetitive-trauma injury of the wrist extensor muscle tendons near their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 541

6) A client complains of pain in the wrist during sleep and numbness and loss of grip strength during exercise. What injury is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

a. Greater trochanteric bursitisb. Iliotibial band syndromec. Medial epicondylitisd. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Explanationd. Carpal tunnel syndromeThe symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include:

Night or early-morning pain or burning Loss of grip strength and dropping of objects Numbness or tingling in the palm, thumb, index, and middle fingers

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 542

7) A client comes to you with recommendations from her doctor regarding exercise with greater trochanteric bursitis. One of the focuses or her training should be strengthening which of the following muscle groups?

a. Hamstringsb. Glutealsc. Quadricepsd. Iliotibial band complex

Explanationb. GlutealsWhen working with a client with greater trochanteric bursitis, strengthening the gluteals and deeper hip rotator muscles is important to maintain adequate strength. Stretching of the iliotibial band complex, hamstrings, and quadriceps should be the focus to ensure proper lower-extremity mobility. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 544

8) Which of the following injuries is primarily caused by training errors among athletes?

a. Patellofemoral pain syndromeb. Infrapatellar tendinitisc. Achilles tendinitisd. Iliotibial band syndrome

Explanationd. Iliotibial band syndromeITBS is common among active individuals 15 to 50 years of age and is primarily caused by training errors in runners, cyclists, volleyball players, and weight lifters.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 545

9) A client reports feeling terrible pain in the heel during his first few steps each morning, which then dissipates as he walks around the house. What is the MOST likely cause of this pain?

a. Plantar fasciitisb. Achilles tendinitisc. Ankle spraind. Infrapatellar tendinitis

Explanationa. Plantar fasciitisTypically, individuals with plantar fasciitis report pain on the plantar, medial heel at its calcaneal attachment that worsens after rest but improves after 10 to 15 minutes of activity. In particular, clients will commonly report excessive pain during the first few steps in the morning.ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 553

10) When programming exercise for a client who is recovering from a lateral ankle sprain, it is important to begin with side-to-side motions before progressing to straight-plane and then multidirectional motions.

a. Trueb. False

Explanationa. FalseIt is recommended that personal trainers progress individuals with this injury first with straight-plane motions such as forward running, then side-to-side motions such as sidestepping, and then multidirectional motions such as carioca.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 551