home assignment-19 (cst-19)...material on answer sheet. (vi) each question carries 4 marks. for...

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INSTRUCTIONS :

(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only

PHYSICS

1. A cyclic process ABCA for ideal gas is shown inV-T diagram, Process on the P-V diagram is

V

A

C B

T

(1)

P

V

C

AB

(2)

P

V

A B

C

(3)

A B

C

P

V

(4)

PA C

BV

2. In which of the following diode is reversed Biased?

(1)

–10V

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST-19Code-A

Home Assignment-19 (CST-19)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

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Complete Syllabus Test - 19

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5V

(3) +5V

+10V

(4) +12V

+5V3. The material of permanent magnet has

(1) High retentivity, low coercivity(2) Low retentivity, high coercivity(3) Low retentivity, low coercivity(4) High retentivity, high coercivity

4. In an LCR series circuit, the potential differencebetween the terminals of the inductance is 60 V,between the terminals of the capacitor is 30 V andthat across the resistance is 40 V, then, thesupply voltage will be equal to,(1) 10 V (2) 50 V(3) 70 V (4) 130 V

5. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor areseparated by a distance d with air as the mediumbetween the plates. In order to increase thecapacity by 66%, a di-electric slab of dielectricconstant 5 is introduced between the plates. Thethickness of the di-electric slab is

(1) 4d

(2) 2d

(3)58d

(4) d

6. In the following figure a wire bent in the form of aregular polygon of n sides is inscribed in a circleof radius a. Net magnetic field at centre will be

(1) 0 tan2

i na

(2) 0 tan2

nina

(3) 0 sin2

ia n

(4) 0 sin2

nia n

7. In photo-electric emission process from a metal ofwork function 1.3 eV, the Kinetic energy of mostenergetic electron is 0.5 eV. The correspondingstopping potential is,

(1) 1.3 V (2) 0.5 V

(3) 2.3 V (4) 1.8 V

8. The maximum intensity in Y.D.S.E. is I0, distancebetween the slits is d = 5 where is wavelengthof monochromatic light used in the experiment.The intensity of light infront of one of the slits ona screen at a distance D = 10 d is

(1) 02I

(2) 034

I

(3) I0 (4) 04I

9. Shown in the figure there is a convergent lensplaced inside a liquid. The lens has focal length+20 cm when in air and its material has refractiveindex 1.5. If the liquid has refractive index 1.6, thenew focal length of the lens in liquid is

(1) 80 cm (2) –80 cm

(3) –24 cm (4) –160 cm

10. If any particle having charge 10 C moves along

north-east direction with velocity 12 2 m/s at aparticular instant it enters in uniform magnetic fieldof 10 T (vertically upward). The force on this chargeis

(1) 1200 2N (North-east)

(2) 1200 N (North-east)

(3) 1200 2N (South-east)

(4) 1200 N (South-east)

(3)


11. In a common emitter configuration of a resistor, thevoltage drop across a 500 resistor in thecollector circuit is 0.5 V when the collector supplyvoltage is 5 V. If the current gain in the commonbase mode is 0.96, the base current is

(1)1 A

20 (2)

1 A5

(3)1 mA

24(4)

1 mA10

12. A paral lel plate capacitor has plate A andseparation d. It is charged to potential differenceV0. The charging battery is disconnected andplates are pulled apart to three times the initialseparation. The work required to separate theplates is

(1)2

0 03 AVd

(2)

20 02AVd

(3)2

0 03AVd

(4)

20 0AV

d

13. Consider the sphere moving on horizontal roughsurface. At some instant it has linear velocity V0

and angular velocity about centre of mass 02VR

.

The translational velocity after the sphere startspure rolling is

(1) 057V

(2) 067V

(3) 034V

(4) 035V

14. The length of an elastic string is a metre when thetension is 4 N, and b metre when the tension is5 N. The length in metre, when the tension is 9 N,is(1) (a + b) (2) (4b – 5a)(3) (5b – 4a) (4) (9b – 9a)

15. Radiations of energy “E” falls normally on aperfectly reflecting surface. The momentumtransferred to the surface is (c = velocity of light)

(1)2Ec

(2) 22Ec

(3) 2Ec

(4)Ec

16. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at restemits an particle. If the Q value of the reactionis 5.5 MeV, the K.E of the particle is

(1) 4.4 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV

(3) 5.2 MeV (4) 5.1 MeV

17.

The mass M shown in the figure oscillates in SHMwith amplitude A. The amplitude of point P is

(1) 1

2

K AK (2) 2

1

K AK

(3) 1

1 2

K AK K (4) 2

1 2

K AK K

18. Angular width of central maxima in the Fraunhofer’sdiffraction pattern is measured by the light ofwavelength 6000 Å. If the slit is illuminated by lightof another wavelength, angular width decreases by30%, wavelength of light used is,

(1) 3500 Å (2) 4200 Å

(3) 4700 Å (4) 6000 Å

19. A 10 m long wire of 20 resistance is connectedwith a battery of 3 volt emf (negligible internalresistance) and a 10 resistance joined in seriesto it. Potential gradient along the wire in volt permetre is

(1) 0.02 (2) 0.3

(3) 0.2 (4) 1.3

20. Magnetic field is directed inward in a region. Atriangular loop is entering in the magnetic field asshown with constant speed. The current induced inloop till it enters the loop is (seen from above)

X X X X

X X X X

X X X X

X X X X

V

(1) Clockwise and increasing

(2) Anticlockwise and decreasing

(3) Anticlockwise and increasing

(4) clockwise and decreasing

(4)


21. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a roughhorizontal surface with co-efficient of friction ‘=0.2’, then the maximum and minimum value offorce ‘F’ for which the block remains at rest (g =10 m/s2) is

5kg15NF

(1) 15 N, 10 N (2) 25 N, 5 N

(3) 10 N, 25 N (4) 5 N, 25 N

22. If the gravitation force varied as 52

r instead of

2,r the speed of a satellite around a planet varieswith orbit radius ‘r’ as:

(1)32

r (2)

34

r

(3) 0r (4) 1r23. An observer moves towards a stationary source of

sound with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity ofsound. The percentage increase in the apparentfrequency?(1) 5% (2) 20%(3) 30% (4) Zero

24. The magnitude of frictional force acting on the blockif the block is in equilibrium, is (g = 10m/s2)

y

2 kg

30 °

(1) 20 3 N (2) 20 N

(3) 10 3 N (4) 10 N

25. When a particle moves in a circle with a uniformspeed

(1) Its velocity and acceleration are both constant(2) Its velocity is constant but the acceleration

changes

(3) Its acceleration is constant but the velocitychanges

(4) Its velocity and acceleration both change

26. A Carnot engine operates with source at 127°C andsink at 27°C. If the source supplies 40 kJ of heatenergy, work done by the engine is:(1) 30 kJ (2) 10 kJ

(3) 4 kJ (4) 1 kJ

27. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is tobe emptied through a small hole at the bottom, theratio of time taken for the level of water to fall from

h to 2h

and from 2h

to zero is

(1) 2 (2)12

(3) 2 1 (4) 1

28. A particle falls from a height h on a fixed horizontalplane and rebounds. If e is the co-efficient ofrestitution, the total distance travelled beforerebounding has stopped, is

(1)2

211

ehe

(2)2

211

ehe

(3)2

21

2 1h e

e

(4)2

21

2 1h e

e

29. Water rises to a height h in a capillary tube ofcross-section area A. The height to which waterwill rise in a capillary tube of cross-sectional area4 A will be

(1) h (2)2h

(3) 4h

(4) 4 h

30. From a disc of radius R and Mass M a circularhole of diameter R, whose rim passes through thecentre is cut. The moment of inertia of theremaining part of the disc about a perpendicularaxis, passing through the centre of disc is

(1) 21532

MR (2) 21332

MR

(3) 21132

MR (4) 2932

MR

31. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate fthrough a distance S, then continues with constantspeed for time t and then decelerates at the rate

2f

to come to rest. If the total distance travelled

is 15 S then, S is

(1)2

2ftS (2) 21

4S ft

(3) 2150

S ft (4) 2172

S ft

(5)


32. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is

2 lTg

, l is about 10 cm and is known to

1 mm accuracy. The period of oscillation is about0.5 second. The time of 100 oscillations ismeasured with wrist watch of 1 s resolution. Themaximum accuracy in the determination of g is(1) 3% (2) 2%(3) 4% (4) 5%

33. The tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes4 beats/sec with the vibrating string of a piano. Thebeat frequency decreases to 2 beats/sec when thetension in piano string is slightly increased. Thefrequency of the piano string before increasing thetension was(1) 510 Hz (2) 514 Hz(3) 516 Hz (4) 508 Hz

34. A drilling machine of 10 Kw power is used to drilla bore in a small aluminium block of mass 80 kg.If 50% of power is used up in heating the machineitself or lost to the surrounding, then how much isthe rise in temperature of block in 2.5 min?(Specific heat of aluminium = 0.91 J/g°C)(1) 10.3°C (2) 13.0°C(3) 10.5°C (4) 30.0°C

35. A open knife edge of mass m dropped from aheight h on a wooden floor, the blade penetrates Sinto the wood. The average resistance offered bythe wood to the blade is

(1) mg (2) hs

mg

(3) h1s

mg (4) h1

smg

36. The ratio of magnitude of average velocity andr.m.s speed of an ideal gas

(1)83 (2)

38

(3) 0 (4)32

37. A body is projected from the origin with the velocity

which varies according 2 4 . v i x j The equation

of the trajectory is

(1)2

2xy (2) y = 2x

(3) y2 = x (4) y = x2

38. A cell can be balanced against 100 cm and110 cm of potentiometer wire respectively with andwithout being short circuited through a resistanceof 10 . The internal resistance is

(1) 1 (2) 0.5

(3) 2 (4) Zero

39. In the circuit shown below,

The potential difference between point A and B is

(1) Zero (2) –2 V

(3) 4 V (4) +2 V

40. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescopein the normal adjustment position is 20. If thelength of the telescope is 105 cm in thisadjustment, focal length of the two lenses are

(1) fo=5 cm, fe=100 cm

(2) fe=5 cm, fo=100 cm

(3) fo=15 cm, fe=100 cm

(4) fe=5 cm, fo=15 cm

41. Electrostatic potential inside the solid metallicsphere due to static charges out side the sphereis,

(1) Always uniform

(2) Always non-uniform

(3) May be non-uniform

(4) Zero

42. Earth is moving towards a fixed star with a velocityof 30 k ms–1. An observer on earth observes a shiftof 0.58 Å in the wavelength of light coming fromstar. The actual wavelength of light emitted by staris

(1) 5600 Å (2) 5800 Å

(3) 5400 Å (4) 6000 Å

43. The angular momentum of an electron in Bohr’shydrogen atom whose energy is – 3.4 eV is

(1) 2h

(2)2h

(3)3h

(4)h

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CHEMISTRY

44. If the distance of 100 watt lamp increased from aphotocell, the saturation current i in the photocellvaries with the distance d as

(1) id2 (2) id

(3)1id

(4) 21i

d

45. Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half ringof radius R. The electric field at the centre of thering is

(1) 2 202

qR (2) 2 2

04q

R

(3) 204q

R (4) 202q

R

46. Five molecules of a gas are moving with speeds1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 km. sec–1. What is the root meansquare speed of its mixture?

(1) 55 km/sec (2) 44 km/sec

(3) 11 km/sec (4) 6 km/sec47. NH3 can not be obtained by

(1) Heating of NH4NO3 or NH4NO2

(2) Heating of NH4Cl or (NH4)2CO3

(3) Heating of (NH4)2SO4 with NaOH(4) Reaction of AlN or CaCN2 with water

48. Which colour is produced when a Chromium (III)salt is taken for borax-bead test?(1) Blue (2) Green(3) Brown (4) Crimson red

49. Gold crystallizes in ccp unit cell of edge length a.The nearest neighbouring distance is

(1) a 2 (2)a

2 2

(3) 2 2a (4)a2

50. Which gas wil l be adsorbed on a solid tomaximum extent?(1) Gases having non-polar molecules(2) Gases having highest critical temperature(3) Gases having lowest critical temperature(4) Gases having zero critical temperature

51. Which of the following best represents the generalstructure of an amino acid in basic solution(pH = 11)?

(1)

2

R – CH – COO|NH

(2)

3

R – CH – COO|

NH

(3)

2

R – CH – COOH|NH

(4)

3O

R – CH – COOH|

NH

52. Which of the following monomers has greatestability to undergo cationic polymerisation?

(1) O N2 CH = CH 2

(2) HO CH = CH2

(3) H N2CH = CH 2

(4) H C3CH = CH 2

53. In the nitration of the following compound using amixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4, o/p ratiowill be more in the case of

(1)

CH3

(2)

C H2 5

(3)

CH(CH )3 2

(4)

C(CH )3 3

54. An excited hydrogen atom returns to the groundstate. The wavelength of emitted photon is . Theprincipal quantum number of the excited state willbe (R = Rydberg’s constant)

(1)12R

R 1

(2)12R 1

R

(3) 12R R 1

(4)

121

R( R 1)

(7)


55. de-Broglie wavelengths of two particles A and B

are plotted against 1V

; where V is the

potential of the particles. Which one of thefollowing relations is correct about the mass ofparticles?

BA

1V

(1) mA = mB (2) mA> mB

(3) mA < mB (4) mA mB

56. One mole of N2O4 (g) at 300 K is kept in a closedcontainer under 1 atm pressure. When it is heatedto 600 K, 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes toNO2(g). The resultant pressure is(1) 1.2 atm (2) 1 atm(3) 2.4 atm (4) 2 atm

57. In a unit cell of rock salt there are 14 Cl– ions atthe lattice points. The number of Na+ ions presentper unit cell is(1) 11 (2) 12(3) 13 (4) 14

58. Relative lowering in vapour pressure of a solutioncontaining 1 mole K2SO4 in 54 g H2O is (K2SO4 is100% ionised)

(1)1

55(2)

355

(3)2

55(4)

12

59. Identify the correct order regarding first ionisationpotential(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl(2) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl(3) Tl > B > Ga > Al > In(4) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In

60. Which of the following exhibits higher stabilityconstant value?(1) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Ni(NH3)6]2+

(3) [Ni(en)3]2+ (4) [Ni(EDTA)]2–

61. Which of the following is a polar molecule?

(1)

Cl

Cl

(2)

NO2

NO2

(3)

F

F

(4) PCl2Br3

62. excess HI/redP3CH CH COOH

|OH

Final product is

(1) 3 2CH CH CH| |OH OH

(2) 3 3CH CH CH|OH

(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (4) CH3 – CHO

63.

CH3

Cl

KNH in liq. NH2 3

low temperature Major product is

(1)

CH3

NH2

(2)

CH3

NH2

Cl

(3)

CH3

NH2

(4)

CH3

NH2

64. Which of the following possesses highest dipolemoment?

(1)

Cl

Cl Cl

(2)

Cl

Cl

(3)

Cl

Cl

Cl

(4)

Cl

Cl

Cl

(8)


65. In the reaction OCH3

dilute HBr the

products are

(1) OCH3Br and H2

(2) Br and CH3 – Br

(3) Br and CH3OH

(4) OH and CH3 – Br

66. For irreversible adiabatic expansion of ideal gas,the correct set is

(1) sys sur totalS 0, S 0, S 0

(2) sys sur totalS Ve, S 0, S Ve

(3) sys sur totalS 0, S Ve, S Ve

(4) sys sur totalS Ve, S Ve, S Ve

67. Which of the following is not a repeated unit ofnaturally found silicate?

(1) (Si2O5)2– (2) (Si4O11)6–

(3) (SiO3)2– (4) (Si3O7)2–

68. 100 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4, 200 mL of 0.1 M HNO3and 300 mL of 0.1 M NaOH are mixed. To thissolution another 1400 mL of 0.1 M NaCl is added.The pH of the final solution is

(1) 2.7 (2) 3.3

(3) 2.3 (4) 11.7

69. An amphoteric oxide dissolves in HCl to form asalt. The salt does not impart any colour to theflame and fumes in moist air. The oxide is

(1) BaO2 (2) MgO

(3) BeO (4) CaO

70. A certain metal M is used to prepare an antacidwhich is used as a medicine in hyper acidity. Themetal accidentally catches fire and it was foundthat the fire can not be put out by using CO2based extinguishers. The metal M is

(1) Mg (2) Ca

(3) Al (4) Ag

71. What is the value of crystal field stabilisationenergy for [Fe(CO)6]3+ complex ion? (neclectpairing enzyem)(1) +6 Dq (2) –20 Dq(3) 0 Dq (4) –12 Dq

72. Purification of Ti is possible by(1) Mond’s process (2) Parke’s Process(3) Haber’s Process (4) Van Arkel Process

73. Calculate the ratio of Cm

m

for a weak acid (HA)

of 0.1 M concentration if Ka for HA is 1 × 10–7.(1) 2 × 10–2 (2) 3 × 10–3

(3) 10–3 (4) 10–2

74. Under identical conditions of temperature, thedensity of gas A is twice that of gas B whilemolecular mass of gas B is thrice that of A. Whatwill be the ratio of pressure of gas A and gas B?(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2(3) 1 : 5 (4) 6 : 1

75. Which of the following is a tridentate ligand?(1) en (2) dipy(3) gly (4) dien

76. Edge length of an ionic solid AB, similar to rocksalt structure has edge length 508 pm. If the radiusof A+ ion is 110 pm, the radius of B–ion will be(1) 144 pm (2) 288 pm(3) 398 pm (4) 148 pm

77. The shortest wavelength line in Paschen series ofLi2+ ion?

(1) HR9

(2)H

9R

(3)H

1R (4) H9R

478. The volume-temperature graph of a given mass of

an ideal gas at different constant pressure areshown below

What is the correct order of pressure ?(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P1 < P2 < P3

(3) P2 > P3 > P1 (4) P1 = P2 = P3

(9)


79.O N2

CH CH CHOReagent

H N2

CH2 CH2 CH2 OH

Which is the most suitable reagent to execute thefollowing conversion?(1) HI/red P4 (2) LiAlH4/ether(3) NaBH4/ether (4) All

80. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in strongacidic medium gives

(1)

NH2

(2)

NH2

OH

(3) (4)

N= O

81. Glucose 2 2Br /H O

Product formed in the given reaction is(1) Gluconic acid (2) Glucaric acid(3) Glutamic acid (4) n-Hexane

82. Given: Glycine : 2 2H N CH COOH

Alanine : 2

3

H N CH COOH|CH

Valine : 2

3 2

H N CH COOH|CH(CH )

The peptide Ala-Val-Gly has a structure

(1) 2 2

3 3 2

OO O|| || ||

HO C CH NH C CH NH C CH NH| |CH CH(CH )

(2) 2 2

3 3 2

OO O|| || ||

H N CH C NH CH C NH CH C OH| |CH CH(CH )

(3) 2 2

3 3 2

OO O|| || ||

H N CH C NH CH C NH CH C OH| |CH CH(CH )

(4) 2 2

3 2 3

OO O|| || ||

HO C CH NH C CH NH C CH NH| |CH(CH ) CH

83. C

O

CH3 Cl

(CH ) NH3 2

PyridineA

1. LiAlH4

2. H O2

B

The incorrect statement is(1) ‘B’ reacts with HNO2 to give alcohol(2) ‘A’ is amide(3) ‘B’ is amine(4) Acyl chloride behaves as electrophile

84. In which polymer the strength of intermolecularforces are maximum?(1) Rubber (2) PVC(3) Nylon (4) Polystyrene

85. Conversion of an imine to an enamine is anexample of(1) Tautomerisation(2) Positional isomerisation(3) Geometric iosmerisation(4) Conformational isomerism

86. 40% (w/v) of NaCl solution (specific gravity = 1.12)is equivalent to(1) 3.57 × 105 ppm (2) 3.57 × 106 ppm(3) 1 × 106 ppm (4) 4 × 105 ppm

87. Which of the following properties of a reactionchanges in a catalysed reaction?(1) Ea, H and G(2) Ea but not H and G(3) Ea and G but not H(4) H and G but not Ea

88. Assuming no change in volume, the time requiredfor electrolysis of 50 ml of 0.1 M aqueous NaCl(using current of 0.5 amp) will be(1) 65 sec (2) 96.5 sec(3) 965 sec (4) 9.65 sec

89. The correct order of C – O bond strength in CO,CO3

2– and CO2 is(1) CO > CO2 > CO3

2–

(2) CO2 > CO32– > CO

(3) CO > CO32– > CO2

(4) CO32– > CO2 > CO

90. In the given reaction identify the major productformed:

AgCN3 2CH CH Cl

(1) CH3 – CH2 – CN (2) CH2 = CH2

(3) CH3 – CH2 – NC (4) All of these

(10)


BOTANY

91. All living organisms

(1) Are able to respond to external stimuli only

(2) Show intrinsic growth

(3) Share same genetic material

(4) Are able to perform metabolism andreproduction

92. In which stage of mitosis, chromosomes cluster atopposite spindle poles and their identity is lost asdiscrete element?

(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase

(3) Metaphase (4) Prophase

93. Arrange the following events of cell-cycle incorrect order and choose the option accordingly

(i) Tubulin biosynthesis

(ii) Centriole duplication

(iii) Splitting of centromere

(iv) Cell furrowing

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

94. A student of biology have isolated a cell organellehaving following features

(i) Single circular ds DNA

(ii) 70S ribosome

(iii) Light dependent ATP synthesis

(iv) Porins on the membrane

This organelle may be

(1) Mitochondrion (2) Chloroplast

(3) Peroxisome (4) Golgi body

95. Match the column I with column II and select thecorrect option

Column-I Column-II(i) Peroxisome (a) Glycosidation

(ii) Golgi body (b) Autophagy

(iii) Nucleus (c) tRNA synthesis

(iv) Lysosome (d) Photorespiration

(1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)

(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

96. R.H. Whittaker proposed f ive kingdomclassification. Which criteria was not used by himto classify the organisms?

(1) Mode of nutrition

(2) Reproduction

(3) Phylogenetic relationship

(4) Molecular analysis of 16S rRNA gene

97. Fungal cell wall is

(1) Structural homopolysaccharide of NAG

(2) Structural heteropolysaccharide of NAG

(3) Homopolysaccharide of cellulose

(4) Structural heteropolysaccharide of NAG andNAM

98. In the given statements how many are incorrect?

(i) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans

(ii) Red tide of sea is caused by Gonyaulax

(iii) Spores of slime moulds possess true walls

(iv) Viruses cannot be crystallised

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 0

99. Natural classification system developed byBentham and Hooker is based on

(1) Only external feature

(2) External and internal feature

(3) Only anatomy, embryology and phytochemistry

(4) External feature with phylogeny

100. Match the column I with column II and choose thecorrect option.

Column I Column II

(i) Polysiphonia (a) Mannitol

(ii) Laminaria (b) Non-flagellatedisogametes

(iii) Fucus (c) Floridean starch

(iv) Spirogyra (d) Air bladder

(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)

(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)

(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(b)

(4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

(11)


101. Which statement is not correct regarding thegymnosperms?

(1) They are seed bearing plants

(2) Mycorrhiza is seen in Cycas and helps in N2-fixation

(3) Conifers having needle-like leaves to reducethe surface area

(4) Male and female gametophytes do not have anindependent free living existence

102. Papilionaceous aestivation is found in family

(1) Leguminosae (2) Solanaceae

(3) Liliaceae (4) Brassicaceae

103. Find out the incorrect matching between columnI and column II

Column I Column II(1) Australian Acacia Petioles become

green and expand

(2) Cacti Stem modified intothorn

(3) Pisum sativum Pulvinus

(4) Water melon Stem tendrils

104. Which of the following statements is incorrect?(1) In dicot stem vascular cambium has

intrafascicular cambium and interfascicularcambium

(2) Secondary medullary rays formed are passedonly through the primary xylem and primaryphloem

(3) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm arecollectively known as periderm

(4) Lenticels permit the exchange of gassesbetween the outer atmosphere and the internaltissue of the stem

105. Subsidiary cells are

(1) Epidermal cells (2) Motor cells

(3) Endodermal cells (4) Guard cells

106. What will be the correct order of events for theopening and closing of stomata?

(i) Turgidity of guard cells increases

(ii) Guard cells lose turgor and become flaccid

(iii) Opening of stomata

(iv) Thin outer wall bulge out and force the innerwalls into crescent shape

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

107. Which statement is not correct regardingimbibition?(1) Imbibition is a diffusion process(2) Imbibition help seedlings to emerge out of the

soil(3) Water potential gradient between the

absorbent and liquid imbibed is essential forimbibition

(4) Affinity between the adsorbant and the liquid isnot required

108. Iron is a micronutrient and a constitutent of(1) Ferredoxin (2) Cytochromes(3) Chlorophyll (4) Both (1) and (2)

109. Transaminase is an enzyme that catalyses(1) Transfer of –NH2 from glutamic acid to other

amino acid(2) Formation of glutamic acid from -ketoglutaric

acid(3) Nitrification(4) Conversion of NO3

– to N2

110. Splitting of H2O takes place(1) On the inner side of thylakoid membrane(2) On the inner side of stroma lamellae(3) On the outer side of thylakoid membrane(4) On inner chloroplast membrane

111. What will be the correct order to assimilatecarbon through Hatch and Slack pathway?(1) Decarboxylation Regeneration Fixation of

carbon(2) Fixation of carbon Decarboxylation

Regeneration(3) Fixation of carbon Regeneration

Decarboxylation(4) Regeneration Decarboxylation Fixation

of carbon112. Following molecules are synthesised in the matrix

of mitochondria during oxidation of carbohydrate(i) Oxaloacetic acid (ii) Succinic acid(iii) -ketoglutaric acid (iv) Malic acidArrange them in correct order of synthesis(1) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (2) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

113. RQ value of fatty acid is(1) More than one (2) Less than one(3) Zero (4) One

(12)


114. Which plant hormone promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice plants?(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin(3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene

115. Vernalisation refers specially to the promotion offlowering by a period of exposure to(1) Low temperature (2) High temperature(3) Humidity (4) Light

116. The majority of baculoviruses used as biologicalcontrol agent belong to(1) Nucleopolyhedrovirus (2) Reoviruses(3) Retroviruses (4) Riboviruses

117. Column I is paired with Colum II. Which one isincorrect?

Column-I Column-II(1) Bacillus Bt cotton

thuringiensis(2) Penicillium Antibiotics

crysogenum

(3) Aspergillus niger Citric acid(4) Clostridium Butyric acid

botulinum118. How many types of gametes are produced from

parents with genotype AaBbCCDd?(1) 32 (2) 8(3) 64 (4) 16

119. There are four genes on the loci A, B, C and D ofa chromosome. The recombination frequencybetween the genes are as follows:A and B - 30%, A and C - 10%, B and C - 20%,B and D - 10%, A and D - 40%What is the arrangement of genes onchromosome?(1) A C B D (2) A D C B(3) A B C D (4) A C D B

120. Which one is not the example of autosomaltrisomy?(1) Down’s syndrome(2) Turner’s syndrome(3) Edward’s syndrome(4) Patau syndrome

121. A messenger- RNA having sequence AUG UUUAGC UAC, and undergoes mutation at 12th

nucleotide. Due to transversion of C to G what kindof peptide will be synthesized?(1) Tripeptide (2) Dipeptide(3) Monopeptide (4) Tetrapeptide

122. In the given statements, how many are correct?(i) Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in 12

years.(ii) Coconut and cucurbits are monoecious plants.(iii) Gamete mother cells are meiocytes(iv) Internal fertilization occurs in bryophytes(1) 0 (2) 4(3) 3 (4) 2

123. Vegetative cell of male gametophyte in floweringplants has(1) Large irregular shaped nucleus(2) Smaller size than generative cell(3) Spindle shape and dense cytoplasm(4) Less food reserve

124. Which is the incorrect match between the cells ofembryosac and its fate after double fertilisation?(1) Synergids - degenerate(2) Antipodals - degenerate(3) Egg - zygote(4) Central cell - degenerates

125. Formation of seed without fertilisation is called(1) Somatic hybridisation (2) Parthenocarpy(3) Apomixis (4) Syngamy

126. Which of the following steps is crucial for thesuccess of breeding experiment?(1) Germplasm collection(2) Evaluation and selection of parents(3) Cross-hybridisation(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants

127. Method of producing thousands of plants throughtissue culture is called(1) Totipotency (2) Micro-propagation(3) Hybridisation (4) Biofortification

128. How many statements given below are not correct?(a) Ribosome moves from codon to codon along

the mRNA for translation(b) Charging of tRNA requires ATP(c) Operon can be studied only in eukaryotes(d) Human genome has 75,000 gene pairs(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) 4

129. Altitude sickness is caused due to(1) Low atmospheric pressure at low altitudes(2) Low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes(3) High atmospheric pressure at high altitudes(4) High atmospheric pressure at low altitudes

(13)


130. Antinutritional factor in Brassica napus that causesheart aliments is(1) Erucic acid (2) Amygdalin(3) Lactin (4) Cyanoalanine

131. For decomposition of detritus, nature’sscavengers are(1) Only prokaryotes(2) Saprophytic bacteria and fungi(3) Chemosynthetic bacteria(4) Symbiotic and parasitic bacteria

132. What percent of photosynthetically active radiationis used by plants to synthesise organic matter?(1) 1 - 2% (2) 10 - 20%(3) 2 - 10% (4) 0.1 to 1%

133. Biodiversity can be described as a combineddiversity of(i) Genetic diversity (i) Species diversity(iii) Ecological diversity(1) (i) and (iii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only(3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

134. Snow blindness is caused by(1) Very low temperature (2) Bacteria(3) UV-B (4) X-ray

135. Slash and burn agriculture is related to(1) Cultural eutrophication(2) Jhum cultivation(3) Reforestation(4) Organic farming

ZOOLOGY

140. Damage to bundle of His completely interruptsimpulse conduction and this condition is clinicallyknown as

(1) Heart failure (2) Dextrocardia

(3) Heart block (4) Cardiac arrest

141. Which of the following features cannot beattributed to cardiac muscles?

(1) It exhibits spasm due to tetanus

(2) Exhibits excitability and conductivity

(3) Obeys all or none rule

(4) Has a long refractory period

142. The osmotic concentration of filtrate at the base ofloop of Henle of a medullary nephron is

(1) 300 m Osmol/L (2) 600 m Osmol/L

(3) 1000 m Osmol/L (4) 1200 m Osmol/L

143. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. nitrogenouswastes.

(1) NH3 produced during metabolism is convertedinto urea in the liver

(2) All marine fishes excrete NH3 with urine

(3) Some animals retain urea in the matrix ofkidneys to maintain a desired osmolarity

(4) Uricotelism is mainly concerned with waterconservation.

144. The pO2 level in the expired air under normalconditions is about

(1) 100 mm Hg (2) 159 mm Hg

(3) 120 mm Hg (4) 95 mm Hg

136. Match the following and choose the correct optionColumn - I Column - II

(i) Memory a) Limbic system(ii) Fear b) Medulla(iii) Cardio-vascular c) Cerebrum

reflexes(1) i(c), ii(a), iii(b) (2) i(c), ii(b), iii(a)(3) i(a), ii(b), iii(c) (4) i(b), ii(c), iii(a)

137. Layer of retina from inside to outside(1) Bipolar neuron Amacrine cell Ganglionic

cell(2) Ganglionic cel l Bipolar neuron

Photoreceptor(3) Photoreceptor Ganglionic cell Bipolar

neuron(4) Ganglionic cell Photoreceptor Bipolar

neuron138. Most of the anterior pituitary hormones control the

secretions of other endocrine or mixed glandsexcept(1) Prolactin (2) FSH(3) ACTH (4) TSH

139. Choose the incorrect statement(1) Filiform papillae are most numerous and are

without taste buds(2) Maximum absorption of water takes place in

stomach(3) Vitamins are micronutrients(4) Irregular folds or rugae on inner surface of gut

wall are formed by mucosa

(14)


145. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the kneejerk reflex?

(1) Muscle spindle acts as stretch receptor

(2) It is type of monosynaptic reflex

(3) It involves 6 components

(4) Interneurons are not involved

146. Select the incorrect statements w.r.t HIV

(1) After binding with CD4 receptors entry is co-receptor mediated

(2) The genome of a virus is diploid

(3) It does not destroy macrophages it infects

(4) It has DNA as genetic material

147. Which of the following hormones are synthesizedin gut and pancreas?

(1) Somatomedins

(2) Glucagon

(3) Insulin like growth factor

(4) Gastrin

148. Sulpha drugs kill bacteria by inhibiting snythesis offolic acid. It is an example of

(1) Non-competitive inhibition

(2) Feed-back inhibition

(3) Competitive inhibition

(4) Allosteric inhibition

149. Blood vessels dilate and become more permeablenear a wound in response to release of a chemicalfrom damaged tissues. It is

(1) Somatostatin (2) ADH

(3) Histamine (4) Angiotensin

150. Humoral immunity is known for showing all thefollowing properties except

(1) It is mediated by B-lymphocytes

(2) It consists of different types of antibodiespresent in blood and lymph

(3) Effective against intracellular pathogens

(4) Antigens are presented to effector cellsthrough MHC-II

151. Allergy is treated with drugs like A in case of

normal allergic reactions and with B in case

of anaphylactic shock

A B(1) Antihistamine Histamine

(2) Antihistamine Acetylcholine

(3) Adrenaline Acetylcholine

(4) Antihistamine Adrenaline

152. Which of the following vaccines has beenproduced from yeast by RDT?

(1) Pneumonia vaccine (2) Oral polio vaccine

(3) Hepatitis B vaccine (4) Leukemia vaccine

153. Which enzyme digests peptides by releasingamino acids one by one?

(a) Trypsin (b) Pepsin

(c) Aminopeptidase (d) Carboxypeptidase

(1) a, c (2) c, d

(3) b, c, d (4) a, b

154. Trachea divides at the level ___ vertebra into rightand left bronchus

Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.

(1) 5th cervical (2) 3rd thoracic

(3) 5th thoracic (4) 7th thoracic

155. Helical structure of protein is stabilized by

(1) Ester bond (2) Peptide bond

(3) Disulphide linkage (4) Hydrogen bond

156.

In above depicted reaction the enzyme Ebelongs to which class

(1) Hydrolases (2) Transferases

(3) Lyases (4) Isomerases

157. Which of the following is an example of lectin, asecondary metabolite?

(1) Curcumin (2) Concanavalin

(3) Codeine (4) Anthocyanin

158. Which of the following facial bone iss unpaired?

(1) Nasal (2) Zygomatic

(3) Vomer (4) Palatine

159. Which is a key communication link betweencerebrum and sensory organs for incoming signalsand is called the ‘relay centre’?

(1) Crura cerebri (2) Thalamus

(3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebellum

(15)


160. Choose the incorrect statement about regulationof heart beat

(1) Sympathetic stimulation increases the rate ofheart beat and strength of ventricularcontraction

(2) Parasympathetic stimulation decreases thespeed of conduction of action potential andrate of heart beat

(3) Medulla can regulate cardiac functions throughANS

(4) Heart beat is also under the control ofadrenaline and nor-adrenaline secreted byadrenal cortex

161. Dicondylic skull with ten pairs of cranial nerves arepresent in

(1) Lizard (2) Columba

(3) Pteropus (4) Salamandra

162. The neurotransmitter of postganglionic fibres is

(1) Nor-adrenaline for both sympathetic andparasympathetic

(2) Acetylcholine for sympathetic and nor-adrenaline for parasympathetic

(3) Acetylcholine for both sympathetic andparasympathetic

(4) Non-adrenaline for sympathetic andacetylcholine for parasympathetic

163. What will be the molecular formula of a polymermade by linkage of 10 glucose units

(1) C60H120O60 (2) C60H100O50

(3) C60H102O51 (4) C60H111O51

164. The most abundant and widely distributed tissue ina complex animal is

(1) Epithelial (2) Connective

(3) Muscular (4) Nervous

165. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t cartilage

(1) The intracellular matrix of cartilage is solid andpliable and resists compression

(2) Chondrocytes are enclosed within lacunahaving canaliculi

(3) They are present between articular surfaces oflong bones

(4) The matrix is not arranged in layers orlamellae

166. Consider the following statements mark them astrue or false and choose the correct option

a. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordatesare not vertebrates

b. In the members of class Cyclostomata pairedfins and scales are absent

c. Teeth of cartilaginous fishes are modifiedplacoid scales

d. Air bladder is present in Carcharodon

(1) a-T, b-T, c-F, d-T (2) a-F, b-T, c-T, d-T

(3) a-T, b-T, c-T, d-F (4) a-T, b-T, c-T, d-F

167. Bone forming cells which secrete Ossein proteinare

(1) Osteoblasts (2) Osteocytes

(3) Osteoclast (4) Fibroblasts

168. Most of the bile salts are

a. Absorbed by wall of small intestine

b. Recycled by enterohepatic circulation

c. Eliminated with faecal matter

(1) Only a (2) Only b

(3) c and b (4) a and b

169. Elevated S-T segment signifies

(1) Ventricular hypertrophy

(2) Acute myocardial infarction

(3) Hyperkalemia

(4) Ischaemic heart disease

170. V, VI, VII and VIII pairs of cranial nerves originatefrom which part of the brain?

(1) Cerebrum (2) Thalamus

(3) Pons (4) Medulla

171. Which of the following is incorrect regardingpoultry farming?

(1) Bird flu is caused by virus H5N1

(2) Poultry includes only ckicken and ducks

(3) Leghorn is a broiler breed

(4) Ranikhet is a viral disease

172. Pethidine falls in the category of

(1) Sedative hypnotics like Benzodiazepines

(2) Synthetic opiate

(3) Stimulant obtained from Theobroma cacao

(4) Cannabinoid obtained from Cannabis sativa

(16)


173. All of the following are examples of autoimmunedisorders except(1) Hashimoto’s disease

(2) Type-I diabetes mellitus

(3) Rheumatoid arthritis

(4) Muscular dystrophy

174. The earliest organisms were

(1) Chemoautotrophs and anaerobic

(2) Chemoheterotrophs and anaerobic

(3) Chemoheterotrophs and aerobic

(4) Chemoautotrophs and aerobic

175. Which of the following statements is incorrectw.r.t. evolution of man?

(1) Homo habilis used hides to protect theirbodies and buried their dead

(2) Two million years ago, Australopithecusprobably lived in East-African grasslands

(3) Neanderthal man had a brain size of about1400 cc

(4) Ramapithecus was more man like whileDryopithecus was more ape like

176. Cortical reactions to prevent polyspermy principallyrequires

(1) Na+ (2) Ca2+

(3) Mg2+ (4) Both 1 and 2

177. Which of the following is a wrong match betweenthe type of contraception and its function?

(1) Contraceptive pills – Inhibit ovulation

(2) IUD – Inhibits implantation

(3) Sterilisation – Inhibits gamete formation

(4) Barriers – Prevents union of maleand female gametes

178. Each mammary gland consists of _____ number oflobules of ____ type.

Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.

(1) 10 - 15, Simple alveolar

(2) 15 - 20, Compound tubuloalveolar

(3) 8 - 10, Compound tubular

(4) 8 - 10, Simple tubulo alveolar

179. Amnion has

(1) Mesoderm outside and ectoderm inside

(2) Mesoderm on both sides

(3) Outer ectoderm and inner mesoderm

(4) Inner endoderm and outer mesoderm

180. Cladogenesis is not related with

(1) Allopatric speciation

(2) Sympatric speciation

(3) Phyletic speciation

(4) Darwin’s finches

(17)


1. (3)2. (2)3. (4)4. (2)5. (2)6. (2)7. (2)8. (1)9. (4)10. (3)11. (3)12. (4)13. (2)14. (3)15. (1)16. (2)17. (4)18. (2)19. (3)20. (3)21. (2)22. (2)23. (2)24. (4)25. (4)26. (2)27. (3)28. (1)29. (2)30. (2)31. (3)32. (4)33. (4)34. (1)35. (3)36. (3)

37. (4)38. (1)39. (2)40. (2)41. (1)42. (2)43. (4)44. (4)45. (1)46. (3)47. (1)48. (2)49. (4)50. (2)51. (1)52. (3)53. (1)54. (1)55. (2)56. (3)57. (3)58. (4)59. (4)60. (4)61 (1)62. (3)63. (3)64. (3)65. (4)66. (2)67. (4)68. (3)69. (3)70. (1)71. (2)72. (4)

73. (3)74. (4)75. (4)76. (1)77. (3)78. (1)79. (2)80. (2)81. (1)82. (3)83. (1)84. (3)85. (1)86. (1)87. (2)88. (3)89. (1)90. (3)91. (2)92. (2)93. (3)94. (2)95. (1)96 (4)97. (1)98. (1)99. (2)100. (1)101. (2)102. (1)103. (2)104. (2)105. (1)106. (3)107. (4)108. (4)

109. (1)110. (1)111. (2)112. (1)113. (2)114. (4)115. (1)116. (1)117. (4)118. (2)119. (1)120. (2)121. (1)122. (2)123. (1)124. (4)125. (3)126. (4)127. (2)128. (2)129. (2)130. (1)131. (2)132. (3)133. (4)134. (3)135. (2)136. (1)137. (2)138. (1)139. (2)140. (3)141. (1)142. (4)143. (2)144. (3)

145. (3)146. (4)147. (4)148. (3)149. (3)150. (3)151. (4)152. (3)153. (2)154. (3)155. (4)156. (3)157. (2)158. (3)159. (2)160. (4)161. (4)162. (4)163. (3)164. (2)165. (2)166. (4)167. (1)168. (4)169. (2)170. (3)171. (3)172. (2)173. (4)174. (2)175. (1)176. (2)177. (3)178. (2)179. (1)180. (3)

ANSWERS

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472


(1)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

HINTS

OF


PHYSICS

1. A to B sobaric V T

B to C sochoric P T

C to A sothermal P 1V

2. By basic definition of reverse biased.

3. By the property.

4. VS = 2 2L C RV V V

= 2 260 30 40

VS = 50V

5. 0 AC td t 5

C 166C 100

100d = 166d – 1664t5

t = d2

6. B = 0 2i sin4 r

(r = a cos)

= 0 2i sin4n a cos

Bne7 = n 0 i tan n2 a

7. (eV0) = Kmax = 0.5 eV

V0 = 0.5 volt

8. 5 5x2 50 4

2 , x2

20 cos

2

2 0

0 cos4 2

9.1 2 3

1 1 1 1f f f f

1

1 1 1 31.6 1f 20 100

2

1 1 1 11.5 1f 20 20 20

3

1 1 1 31.6 1f 20 100

1 3 1 3f 100 20 100

f = –100 cm

10. Fm = qvB

= 10 × 12 2 × 10

= 1200 2

(2)

11. CC

C

V 0.5 1mAR 500

= 0.96

= 0.96 24

1 1 0.96

= c

b

, B1 mA

24

12. Work done = Vf – Vi

Vi = 20

1 CV2 Uf = 20

1 C 3V32

Uf = 20

3 CV2

= 2

0 0AVd

13. By angular momentum

2 200

V2 2 Vm V R MR mVR MR5 2R 5 R

06mV R 7mVR5 5

06VV7

14. K =YA

f = K

f1 = K(a – L0) = 4

f2 = K(b – L0) = 5

K(c – L0) = 9

C = (5b – 4a)

15. Momentum transferred = p =2Ec

16. P1 = P2

Ek = 2

d

d

E mP2m E m

d

d

m 216E 5.5MeVm m 220

= 5.4 MeV

17. (K1 A1) = KA

K1 A1 = 1 2

1 2

K K AK K

A = 2

1 2

K AK K

18. Angular width of central maxima is

w = 2d

w = 2 6000

d

I

7 2w10 d

II

II I , we get

710 6000

= 4200 Å

19.

10m20

10

i

i = 330 = 0.1 AA

Let potential difference across 10m long wire is V,

V = 0.1 × 20 = 2 Volt

Potential gradient = 2

10 = 0.2 Volt/m.

20. Conceptual

21. (fs)max = 0.2 × 5 × 10 = 10 N

Just start15N F = 5N

f = 10N

15N

f = 10N

F = 25N

Just start

22.2

52

GMm mVrr

V2 32

1

r

V 34

1

r

(3)

23. 0V Vf fV

VV5f f

V

6f f5

change =

6 f f5 100 20%

f

24.

yf

30°

30°mg

mg sin30°

f = mg sin30°

f = 2 × 10 × 12

f = 10 N

25. In UCM, the magnitude of acceleration 2mV

r is

constant but the direction continuously changes.

26. = 1 – 2

1

TT

= 1 –

273 27273 127

= 1 – 300400

= 14

= Work doneHeat supplied

1 W4 40

W = 10 kJ

27. t 1 2h h

1

2

hh 2 1t 2t 1h 02

28.

QQ

Q Q Q Qh h hh

s = h + 2e2h + 2e4h + 2e6h +

= h + 2e2h (1 + e2 + e4 + e6 + )

= h + 2e2h 21

1 e

= 2

21 e h1 e

29. By Jurin's law

h1 r1 = h2 r2 A1 = r2

hr = h × 2r A2 = 4A

h2 = h1 r2

2 = 4r2

r2 = 2r

30. h

R

M

total disc = 2MR

2

Mremoved = M4

remaining disc = total – removed

= 2

2 2MR 3 13MR MR2 32 32

(4)

31. s1 s2 s3

v

t

vmax

s3 = 2s1

Since a1 = f a3 = f2

vmax2 = 0 + 2fs, s1 = s

12s = vmax × t = 2fs s2 = 2s

s = 21 ft72 s3 = 12s

32.g L T100 2 100

g L T

= (1+2×2) = 5%

33. |fT – fP| = 4Hz

fT = 512Hz

So fP is either 508Hz or 516Hz

On increasing tension frequency fP is increased andbeat frequency decreases.

Hence fP = 508Hz

34. p =wt

w = pt = (104 × 2.5 × 60) = 15 × 105J

Energy lost = 12 × (15 × 105) = 7.5 × 105J

for Aluminium

Q = m Ct

7.5 × 105 = (8 × 104 × 0.91 × T)

T = 10.3°C

35. By work energy theorem

mg(h+s) – R × s = KE = 0

mg(h+s) = Rs

R = mg h1s

36. Average velocity of gas molecules is zero.

37.dy vy 4xdx vx 2

y x

0 0

dy 2xdx

y = 2x2

2

y = x2

38. r = R o

c1

= 10110 1100

= 10 10 1

100

39.10i 2A5

VA + 4 × 1 – 2 × 1 = VB

(VA – VB) = –2V

40. m = 0

e

ff

f0 = 20fef0 + fe = 105

20fe + fe = 105

21fe = 105 cm

f0 = 100 cm

fe = 5 cm

41. A solid metallic sphere has to be an equipotentialbody.

42.VC

8

4C 3 10V 3 10

(0.58Å)

= 5800 Å

(5)

CHEMISTRY

46. 1 4 9 16 25 115

km/sec

49. The distance between the corner atom and the

nearest face centre atom thata2

51. Both – NH3

+ and –COOH are deprotonated in

strong basic solution.

52. –NH2 stabilises cation by its +R

53.

CH3

As size of alkyl group increases, percentage ofpara form increases.

54.2

2 21 2

1 1 1Rzn n

z = 1 n1 = 1

2

1 1 1R1 n

n = R

R 1

55.em

h2V

In the plot of Vs 1V

slope is h2me

56. 20% man is 20% by mole and also 20% bypressure N2O4 2NO2

1–0.2 0.4

So, PT = 1.2 atm Al 600 K, pressure will bedouble of this.

58. 0P

P

= xsolute

= solute

solute solvent

i ni n n

= 1 3 1

1 3 3 2

60. [Ni(EDTA)]–2

EDTA is a chelating ligand

61. It’s non-planar

62. Red P/H reduces alcohol, aldehyde, ketone andacid to alkane

63.

CH3

NH2

is more stable than

CH3

NH2

65. OCH3HBr OH + CH – Br3

Phenol does not react with HBr

43. 213.6E eVn

–3.4 = 213.6 eVn

n = 2

L = nh2

L = 2 × h h2

44. i Intensity

i 21d

45.

××

××

× × × × ××

××

×

q

t

0

2K 1 q 12R 4 R R

2 20

q2 R

(6)

BOTANY

68. Net milliequivalent of acid is 10 and net volume ofsolution 2000 mL. pH = 2.3

73. =Cm

m

Ka = C2

= 710

0.1

= aKC

= 10–3

74. P =RTM

So, A A B

B B n

P MP M

A

B

P 62 3P 1

75. NH2H N2NH dien

76. For rock salt structure a = 2(r+ + r–)

77. 2H 2 2

1 2

1 1 1R Zn n

n1 = 3 n2 =

H1 1R 9

9

= H

1R

80. In strong acidic medium. You get P-aminophenol.In weakly acidic medium you get aniline

82. Keep the N-terminal residue on the left.

83. A = CH — 3 C — N(CH3)2

O

B = CH3CH2N(CH3)2

86. 100 mL solution that is 112g solution contains 40gNaCl. So, 106 g solution contains 3.57×105 g NaCl.

88. Total millimole, also milliequivalent of NaCl is 5.No. of equivalent of electrolyte = No. of Faradays

needed

So, 5 965001000

= 0.5 × t (in sec)

91. Intrinsic growth i.e., protoplasmic growth is foundonly in living organisms.

92. It occurs during the last phase i.e., telophase.

93. Option (3) correctly def ines the events insequence.

94. It is chloroplast and not mitochondria becauseonly chloroplasts have l ight dependent ATPsynthesis.

95. Peroxisomes are involved in photorespirationalongwith mitochondria and chloroplast. Golgibodies perform glycosidation of lipids. Nucleussynthesises RNA. Lysosome performs autophagyor self-digestion.

96. Molecular analysis of 16S rRNA genes was notdone by Whittaker.

97. Fungal cell wall is made of chitin which is ahomopolymer of NAG (N–acetyl glucosamine).

98. Statement (iv) is incorrect because viruses can becrystallised.

99. Natural system is based on morphology, anatomy,physiology etc.

100. Polysiphonia is a red-algae whose stored food isfluoridean starch.

Laminaria is a brown yield whose stored food ismannitol.

Fucus is a brown algae which has air-bladders forbuoyancy.

Spirogyra is a green algae which possess non-flagellated isogametes.

101. Cycas lacks mycorrhiza, it possess coralloid roots.

102. It is the characteristic of Leguminosae.

103. In cacti, leaves are modified into spines.

104. Secondary medullary pass through secondaryxylem and secondary phloem.

105. Subsidiary cells are epidermal cells surroundingthe guard cells of leaf.

106. Option (3) correctly defines the sequence for thestomata opening and closing.

107. For imbibition, affinity between the adsorbent andthe liquid is required.

(7)

108. Iron is the constituent of both ferredoxin andcytochrome.

109. Transaminase tranfers –NH2 group betweenamino acid keto acid.

110. Due to the presence of water splitting complexassociated with PS on the inner side ofthylakoid membrane.

111. Fixation of carbon dioxide is done twice (once inthe mesophyll and then in the bundle sheath cell).Decarboxylation occurs in the bundle sheath cell.Regeneration of PEP occurs in the mesophyll cell.

112. Option (1) correctly defines the sequence ofKrebs’ cycle.

113. R.Q. value of fats is less then unity.

114. It is done by ethylene

115. Vernalisation requires low temperature treatmentto the meristematic tissues.

116. They belong to Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV)which act against arthropods. These are narrowspectrum insecticidal applications.

117. Clostridium botulinum is a pathogenic bacterium.

118. 2n = 23 = 8

(n = number of heterozygosity)

119.10 1020

A C B D40

120. Turner's Syndrome is due to 44 + XO and is nota result of autosomal trisomy.

Down’s Syndrome 21st – trisomy

Edward’s Syndrome 18th – trisomy

Patan's Syndrome 13th – trisomy

121. UAG

Stop Codon

5 AUG UUU AGC 3

A tripeptide gets synthesised.

122. All the four statements — (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) arecorrect.

123. Vegetative or tube cell is large and has irregularshaped nucleus.

124. Central cell fuses with one of the male gamete toform primary endosperm cell.

125. It is called apomixis or agamospermy.

126. Superior recombinants has to be selected withcare because these only are the future plants withdesired characters.

127. It is called micropropagation.

128. Statements (a) and (b) are correct whereas (c)and (d) are not correct. Operon Concept of generegulation is valid only for prokaryotes. Humangenome has about 20,000 to 25,000 genes.

129. It is due to low oxygen tension at high altitudes.

130. Erucic acid causes heart ailments.

131. These are saprophytic bacteria and fungi.

132. It is 2–10% of PAR and 1–5% of incident solarradiation.

133. All three (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

134. It is by UV–B which results in inflammation ofcornea.

135. It is also called shifting cultivation and is acommon practice in north-east India.

ZOOLOGY

138. Prolactin activates milk synthesis in mammarygland.

139. Maximum absorption of water takes place inintestine, due to presence of microvilli.

140. Cardiac arrest is the complete failure of thefunctioning of heart to pump blood.

141. Cardiac muscle shows rhythmicity so lackstetanus and fatigueness.

142. Little amount of urea is absorbed from urine toincrease molarity.

143. TMO is also excreted by some marine bonyfishes.

145. It involves 5 components.

146. HIV has two ssRNA as its genome.

148. Para amino benzoic acid and sulpha drugs bothcan attach to active site of folic acid synthetase.

149. Histamine is released from mast cel ls andbasophil cells.

152. It is called subunit vaccine, also example ofsecond generation vaccine.

(8)

156. Bonds are altered without hydrolysis.

160. Adrenal medulla releases both adrenaline andnon-adrenaline hormones.

161. All amphibia have dicondylic skull with ten pairs ofcranial nerves.

164. 9 glycosidic bonds are produced.

168. Absorbed bile salts are carried to liver again forthe synthesis of bile.

171. Poultry includes chicken, duck, geese, etc.

172. Pethidine and methadone are synthetic opiates.

173. Kaposi’s sarcoma occurs due to infection by HIV.

175. Neanderthal man used to bury their dead withofferings.

177. Sterilization or ligation prevents movement ofgametes, primarily male gametes.

179. Chorion has outer ectoderm and inner mesoderm.

180. Cladogenesis refers to divergent evolution whilephyletic speciation is modification or transformationof species with time.

home assignment-19 (cst-19)...material on answer sheet. (vi) each question carries 4 marks. for...

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