home assignment-23 (cst-24) · 2020. 4. 23. · home assignment-23 (cst-24) (2) complete syllabus...
TRANSCRIPT
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INSTRUCTIONS :(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only.
PHYSICS
1. A physical quantity x is given by3 32kx
m n . The
percentage error in the measurements of k, , mand n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Thepercentage error in measurement of x is(1) 8% (2) 10%(3) 14% (4) 7%
2. The dimension of2
04e
hc, where e, 0, h and c are
electric charge, electric permitivity, plank’s constantand velocity of light in vacuum respectively, is(1) [M°L°T°] (2) [ML°T°](3) [M°LT°] (4) [M°L°T]
3. A car starting from rest, accelerates at the rate fthrough a distance S, then continues at constantspeed for time t and then decelerates at the rate
2f
to come to rest. If the total distance traversed is
15s, then
(1) 212
S ft (2) 214
S ft
(3) 2172
S ft (4) 216
S ft
4. A large number of bullets are fired in all directionswith same speed v. Maximum area on the groundon which these bullets will spread is
(1)2v
g
(2)4
2v
g
(3)4
22
vg
(4)2
22
vg
5. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making anangle 30° and 60° with the vertical are a shown inthe figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on thetwo planes. The relative vertical acceleration of Awith respect to B is
AB
60° 30°
(1) 4.9 m/s2 in vertical direction(2) 4.9 m/s2 in horizontal direction(3) 9.8 m/s2 in vertical direction(4) Zero
Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.
CST-24Code-A
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Home Assignment-23 (CST-24)
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
6. In the figure given, the system is in equilibrium. Themaximum value that ‘W ’ can have if the frictionalforce on the 40 N block cannot exceed 12.0 N, is
40N30°
w(1) 3.45 N (2) 6.92 N(3) 10.35 N (4) 12.32 N
7. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path ofconstant radius r such that centripetal acceleration,aC varying with time as aC = k2rt2, where k is aconstant. The power delivered to the particle by theforce acting on it is(1) 2mkr2t (2) mkr2t2
(3) mk2r2t (4) mk2rt2
8. An open knife edge of mass M dropped from aheight h on a wooden floor. If knife penetratesdistance s into the wood, the average resistanceoffered by the wood to the knife is
(1) Mg (2)hMgs
(3) 1 hMgs
(4)2
1 hMgs
9. Particles of mass m, 2m, 3m, _ _ _ , nm gram areplaced on the same line at distances , 2, 3, _ _ _,n cm from a fixed point. The distance of centre ofmass of the particles from the fixed point is
2 ( 1) 2 16
n n nn
(1) 2 1
3n
(2) 1n
(3) 2 1
2
n n (4) 2
21n n
10. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc ismaximum about an axis perpendicular to the discand passing through
ABD
C
(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) A
11. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface,as shown in figure with a translational velocityv m/s. If it is to climb the inclined surface, then vshould be [inclined plane is rough]
h
(1)107
gh (2) 2 gh
(3) 2gh (4)107
gh
12. A flywheel rotates about an axis. Due to friction atthe axis, it experiences an angular retardationproportional to its angular velocity. If its angularvelocity falls to half while it makes n rotations, howmany more rotations will it make before coming torest?(1) 2n (2) n
(3)2n
(4)3n
13. If the mass of moon is 81M
, where M is the mass of
earth, the distance of the point from the moon,where gravitational field due to earth and mooncancel each other is, given that distance betweenearth and moon is 60R, where R is the radius ofearth.(1) 4 R (2) 8 R(3) 2 R (4) 6 R
14. Figure shows a uniform rod of length 30 cm havinga mass of 3 kg. The rod is pulled by constant forcesof 20N and 32N. The force exerted by 20 cm partof the rod on the 10 cm part is [All surfaces aresmooth]
32N
F
20N
10 cm 20 cm (1) 36 N (2) 12 N(3) 64 N (4) 24 N
15. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius 3 cm andanother soap bubble in vacuum has radius 4 cm. Iftwo bubbles coalesce under isothermal condition,then the radius of the new bubble will be(1) 7 cm (2) 5 cm(3) 4.5 cm (4) 2.3 cm
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
16. A black body is heated to temperature 27°C and127°C. The ratio of the radiant powers at twotemperatures will be(1) 81 : 256 (2) 27 : 64(3) 9 : 16 (4) 3 : 4
17. A body cools from 80°C to 64°C in 5 min and samebody cools from 80°C to 52°C in 10 min. Thetemperature of the surrounding is(1) 24°C (2) 28°C(3) 22°C (4) 25°C
18. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure
such that its temperature 1TV
, the value of p
v
CC
of gas is(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50(3) 1.67 (4) 2.00
19. A carnot’s engine operating between the sourcetemperature 227°C and sink temperature 27°C,takes up 1 kJ of heat from the source in one cyclethen the work done by the engine is(1) 800 J (2) 600 J(3) 400 J (4) 200 J
20. A gaseous mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygenand 4 moles of helium at temperature T. Neglectingall vibrational modes, the total internal energy ofthe mixture is(1) 4 RT (2) 9 RT
(3) 15 RT (4) 11 RT
21. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car driversounds a horn of frequency f. The reflected soundheard by the driver has frequency 2f. If v be thevelocity of sound, then the velocity of the car, in thesame velocity units, will be
(1) 2v
(2) 2v
(3) 3v
(4) 4v
22. The amplitude of a pendulum executing damped
simple harmonic motion falls to rd1
3
of the original
value after 100 oscillations. The amplitude falls toS times the original value after 200 oscillations,where S is
(1)19
(2)12
(3)23
(4)16
23. A particle of mass m is executing oscillation aboutthe origin on the x-axis. Its potential energy isU(x) = K |x|3, where k is a positive constant. If theamplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period T is
(1) Proportional to 1a
(2) Proportional to a
(3) Proportional 32a
(4) Independent of a24. Two pendulums of lengths 100 cm and 121 cm start
vibrating. At some instant the two are at the meanposition in the same phase. After how manyvibrations of the longer pendulum will the two be inthe same phase at the mean position again?(1) 10(2) 11(3) 20(4) 21
25. An observer moves towards a stationary source ofsound, with a speed one-fifth of the speed of sound.What is the percentage increase in the apparentfrequency?(1) 5%(2) 20%(3) Zero(4) 0.5%
26. Electrostatic f ield in a region is given by( ) V/mE yz i zx j xy k
, where x, y and z arecoordinates in m. If electric potential at origin is zero,then potential at (1m, 1m, 1m) is(1) –1V(2) 1V(3) –3V(4) 3V
27. The equivalent capacitance of the circuit as shownin figure between points A and B is
2µF
8µF8µF
24µF6µF8
5 µF
A
B
(1) 10 µF(2) 8 µF(3) 2 µF(4) 15 µF
(4)
Complete Syllabus Test-24
28. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R, has auniform charge density. The graph representsvariation of magnitude of electric field (E) as afunction of distance (x) from the centre of the sphereis
(1)
R X
E
O
(2)
E
XRO
(3)
R X
E
O
(4)
E
XO R
29. The charge on the capacitor, at the instant as shownin the figure is
100V10A
2 4
104A
92A
62µF
(1) 32 µC (2) 20 µC
(3) 64 µC (4) 100 µC
30. The equivalent resistance across points A and B,in the circuit shown in the figure, is
2R
2R
2R2R
4R
4RA B
(1) 4 R (2) 2 R
(3) 3 R (4) R
31. A current i flows in a circular arc of wire whose radius
is R, which subtends an angle of 32
radian at itss
centre. The magnetic induction B at the centre is
i
R
(1) 0µ iR
(2) 02µ iR
(3) 02µ iR
(4) 038µ iR
32. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F isbeing charged by a voltage source whose potentialis changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conductioncurrent through connecting wires and thedisplacement current through the plates of thecapacitor, would be respectively(1) 30 A, zero (2) 60 A, zero(3) 60 A, 60 A (4) Zero, 60 A
33. The inductive reactance and resistance of asinusoidal series LR ac circuit are 3 ohm each. Thephase difference between applied voltage andcurrent is
(1) Zero (2)6
(3) 4
(4) 2
34. A uniform conducting wire ABC has a mass of 10 g.A current of 2A flows through it. The wire is kept ina uniform magnetic field B = 2T. The accelerationof the wire will be
××
××
××
× ×
×
×
× ×4 cm
5 cm
B
A C
(1) Zero (2) 12 m/s2
(3) 1.2 × 10–3 m/s2 (4) 0.6 × 103 m/s2
35. If the horizontal component of earths magnetic fieldis 4 × 10–4 T and angle of dip is 30°, then the verticalcomponent is(1) 3 × 10–4 T (2) 4 × 10–4 T(3) 2.3 × 10–4 T (4) 12.308 × 10–4 T
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
36. Which logic gate is represented by the followingcombination of logic gates?
A
BY
(1) OR (2) NAND
(3) AND (4) NOR
37. In the following common emitter circuit, if = 100,VCE = 7V, VBE = Negligible, RC = 2 k, then B =
IB
RB
B E
RC
IC
C15 V
(1) 0.01mA (2) 0.04 mA
(3) 0.02 mA (4) 0.03 mA
38. Starting with a sample of pure 66Cu, 78
of it decays
into Zn in 15 minutes. The half life of Cu is
(1) 15 minutes (2) 3 minutes
(3)17 minutes2 (4) 5 minutes
39. The ratio of the speed of the electrons in the groundstate of hydrogen atom to the speed of light invacuum is
(1)12
(2)2
137
(3)1
137(4)
1237
40. Two photons having energies twice and five timesthe work function of metal are incident successivelyon the metal surface. The ratio of the maximumvelocity of the photoelectron emitted in the twocases will be
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
41. The critical angle of a certain medium is 1 3sin5
.
The polarising angle of the medium is
(1) 1 4sin5
(2) 1 5tan3
(3) 1 3tan4
(4) 1 4tan3
42. The slit width, when a light of wavelength 6500 Å isincident on a slit, if first minima for red light is at30°, is
(1) 1 × 10–6 m
(2) 5.2 × 10–6 m
(3) 1.3 × 10–6 m
(4) 2.6 × 10–6 m
43. A thin equiconvex lens is made of glass of refractiveindex 1.5 and its focal length is 0.2 m, if it acts as aconcave lens of focal length 0.5 m when dipped ina liquid, then the refractive index of the liquid is
(1)178 (2)
158
(3)138 (4)
98
44. Diameter of the objective lens of a telescope is200 cm. The resolving power of the telescope is
( = 5000 Å)
(1) 6.56 × 106
(2) 3.28 × 105
(3) 1 × 106
(4) 3.28 × 106
45. A fish rising vertically up towards the surface ofwater with speed 3 m/s observes a bird flyingvertically down towards the fish with speed 9 m/s.The actual velocity of bird is
Bird
Fish
(1) 4.5 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) 3.4 m/s
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
46. The positive quantity for solution with negativedeviation is(1) H (2) V(3) G (4) S
47. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AxBy inwater is “s” mole per litre. The solubility productof salt will be(1) s2 (2) xyyxsx+y
(3) xxyysx+y (4) sx+y
48. Two elements X (Atomic mass = 75) andY (Atomic mass = 16) combine to give acompound having 75.8% of X. The formula of thecompound is(1) XY (2) X2Y(3) X2Y2 (4) X2Y3
49. How many minutes are required to deliver3.21 106 coulombs using a current of 500 Aused in the commercial production of chlorine?(1) 8.3 (2) 5.3 104
(3) 6420 (4) 107
50. BX3+NH3 At room temperature BX3.NH3+ Heat
of adduct formation (H). The numerical value ofH is found to be maximum for(1) BF3 (2) BCl3(3) BBr3 (4) BI3
51. BCl3 on hydrolysis gives(1) H3BO3 (2) B2H6
(3) B2O3 (4) BH3·H2O52. Zn can displace
(1) Mg from its aqueous solution(2) Cu from its aqueous solution(3) Na from its aqueous solution(4) Al from aqueous solution
53. The size of particles in suspension, true solutionand colloidal solution varies in the order(1) Suspension > Colloidal > true solution(2) true solution > Suspension > Colloidal(3) Suspension > Colloidal = true solution(4) None of these
54. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 has hybridisation of carbonatoms as(1) sp, sp, sp2, sp2 (2) sp3, sp3, sp2, sp(3) sp3, sp3, sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp
55. Which of the following is lewis acid?(1) BF3 (2) Cl–
(3) H2O (4) NH3
56. BeCl2 is not iso-structural with
(1) –2ICl (2) C2H2
(3) XeF2 (4) GeCl257. Select incorrect statement about alkaline earth
metals(1) Solubility of sulphate decreases down the
group(2) Solubility of hydroxides decreases down the
group(3) Thermal stability of carbonates increases
down the group(4) Basic nature increases down the group
58. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 is actingas reducing agent?(1) SO2+H2O2H2SO4
(2) 2KI+H2O22KOH+I2(3) PbS+4H2O2PbSO4+4H2O(4) Ag2O+H2O22Ag+H2O+O2
59. Which of the following overlap gives bond alongx-axis as internuclear axis?(1) px and px (2) s and pz
(3) s and py (4) 2 2 2x – y zd and d
60. The hybridization of the central atom in 2ICl is
(1) dsp2 (2) sp
(3) sp2 (4) sp3
61. Which of the follwing statement is correct about+3I and –
3I molecular ions?
(1) Number of lone pairs at central atoms samein both molecular ions
(2) Hybridization of central atoms in both ions aresame
(3) Both are polar species(4) Both are planar species
62. Identify the complex which are expected to becoloured(1) [Ti(NO3)4] (2) Na2[CdCl4](3) K3[VF6] (4) [Sc(H2O)6]3+
CHEMISTRY
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
63. The gradual decrease in metall ic radius forlanthanoids is not obeyed by(1) Gd (2) Eu(3) Lu (4) Sm
64. For the complexes showing the square pyramidalstructure, the d-orbital involved in the hybridisationis(1) 2 2x – yd (2) 2zd
(3) dxy (4) dxz
65. The presence of unsaturation in organiccompounds can be tested with(1) Schiff’s reagent (2) Tollen’s reagent(3) Fehling’s reagent (4) Baeyer’s regent
66. Identify which functional group is not present inthe given following compound?
O
NH
OO
O(1) Ketone(2) Ester(3) Amide(4) Ether
67. Styrene is the monomer of(1) Buna–S(2) PTFE(3) Glyptal(4) Orlon
68. Which of the following is the strongest Bronstedbase?
(1)
NH2
(2)HN
HH
(3)N
H
(4)N
H
69. In the reaction,
CH3CC–CH3X
Zn/H O2
CH3–CO
–CO
–CH3
X is:(1) HNO3 (2) O2
(3) O3 (4) KMnO4
70.
OH
OBr ,CS2 2 A (major) : Product (A) is273 K
(1)
OH
Br
Br
(2)
OH
Br
Br
Br
(3)
OH
Br
(4)
OH
Br
71. D–glucose & D–fructose can be differentiated by(1) Fehling solution(2) Tollen’s reagent(3) Benedict test(4) Br2/H2O
72. The configuration of the chirality centres inD–threose (shown) are
CHOHO H
H OHCH OH2
(1) 2R, 3R(2) 2R, 3S(3) 2S, 3R(4) 2S, 3S
73. Which reaction will occur at the fastest rate?
(1) HBrBr
(2)HBr
Br
(3) HBrBr
(4)HBr
Br
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
74. What is the final product (B) of this sequence?
CH3
Br 2
lightA
1. KCN
2. H O , heat2+ B
(1)
CH3CO H2
(2)
CO H2
(3)
CH3
CO H2
(4)
CH –CO H2 2
75. CH –C–3 –C–OH CH –CH– 3 –CH –OH2
O O OH
Above conversion can be done by(1) NaBH4
(2) LiAlH4
(3) PCC(4) KMnO4
76.NBS A (major)
CH d3 c
baH CH3
Bromination take place at(1) a (2) b(3) c (4) d
77. Which of the following has unstable enol form?
(1)
O O
(2)
O O
(3)
O
(4)
O
78. Among the following compounds, the most basiccompound is
(1)N
(2)NH
(3)O
(4)NH
79. Cl– –Br Na/Dry ether (A) (major)
Product (A) of above reaction is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
80. The correct order of the strength of H-bonds is(1) H....F > H....O > H....N(2) H....N > H....O > H....F(3) H....O > H....N > H....F(4) H....F > H....N > H....O
81. How many Faradays are required to reduce0.25 gm of Nb(v) to the metal? (Atomic weight:Nb = 93 gm)(1) 2.7 × 10–3
(2) 1.3 × 10–2
(3) 2.7× 10–2
(4) 7.8× 10–3
82. Select the correct diagram for an endothermicreaction that proceeds through two steps, with thesecond step is rate determining
(1)PE
reactionco ordinate
(2)PE
reactionco ordinate
(3)PE
reactionco ordinate
(4) PE
co ordinate
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
83. Gold sol is a negative sol. The amount of electrolyterequired to coagulate a certain amount of gold solis minimum in the case of(1) CaCl2 (2) NaCl(3) AlCl3 (4) Na2SO4
84. Resistance of a decimolar solution between twoelectrodes 0.02 meter apart and 0.0004 m2 in areawas found to be 50 ohm. Specific conductance is(1) 0.1 Sm–1 (2) 1 Sm–1
(3) 10 Sm–1 (4) 4 × 10–4 Sm–1
85. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for whichn = 3 and l = 1?(1) 6 (2) 10(3) 14 (4) 2
86. For a reaction to occur spontaneously(1) S must be negative(2) (H – TS) must be positive(3) H + TS must be negative(4) G must be negative
87. The Van’t Hoff factor(i) for a dilute aqueous solutionof the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 0
88. What is the molar solubil i ty of Fe(OH)2(Ksp = 8 × 10–16) at pH = 13?
(1) 8 × 10–18 (2) 8 × 10–15
(3) 8× 10–17 (4) 8× 10–14
89. Triclinic crystal has the following unit cell parameters
(1) a=b=c; ===90°
(2) abc; 90°
(3) a=bc; ===90°
(4) a=bc, ==90°;=120°
90. If Pt is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aq.NaClsolution, product of cathode is
(1) H2(g) (2) Na(s)
(3) O2(g) (4) H2O2(l)
BOTANY
91. Reproduction is synonymous with growth forwhich group of organisms?
(1) Multicellular filamentous organisms
(2) Colonial organisms
(3) Unicellular organisms
(4) All organisms
92. Match the following columnsColumn-I Column-II
(a) Ex-situ conservation (i) Herbarium(b) Quick source of (ii) Museum
reference
(c) Preserved animals (iii) Flora
(d) Actual account of (iv) Botanical Gardenplants of a given area
(1) (a)(ii), b(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)(2) (a)(i), b(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)(3) (a)(iv), b(i), (c)(iii), (d)(ii)(4) (a)(iv), b(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)
93. The organisms which show the features of bothplants and animals are
(1) Amoeba, Paramecium and Chlamydomonas
(2) Spirogyra, Paramecium and Amoeba
(3) Euglena, Amoeba and Spirogyra
(4) Slime moulds and Euglena
94. Double stranded RNA is found in
(1) Reovirus (2) TMV
(3) Pox Virus (4) × 174
95. Who discovered an infectious agent that was tobe a free RNA causing potato spindle tuberdisease?
(1) Beijerinck (2) Diener
(3) Ivanowsky (4) Stanley
96. Trichodesmium erythraeum, which gives colur toRed Sea is
(1) Green algae (2) Blue green algae
(3) Red algae (4) Brown algae
97. Organisms which are fungus-like in one phase oftheir life cycle and Amoeba like in another phaseof their life cycle are
(1) Slime moulds (2) Diatoms
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids
98. Sphagnum is used as a packing material fortransporting living plants because of its
(1) Acidic nature
(2) Creeping habit
(3) Requirement water for fertilization
(4) Water retention capacity
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Complete Syllabus Test-24
99. Most roots are positively geotropic. The negativelygeotropic root is(1) Prop roots of banyan(2) Floating roots of Jussiaea(3) Stilt roots of maize(4) Respiratory roots of Rhizophora
100. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?(1) Corm – Crocus(2) Phylloclade – Opuntia(3) Offsets – Pistia(4) Bulbils – Euphorbia
101. Find out the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. stamens(1) Epipetalous – Brinjal(2) Tetradynamous – Solanum(3) Monoadelphous – Hibiscus(4) Polyadelphous – Citrus
102. Type of placentation seen in Argemone is(1) Axile (2) Parietal(3) Marginal (4) Basal
103. Flowers are zygomorphic in(1) Tomato (2) Mustard(3) Datura (4) Bean
104. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove
(1) Periderm (2) Heartwood(3) Endodermis (4) Sapwood
105. Which of the following statements is correct?(1) The genetic material of prokaryotes is not
enclosed in a cell(2) Ribosomes were discovered by Palade in plant
cells(3) Ribosomes are DNA-protein complexes(4) Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
glands of dipteran insects106. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II(a) Leptotene (i) Terminalisation of chaisma(b) Zygotene (ii) Crossing over and
recombination(c) Pachytene (iii) Synapsis(d) Diakinesis (iv) Condensesation of
chromatin begins(1) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)(2) (a)(iv), b(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i)(3) (a)(iv), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(i)(4) (a)(i), b(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(iv)
107. During anaphase- of meiosis(1) Homologous chromosomes separate(2) Non-homologous chromosomes form pairs(3) Sister chromatids separate(4) Non-sister chromatids form pairs
108. Four plant cells are in contact as shown by thegiven diagram.
w = –6 bar
w = –12 bar
s = –12 bar= 4 barp
s = –8 bar= 4 barp
A
C D
B
Which of the following option shows the flow ofwater correctly?
(1) DA
C(2) B
A
DC
(3) CA
DB (4) A
B
CD
109. Stomata opens, when(1) Guard cells swell due to decrease in their
water potential(2) Guard cells swell by endosmosis due to influx
of hydrogen ions (protons)(3) Guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux
of potassium(4) Guard cells swell due to an increase in their
water potential110. Plants def icient in zinc, show reduced
biosynthesis of growth hormone(1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin(3) Ethylene (4) Abscissic acid
111. In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is(1) Ferredoxin(2) Cytochrome(3) Plastocyanin(4) Iron - sulphur protein
112. In alcoholic fermentation, the conversion ofpyruvate into acetaldehyde takes place in thepresence of(1) Maltase(2) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase(3) Amylase(4) Invertase
(11)
Complete Syllabus Test-24
113. Which of the following enzymes of Krebs cyclealso acts as one of the complexes of ETS?(1) Malate dehydrogenase(2) Succinate dehydrogenase(3) Fumarate dehydrogenase(4) Glutarate dehydrogenase
114. Avena curvature test is the bioassay forexamining the activity of(1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin(3) Auxin (4) ABA
115. Bolting hormone is(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
116. Long day plants fail to flower by(1) Short dark period(2) Long light period(3) Long continuous dark period(4) Treating them with low temperature
117. Offsprings formed by sexual reproduction exhibitmore variation than those formed by asexualreproduction because(1) Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process(2) Gametes of parents have qualitatively different
genetic compositions(3) Genetic material comes from parents of two
different species(4) Greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual
reproduction118. The first cell of suspensor (towards micropyle) is
called(1) Hypophysis (2) Clumule(3) Radicle (4) Haustorium
119. In the process of artificial hybridisation programmeinvolving dioecious plants, which of the followingsteps would not be relevant?(1) Bagging of female flower(2) Dusting of pollen grains(3) Emasculation(4) Collection of pollen
120. Which one of the following statements is nottrue?(1) Pollen grains are released from anthers at
2-celled stage(2) Megaspore divides twice to form an eight
nucleate embryo sac
(3) Sporogenous cell of nucellus can directlybehaves as megaspore mother cell
(4) Egg and synergids always l ie near themicropylar end of ovule
121. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, if AAbb is crossedwith aaBB, then phenotypic ratio of its progenyin F2 generation will be(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
122. Which one of the following chemicals works asmutagen on both replicating and non-replicatingDNA?(1) 5-bromouracil (2) Nitrous acid(3) 2-aminopurine (4) 5-methylcytosine
123. If a carrier woman is married with colour blindman, then calculate the percentage for colourblind children.(1) 0% (2) 25%(3) 50% (4) 75%
124. The number of glycosidic bonds in a linear dsDNAhaving 3.3 × 109 bp is(1) 6.6 × 109 (2) 4 × 6.6 × 109
(3) 3.3 × 109 (4) 13.2 × 109
125. Hallmark of the Watson and Crick B-DNA modelwas based on findings of(1) Mershey and Chase(2) Meselson and Stahl(3) Griffith(4) Erwin Chargaff
126. How many ATP molecules are required for theactivation of 20 amino acids during translation?(1) 30 (2) 10(3) 40 (4) 20
127. Select correct option w.r.t composition of biogas(1) 50% – 70% CH4
(2) 60% – 70% CO2
(3) 10% CO(4) 40% H2S
128. Statins are competitive inhibitor of(1) Cellulose (2) Streptokinase(3) HMG CoA reductase (4) Cyclosporin A
129. A stage of suspended development of manyzooplanktons is called(1) Hibernation (2) Diapause(3) Aestivation (4) Adaptation
(12)
Complete Syllabus Test-24
ZOOLOGY
130. Which statement is incorrect out of given below?
(1) Allen’s rule is related with number ofvertebrae in mammals
(2) Jordan’s rule is related with size of fishes
(3) Bergmann’s rule is related with warm bloodedanimals
(4) Gause’s rule is related with competit iveexclusion phenomenon
131. Match the following columns and select thecorrect option.
Column-I Column-II(a) Endemic species (i) No living individual
on earth
(b) Vulnerable species (ii) Facing a high risk ofextinction in nearfuture
(c) Endangered species (iii) Exists only in onegeographical region
(d) Extinct species (iv) Species underthreat
(1) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)
(2) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(iii)
(3) (a)(iii), b(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)
(4) (a)(iii), b(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
132. The formula representing exponential growth is
(1) Nt – N0 = ert
(2) N0 = Nt·ert
(3) Nt = No·ert
(4) Nt = N0·er(K – N)t
133. Match the following columns and select the correctoption.
Column-I Column-II(a) Competition (i) Favourable non-
obligation relationshipbetween two species
(b) Amensalism (ii) Relationship betweentwo organisms in whichboth are benefitted
(c) Mutualism (iii) One species inhibitsthe growth of other
(d) Protocooperation (iv) Rivalry between two ormore organisms forsame resource
(1) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)(2) (a)(iv), b(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i)(3) (a)(iv), b(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iii)(4) (a)(i), b(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(iii)
134. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. speciesdiversity?(1) Fishes are more diverse than birds(2) Amphibians are less diverse than birds(3) Birds are less diverse than reptiles(4) Mammals are less diverse than fishes
135. Choose the incorrect statement(1) Montreal Protocol is associated with the control
of emission of ozone depleting substances(2) Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse
gases(3) Dobson unit is used to measure oxygen content
in water(4) Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of
hospital wastes
136. Which of the following is not a protein?(1) GLUT - 4 (2) Collagen(3) nulin (4) Glucagon
137. Select the incorrect statement(1) Living state is non-equilibrium steady state to
be able to perform work(2) There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion
in living system(3) Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for
many biological activities of proteins(4) Cellulose contains complex helices where it
can hold iodine
138. The letter ‘R’ in the name of restrictionendonuclease; EcoRI denotes(1) Genus of source(2) Species of source(3) Strain of source(4) Order of discovery from source
139. Polysaccharides are broken down intodisaccharides by the action of(1) Trypsin(2) Amylase(3) Lipase(4) Pepsin
(13)
Complete Syllabus Test-24
140. Which of the following is a direct method of genetransfer?(1) Plasmid vector(2) Electroporation(3) Bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC)(4) Bacteriophage
141. Succus entericus is another name for(1) Gastric juice (2) Pancreatic juice(3) Bile (4) Intestinal juice
142. Select the incorrect statement(1) Recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine is produced
from yeast episome(2) Antibodies produced in allergic reaction are
gD(3) Both bone marrow and thymus provide
microenv ironment for development andmaturation of T-lymphocytes
(4) Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for graftrejection
143. Vitamin which is commonly known asantihaemorrhagic factor is(1) Vit-A (2) Vit-C(3) Vit-K (4) Vit-B2
144. Which of the following hormone is secreted byGIT that stimulates the production of bicarbonatefrom pancreas?(1) GIP (2) Gastrin(3) Secretin (4) Duocrinin
145. Maximum amount of oxygen delivered to skeletalmuscles by one litre of blood in an adult humanduring heavy physical acivity is(1) 200 mL (2) 150 mL(3) 750 mL (4) 50 mL
146. After hyperventilation the person can hold hisbreath for sometime due to(1) Low pO2 in blood (2) High pCO2 in blood(3) High pO2 in blood (4) Low pCO2 in blood
147. Lymph contains(1) Blood - (Corpuscles + Fibrinogen)(2) Blood - Some proteins(3) Blood - RBCs(4) Lymph = Plasma - proteins
148. ECG showing depressed S-T segment indicates(1) Insufficient oxygen supply to heart muscle(2) Acute myocardial infarction(3) Rheumatic fever(4) Arteriosclerotic heart disease
149. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle posessingMg+2 dependent ATPase activity is(1) Troponin (2) Myosin(3) Actin (4) Tropomyosin
150. Which of the fol lowing does not describerheumatoid arthritis?(1) Affects larger joints first(2) Formation of rheumatoid factor (IgM)(3) Formation of pannus granules(4) It is an autoimmune disorder
151. Which part of brain plays role in maintaining balanceand also has flask shaped Purkinje cell?(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum(3) Pons (4) Medulla Oblongata
152. Which of the following match is incorrect?(1) Frigidoreceptor – End bulb of Krause(2) Phonoreceptor – Organ of Corti(3) Thermoreceptor – Merkels disc(4) Rheoreceptor – Lateral line sense organ
in fishes153. Continued stimulation of neurons of the same part
will not cause perception by the nervous systemdue to the phenomenon of(1) Tetany(2) Saltatory conduction(3) Synaptic fatigue(4) Synaptic delay
154. Bronze like pigmentation of skin, low blood sugarlevel, high plasma K+ are related to(1) Conn’s syndrome(2) Addison’s disease(3) Cushing’s syndrome(4) Adrenal virilism
155. Choose the most common second messengersamongst the following(1) ATP (2) ADP(3) cAMP (4) Adenylcyclase
156. Which of the following is a local hormone?(1) Thyroxine (2) Growth hormone(3) Gastrin (4) Oxytocin
157. Which of the following options does not includeantagonistic hormones?(1) Insulin and glucagon(2) PTH and calcitonin(3) Epinephrine and norepinephrine(4) Cortisol and insulin
(14)
Complete Syllabus Test-24
158. Which of the following sex hormones producestrongest anabolic effects on protein andcarbohydrate metabolism?
(1) Testosterone (2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone (4) Relaxin159. Which of the following technique involves direct
injection of sperm into the ovum to form an in-vitroembryo?(a) ICSI (b) IUI(c) IUT (d) IVF(1) Only (a)(2) Only (a) and (b)(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
160. MTPs are not ethically meant for(1) Female Foeticide(2) Removing unsustainable pregnancies(3) Unwanted pregnancy(4) Where pregnancy can be harmful or even
fatal to the mother or to the foetus or both161. Which of the following physiological changes is
not associated with RAAS pathway?(1) Increase in GFR(2) Increase in blood pressure(3) Increase in blood aldosterone level(4) Tubular secretion increases
162. Marine teleosts remove the nitrogenous wastemainly in the form of(1) Ammonia (2) TMAO(3) Urea (4) Uric acid
163. Match the following and choose the correctoption
Column I Column II(a) Non-medicated IUDs (i) LNG-20(b) Hormone releasing IUDs (ii) Multiload 375(c) Copper releasing IUDs (iii) Lippe’s loop(1) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii)(2) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(i)(3) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iii)(4) (a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii)
164. Which drug would preferably be used to induce anon-surgical abortion?(1) RU-486 (2) Ovral(3) Nonoxynol-9 (4) LNG-20
165. An ideal contraceptive should not be(1) Having effect on hormone levels(2) Easily available(3) Interfering with sexual drive(4) Effective in covering the risk of conception
166. Which of the following reasons could possibllycause abortion in 2nd month of pregnancy?(1) Rise in progesterone levels in blood(2) Increase in blood level of hCG(3) Maintenance of corpus luteum(4) Bilateral oophorectomy
167. The type of cell not found in Cnidaria is(1) Cnidoblast (2) Lasso cell(3) Mesogleal cells (4) Choanocyte
168. If the duration of menstrual cycle in a female is of41 days, what is the duration of luteal phase andthe day of ovulation?(1) 14, 27 (2) 27, 14(3) 19, 18 (4) 20, 21
169. Select the correct statement regarding colostrum(1) Rich in antigen(2) Rich in IgA(3) Produced upto 6 months(4) Its release is blocked by oxytocin
170. Inner cell mass gives rise to all of the followingexcept(1) Embryo (2) Chorion(3) Yolk sac (4) Allantois
171. Uricotelism is not found in(1) Cockroach (2) Snake(3) Dog fish (4) Parrot
172. Read the following statements and choose thecorrect optionStatement A : Genetic drift accentuatesspeciation.Statement B : Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium seemsto retard speciation.(1) Both the statements are correct(2) Both the statements are incorrect(3) Only statement A is correct(4) Only statement B is correct
173. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciationdevelops without a(1) Geographic barrier(2) Barrier to gene flow(3) Change in chromosome number(4) Barrier to mating
(15)
Complete Syllabus Test-24
174. The two critical steps in the evolution of humanswere(1) Evolution of bipedalism and brain
enlargement(2) Making of tools and its use(3) Using fire and making shelters(4) Exhibiting culture and communication skills
175. Cranial nerve which does not transmitparasympathetic fibres is(1) III (2) V(3) VII (4) IX
176. Hybridomas are fusion products of(1) Normal antibody producing B-cells with
myeloma cells(2) Abnormal antibody producing cells with
myeloma cells(3) Sex cells with myeloma(4) Bone cells with myeloma
177. Cholesterol is a precursor for each of the followingexcept(1) Bile salts (2) Vit - D(3) Insulin (4) Steroid hormones
q q q
178. Areolar connective tissue joins(1) Bones with bones(2) Fat body with muscles(3) Skin with muscles(4) Bones with muscles
179. Which of the following glands/structures is presentonly in female cockroach?(1) Anal style (2) Mushroom gland(3) Phallic gland (4) Colleterial gland
180. Which one of the following animals is correctlymatched with its one characteristic feature andthe taxon?
Animals Characteristic Taxonfeature
(1) Prawn Dorsal nerve Arthropodacord
(2) Duck billed Oviparous Mammaliaplatypus
(3) Silverfish Pectoral & ChordataPelvic fins
(4) Sea anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria
(16)
Complete Syllabus Test-24
1. (3)2. (1)3. (3)4. (2)5. (1)6. (2)7. (3)8. (3)9. (1)10. (1)11. (1)12. (2)13. (4)14. (4)15. (2)16. (1)17. (1)18. (2)19. (3)20. (4)21. (3)22. (1)23. (1)24. (1)25. (2)26. (3)27. (2)28. (1)29. (3)30. (4)31. (4)32. (3)33. (3)34. (2)35. (3)36. (3)
37. (2)38. (4)39. (3)40. (2)41. (2)42. (3)43. (2)44. (4)45. (1)46. (4)47. (3)48. (4)49. (4)50. (4)51. (1)52. (2)53. (1)54. (3)55. (1)56. (4)57. (2)58. (4)59. (1)60. (4)61. (4)62. (3)63. (2)64. (1)65. (4)66. (4)67. (1)68. (4)69. (3)70. (3)71. (4)72. (3)
73. (4)74. (4)75. (2)76. (1)77. (3)78. (4)79. (2)80. (1)81. (2)82. (4)83. (3)84. (2)85. (4)86. (4)87. (3)88. (4)89. (2)90. (1)91. (3)92. (4)93. (4)94. (1)95. (2)96. (2)97. (1)98. (4)99. (4)100. (4)101. (2)102. (2)103. (4)104. (1)105. (4)106. (2)107. (1)108. (3)
109. (4)110. (2)111. (4)112. (2)113. (2)114. (3)115. (2)116. (3)117. (2)118. (4)119. (3)120. (2)121. (1)122. (2)123. (3)124. (1)125. (4)126. (4)127. (1)128. (3)129. (2)130. (1)131. (4)132. (3)133. (2)134. (3)135. (3)136. (3)137. (4)138. (3)139. (2)140. (2)141. (4)142. (2)143. (3)144. (3)
145. (2)146. (4)147. (3)148. (1)149. (2)150. (1)151. (2)152. (3)153. (3)154. (2)155. (3)156. (3)157. (3)158. (1)159. (1)160. (1)161. (4)162. (1)163. (1)164. (1)165. (3)166. (4)167. (4)168. (1)169. (2)170. (2)171. (3)172. (1)173. (1)174. (1)175. (2)176. (1)177. (3)178. (3)179. (4)180. (2)
ANSWERS
Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 24
(1)
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456
HINTS
OF
Home Assignment-23 (CST-24)
CST-24
PHYSICS
1.x k m 1 n3 3
x k m 2 n
13(1) 3(2) 3 42
= 14%
2.
22 2 2 2
0 0 02 2
0
keke ML T M L T
4 hc h h ML T
3. v
tt
t1 2t1
2 2v 2fs v 2fs Þ
s 12s 2sf
12s t 2fs , 144s2 = t22fs, 21s ft72
4.2
maxvRg
, 4
2m 2
vA Rg
5.
gsin2q
90°qfsinq
arel = g(sin2q1 – sin2q2) = 9.8 (sin260° – sin230°)
23 19.8 4.9 m/s4 4
6.
T sin30°¢
T¢
T cos30°¢
w
T
T
µR
T¢sin 30° = w, T = T¢cos30°, 12 T¢cos30°
24T3
¢ , TT¢sin30° = w, 24 1w 6.92N23
7.2
2 2vae k rtr
, v = krt, 2 2 2 21 1w mv mk r t2 2
2 2dwp mk r tdt
(2)
Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04
8.s
h
k = w, O – q = mg(h + s) – Fs
hF Mg 1s
9.1 1
cmm x m 2m 2 3m 3X
m m 2m 3m
2
n n 1 2n 1m 1 4 9 . . .n 2n 16
n n 1m 1 2 3 ...n 32
10. About centre 21 MR2
So, as the distance between the centre of massand the point increases, the MO increases, so maxis at print B.
11. Conservation of energy
2 21 1mv w mgh2 2
, 2
2 22
1 1 2 vmv mr mgh2 2 5 r
10 10v gh v gh7 7
Þ
12. = – k
kdq
q
w2
w
d kd q
k2 q ...(1)
0
w2
d k d q
1k2 q
q = q1 or 2n1 = 2nnn1 = n
13. 2 2
GMGM 81x 60R x
x = 54Rfrom moon 60R – 54R = 6R
14. a = 32 20
3
= 4 m/s2
For 10 cm partF – 20 = m × a = 1 × 4F = 24 NFor 20 cm part32 – F = 2 × 4F = 24N
15. r = 2 2 2 21 2r r 3 4 = 5 cm
16.44
1 14
2 2
E T 300 81E 400 256T
17.80 64 80 64 T
5 2
80 52 80 52 T10 2
T = 24°C
18. 11 y 2T V V
11 y2
y = 3 1.52
19. 1 2
1 1
W T TQ T
W 500 3001000 500
W = 400J
20. u = 2 5R T 4 3R T2 2
= 11RTT
21.c
vffV V
¢
c
c
V V2f f
V V
Þ 2V – 2VC = V + Vc Þ cV V3
(3)
Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04
22. After 100 oscillation amplitude fall to 13 times after
next 100 oscillation i.e. after 200 oscillation
amplitude falls to 21 1
3 9
times
23. V = 3k x
F = 2du 3k x
dx
–m2x = –3kx2
x , 1 1Tx a
24. 1
2
T 100 10T 121 11
1 211T 10T
10 vibration of longer pendulum.
25. 0V V 6f f f fV 5 ¢ ¢ Þ
Charge in frequency = 6f ff5 5
% charge = 20%
26. dv yzdx zxdy xydz
1,1,1v
0 0,0,0
dv dx cyz
v = –1v
27. From wheatstone bridge remove 8F.
8 F5 6µF
24µF
2µF
8µF
Cg = 8F
28.X RE X 2
X R1Er
Option (1)
29.100V
2 4
610V 80V 6A 56V 2 F
4A24V0V
q = 2× (56 – 24) = 2 × 32 = 64 e
30.R R
2R BA
2R
2R BA
Rq = R
31. iR
0 0 03i i 3 i2
2R 2 2R 2 8R
q
32. Area = 2 2
2 2 2a a2 a a a 12 2 2
12 ˆM 1 a k2
33. 0 0
22
0
IB 2 a 1:1IB
2 (2a)
¢
34.
3 cm
F = Bil = 2 × 2 × 3
100
G = Fm =
12 1000100 10
= 12 m/s2
(4)
Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04
35. tanq = BVBV Þ BV = BH tanq = 4 × 10–4 tan30°
= 2.3 ×10–4T
36. y = A B A B A B
37. V = VCE = ICRC Þ 15 = 7 + IC × 2 × 103
IC = 4mA
= C
BB
I 4II 100Þ = 0.04 mA
38. Undecayed N = 37 1 11
8 8 2
Number of half lives = 3
3 = 15T
T = 5 minutes
39.2
0
ev2 nh
, n = 1,
2
0
ev2 h
,
V 1C 137
40. 2w0– w0 =2
11mv2 , 5w0 – w0 = 2
21 mv2
21 1
222
V 1 V 14 V 2V
Þ
41.4
5 3
q
sinq = 1 Þ
1 5sin 3
q
qp = —1tan u = —1 5tan3
42. dsinq = n
n =1, = 6500Å
sin30° = 12
ndsin30
= 1.3 × 10–6 m
43.g
f a g 1 0.5 1.5 1f g 1 0.2 g 1
4 15g a5
Þ
44. RP = –70.2 2
1.22 1.22 5 10
= 3.28 ×106
45. g = 3 + 43
dydt
dy 4.5dt
m/s
CHEMISTRY
47. y xxs ys
AxBy(S) xA aq yB (aq)
Where ‘s’ is the solubility of AxBy in moles/L.
x yy xspK A B x yxs ys x y x yx y s
48. XaYaa 75% x 100 75.8
75a 16b
b 16% y 100 24.275a 16b
Formula = x2y3
49. Q = i.t
6Q 3.21 10 Ct 6240 seci 500A
=107 min
50. BI3 is the strongest Lewis acid
52. Zn is more positive than Cu
56. C2H2, 2ICl and XeF2 are all linear but GeCl2 hasone lone pair on central atom.
57. Solubility of hydroxides (and oxides) increasedown the group for Group-2.
58. Ag2O is reduced to Ag
59. Px + Px gives -bond when ‘X’ is the molecularaxis.
61. 3 is bent shaped where as 3
is linear..
62. In K3[VF6], V is in +3 state (d2) others are d10 ord0.
(5)
Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04
63. Metall ic Radius gradually decreases butexceptionally increases for Eu.
64. 2 2x yd is involved in octahedral, square pyramidal
and square planar structure.
65. Baeyer ’s reagent becomes colourless withunsaturated compound. The reagent is 1% coldalkaline KMno4.
68. It’s a secondary amine.
70. In CS2 medium, monobromination of phenol takesplace.
71. 2
2
BrH O oxidises D-glucose to D-gluconic acid but
D-fructose is not oxidised.
72.CHO
HO H
CH(OH)CH OH2
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
CH(OH)CHO
OHH
CH OH2
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
73. Participation of a tertiary carbocation lowers the
Ea and raises the rate. r
74. A =
CH 2 Br
B =CH 2 COOH
75. LiAIH4 can reduce both Ketone and ester.
76. Position ‘a’ will give allylic and tertiary radical
77.O OH
This is unstable as it becomes antiaromatic
78. It’s a secondary amine.
79. It’s an example of Wurtz reaction
80. Strength of H-Bonding
H .....F > H.....O > H.....N
81. For 93 gram, you require 5F
For 0.25 gram
you require 1.3 × 10–2F
82. The second hump should be steeper and productenthalpy must be higher than reactant enthalpy.
84. Specific conductance
1R a
1 0.02
50 0.0004 = 1 ohm–1.n–1
85. It means one orientation of 3p-orbital
88. 22
S 0.1MFe OH s Fe aq 2OH aq
At pH = 13, POH is 1
So [OH–] = 10–1M
If the solubil i ty of Fe2+ is ‘S’ moles/L.Then Ksp = [Fe2+] [OH–]2
8 × 10–16 = s(0.1)2
s = 8 × 10–14
BOTANY
91. For unicellular organisms like bacteria, Amoebagrowth takes place by increase in number of cellsthrough div ision of cel l. Hence growth andreproduction are mutually inclusive orsynonymous
92. Ex-situ conservation - Botanical garden[conservation outside the natural habitat]Quick referral system - HerbariumPreserved animals - MuseumActual account of plants of a given area - Flora
93. Euglena
Plant featureCan photosynthesize,Posses chl-a and Chl-b
Animal featureCell wall absent
Slime mould
Plant feature Animal feature[In unfavourable conditionproduces spores whichpossess cellulosic cell wall]
[In suitable favourable condition they grow andspread over several fitswithout cell wall]
(6)
Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04
94. dsRNA is found in Reo virus
95. Infections agent in form of free RNA causingpotato spindle tuber disease is Viroid [Discoveredby Diener]
96. Trichodesmium erythraeum is a blue-green algae(cyanobacteria) responsible for red colouration inred sea.
97. Slime mould
Fungi like feature Amoeba like feature[Spore formation] [Amoeboid plasmodial stage]
98. Sphagnum has water retention capacity99. Negatively geotropic roots are found in
Rhizophora. Such roots are calledPneumatophore.
100. Bulbil found in Agave.101. Tetradynamous stamen found in Brassicaceae
family, not in Solanum.102. Argemone Parietal placentation103. Zygomorphic flowers Bean104. Potato peel includes periderm105. Ribosomes are RNA-Protein complex. George
Palade discovered ribosome in animal cells.Polytene chromosome commonly found inDipteran insects like Drosophila and Chironomus.
106. Leptotene Condensation of chromatin beginsZygotene SynapsisPachytene Crossing over and recombinationDiakinesis Terminalisation of chiasma
107. During Anaphase I homologous chromosomesseparate. Sister chromatids of a chromosomeseparate in Anaphase II.
1
[1 and 1 are homologous chromosomes]¢
Metaphase
1¢
[Homologous chromosomes are present in two equatorial planes]
Anaphase 1¢[Separation of homologous chromosomes]
1
Metaphase [Chromosomes present insingle equatorial plane]
Anaphase [Separation of sisterchromatids of achromosome]
108. w s p
w[A] 6bar
w[B] ( 12) (4) 8bar
w[C] ( 8) (4) 4bar
w[D] 12bar
C has less negative water potential so direction ofwater flow will be
C
A
BD
109. Malic acid formed in vacuole of guard cell
Dissociation of malic acid into malate anion andH+
Influx of K+ into guard cell vacuole and efflux ofH+ from guard cell vacuole to subsidiary cell
K+ combines with malate to form K+ malate whichincreases w [more negative w]
Endosmosis
Stomata opens
110. Zinc is required for auxin synthesis
111. In PS I, primary e– acceptor Fe – S(Iron-Sulphur protein)
112. Alcoholic fermentation
2Pyruvate Decarboxylase
2MgPyruvic acid Acetaldehyde CO
113. Succinate Dehydrogenase attached to the innermembrane of mitochondria takes part in Krebs’cycle and ETS
114. Avena curvature test Auxin bioassay
115. Bolting (Internode elongation just prior toflowering) is a Gibberellin effect
(7)
Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04
116. For long day plants, continuous and uninterruptedlight period is important to induce flowering.Uninterrupted day light for long duration is criticalto induce flowering in LDP.
117. The variation formed in offsprings is sexualreproduction is due to involvement of twogenetically different gametes
118. During embryogenesis the zygote div idestransversely to form two unequal cells - a largesuspensor cell (towards micropyle) and a smallembryonal cell (towards chalaza). The suspensorcell undergoes series of transverse divisions toform 6 - 10 celled suspensor. The first cell of thesuspensor towards micropyle is called vesicular/haustorial cell.
119. Dioecious plants have unisexual flowers. Henceemasculation is not required. The female flowerbuds are bagged before the flowers open. Whenthe stigma becomes receptive, pollination iscarried out using the desired pollen and the floweris rebagged.
120. In 60% of Angiosperms (mainly in dicots) pollengrains are liberated in 2-celled stage.
Megaspore divides mitotically thrice to form 8nucleate embryo sac.
Megaspore mother cell is differenciated from thesporogenous cell of nucellus towards micropylarend.
Egg and synergid lie closely towards micropylarend of ovule form egg apparatus.
121. AAbb × aaBB . . . Parental generation
AaBb . . . . F1
selfing
AB Ab aB abAB AABB AABb AaBB AaBbAb AABb AAbb AaBb AabbaB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBbab AaBb Aabb aaBb aabb
A – B – 9A – bb 3 FaaB – 3aabb 1
2 Phenotypic ratio in F2 9:3:3:1
122. Nitrous acid is a chemical mutagen which canconvert adenine into hypoxanthine and nitrousacid is mutagenic to both replicating and nonreplicating DNA.
123. Carrier woman for colourblindness Xc X
Colourblind man Xc Y
Xc X
Xc Xgametes
Xcx Y
YXc
Xc
Xc Xc Xc Xc Xcolourblinddaughter
carrierdaughter
Y Xc Y X Ycolourblindson
normalson
X
50% colourblind children
124. Number of glycosidic bond = number of N-base
In a linear DNA having 3.3 × 109 bp means(3.3 × 109) × 2 = 6.6 × 109 bases
Number of glycosidic bonds are 6.6 × 109
125. Watson-Cricks B-DNA model is based onchargaff’s rule
126. Each amino acid needs one ATP during initiationof translation where it binds with ATP and it’srespective enzyme to become activated. Hencefor 20 amino acids 20 ATP are required.
127. Biogas comprises of methane (60 - 70%); CO2(30-40%) H2S and H2 (10%)
128. Statins (produced by yeast monascus purpureus)are blood cholesterol lowering agent. It is acompetitive inhibitor of HMG Co-A reductasewhich is an enzyme responsible for cholesterolsynthesis.
129. Suspended development is the stage in life cyclewhere an organism changes its developmental,physiological, structural and biochemicalbehav iour to pass through unfavourableconditions. Diapause is a type of suspendeddevelopment is found in many zooplanktons inlakes and ponds.
130. Mammals from colder climate generally haveshorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss -Allen’s rule.
131. Endemic species Conf ined only in onegeographical areaVulnerable species Facing high risk ofextinction in medium term future (Black Buck)Endangered species Facing high risk ofextinction in near future (one hour rhinoceros)Extinct species No liv ing individuals arerecorded on earth (Dodo)
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Hints of Mock Test Paper Code-MTK/04
132. The integral form of exponential growth equation
Nt = Noert
Nt = Population density after t time
No = Population density at time zero
e = Base of natural logarithm (2.71828)
133. Competition is rivalry between two or moreorganisms for same resource. It’s a detrimentalinteraction for both the organisms.
Amensalism represents a condition where onespecies inhibits the growth of the other. Theinteraction is detrimental for one organism whereas it is neither detrimental, nor beneficial for theother.
Mutualism is a relationship where both organismsare benefitted and both of them can’t competetheir life cycle without each other (Ex - Lichen)
Protocooperation is a relationship where both theorganisms are benefitted but such organisms canlive equally well without each other also
134.
Fishes
Mammals
Birds
Reptiles
Amphibians
Figure Representing global biodiversity throughpie diagram (Page 69 RM-Mat 4)
135. Dobson unit is used to measure thickness ofozone layer in atmosphere.
136. Inulin is a homopolysaccharide of fructose.
139. In human GI system amylase is released fromsalivary glands and pancreas.
140. Electroporation or electropermeabilization is atechnique in which an electrical field is applied tocells to allow DNA to be introduced into the cell.
146. Hyperventilation decreases pCO2 of blood soinspiratory centre is not being activated.
148. Blockage of coronary arteries is one of theprimary cause of insuff icient O2 supply tomyocardium.
151. Purkinje cel ls are largest neurons of CNSpyramidal cells, stellate cells and spindle cells arepresent in cerebrum.
154. Addison’s disease is due to autoimmunedestruction of adrenal cortex.
155. Action of stress hormone adrenaline is primarilydependent on cAMP.
ZOOLOGY
156. Gastrin acts primarily on parietal cells of stomach.It also affects gastric motility.
157. Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are very similarneurotransmitters w.r.t functions. They play a rolein body’s natural fight or fight response.
158. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormoneand is an anabolic steroid
167. Choanocyte is characteristic of Porifera, it hasflagella.
168. Luteal phase is of 14 days irrespective of thelength of menstrual cycle
171. Shark is ureotelic.
175. Parasympathetic system involves cranial nervepairs - III, VII, IX and X
177. Insulin in human body has three polypeptideschains (A, B and C) though chain A and chain Bform the functional hormone.