home assignment – 8 · (3) the minimum time in which man can cross the river is d v (4) both (1)...

(1)

PHYSICS

Instructions :

(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material onAnswer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

Choose the correct answer :

1. A bird is flying along a straight line with velocityv = (6–2t) m/s. The distance travelled by the bird int1 = 2 s to t

2 = 5 s is

(1) 5 m

(2) Zero

(3) 4 m

(4) 6 m

2. A particle is moving on x-y plane so that its x

coordinate varies with time as x = 2

2

t, and y

coordinate varies as y = 2

2

x

. The velocity of the

particle at t = 2 s is

(1) (2 3 )v i j �

� � m/s

(2) (2 2 )v i j �

� � m/s

(3) (3 4 )v i j �

� � m/s

(4) (2 4 )v i j �

� � m/s

3. A projectile is thrown from the ground as shown.This distance between two vertical walls is 90 m. Therange of projectile is

x

y

t1=3 s t = 7 s

90 m

(1) 125 m (2) 180 m

(3) 225 m (4) 250 m

4. A man can swim in still water with speed v, speedof water in the river is uand the width of the river isd. Select the correct statement(s)

(1) Man cannot reach the point exactly opposite onthe bank if u > v.

(2) Man can reach exactly opposite point on the

bank in time 2 2

dt

v u

if u > v

(3) The minimum time in which man can cross the

river is d

v

(4) Both (1) & (3)

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.

Home Assignment – 8

08/07/2020

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Home Assignment-8 Mock Test for NEET - 2020

5. An external force F is applied on a block at angle from horizontal as shown. The minimum value offorce required to keep the block stationary is

M

Coefficient

of friction ( )

F

(1)sin

mg

(2)sin cos

mg

(3)sin cos

mg

(4) 2

tan

1

mg

6. A force-time (F–t) graph for a particle moving alonga straight line varies with time as shown. If linearmomentum of particle at t = 0 is 20 kg m/s, then itslinear momentum at t =10 second is

t (s)

F

–20 N

5

2.5 7.5 10

20 N

(0, 0)

(1) 120 kg m/s (2) 70 kg m/s

(3) 40 kg m/s (4) 20 kg ms–1

7. A body of mass m is projected at an angle withthe horizontal with an initial velocity v

0. The average

power of gravitational force over the whole time offlight is

(1) mg v0 cos (2) mg v

0 sin

(3) 2

01 cosmg v (4) Zero

8. Moment of inertia of a body about given axis is1.2 kg m2. Initially it is at rest. An angularacceleration of 25 rad/s2 is applied on it for t

0 time

so that its rotational kinetic energy becomes1500 joule. The t

0 is

(1) 2 s (2) 3 s

(3) 4 s (4) 5 s

9. A particle of mass 3 kg moves along a straight line4y – 3x = 2 (where x and y are in metre), withconstant velocity v = 5 m/s. The magnitude ofangular momentum about the origin is

(1) 16 kg m2s–1 (2) 6 kg m2s–1

(3) 28 kg m2s–1 (4) 1.6 kg m2s–1

10. Three identical masses m each are kept at thecorners of an equilateral triangle of side a. The workdone by external force to increase the side oftriangle from a to 2a, is

(1)2

2

3

Gm

a(2)

22

3

Gm

a

(3)2

3

2

Gm

a (4)

23

2

Gm

a

11. Which of the following statements regarding thetrajectory of the satellite is correct?

(1) If v < 11.2 km/s, it moves in a circular path

(2) If v = 11.2 km/s, it moves along a parabolic path

(3) If v > 11.2 km/s, it moves along a circular path

(4) If v < 11.2 km/s, it moves along a hyperbolicpath

12. When 2 moles of air is given 70 calorie of heat, itstemperature changes from 20°C to 25°C at constantpressure. The amount of heat required to raised thetemperature of air through same range (20°C to 25°C)at constant volume is

(1) 50 calorie (2) 45 calorie

(3) 40 calorie (4) 70 calorie

13. The state of a thermodynamic system changes asshown on P-V diagram. Which of the followingP-T diagram correctly matches the given P-Vdiagram?

P

V

CB

A D

V0

3V0

P0

2P0

(1)

P

TO

B C

AD

(2)

P

TO

C B

DA

(3)

P

T

CB

A D

O

(4)

P

T

C B

AD

O

14. A body cools from 80°C to 60°C in 10 min, when thetemperature of surroundings is 30°C. Thetemperature of the body after next 10 min will be

(1) 40°C (2) 43°C

(3) 48°C (4) 52°C

(3)

Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-8

15. Two pendulums A and B of lengths 144 cm and100 cm are initially in same phase at their equilibriumpositions. After how many complete oscillations ofB, they are in same phase again at equilibrium?

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 10

16. A wave represented by the equationy = a cos(kx –t) is superposed with another waveto form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0is a node. The equation of the other wave is

(1) –a sin(kx – t) (2) –a cos(kx – t)

(3) a sin(kx + t) (4) –a cos(kx + t)

17. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes isformed between two atoms having a distance 1.21 Åbetween them. The wavelength of the standing wave is

(1) 2.42 Å (2) 1.21 Å

(3) 3.63 Å (4) 5.26 Å

18. The equivalent capacitance between points A and Bin the given network is

B

A

3 µF 3 µF 3 µF

3 µF

3 µF 3 µF 3 µF

2 µF 2 µF

(1) 9 F (2) 1 F

(3)9

2 F (4) 3 F

19. Four resistors are connected in the given networkwhich is connected with to an emf source as shown.The potential difference between points A and B isequal to

3

4 2

9

12 V

A

B

(1) –5 volt (2) 5 volt

(3) 4 volt (4) –4 volt

20. Four identical bulbs are connected in the circuit asshown in the diagram. Which of the following bulbsglows most brightly?

V

B1

B2

B3

B4

(1) B1

(2) B2

(3) B3

(4) B4

21. If 4% of total current should pass throughgalvanometer coil of resistance G, then the requiredvalue of shunt is

(1) 24G (2)24

G

(3) 25G (4)25

G

22. A circular region of radius R is occupied by the time

varying magnetic field B(t) such that 0dB

dt . The

magnitude of induced electric field at the point P ata distance r (< R) is

R

(1) Decreasing with r (2) Increasing with r

(3) Not varying with r (4) Varying as r–2

23. An alternating voltage is given by v = 10 cos100t volt.

The instantaneous voltage at t = 1

s600

, is

(1) 5 3 volt (2) 5 volt

(3) 5 2 volt (4) 10 volt

24. In a stationary hydrogen atom an electron jumpsfrom n = 3 to n = 1. The recoil momentum ofhydrogen atom is

(1)9

8Rh (2)

3

4Rh

(3)8

9Rh (4) 9 Rh

25. An electron revolves round a nucleus of atomicnumber Z. If 32.4 eV of energy is required to excitean electron from n = 3 to n = 4 state, then thevalue of Z is

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 8

26. The energy released in the following reaction is

5B10 +

1H2

5B11 +

1H1. Given mass of respective

nuclei are 5B10 = 10.0165 U,

5B11 = 11.0128 U,

1H2 = 2.01472 U and

1H1 = 1.00812 U

(1) 95.3 MeV (2) 9.53 MeV

(3) 953 MeV (4) 0.953 MeV

(4)


27. Following combination of gates, behaves like whichgate?

A

y

B

(1) OR (2) NAND

(3) AND (4) NOR

28. Mediated particle in strong nuclear force is

(1) Boson (2) Photons

(3) Gluons (4) Graviton

29. Which of the following readings taken by aninstrument of least count 0.001 cm is true?

(1) 11.20 cm (2) 12.280 cm

(3) 128.80 cm (4) 5.8 cm

30. In relation ( / ) aE taP e

b, P represents number, E is

energy and t is time. The dimension of a and b, is

(1) [ML2T3], [MLT–1] (2) [M–1L–2T3], [M–1L2T–3]

(3) [M–1L–2T–3], [ML2T3] (4) [M–1L–2T3], [M–1L–2T3]

31. A ball of mass m is moving with velocity u towardsanother stationary ball of mass 2m. If collision iselastic then the percentage KE transferred byball-1 to ball-2 is

(1) 68.8% (2) 78.8%

(3) 88.8% (4) 100%

32. A heavy solid sphere is thrown on a horizontal roughsurface with initial velocity v

0 without rolling. What

will be its speed when it starts pure rolling motion?

(1) 0

5

7v (2) 0

3

5v

(3) 0

2

5v (4) 0

5

8v

33. Four thin identical rods are joined to form a square asshown. If it is rotated along an axis passing throughone side, then its moment of inertia is equal to

l, m

l, m

l, ml, m

(1)28

3ml (2)

22

3ml

(3)26

3ml (4)

25

3ml

34. Three thermal conductors of identical dimensions arewelded as shown. The temperature of the junction is

60°C

20°C

80°C

k

3k

2k

(1) 60°C (2) 50°C

(3) 40°C (4) 45°C

35. The electric potential in a space is given byV = 4x2 volt. The electric field at a point A (1, 0, 2)in this region is 8 V/m along

(1) Positive x-axis (2) Negative x-axis

(3) Positive y-axis (4) Negative y-axis

36. Deflection in galvanometer is zero, when jockey istouched at 50 cm from point A, in the given circuit,then the emf of the cell is [given resistance ofpotentiometer wire is 3 ].

BA

G

E

4 V8

l = 100 cm

50 cm

(1) 1.5 V (2) 1.0 V

(3) 0.5 V (4) 0.25 V

37. The magnetic field produced at O by the currentcarrying conductor shown in the figure is equal to

R

I

I

O

(1)02

14 2

I

R

(2) 0

22

4

I

R

(3)0

24 2

I

R(4) 0

14

I

R

38. A voltmeter of range 5 V is to be converted into anammeter of range 10 mA. If the resistance ofvoltmeter is 1 k, then what resistance should beconnected in parallel with it?

(1) 0.25 k (2) 0.50 k

(3) 0.75 k (4) 1.0 k

(5)


CHEMISTRY

39. A parallel beam of light falls on a convex lens offocal length 25 cm. A concave lens of focal length7 cm is kept at x distance from the convex lens. Iffinal refracted ray from concave lens is also parallelto principal axis, then the value of x is

(1) 24 cm (2) 18 cm

(3) 12 cm (4) 6 cm

40. The refracting angle of a prism is A and its refractiveindex is cot (A / 2). The angle of minimum deviationproduced by the prism is

(1) 180° + 2A (2) 180° – 2A

(3) 180° + 3A (4) 180° – 3A

41. An object is placed at 30 cm from a convex lens offocal length 20 cm. On its other side a convexmirror of radius of curvature 10 cm is placed at xdistance from the lens so that an upright imagecoincides with object. Then x is

(1) 15 cm (2) 35 cm

(3) 50 cm (4) 65 cm

42. The threshold wavelength of metal surface is 6000 Å.The wavelength of incident radiation is 4500 Å. Themaximum kinetic energy of the ejectedphotoelectrons, is

(1) 0.38 eV (2) 0.63 eV

(3) 0.76 eV (4) 0.92 eV

43. Second excitation energy for hydrogen atom is

(1) 3.4 eV (2) –12.2 eV

(3) –1.51 eV (4) 12.2 eV

44. Half life of a radioactive substance is 40 minutes.What is the time between 33% decay and 67%decay?

(1) 10 minutes (2) 20 minutes

(3) 30 minutes (4) 40 minutes

45. In an npn transistor, the current gain for commonemitter configuration is 80. If the emitter current is8.1 mA, then the base current is

(1) 0.1 A (2) 0.01 mA

(3) 0.001 mA (4) 0.1 mA

46. ( )CH3 3

COHNa

(A)C H Br

2 5

(B)(Major)

The IUPAC name of major product B is

(1) Ethene

(2) 2 Methyl prop-1-ene

(3) 2 Ethoxy 2 methyl propane

(4) 3° Butyl ethyl ether

47.

CH3

+ CrO Cl2 2

CH(OCrCl OH)22

H O2

CHO

The above reaction represents

(1) Gattermann Koch Synthesis

(2) Gattermann Aldehyde Synthesis

(3) Etard Reaction

(4) Stephen’s Reaction

48. The incorrect order shown below for basic characters

(1) (C2H

5)3N > (C

2H

5)2NH > C

2H

5NH

2 Gas phase

(2) (C2H

5)2NH > (C

2H

5)NH

2 > (C

2H

5)3N Aq. phase

(3) >

N

NH2

(4) >

NH2

NH2

49. D-glucose and D-galactose are

(1) Anomers (2) C2-epimer

(3) C3-epimer (4) C

4-epimer

50. Anionic detergent among the following is

(1) RCOO(RO)nROH

(2) CH (CH )3 2 15

N CH3

CH3

CH3

Cl–

(3) CH3

(CH )2 n

SO Na3

(4) All of these

(6)


51. 0.5 g of organic compound gave 30 ml of moistnitrogen measured at 27°C and 715 mm pressure.Calculate % composition of nitrogen in thecompound. (Aq. tension at 300 K is 15 mm Hg)

(1) 75% (2) 62.8%

(3) 7.5% (4) 6.28%

52.1% alk. KMnO

4 (I)

KMnO4 373 – 383 K

(II)H+

The major product I and II are respectively

(1)OH

OH, OHC ( CH )

22 CHO

(2)OH

OH, HOOC ( CH )

22 COOH

(3)OH

OH, OHC ( CH )

22CHO

(4)OH

OH, HOOC ( CH )

22 COOH

53. 2(Excess)

K O (X)

The compound (X) is

(1) Paramagnetic and coloured

(2) Paramagnetic but colourless

(3) On hydrolysis forms hydrides

(4) Less stablized due to less lattice energy

54. Na2B

4O

7 + 2HCl + 5H

2O 2NaCl + (A)

Compound (A) is polymeric due to

(1) Geometry (2) Acidic nature

(3) Banana bond (4) Hydrogen bond

55. Identify the gas which has average KE of 447 cal at27°C, if 8 g of gas is taken

(1) CH4

(2) CO

(3) CO2

(4) All of above can be present

56. For the reaction of one mol zinc with two molhydrochloric acid in a bomb calorimeter, U and Wcorrespond to

(1) U < 0, W = 0 (2) U < 0, W < 0

(3) U > 0, W = 0 (4) U > 0, W > 0

57. The correct order of dipole moment is given by

(1) CHF3 > CHCl

3(2) PCl

3Br

2 > PBr

3Cl

2

(3) HI > HBr (4) All of these

58. Which is the correct graph between radial probabilitydensity vs radial distance for 2s orbital?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

59. The ratio of wavelength of limiting line of Paschenseries for Li+2 to that of Ist line of visible series forHe+ will be

(1)1

3(2)

3

1

(3)9

5(4)

5

9

60. The equilibrium constant for the reaction

2HBr(g) ��⇀↽�� H2(g) + Br

2(g)

If 15 ml of H2 reacts with 20 ml of Br

2 in one litre

vessel and at equilibrium 20 ml of HBr is formed

(1) 40 (2) 20

(3) 0.125 (4)

61. Which does not show reducing property?

(1) H3PO

2

(2) H3PO

3

(3) H3PO

4

(4) All have same reducing property

62. In the reaction

HCOOH 2 4Conc. H SO Product

The function of H2SO

4 in above reaction is as

(1) Oxidising agent (2) Acid

(3) Dehydrating agent (4) No reaction occurs

63. The one which is incorrect as the consequence oflanthanoid contraction?

(1) Difficulty in separation of lanthanide serieselement because of similar size

(2) Similarity in size of Ti and Zr of group- 4

(3) La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)

3

(4) All are correct

(7)


64. In alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises KI to

(1) I2

(2) I3–

(3) IO3– (4) Both (1) & (3)

65. The coordination number of iron in brown ring andsodium nitroprusside is respectively

(1) 2, 2 (2) 1, 2

(3) 1, 3 (4) 6, 6

66. Zinc oxide on heating turns yellow in colour, this isdue to

(1) Metal excess defect

(2) Metal deficiency defect

(3) Schottky defect

(4) Frenkel defect

67. Which has the maximum boiling point?

(1) 0.1 N NaCl

(2) 0.1 N CaCl2

(3) 0.1 N AlCl3

(4) All have same

68. If 0.05 M HCl solution at 300 K, shows molarconductivity of 232.3 –1 cm2 mol–1, then theconductance of above solution will (if cell constant is0.367 cm–1) be

(1) 0.0116 –1 (2) 31.6 –1

(3) 0.0316 –1 (4) 232.3 –1

69. Which is mismatched regarding the trends givenbelow?

(1) Cl2 > Br

2 > F

2 > I

2 – Bond dissociation enthalpy

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI – Acidic strength

(3) BiH3 < SbH

3 < NH

3 < AsH

3 < PH

3 – Volatility

(4) HClO < HBrO < HIO – Acidic strength

70. The isomerism which is not possible in triamminetrinitro cobalt (III) is

(1) Linkage isomerism

(2) Geometrical isomerism

(3) Optical isomerism

(4) All of these

71. Number of moles of K2Cr

2O

7 required to oxidise

0.03 mole Sn2+

(1) 0.2

(2) 0.01

(3) 0.06

(4) 0.15

72. Hall Heroult process used in metallurgy of aluminiuminvolves

(1) Concentration of ore

(2) Extraction of crude metal from concentrated ore

(3) Refining of metal

(4) All of these

73. The slope of the graph between log x/m vs log P inFreundlich isotherm can have value

(1) > 1

(2) 1

(3) 0.1 to 0.5

(4) Cannot be predicted, any value possible

74. Heterogenous catalysis is involved in which of thefollowing reaction?

(1) Haber process

(2) Oxidation of ammonia into nitric oxide inOstwald's process

(3) Hydrogenation of vegetable oil

(4) All of these

75. If metal m, crystallises in bcc structure and hasradius 1.86 Å, then the nearest neighbour distanceand edge length will be respectively

(1) 3.72 Å, 5.26 Å (2) 0.93 Å, 5.26 Å

(3) 3.72 Å, 4.3 Å (4) 0.93 Å, 4.3 Å

76. If 4.5 g of aluminium is deposited from electrolysisof molten AlBr

3, then the weight of silver deposited

by same quantity of electricity from molten AgNO3

will be

(1) 4.5 g (2) 108 g

(3) 54 g (4) 27 g

77. The incorrect statement among the following is

(1) Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface iszero order reaction

(2) A catalyst does not alters G of a reaction

(3) Rate law can’t be predicted theoretically frombalanced chemical equation

(4) Molecularity is applicable for both elementaryreaction and complex reaction

78. Borax

ExcessNaBO + B

2

B + Nickel oxide

C

Compound C and its colour is

(1) NiO, brown (2) Ni(BO2)3, brown

(3) Ni(BO2)2, brown (4) NiBO

2, yellow

(8)


79. In photochemical smog, when unburnt hydrocarbonsreact with NO

2 and O

3, chemicals that are formed

(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acrolein

(3) PAN (4) All of these

80. Which is mismatched regarding the formula?

(1) Calomel – Hg2Cl

2

(2) Wilkinson catalyst – [(PPh3)3RhCl]

(3) Perhydrol – H2 + CO

2

(4) Purple of cassius – Colloidal gold

81. Which has maximum reactivity towards aromaticelectrophilic substitution and maximumhyperconjugation respectively?

(1)

CH3

,

CH3

(2)

CH3

,

C(CH )3 3

(3)

C(CH )3 3

,

CH3

(4)

C(CH )3 3

,

C(CH )3 3

82. Regarding conformers of n-butane the incorrectstatement is

(1) Infinite number of conformers possible

(2) Anti staggered is more stable than Gauchstaggered

(3) Due to Baeyer’s strain eclipsed form has higherenergy than staggered

(4) All are correct

83. The one with maximum dipole moment andmaximum boiling point is respectively

(1) CH3F, CH

3F

(2) CH3F, CH

3I

(3) CH3Cl, CH

3I

(4) CH3I, CH

3I

84. The product formed when 2 propanol is reacted withred P+I

2 , followed by AgNO

2 and nitrous acid

(1) (CH3)2

– CHNO2

(2) (CH ) – C – NO3 2

N–OH

(3) (CH ) – C – NO3 2 2

NO

(4) CH3CH

2NO

2 + CH

3OH

85. CH COOH+3

C H OH2 5

H+

(A)CH MgBr (excess)

3

H O/H2

+ (B)

Product B in above reaction is

(1) CH4

(2) (CH3)3 – C – OH

(3) (CH ) – C – OH3 2

C H2 5

(4) CH – C – OH3

(C H )2 5 2

86.

NO2

LiAlH4

?

The product formed in above reaction is

(1) Aniline

(2) Azobenzene

(3) Hydroazo benzene

(4) Azoxy benzene

87. The exothermic process is

(1) Na Na+ (2) F F–

(3) S– S–2 (4) Al+2 Al+3

88. The bond order of nitrate ion and covalency of N innitrate ion is

(1) 5/3, 5 (2) 5/3, 4

(3) 4/3, 4 (4) 3/2, 3

89. The solubility of AgCl in water, ammonia and 0.01 MCaCl

2 is S

1, S

2, S

3 respectively. Then the correct

order of solubility

(1) S1 > S

2 > S

3

(2) S3 > S

1 > S

2

(3) S1 > S

3 > S

2

(4) S2 > S

1 > S

3

90. If 1 mole of N2 reacts with 3 mole of H

2 and at

equilibrium 1 mole NH3 is formed, then the weight of

H2 at equilibrium is

(1) 0 g

(2) 1 g

(3) 3 g

(4) 4 g

(9)


BOTANY

91. Choose the correct option w.r.t. taxonomic key

a. It is a taxonomical aid.

b. Used for identification of plants only.

c. Contrasting characters are generally in a pair.

d. Each statement in the key is called couplet.

e. Generally analytical in nature.

(1) All are correct

(2) d & e are incorrect

(3) b & d are incorrect

(4) Only b is incorrect

92. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria

(1) In having different cell wall and cell membranestructure

(2) As they can tolerate extreme conditions

(3) In presence of introns in DNA

(4) More than one option is correct

93. Choose incorrectly matched combination

(1) Coenocytic mycelium, zoospore, cellulosic wall– Oomycetes

(2) Shorter dikaryophase, crozier, conidia –Deuteromycetes

(3) Dominant dikaryophase, sex organs absent – Clubfungi

(4) Trisporic acid, gametangial copulation –conjugating fungi

94. Read the following statements carefully

(A) Pellicle makes the body of Euglena flexible.

(B) One longitudinal and one transverse flagellum arefeatures of diatoms.

(C) Under suitable conditions, plasmodium is formedby slime moulds.

(D) Chrysophyta includes both diatoms and dinoflagellates.

(1) C & D are correct

(2) B & D are incorrect

(3) B & C are incorrect

(4) A & D are correct

95. Match the column-I with column-II

Column I Column II

a. D.J. Ivanovski (i) Discovered viroids

b. M.W.Beijerinck (ii) Discovered virus

c. W.M. Stanley (iii) Crystallised TMV

d. T.O. Diener (iv) Contagium vivumfluidum

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

96. Numerical taxonomy is related to all, except

(1) Based on few observable characters

(2) Uses computation of data

(3) Characters are given equal importance

(4) Numbers and codes are assigned to eachcharacter

97. Some structures are given below

Protonema cell, Prothallus cell of fern, PEN, Gemmaof Marchantia

Select correct sequence of their respective ploidylevel.

(1) n, n, 3n, n (2) 2n, 2n, 3n, 2n

(3) n, n, n, n (4) 2n, 2n, n, 2n

98. Fill in the blanks correctly

(A) Species of (i)

provide peat.

(B) Multicelled dominant body of bryophytes is

(ii)

(C)(iii)

is a microphyllous pteriodphyte.

(D) Gametophytes do not have an independent, freeliving existence in

(iv)

(1) (i) Selaginella ; (ii) Sporophyte

(2) (iii) Selaginella ; (ii) Sporophyte

(3) (ii) Gametophyte ; (iv) Pinus

(4) (i) Sphagnum ; (iii) Dryopteris

99. A pair of leaves aries at each node and lie oppositeto each other in

(1) Mustard and Sunflower

(2) Calotropis and Guava

(3) Alstonia and Chinarose

(4) Sunflower and Syzygium

(10)


100. I. Fabaceae : % K C A (5) 1+2+(2) (9)+1 1G

II. Solanaceae : K C A (5) 5 5 (2)G

(1) I statement is correct, II should be replaced by

K C A (5) (5) (5) 1G

(2) Both statements are correct

(3) I statement is correct, II correct if C5 and A

5

replaced by �(5) 5C A

(4) In statement I G1 should be replaced by G

(2)

and in II statement C5 and A

5 replaced by

�

(5) 5C A

101. Fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicularcambium and cork cambium are all examples of

(1) Primary lateral meristems

(2) Secondary lateral meristems

(3) Lateral meristems

(4) Intercalary meristems

102. Which one of the following is not a characteristic ofsapwood?

(1) Present in peripheral region of secondary xylem

(2) Physiologically inactive

(3) Helps in water conduction

(4) Lighter in colour

103. Read the following statements and find correct options

a. Lipid component of the membrane mainlyconsist of phosphoglycerides

b. Lipids constitute 52% in membrane of RBC

c. Peripheral proteins lie on the surface ofmembrane

d. Lipids enable lateral movement of proteins withinoverall bilayer

(1) a, b, d (2) a, b, c

(3) b, c, d (4) a, c, d

104. In the section of axoneme of eukaryotic flagellum

(1) Central sheath covered a pair of triplets ofmicrotubules

(2) Central sheath is surrounded by 27 microtubule

(3) All the nine doublets of microtubule areinterconnected by radial spokes

(4) Central tubules are connected by bridges andenclosed by a sheath

105. An angiospermic plant is having 10 chromosomes ineach cell. How many chromosomes the cell have atG1, after S phase and in its daughter cells aftermeiosis-II respectively?

(1) 10, 10, 10 (2) 10, 10, 5

(3) 10, 20, 10 (4) 10, 20, 5

106. The figure shown below depicts which stage of celldivision

(1) Metaphase

(2) Prophase

(3) Transition to metaphase

(4) Anaphase

107. Select incorrect statement

(1) s is always negative

(2) Saturation of transport is shown by all simplediffusion, facilitated diffusion and active transport

(3) Most of the water flow in the root occursthrough apoplast

(4) Water loss in liquid phase is called guttation andis due to root pressure

108. The step of N2-metabolism with the requirement of

-KGA and glutamate dehydrogenase is

(1) Catalytic amidation (2) Reductive amination

(3) Transamination (4) Nitrate assimilation

109. Find correct match w.r.t. essential elements asactivator of enzymes

Column-I Column-II

a. PEPCO (i) Mo

b. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ii) Fe

c. Nitrogenase (iii) Zn

d. Catalase (iv) Mg

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

110. C4 plants are most efficient plants of tropical climate

and

(1) Shows photorespiration

(2) Have large number of chloroplasts and thickwalls of bundle sheath cells

(3) Form 4-C organic acids in bundle sheath cell

(4) Perform primary CO2 fixation in bundle sheath

cells

(11)


111. How many total oxygen atoms are used duringaerobic respiration of one pyruvate molecule?

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 12 (4) 1

112.

Glucose

Fats Carbohydrates Proteins

(A) Amino acids

Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate

(C)

(D)

(E)H O

2

CO2

(B)

Fatty acid +

PGAL

(1) (A) Glycerol, (D) Pyruvic acid, (E) TCA

(2) (B) DHAP, (C) Pyruvic acid, (D) Krebs cycle

(3) (A) Glycerol, (B) DHAP, (D) Acetyl CoA

(4) (B) PGA, (C) Pyruvic acid, (E) Acetyl CoA

113. Which of the following pair of tissues can be formedafter redifferentiation?

(1) Phellem and phellogen

(2) Phelloderm and interfascicular cambium

(3) Cork and secondary phloem

(4) Bark and vascular cambium

114. Find odd one out w.r.t. ethylene functions

(1) Rapid internode elongation in deep water riceplants

(2) Initiates flowering and synchronising fruit set inpineapples

(3) Thinning of fruits like cherry, walnut and cotton

(4) Lateral shoot growth and adventitious shootformation

115. Find correct match w.r.t. PGRs

Column-I Column-II

a. Brewing industry (i) Auxin

b. Weed-free lawns (ii) CK

c. Richmond Lang’s effect (iii) Ethylene

d. Flowering in mango (iv) GA3

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

116. Identify the vegetative propagule shown in the figure

(1) Bulbil of Agave

(2) Offset of water hyacinth

(3) Rhizome of ginger

(4) Bulb of onion

117. Find incorrect statement w.r.t. pollens

(1) Generally spherical measuring about 25-50 micrometers

(2) Germ pore does not have sporopollenin

(3) The vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant foodreserve and a large irregularly shaped nucleus

(4) Generative cell has abundant cytoplasm and aspindle shape nucleus

118. Apomictic viable or recurrent embryo cannot beproduced by

(1) Adventitive embryony (2) Diplospory

(3) Apospory (4) Aplospory

119. Number of chromosomes in a gamete and PEN ofrice is

(1) 24, 36 (2) 7, 21

(3) 12, 36 (4) 14, 42

120. Inheritance of genetic trait in given pedigree chart iscontrolled by

(1) Autosomal recessive gene

(2) Allosomal dominant gene

(3) Holandric gene

(4) Autosomal dominant gene

121. Grasshopper is an example of ____ type of sexdetermination

(1) XX – XY (2) XX – XO

(3) ZZ – ZW (4) ZZ – ZO

(12)


122. Klinefelter syndrome is related with all, except

(1) A chromosomal disorder

(2) Karyotype of 44 + XXY

(3) Gynaecomastia

(4) Fertile males

123. Read the statements carefully and find set of correct

statements

(A) – phage has 48502 bp

(B) The feature of base pairing was one of theHallmarks of Watson and Crick model

(C) Two chains in DNA are parallel to each other

(D) Sugar and base form the backbone of DNA

(1) B, D (2) B, C

(3) A, C (4) A, B

124. Choose odd one out w.r.t. enzymes involved in posttranscriptional processing

(1) Guanyl transferase (2) Ribonuclease-P

(3) SnRNPs (4) Translocase

125. The lactose operon of E.coli

(1) Consists of one regulatory gene ‘i’

(2) Consists of five structural genes

(3) Is always regulated negatively

(4) Synthesises lactose from glucose and galactose

126. Explant used to prepare virus free plants is

(1) Internodal segment

(2) Apical and axillary meristem

(3) Root segment

(4) Fruit

127. Choose the correct option w.r.t. IR-8

(1) Semi-dwarf wheat variety

(2) Developed at IARI, New Delhi

(3) Maize variety developed in Mexico

(4) Semi-dwarf rice variety

128. Choose incorrectly matched pair

(1) Butyric acid – Clostridium

(2) Cyclosporin A – Monascus

(3) Large holed – Propionibacterium

swiss cheese sharmanii

(4) Butter milk – Lactobacillus acidophilus

129. Aerobic secondary treatment is given until

(1) BOD is increased

(2) BOD is decreased

(3) The water is purified for domestic supply

(4) Biogas is produced

130. Select a correct match

Interaction type Species ‘A’ Species ‘B’

(1) Competition + –

(2) Predation – –

(3) Mutualism + –

(4) Amensalism – 0

131. What is represented by the given pyramid of age?

(1) A declining population

(2) A stable population

(3) An expanding population

(4) A growing population

132. Which is incorrect statement w.r.t. GFC or predatorfood chain?

(1) Major conduit for energy flow in aquatic system

(2) Begins with producers

(3) Based on energy got from sun

(4) Size of organisms finally reduces at highertrophic level

133. Examples of areas where secondary successionoccurs are

(1) Abandoned farmlands, newly cooled lava, barerock

(2) Burned or cut forests, lands that have beenflooded

(3) Bare rock, newly created pond or reservoir

(4) Newly created pond, lands that have beenflooded

134. Select correct set of statements w.r.t. biodiversity

a. Diversity increases from lower to higher latitude.

b. The most important cause of biodiversity loss ishabitat loss.

c. The IUCN Red list documents the extinction of87 plants species in the last 500 years.

d. Indigenous plants of aquatic habitat areeliminated by exotic species Clarias.

(1) b & c (2) a & d

(3) a & c (4) c & d

135. Find odd one out w.r.t. ex-situ conservationtechniques

(1) Zoological park

(2) National park

(3) Wild life safaries

(4) Tissue culture

(13)


ZOOLOGY

136. Our population which was approximately 350 millionat the time of our independence reached close to thebillion mark by 2000 and crossed one billion in May2000. What are the probable reasons for this?

a. Rapid decline in death rate.

b. Decreased maternal mortality rate.

c. Decreased infant mortality rate.

d. Increased health facilities.

(1) a only (2) a & b only

(3) a, b & c only (4) a, b, c & d

137. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t.events of embryonic development?

(1) In human beings, after three months ofpregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed

(2) The first sign of growing foetus is thedevelopment of body hair and eyelids

(3) The first movement of the foetus and appearanceof hair on head are usually observed during fifthmonth

(4) By the end of 1st trimester, the body is covered byfine hair, eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed

138. A useful drug that damages gastric mucosa if it istaken along with alcohol is

(1) Antihistamine (2) Barbiturate

(3) Aspirin (4) Morphine

139. A person who has recovered from an attack ofchicken pox or mumps develops

(1) Naturally acquired passive immunity

(2) Naturally acquired active immunity

(3) Artificially acquired active immunity

(4) Artificially acquired passive immunity

140. Given below is an oxygen dissociation curve

Which of the following factors shift the given graphtowards left side?

(1) High pCO2 and H+ ion concentration, high

temperature

(2) Low pCO2 and H+ ion concentration, high

temperature

(3) High pCO2 and H+ ion concentration, low

temperature

(4) Low pCO2 and H+ ion concentration, low

temperature

141. Complete the following analogy

Sponge : Archaeocytes : Hydra :

(1) Cnidoblasts (2) Nematocysts

(3) Interstitial cells (4) Choanocytes

142. The general body plan, body symmetry and coelomare similar in

(1) Porifera and Coelenterate

(2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes

(3) Annelida and Arthropoda

(4) Coelenterata and Echinodermata

143. If the systolic blood pressure is 130 mm of Hg anddiastolic pressure is 70 mm of Hg, what will be themean arterial blood pressure?

(1) 90 mm of Hg (2) 100 mm of Hg

(3) 60 mm of Hg (4) 50 mm of Hg

144. Which of the following statements is/are correct

w.r.t. counter current mechanism?

a. The flow of filtrate in two limbs of Henle’s loopis in opposite directions and thus forms acounter current.

b. I t helps in maintaining an increasingosmolarity towards the inner medullaryinterstitium i.e., 1200 mosm L–1 in innermedulla and 300 mosm L–1 in cortex.

c. The gradient is mainly due to NaCl and urea.

d. Small amount of urea enters the thick segmentof ascending limb of loop of Henle which istransported back to interstitium by collectingtubules.

(1) a only

(2) a & b only

(3) a, b & c only

(4) a, b, c & d

(14)


145. Which of the following bones is not a constituent ofappendicular skeleton?

(1) Coxal bone (2) Scapula

(3) Humerus (4) Frontal

146. Which of the following is not a correct statementw.r.t. the joint diastole in cardiac cycle?

(1) The blood flows from the great veins into theatria and from atria into the respective ventriclesas AV valves remain open

(2) There is no flow of blood from ventricles to aortaand pulmonary artery

(3) At the beginning there is a rapid closure ofsemilunar valves produce a sound ‘dup’

(4) At the end, rapid closure of AV valves producea louder sound ‘lubb’

147. In polymerase chain reaction, multiple copies of thegene of interest are synthesized in vitro using twosets of primers and the thermostable enzyme DNApolymerase. This thermostable is DNA polymeraseisolated from

(1) Thermoplasma

(2) Thermus proteus

(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(4) Thermus aquaticus

148. Given below is a diagrammatic representation ofrecombinant DNA technology

Foreign DNA

A

VectorDNA

(plasmid)

B

D

C

E.coli

Cells divide

Joining of foreign DNA to plasmid

Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D

A B C D

(1) EcoR I Sal I DNA ligase Transformation

(2) Sal I EcoR I DNA polymerase Transformation

(3) EcoR I EcoR I DNA polymerase Transformation

(4) EcoR I EcoR I DNA ligase Transformation

149. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. animalbreeding

(1) Inbreeding refers to the mating of moreclosely related individuals within the samebreed for 4–6 generations

(2) Inbreeding decreases homozygosity

(3) Continuous inbreeding especially closeinbreeding usually reduces fertility and evenproductivity

(4) A single outcross often helps to overcomeinbreeding depression

150. All the given statements are correct except one. Markthe exception

(1) The first cellular forms of life did not possiblyoriginate till about 2000 million years ago

(2) The first non-cellular forms of life could haveoriginated 3 billion years back.

(3) The process of evolution of different species in agiven geographical area starting from a point andliterally radiating to other areas of geography iscalled convergent evolution

(4) There would be a gene flow if the gene migrationhappens multiple times

151. Which of the following are the two key concepts ofDarwinian theory of evolution?

(1) Mutation and adaptive ability

(2) Fitness and genetic drift

(3) Gene migration and natural selection

(4) Branching descent and natural selection

152. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. cancer

(1) Ionizing radiations like X-rays and gamma raysand non-ionizing radiations like UV rays causeDNA damage leading to neoplastictransformation

(2) Several genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc)or proto oncogenes have been identified innormal cell, which when inactivated could lead tooncogenic transformation of cells

(3) Benign tumours normally remain confined to theiroriginal location and do not spread to other partsof the body

(4) As cancerous cells actively divide and grow,they also starve the normal cell by competingfor vital nutrients

153. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. cyclostomes

(1) They have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairsof gill slits for respiration

(2) They have a sucking and circular mouth with welldeveloped jaws

(3) Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins

(4) All living members of class Cyclostomata areectoparasite on fishes

(15)


154. The walls of blood vessels and alveoli of lungs areinvolved in a functions like forming a diffusionboundary, which is made of

(1) Smooth muscle fibers

(2) A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregularboundaries

(3) A single layer of tall and slender cells

(4) Two or more layers of flattened cells withirregular boundaries

155. Given below is a diagrammatic representation ofalimentary canal of cockroach.

X

Identify the structure labelled as ‘X’ and choose thecorrect option w.r.t. it

(1) It is a ring of 6–8 blind tubules called hepatic orgastric caecae present at the junction of foregutand midgut

(2) It secretes digestive juices which help in thedigestion of various food components in midgut

(3) ‘X’ is present as a ring of 100–150 tubules calledmalpighian tubules at the junction of foregut andmidgut

(4) ‘X’ is malpighian tubules which help in removalof excretory products from the hemolymph ofcockroach

156. Given below are the diagrammatic representations oforganic compounds in living tissue

a.

COOH

H – C – NH2

CH –OH2

b.O

O

HN

N

H

c.

CH – O – C – R2 1

R – C – O – CH2

O

CH – O – C – R2 3

O

O

d.

OH

OH OH

H

HOH

H

OHH

CH OH2

e.

HO

When one has to perform a chemical analysis, whichof the following organic compounds will be present infiltrate/acid solute pool?

(1) a, b & c only (2) a, b & d only

(3) a, b & e only (4) c & e only

157. With the rise/increase in substrate concentration, therate of enzymatic reaction

(1) Increases continuously

(2) Decreases

(3) Remains unaffected

(4) Increases at first, reaching a maximum velocitywhich is not exceeded by any further rise inconcentration of the substrate

158. Following is a diagram which represents the ductsystem of liver, gall bladder and pancreas.

B

C

A

D

Choose the correct option w.r.t. structures labelledas A, B, C, and D

(1) Duct ‘A’ is guarded by a sphincter calledsphincter of Oddi

(2) Duct ‘D’ is guarded by a sphincter calledsphincter of Boyden

(3) ‘C’ is ductus choledochus which carries the bilejuice from liver to gall bladder

(4) ‘B’ is a muscular sac which is related with thestorage and concentration of bile juice

159. Partial pressure of CO2 in inspired and expired air

are____ and ____ respectively

(1) 159 and 116 mm of Hg

(2) 40 and 45 mm of Hg

(3) 0.3 and 45 mm of Hg

(4) 0.3 and 32 mm of Hg

(16)


160. Which of the following makes decisions regarding thevalidity of GM research and the safety of introducingGM organisms for public services?

(1) Genetic engineering Approval committee

(2) Indian patent bills

(3) Food and drug administration

(4) US patent and trademark office

161. In plasmid vector, origin of replication is a sequencefrom where the replication starts. This sequence isalso responsible for

(1) Identification of transformants

(2) Elimination of nontransformants

(3) Controlling the copy number of linked DNA

(4) Selectively permitting the growth of thetransformants

162. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed inPunjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.It is an example of

(1) Inbreeding

(2) Out crossing

(3) Cross breeding

(4) Interspecific breeding

163. Match the diseases in column I with the appropriatepathogens in column II

Column I Column II

a. Typhoid (i) Haemophilus influenzae

b. Pneumonia (ii) Rhino virus

c. Common cold (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti

d. Elephantiasis (iv) Salmonella typhi

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

164. Which of the following dinosaur was about 20 feet inheight and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth?

(1) Triceratops (2) Brachiosaurus

(3) Stegosaurus (4) Tyrannosaurus

165. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads becomeembedded in Sertoli cells, and are finally releasedfrom seminiferous tubules by the process called __.

(1) Decapacitation (2) Capacitation

(3) Spermiation (4) Spermatocytogenesis

166. Infertility cases either due to inability of the malepartner to inseminate the female or due to very lowsperm count in the ejaculate could be corrected bywhich of the following assisted reproductivetechnologies, in which fertilisation occurs in femalebody?

a Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

b Intra uterine transfer (IUT)

c Artificial insemination (AI)

d Intra uterine insemination (IUI)

(1) a & b (2) b only

(3) c only (4) c & d

167. Which of the following is ideal contraceptive for thefemales who want to delay pregnancy and/or spacechildren and is also one of the most widely acceptedmethod of contraception in India?

(1) Barrier method (2) Intra uterine device

(3) Oral contraceptives (4) Implants

168. Given below are the examples of annelida phylummarked as A and B

A. B.

Choose the correct option w.r.t. A and B

(1) Locomotory structures in A are parapodia whilein B are setae

(2) A is a marine free living form while B is terrestrialand free living

(3) A has double ventral nerve cord while B hasdouble dorsal nerve cord

(4) A is dioecious while B is monoecious

169. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Aves

(birds)?

(1) Presence of feathers and most of them can fly

(2) Forelimbs are modified into wings and hindlimbs have scales

(3) Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and thelong bones are hollow with air cavities

(4) Fertilisation is external and are oviparous withdirect development

(17)


170. Given below are some characteristics of a muscletissue

a. Tapers at both end

b. Functioning cannot be voluntarily controlled

c. Do not show striations

Identify the muscle tissue and choose the correct

option w.r.t. location of this type of muscle tissue

(1) Neck and back

(2) Myocardium of heart wall

(3) Wall of blood vessels

(4) Thigh

171. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. origin

(1) Astrocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes

(3) Microglial cell (4) Neuron

172. Which of the following cell junctions help to stopsubstances from leaking across cells of a tissue?

(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction

(3) Adhering junction (4) Desmosome

173. Given below is a figure that indicates the externalfeatures of cockroach

C

D

A

B

Choose the correct option w.r.t. the features of thestructures labelled A, B, C, and D

(1) A – Tegmia – Transparent,membranous wingsused in flight

(2) B – Anal styles – Jointed filamentousstructures present inmales but absent infemales

(3) C – Compound eye – With the help of severalommatidia, a cockroachcan receive severalimages of an objectknown as mosaic visionwith more senstivity andless resolution, beingcommon during night.

(4) D – Fore wing – Dark, opaque andleathery which are usedin flight

174. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of aportion of glycogen

CH OH2

OH

OHOH

OH

O

O O

O OH

CH OH2

O

A

Identify the linkage / type of bonding present at thelabelled portion A. Which of the followingcarbohydrates has the same type of bonding aspresent in ‘A’?

(1) Lactose

(2) Maltose

(3) Cellulose

(4) Inulin

175. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. protein and itsfunction

Protein Function

(1) Collagen Intercellular ground substance

(2) Ptyalin Protein digesting enzyme

(3) Antibody Fights infectious agents

(4) GLUT-4 Enables glucose transportinto cells

176. Given below is a reaction catalysed by enzyme Z.

C – CZ

X Y

X – Y + C = C

Choose the correct option w.r.t. the category ofenzyme Z.

(1) Oxidoreductase

(2) Transferase

(3) Lyase

(4) Hydrolase

177. The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very importantpeptide hormone called ______, which _____because it causes dilation of the blood vessels.Choose the option which correctly fills the blank.

(1) Renin, increases the blood pressure

(2) Angiotensinogen, decreases the blood pressure

(3) Atrial natriuretic factor, increases the bloodpressure

(4) Atrial natriuretic factor, decreases the bloodpressure

(18)


178. Which of the following is not a function ofglucocorticoids?

(1) Produce anti-inflammatory reaction

(2) Suppresse the immune response

(3) Stimulate the RBC production

(4) Inhibit gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis

179. Monosynaptic reflex arc present in knee jerk reflexincludes

a. Efferent neuron b. Afferent neuron

c. A part of CNS d. Receptor

e. Effector f. Interneuron

��

(1) a, b, c & d only

(2) a, b & c only

(3) a, b, c, d & e only

(4) a, b, c, d, e & f

180. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe inafter a forced expiration is

(1) IC + ERV

(2) EC + IRV

(3) TV + ERV

(4) Both (1) & (2)

Edition: 2020-21

home assignment – 8 · (3) the minimum time in which man can cross the river is d v (4) both (1)...

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