homework 2 - solutionslvera/hw2sol.pdfmath 110ah fall 18 homework 2 - solutions problem 1. given two...

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Math 110AH Fall 18

HOMEWORK 2 - SOLUTIONS

Problem 1. Given two positive integers k, l, we will denote by k(l) the product of the lconsecutive integers k, k− 1, . . . k− l + 1. We start by dealing with consecutive positive in-tegers. Denote by P(n) the property ”n! divides the product of any n consecutive positiveintegers”.

• Since 1! = 1 divides any integer, P(1) is true.• Assume P(n) is true. To prove P(n + 1), we prove by induction on m > n + 1 the

property Q(m): ”(n + 1)! divides m(n+1)”.– We have (n + 1)(n+1) = (n + 1)!, which is indeed a multiple of (n + 1)!. So

Q(n + 1) is true.– Assume that Q(m) is true. Then we have:

(m + 1)(n+1) −m(n+1) = m(n) (m + 1− (m− n))

= m(n) (n + 1)

By P(n), n! divides m(n). So (n + 1)! divides m(n) (n + 1). Furthermore, byQ(m), (n + 1)! divides m(n+1). Thus (n + 1)! divides m(n) (n + 1) + m(n+1),which is equal to (m + 1)(n+1) by the equation above. Hence Q(m + 1) isproved.

So by the induction principle, Q(m) is true for all m > n + 1. This proves P(n + 1)and ends the proof of the main induction.

To finish the proof, we need to treat the case of negative integers. If 0 6 m < n thenm(n) = 0. If m < 0, then m(n) = (−1)n(−m + n− 1)(n), which is divisible by n! by P(n).

In conclusion, for any integers n > 1 and m, n! divides m(n).

4.17 - Problem 2. The division algorithm for polynomials is stated in this way:

Theorem 1. Let A, B ∈ F [t] with B 6= 0. There exists unique Q, R ∈ F [t] such that A =BQ + R, and R = 0 or deg(R) < deg(B).

Let us start by proving existence. Fix B 6= 0, and let d = deg(B). We can express B in thecanonical basis:

B =d

∑i=0

biti

for some bi ∈ F, bd 6= 0. We prove the result by strong induction on deg(A).1

2 HOMEWORK 2 - SOLUTIONS

• If A = 0 or deg(A) < d, we have A = B · 0 + A in the desired form.• Assume we have proved the result for all polynomials of degree at most k, for

some k > d − 1. Let A be a polynomial of degree k + 1. Let us express A in thecanonical basis:

A =k+1

∑i=0

aiti

for some ai ∈ F, ak+1 6= 0. Consider the polynomial:

A′ := A− ak+1

bdtk+1−dB

By looking at the coefficients of A′ we see that either A′ = 0 or deg(A′) 6 k. Thusby induction we can find Q, R such that A′ = BQ + R and R = 0 or deg(R) < d.So A = B(Q +

ak+1bd

tk+1−d) + R with R = 0 or deg(R) < d, and we are done.

Let us now prove uniqueness. Given A, B, assume that we have (Q, R) and (Q′, R′) sat-isfying the theorem. Then BQ + R = BQ′ + R′. This can be written R− R′ = B(Q′ −Q).So R − R′ is a multiple of B. However, all non-zero multiples of B have degree at leastdeg(B), and R− R′ is either 0 or of degree less than deg(B). Hence R− R′ = 0, whichproves the uniqueness of R.Our equation above now gives B(Q′−Q) = 0. The product of two non-zero polynomialsis non-zero, and B 6= 0. Hence Q′ −Q = 0, which proves the uniqueness of Q. In conclu-sion (Q, R) is unique.

4.17 - Problem 4. We construct the sequences (qi)i>1, (ri)i>0 by induction.

• Define r0 = b, and q1 and r1 as the quotient and the remainder of the Euclideandivision of a by b. Then we have 0 6 r1 < b.• Assume we have constructed q1, . . . , qi and r0, . . . , ri for some i > 1. If ri 6= 0,

define qi+1 and ri+1 to be the quotient and the remainder of the Euclidean divisionof ri−1 by ri. Then we have 0 6 ri+1 < ri. If ri = 0, we let qi+1 = ri+1 = 0.

Necessarily, ri = 0 for i large enough. Indeed, the construction shows that otherwise (ri)would be a decreasing sequence of natural integers, which does not exist. Hence, we candefine k = min{i; ri+1 = 0}. The theorem is proved.

HOMEWORK 2 - SOLUTIONS 3

4.17 - Problem 6. We use the Euclidean algorithm to find a particular solution:

39493 = 19853 + 1964019853 = 19640 + 21319640 = 213 · 92 + 44

213 = 44 · 4 + 3744 = 37 + 737 = 7 · 5 + 27 = 2 · 3 + 12 = 2 · 1 + 0

Painstakingly, we find the particular solution X0 = 8575, Y0 = −17058. The solutions ofthe equation are thus (X0 + k19853, Y0 − k39493) for k ∈ Z.

4.17 - Problem 8. For the statement of this problem to be true, we have to assume thatp > 1.

Assume that p be a prime. It is a well-known result from class that for all a, b ∈ Z, if p|abthen p|a or p|b.

Conversely, assume that for all a, b ∈ Z, if p|ab then p|a or p|b. Let us prove that p isprime. Let d be a divisor of p, we have p = du for some u ∈ Z. Then p|du, so by assump-tion p|d or p|u. If p|d, p and d divide each other so d = ±p. If p|u, p and u divide eachother so u = ±p, and d = ±1. Hence the only divisors of p are ±1 and ±p, so p is prime.

Problem 3. Let n be any integer. Then we have n + 1− n = 1. By property 4.9 (1) fromthe textbook, we deduce that (n, n + 1) = 1.

Problem 4. By a theorem seen in class, we know that the smallest positive integer in{120a+ 28b; a, b ∈ Z} is the gcd of 120 and 28. We can compute that gcd by the Euclideanalgorithm:

128 = 28 · 4 + 1628 = 16 · 1 + 1216 = 12 · 1 + 412 = 4 · 3 + 0

The gdc is thus 4.

So we can find s, t ∈ Z such that 4 = 128s + 28t. Multiplying by 2 gives us 8 =128(2s)+ 28(2t), so 8 can be expressed as a linear combination of 128 and 28 (the numbers

4 HOMEWORK 2 - SOLUTIONS

that can be expressed like this are precisely the multiples of the gcd, as seen in class).

To find the coefficients explicitly, it suffices to run through the Euclidean algorithm writ-ten above. We find that 4 = 2 · 128− 9 · 28. Thus 8 = 4 · 128− 18 · 28.

Problem 5. The result false if n = 0, so consider an integer n > 0. Let a, b be two integers.Assume first that a|b. Then by definition b = au for some u ∈ Z. Thus we get an = bnun.So an|bn.

Conversely, assume that an|bn. Let us write the prime decompositions of a and b:

a =r

∏i=1

pαii

b =r

∏i=1

pβii

where (pi)16i6r are distinct primes and αi, βi ∈ N. Consider 1 6 j 6 r, the assumptionan|bn tells us in particular that p

nαjj |∏

ri=1 pnβi

i . But if i 6= j, pnαjj and pnβi

i are relatively

prime. So we get that pnαjj |p

nβ jj . Hence nαj 6 nβ j. Since n > 0, this gives αj 6 β j. So we

get the following factorization:

b = ar

∏i=1

pβi−αii

and it follows that a|b.

Problem 6. (a) Not reflexive, not symmetric, not transitive.

(b) Not reflexive, symmetric, not transitive.

(c) Not reflexive, not symmetric, not transitive.

(d) Not reflexive, symmetric, not transitive.

(e) This is an equivalence relation. The easiest way to see this is to remark that:

5|(x + 4y) ⇔ 5|(x− y).

This is because 5|5y. So if 5|(x + 4y), we have 5|(x + 4y− 5y) = (x − y). Conversely, if5|x− y, we have 5|(x− y + 5y) = (x + 4y). So R is the usual equivalence relation modulo5, and its equivalence classes are the equivalence classes modulo 5.

HOMEWORK 2 - SOLUTIONS 5

Problem 7. Let (a, b) ∈ N ×N. Then we have a + b = b + a, so (a, b) ∼ (a, b): therelation ∼ is reflexive. Assume (a, b) ∼ (c, d), then a + d = b + c, so c + b = d + a, and(c, d) ∼ (a, b): the relation ∼ is symmetric. Assume (a, b) ∼ (c, d) and (c, d) ∼ (e, f ), thenwe have a + d = b + c and c + f = d + e. We deduce from this that:

a + f = a + d + e− c = b + c + e− c = b + e

So (a, b) ∼ (e, f ): the relation ∼ is transitive. In conclusion, the relation ∼ is an equiva-lence relation.

Let (a, b) ∈N×N, and let k = a− b. Then the equivalence class of (a, b) consists of all thepoints of (c, d) ∈ N×N such that d = c− k: it is a ”line” of ”slope” 1 and ”y-intercept”−k. So the set of equivalence classes is the set of ”lines of slope 1” in N×N.