ibps clerk (mains) exam 2017 - ibps preparation blog · contribute less than 1% of india’s...

IBPS Clerk Mains (Practice Test – 10)

Practice Test Set- 10 IBPS Clerk (Mains) Exam 2017


ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (1-5): Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used in the beginning (to start the sentence) to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. 1. The UK government is set to announce a £170 million project to set up a special maths and technology institutes. It is a part of post-Brexit plan. (i) A special maths and technology (ii) Announcement of a £170 million project (iii) As a part of post-Brexit (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) Both (i) and (ii) (E) Both (ii) and (iii) 2. All the fuel cell vehicles are being recalled by Toyota. These cars have software glitches that can shut off the engine. (i) Toyota is recalling (ii) Software glitches that can (iii) Recalling all the fuel cell (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) None of these (E) Both (i) and (iii) 3. Poultry exports to Saudi Arabia contribute less than 1% of India’s Poultry industry. The Impact of Saudi Arabia’s ban may not be significant. (i) With poultry exports contributing (ii) Poultry export may not be significant (iii) Saudi Arabia’s banning on poultry export (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii)

(D) None of these (E) All of these 4. Two people succumbed to injuries after being gored by bulls in Jallikattu. This comes a day after Tamil Nadu Governor promulgated an Ordinance for Jallikattu. (i) Coming a day after (ii) A day after Tamil Nadu (iii) Injured by bulls (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) All of these (E) None of these 5. Touching its 52 week low, the shares of Company X fell by 12%. This comes after investor Rakesh Jhunjhunwla sold more than 42 lakh shares in the company through bulk deal. (i) After Rakesh Jhunjhunwala an investor (ii) Shares of Company X (iii) This comes after (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) Both (i) and (ii) (E) Both (ii) and (iii) Directions (6 to 10): Read the passage and answer the following questions. Barely a fortnight after India’s richest man, Mukesh Ambani, launched his much-awaited 4G service, Reliance Jio, the newcomer is already embroiled in a war of words with India’s biggest telecom company, Bharti Airtel. The conflict is over providing points of interconnect. These points help link networks so consumers can make calls between different operators, enabling a smooth exchange of traffic. Each company claims the other isn’t coordinating and has ulterior motives.The sparring isn’t


entirely unexpected. Jio is being touted as an industry disrupter for its ridiculously low data prices ($0.7 per gigabyte), expansive infrastructure, and plan to entirely do away with charges for domestic calls.So, even before it was formally launched, incumbent players were on the edge.For instance, in August, these telecom providers complained to theTelecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) that Jio was offering full-fledged services to customers and calling it trials, even before the services began. Ambani refuted these allegations. Jio also said that Airtel hadn’t provided enough interconnect points, as a result of which more than 20 million calls between the two networks’ subscribers fail daily. It said Airtel is “dilly dallying” on adequate points to Jio. Telecom firms, especially Airtel, have a reason to be jittery over Jio’s plans.The Ambani company has set a target of getting 100 million customers on board by December 2016. It’s quite a target considering that Airtel, which launched in 1995, has some 358 million users after 20 years.Then there’s Jio’s huge network capacity. In a report on Sept. 14, analysts at Credit Suisse explained how Jio’s huge network capacity—three times that of Airtel—will make it a powerhouse when it comes to pricing. According to agency reports, Jio had filed a complaint with TRAI a few days back, where it claimed that the offers by Airtel are being advertised in a ‘misleading’ way and it is a ‘gross violation of extant telecom laws’. It also said that the offers differentiate between various types of subscribers. Jio had said that the plans provide users with 1GB data per day and the offer is valid for 70 days, but customers who have non-4G handsets, get 50MB data. Jio, in its complaint, stated: “The subscribers who do not satisfy Airtel’s dual criteria, will be provisioned only 50 MB data

and post that, they will be charged the exorbitant data tariff of Rs 4,000 per GB.” 6. What is the conflict about that has occurred between JIO and Airtel? (A) It is about Jio providing data at a very low rate. (B) It is about the false allegations made by Jio on Airtel that it had advertised misleadingly. (C) Both the companies have alleged each other on providing inadequate connect points that has hindered the connectivity. (D) It is about Jio offering schemes which are impossible to provide for the other companies. (E) It is about Jio exposing the exorbitant data tariff that Airtel charges. 7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? (A) Jio has made it a point to vitiate the customer capture of Airtel in order to increase its users. (B) The entire telecom industry has refused to co-operate with Jio due to the huge business plans implemented by it and will make sure to prevent them from getting implemented. (C) Jio is soon to swipe out the other companies of the telecom industry through its infrastructure. (D) The offers provided by Jio has enabled it to capture the maximum portion of the market and has been an indomitable competitor for others. (E) Airtel is adopting unfair means to hamper the business credibility of Jio. 8. What is thought to be the main reason of grievance of Airtel towards Jio? (A) Infrastructure of Jio (B) Data plans (C) Number of customers. (D) Violation of rules (E) Allegations made by Jio on Airtel


9. In which way will Jio be ahead of Airtel in the coming days? (A) Pricing of data and calls (B) Data speed (C) Advertisements. (D) International connectivity. (E) Plans provided for long durations 10. What is the motive of Airtel if it had followed misleading advertisements? (A) To vilify Jio. (B) To attract more number of customers. (C) To misguide people with offers. (D) To increase the price of data. (E) To give a tough competition to Jio. Direction (11-15): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent. 11. Nobody is too worried by competition to banks in their ancillary businesses: if, say, Google can help people manage their money more efficiently, that is to be welcomed. The argument is about credit. In some ways, it is a good thing that lending outside the banking system is expanding. Banks are regulated for a reason: they have big “maturity mismatches” (borrowing money largely for short periods while lending it out for the longer term), enormous leverage and are tangled up in complicated ways with other financial institutions, so they are especially fragile. And when they get into trouble, taxpayers tend to end up on the hook, because governments both guarantee deposits and are frightened to let such big and complicated institutions fail. _________________________________ (A) So we cannot take the risk of moving this lending business from banks to outside entities.

(B) So when a big bank fails there is a lot of pressure on the private companies to disperse the pressure. (C) Even after such a big business we cannot expect banks to compete with outsiders (D) So if some lending is moving from banks to less dangerous entities, the financial system should be safer. (E) Yet shadow banks, if poorly regulated, can be just as dangerous as the better-lit sort. 12. __________________________________Between 2005 and 2012, the median inflation-adjusted rent in the city rose 11%, while the median tenants’ income rose only 2%, according to the Furman Centre at New York University. It reckons that 54% of New York tenants spent more than 30% of their income on rent (the usual cutoff for “affordable”), up from 40% in 2000. (A) New York’s housing supply has long struggled to match demand. (B) The housing system in New York is one of the best in the world. (C) New York has certainly become less affordable. (D) You ask a tenant in New York about the facilities and he will reply positively. (E) Activity has started to recover, but supply is still constrained by a lack of land 13. ELECTRONIC cigarettes made their American debut seven years ago. People have bickered about them ever since. ______________________________. Others fret that they will promote nicotine addiction and reduce the stigma of smoking, which in America now ranks somewhere between theft and public indecency. (A) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) proposed rules for e-cigarettes.


(B) Different studies find that e-cigarettes contain different amounts of nicotine and other toxins. (C) For now, makers of e-cigarettes are puffing ahead (D) The FDA did not propose banning flavours or advertising, but may do so in future. (E) Some praise e-cigarettes—which deliver a vapour with nicotine, but no tobacco—for helping traditional smokers to quit 14. A MERE 5% of the chief executives of the world’s biggest companies are women. _____________________________: 38% of the female CEOs who left their jobs over the past ten years were forced to go, compared with 27% of the men. This is the latest finding from the research on the top management at the world’s 2,500 largest public companies that Strategy& (the clumsy new name for Booz & Company, a consulting firm) has been conducting since 2000. (A) This high number shows the growing power of women in this global economy (B) A clue as to why women are more likely to be fired than men is provided by another statistic in the study. (C) This would reduce both the pressure to raid rival firms and the chances of women failing when they at last reach the top. (D) And they are more likely to be sacked than their more numerous male colleagues (E) So the next time you read in newspaper that a woman has been appointed as the CEO of a firm don’t be surprised 15. TURKEY’S Prime Minister, Recep Tayyip Erdogan, faces public fury after the country’s worst-ever industrial accident. At least 282 miners died after an explosion at the Soma mine in the western province of Manisa on May 13th. ________________________. More than 350 were saved. Taner Yildiz, the energy

minister, declined to say exactly many people were inside the mine when the accident happened. (A) Rescue workers battled to rescue hundreds more feared to be trapped in galleries where fires continued to rage (B) The labour ministry gave the Soma mine a clean bill of health in March. (C) The disaster may yet unleash more mass protests of the kind that rocked Turkey last summer. (D) The trade unions and the pro-Kurdish People’s Democracy Party separately called for a nationwide strike on May 15th. (E) Mr Erdogan has launched what he admits is “a witch hunt”, demoting and reshuffling hundreds of Gulenists within the bureaucracy. Direction (16-20): The following questions contain five sentences as options. Find one sentence which does not relate to the central theme of the passage made by remaining four sentences. 16. (A) Hospitality, fast-food, retail and pharmacy workers stand to lose thousands of dollars per year after the Fair Work Commission’s landmark decision to cut penalty rates on Sundays and public holidays. (B) On Thursday, more than 135 attendees, including leaders and representatives from the county’s hospitality industry, educational institutions, and elected officials, gathered for the day-long Sustainable Hospitality Development Symposium in Monterey. (C) The Australian Council of Trade Unions (ACTU) said the decision to reduce the rates would affect nearly 1 million workers, costing some up to A$6,000 per year. (D) But employers welcomed the cut and said it would help create employment.


(E) Opposition Leader Bill Shorten said Labor would fight the cuts “in parliament and in the courts”. 17. (A) Producing energy has a very heavy carbon footprint, as thermoelectric power plants tend to spend a lot of energy to keep them cool. (B) While this makes their net efficiency lower, a team of researchers from University of Colorado Boulder have found a solution to this cooling problem, that too without wasteful expenditure of electricity and water. (C) New research, published in Science, shows scientists have been able to create a new material which can reflect incoming solar energy, as also allow a surface shed its own heat in the form of infrared thermal radiation. (D) The radioactive material tends to react with the surrounding and release a gas which is used for further processing in the plant. (E) But the use of the technology is not just restricted to thermal plants; the low-cost material can be used for even cooling houses during summer. 18. (A) Most asteroids in the solar system come nowhere near the Earth, and of those that do, most are so small that they burn up harmlessly in the atmosphere. (B) But, as a report written by America’s National Academy of Sciences points out, a big one is almost certain to hit eventually. (C) Most graceful of all would be a “gravity tractor”, in which a spaceship is flown near the asteroid. (D) Depending on how big it is, and where it comes down, it could wipe out a city, a country or possibly even human civilisation. (E) The focus is now on how to protect the Earth from future impacts, because asteroid strikes are one of the few natural disasters that humans have the power to prevent.

19. (A) Imagine a small drone that could fly around sampling animals and people in an effort to see which pathogens are present in an area, and what host species harbour them. (B) Edible drones filled with food, water or medicine could soon become indispensable in humanitarian emergencies by delivering live-saving supplies to remote areas hit by natural disasters or conflict. (C) That would be invaluable to epidemiologists seeking to understand how diseases spread, and how to predict and pre-empt their outbreaks. (D) At the moment, such a drone is beyond human technology. (E) But nature has already come up with one such technology called the mosquito that draw blood from animals to feed on. While doing so, they also ingest any blood-born pathogens present in those animals. 20. (A) Nodding syndrome is a form of epilepsy that strikes children, mostly between the ages of five and 15. (B) It robs its victims of their mental capacity, stunts their growth and causes both the characteristic “nodding-off” motion which gives its name and more serious seizures, often when a child is being fed. (C) The Down syndrome treatments, reported by New Scientist, have raised skepticism and alarm. (D) The syndrome is also something of a medical mystery. The first cases were identified in Tanzania in the 1960s. (E) As described in a paper just published in Science Translational Medicine, researchers suspect that nodding syndrome is an “autoimmune” disease caused by sufferers’ attempts to fight off infection by a parasitic worm.


REASONING AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

Directions (21 to 25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement. Input : 2 18 ear 13 etch rosy lappy 53 37 heir 40 Step 1: 2 18 gat 13 gtcj tosa nappa 53 37 jeit 40 Step 2: 2 gat 18 13 gtcj tosa nappa 53 37 jeit 40 Step 3: 2 gat 13 gtcj 18 tosa nappa 53 37 jeit 40 Step 4: 2 gat 13 gtcj 37 jeit 18 tosa nappa 53 40 Step 5: 2 gat 13 gtcj 37 jeit 53 nappa 18 tosa 40 And step 5 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output. Input: 83 privy 73 evade 31 sludge cattle 61 46 caveat 26 21. Which step number would be the following output? “31 eattlg 61 eaveav 83 rriva 73 gvadg uludgg 46 26” (A) Step IV (B) Step III (C) Step V (D) Step VI (E) None of the Above 22. What is the position of ‘rriva’ in the step 5? (A) Seventh from the right (B) Sixth from the left (C) Fourth from the right (D) Sixth from the right (E) None of these

23. In second last step, what is the sum of second from right element and third from left element? (A) 99 (B) 72 (C) 107 (D) 92 (E) 149 24. Which step is last step of this given input- output arrangement? (A) IV (B) V (C) VI (D) VII (E) None of these 25. Which of the following would be at the ninth position from the left end in penultimate step? (A) 26 (B) uludgg (C) 83 (D) rriva (E) 46 Direction (26 to 30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. In an annual function of a college five friends P, Q, R, S and T participated in car racing competition. All of them covered different distances. The distances were 27, 29, 31, 33 and 35 kilometer, but not necessarily in the same order. The rank obtained by each person is not necessarily related to the amount of distance covered by them. Similarly, the colour of shirt of each person was different. Shirt colours were black, blue, brown, green and red. Each person was called for racing one by one. Q and the person who was given the chance at fifth position to drive, covered more than 30 Kilometers. And neither of the two was in blue shirt. R 's shirt was green. He drove immediately before the person who got the first rank. The person whose position was fourth, was in red shirt and run the car two kilometer less than the person who run the car only after one


person. T was called first to drive. But he did not get the last rank. One who drove immediately after P was in brown shirt. S was not the person who covered 31 or at 35 kilometers. The person in black shirt did not covered 31 kilometers. The person in blue shirt did not obtained 2nd or 4th rank. Ranking of R is the same as the position at which the one who covered 27 kms drove. Ranking of S is not lower than that of the one with red shirt. 26. Which of the following persons is in brown shirt? (A) S (B) T (C) Q (D) Data Inadequate (E) None of these 27. Who among the following persons got the first rank? (A) Q (B) P (C) R (D) Data inadequate (E) Other than these options 28. Which of the following correctly shows the positions at which the following persons drove? P Q R S T (1) 4 3 2 5 1 (2) 4 3 2 1 5 (3) 3 4 2 5 1 (4) 4 2 3 1 5 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) Other than these options 29. Which of the following correctly shows the order of the ranks obtained by the following persons? P Q R S T (1) 1 5 2 4 3 (2) 1 5 4 2 3 (3) 5 1 4 2 3 (4) 5 4 1 2 3 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) Other than these options

30. Who among the following persons got the last rank? (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S (E) T Directions (31 to 35): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, C, T and U are six fighters training for various martial arts viz. Boxing, Jujitsu, Taekwondo, Judo, Wrestling and Karate. Two of them stay in city A, two stay in city B and the remaining two stay in city S. Each of the fighters has a win-loss record in their career. The wins to losses ratio of all the fighters staying in city S are equal but No other fighters win to loss ratio are same. Ages of all the fighters are different. The fighter whose age is seventeen years, have the same number of wins as the square of the number of his losses but his win to loss ratio is the same as that of Q. T practices Wrestling and C practices Karate. Only one person is there, who never lost a fight in his career, but C is not one of them. The total number of matches played by Q divided by the total number of matches lost by R is equal to the total number of matches won by T. R does not stay in city B but practices Taekwondo. No two fighters have the same number of losses or wins but the total number of matches played by two of the fighters are equal. Age of R is half to that of C. The fighters practicing Judo and Jujitsu do not stay in city B. One of the persons staying in city S has won 32 fights in total. Age of C is one less than sum of the ages of T and U. The best win to loss ratio is that of the fighter who won three times the number of fights lost by R. Age of Q is equal to the sum of the ages of C and T. U and C stay in city A and T stays in city B. The one practicing wrestling is twelve years old. One of the fighter won 22 out of his twenty-


seven career fights. Total number of fights won by C is equal to the total number of matches played by R. There is no one who lost half of more of his total number of fights. The total number of matches played by the one practicing taekwondo is half to that of Q. Age of U is one less than twice the age of T. Q stays at city S. Total number of fights won by the one practicing wrestling is twice the number of fights lost by U. The total number of matches played by T is half to that of the number of wins of U. Sum of the ages of P and R is equal to that of U. 31. Which of the following pairs of fighters stay one each in city A and at city S? (A) U and C (B) C and R (C) Q and R (D) T and U (E) None of these 32. Who practices Boxing? (A) Q (B) R (C) P (D) C (E) None of these 33. Which of the following fighter won all his fights? (A) P (B) The one practicing wrestling (C) U (D) None of these (E) Can’t be determined 34. Who among the following fighters has the worst win to loss ratio? (A) C (B) U (C) Q (D) R (E) None of these 35. How many fights have been won by the youngest fighter? (A) 12 (B) 32 (C) Less than 12 (D) 13 (E) None of these Directions (36 to 40): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the

data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and answer the following questions. (A) If the data in statement I alone or in the statement II alone or in the statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question. (B) If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III are not sufficient to answer the question. (C) If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question. (D) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question. (E) If the data in all the statement I, II and III are necessary to answer the question. 36. Point D is in which direction with respect to Point E? I. Point A is to the west of point B. Point D is to the north of point A. Point M is to the north of point E and is to the east of point B. II. Point M is to the south of point E, which is to the west of point T. Point Q is to the north of point D and is to the east of point T. III. Point L is to the south of point A. Point E is to the west of point L while point D is to the east of point A 37. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are living in a six floor building, each lives on different floor of the building. In building there are from 1 to 6 floors. Ground floor is given number 1, then 2 and so on. Who is living on Ground floor? I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q are living. P is living in even number floor.


II. T is not living on an even numbered floor. Q is living in even number floor. Q is not living in top floor. III. S is living in odd number floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P are living. T is living immediately above R’s floor. 38. Four friends are sitting around a circular table named M, N, O and P. Are they facing to the centre of table? If it is given that- I. N is sitting second to the right of P. P is facing centre. O is sitting to the immediate right of N and P. II. M is sitting immediate left of N. O is not sitting immediate left of M. O is sitting immediate right of P. III. P is an immediate neighbour of M and O. N is sitting to the immediate left of M. O is sitting to the immediate left of P. 39. ‘S’ is in which direction with respect to ‘Q’? If- I. P is to the west of Q. R is to the north of Q. S is to the south of R. II. ‘V’ is to the South of S. The distance between V and Q is 4m and distance between S and Q is 9m. III. P is to the West of Q. Q is in the middle of P and T. U is to the South of T. S is to the West of U. 40. Who among A, B, C, D and E was the first to reach the station? I. B reached earlier than E, A and C were not the first to reach. II. A reached earlier than both C and E, but could not reach earlier than D, who was at the station before B. III. C didn’t reach just after A 41.In RFID, “R” stands for ____ (A) Rapid (B) Remote (C) Random (D) Radio (E) None of these 42. _______ is the application of investigation and analysis techniques to gather and preserve evidence from a particular computing device in a way that is

suitable for presentation in a court of law. (A) Robotics (B) Animation (C) Simulation (D) Computer Forensics (E)None of these 43. Which of the following is the process of sorting through large data sets to identify patterns and establish relationships to solve problems through data analysis? (A). Data Mining (B) Data Marting (C)Data Warehousing (D) All of these (E)None of these 44. The practice of collecting into a single database data relevant to a particular function, department, etc is known as? (A) Data Mining (B) Data Marting (C) Data Warehousing (D) Data Diddling (E) None of these 45. Which of the following contains the root directory and all other subdirectories? (A) File Path (B) Full Path (C) Absolute Path (D) All of these (E) None of these 46. What happens when you insert an AutoShape by simply clicking in the document? (A)it appears near the insertion point (B) it is inserted in its default size (C) it is selected (D) All of the above (E) None of these 47. What must be used to control the layering of objects? (A) formatting tool bar (B) picture tool bar (C) drawing tool bar (D) image tool bar (E)None of these


48. What is the shortcut key to “Center Alien” the selected text? (A) Ctrl + C (B) Ctrl + E (C) Ctrl + F (D) Shift+Alt (E) None of these 49. What is the shortcut key to “Update Formula” in a table? (A)F9 (B) Alt+FB

(C) Ctrl + F9 (D) Shift+ F9 (E) None of these 50. What is the shortcut key for “Find and Replace” dialog box? (A) Ctrl + F (B) Ctrl + R (C) Ctrl + H (D) Ctrl+Shift + F (E) None of these

QUANTATIVE APTITUDE

DIRECTION (Q. 51-53):- Given below is a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers. 51. In how many days can B alone finish the work? I. A, B and C together can finish the work in 3 days. II. B and C together can finish the work in 5 days. (A) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. (B) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. (C) The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (D) The data in both the statements I and II is not sufficient to answer the question. (E) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question 52. Below question is followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all the three statements given to decide

whether any information provided in the statement(s) is/are redundant and can be dispensed with while answering the given question. Abhimanyu took a loan of some amount from a bank. What is his rate of interest per annum if I. The amount becomes Rs. 11025 at compound interest after 2 yr II. The same amount with simple interest becomes Rs. 11000 after two years III. The amount invested is Rs. 10000. (A) Only I or II or III (B) Only I or III (C) Only II and III (D) Only I or II (E) All, I, II and III are required to answer the question. 53. What is the profit of Rahul who sold two similar bags? I. He sold one bag at 20% loss. II. He sold the other bag at 25% gain. III. He has bought the two bags at Rs.2760. (A) Only I and II together are sufficient (B) Only II and III together are sufficient (C) Any two of the three are sufficient (D) All three together are needed (E) All even together are not sufficient DIRECTION (Q. 54-55):- Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data


and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers. 54. Last digit of M is 2 and last digit of N is 6. Both M and N are multiples of 4. Quantity A: Last digit of MN Quantity B: Last digit of NM (A) Quantity A > Quantity B (B) Quantity A < Quantity B (C) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B (D) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B (E) Quantity A = Quantity B OR relationship cannot be determined.

55. Quantity A: The average marks secured by 70 boys were 84. But it was discovered that an item 99 was misread as 66. What is the correct mean of marks? Quantity B: A student scored 77, 56, 85, 100, 99, 72 and 89 respectively in all the subjects. What is the average score obtained by him? (A) Quantity A > Quantity B (B) Quantity A < Quantity B (C) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B (D) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B (E) Quantity A = Quantity B

Direction (Q. 56-60):- Read the following table carefully and answer the related questions to it.

Year Number of Students Girls: boys Pass boys Fail girls

2011 3000 7 : 8 65% 20%

2012 4000 5 : 3 50% 15%

2013 9000 2 : 7 55% 15%

2014 3600 3 : 1 52% 20%

2015 4200 2 : 1 70% 15%

56. What was the percent of boys who failed in the year 2015 amongst the total number of students who failed? (A) 84% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 80% (E) None of these 57. What was the percentage of the number of girls who failed as compared with the number of boys who passed in the year 2012? (A) 50% (B) 53% (C) 52% (D) 56% (E) None of these 58. What was the number of boys who failed in examination in the year 2014? (A) 432 (B) 430 (C) 420 (D) 425 (E) None of these

59. What was the ratio of the number of girls appeared in examination in the years 2012 and 2015? (A) 16 : 19 (B) 20 : 21 (C) 25 : 28 (D) 20 : 22 (E) None of these 60. How many girls passed in the exam in the year 2011? (A) 1120 (B) 1540 (C) 1430 (D) 1890 (E) None of these Directions (Q. 61 – 65): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 61. 18.5% of 425 + 16.2% of 488 = ? (A) 160 (B) 180 (C) 200 (D) 250 (E) 100


62. 824.998 ÷ 14.048 ÷ 24.954 = ? (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 10 (E) 15 63. 14

7 + 71

3 + 42

5 = ?

(A) 18 (B) 13 (C) 11 (D) 16 (E) 20 64. 19.068 × 18.345 × ? = 11538.9337 (A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 45 (D) 50 (E) 35 65. 111

16 × 416

17 ÷ 7

38 = ?

(A) 50 (B) 55 (C) 45 (D) 60 (E) 35 Directions (Q. 66 – 70): In the following questions, two Equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer (A) If p > q

(B) If p < q (C) If p < q (D) If p > q (E) If p = q or relationship cannot be established 66. (I) p2 +24 = 10p (II) 2q2 + 18 = 12q 67. (I) q2 + q = 2 (II) p2 + 7p + 10 = 0 68. (I) p2 + 16 = 8p (II) 4q2 + 64 = 32q 69. (I) 2p2 + 12p + 16 = 0 (II) 2q2 +14q + 24 = 0 70. (I) √500p + √402 = 0 (II) √360q + (200)1 2⁄ = 0

GENERAL AWARENESS & ECONOMY

71.Aanchal Thakur has become the first Indian to win an international medal in skiing. She hails from which state? (A) Punjab (B) Kerala (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Odisha (E) None of these 72. Which railway station entered Limca Book of Records 2018 for having all-women staff? (A) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus railway station (B) Matunga railway station (C) Hazrat Nizamuddin railway station (D) Kolkata railway station (E) None of these 73. The Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas (PBD) is observed in India since which year? (A) 2003 (B) 2007 (C) 2001 (D) 2005 (E) 2004

74. The taxi hailing app, Ola has tied up with which bank to provide wide range of integrated offers to customers and driver-partners? (A) Bank of Baroda (B) State Bank of India (C) ICICI Bank (D) Axis Bank (E) None of these 75. Name the first Indian city to introduce the initiative of common mobility card for rides on public buses and the metro (A) Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) Bengaluru (D) Hyderabad (E) None of these 76. Paytm has recently received the final nod from RBI and is set to launch its Payment Banks, CEO of Paytm_____________________ (A) Rajiv Singh


(B) Neelu Rohmetra (C) Renu Satti (D) Vijay Shekhar Sharma (E) None of these 77. Contract where parties agree to buy and sell a particular asset of specific quantity and predetermined price (A) Swap (B) Forward Contract (C) Futures Contract (D) Options Contract (E) Repurchase agreement 78. CRISIL (Credit Rating Information Services of India) is a global analytical company providing ratings, research and policy advisory services, what is the objective behind setting up CRISIL? (A) Providing ratings, research, risk and policy advisory services (B) Providing information around standard income taxes applicable (C) Providing information about stock market research (D) All of above (E) None of these 79. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the Geneva-based World Business Council for Sustainable Development? (A) Nitin Nohria (B) Satish K. Tripathi (C) Sarvadaman Chowla (D) Sunny Verghese (E) None of these 80. _______________is an electronic fund transfer system that operate on a Deferred Net Settlement (DNS) basis which settles transactions in batches (A) NPCI (B) IMPS (C) RTGS (D) NEFT (E) None of these

81. NPA is a loan or an advance where interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than ____________days in respect of term loan (A) 90 days (B) 100 days (C) 120 days (D) 180 days (E) None of these 82. Which Indian state has topped the Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index meant to assess international trade logistics across states and Union territories? (A) Karnataka (B) Gujarat (C) Punjab (D) Andhra Pradesh 83.Name the 2018 theme country for the 42nd Kolkata Book Fair? (A) Australia (B) Brazil (C) Italy (D) France (E) None of these 84. Which research arm of Indian Railways has launched “New Online Vendor Registration System”? (A) Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering and Telecommunication (B) Research Designs and Standards Organisation (C) National Academy of Indian Railways (D) Indian Railway Service of Electrical Engineers (E) None of these 85. Commercial paper is a short term unsecured promissory notes issued by the company, what is the maximum period of maturity prescribed for commercial paper? (A) 1 year (B) 2year (C) 6 months (D) 1 month (E) None of these 86. Recently, Union Minister of Earth Sciences Dr. Harsh Vardhan dedicated India’s fastest and first multi-petaflops supercomputer named _____ to the nation. (A) Paarth (B) Shoor (C) Tapas (D) Pratyush (E) None of these


87. The 2018 World Hindi Day (WHD) is observed on which date? (A) January 11 (B) January 9 (C) January 10 (D) January 12 (E) None of these 88. Which is the old name of Punjab National Bank (A) Imperial Bank (B) Oudh Bank (C) Bhartiya Bank (D) Bank of Hindustan (E)None of these

89. Name the state which has imposed complete ban on electronic cigarettes in the state with a jail term of up to 3 years on its violation (A) Bihar (B) Maharashtra (C) Haryana (D) Uttar Pradesh (E)None of these 90. Tagline of Bank of India (A) A tradition of trust (B) Relationship Beyond Banking (C) A name you can bank on (D) Good People to Bank with (E) Working for better tomorrow

ibps clerk (mains) exam 2017 - ibps preparation blog · contribute less than 1% of india’s...

Documents