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www.ibpsexamguru.in IBPSEXAMGURU SBI PO PRELIMINARY MODEL PAPER 7

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www.ibpsexamguru.in

IBPSEXAMGURU

SBI PO PRELIMINARY MODEL PAPER 7

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Sections Number of questions Marks Duration of Exam

1. English 30 30 60 minutes 2. Reasoning 35 35

3. Quantitative Aptitude 35 35

Total = 100 Qs. Total marks = 100

Part – 1 English

Q. (1 – 10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These

numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits

the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One of the good things that happened to me (1) in Patliputra, (2) the friendship of the farmer’s daughter

This nine year old girl (3) became very fond of me and her parents (4) her that she could keep me

forever as her toy. She was very good at needlecraft and (5) clothes for her doll. In fact, on my first night

there and (6) the rest of my stay in the farmer’s house, I slept in her doll’s cradle. That first night, they

put the cradle on (7) of a shelf far away from the danger of rats. As I slowly got to learn their language, I

was (8) to talk to the girl and let her know my needs and she was able to make me (9) comfortable. She

made me seven shirts and was my teacher of the language. When I pointed to anything, she would (10)

it by name, and soon I was able to talk easily with her.

Q. 1. (1) waiting (2) truly (3) till (4) still (5) while

Q. 2. (1) for (2) was (3) because (4) is (5) it

Q. 3. (1) soon (2) had (3) was (4) has (5) forever

Q. 4. (1) handled (2) worried (3) taught (4) promised (5) carried

Q. 5. (1) tore (2) tearing (3) making (4) wore (5) make

Q. 6. (1) to (2) as (3) for (4) of (5) if

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Q. 7. (1) bottom (2) top (3) coating (4) height (5) wide

Q. 8. (1) possible (2) happiness (3) eagerly (4) able (5) request

Q. 9. (1) every (2) thorough (3) total (4) high (5) more

Q. 10. (1) call (2) ask (3) throw (4) help (5) hit

Q. (11 – 25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain

words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rocketing food prices have sparked riots in numerous countries recently. Millions are reeling from the

price rise and governments are scrambling to halt a fast-moving crisis before it spins out of control.

From Mexico to Pakistan, Senegal and Mauritania, protests have turned violent. In many poor countries,

the protests have been fuelled by pent-up anger against authoritarian or corrupt officials, some of

whom have earned fortunes from oil and minerals while locals are struggling to buy food. Protesters

burned hundreds of food-ration stores accusing the owners of selling government-subsidised food on

the lucrative black market. "This is a serious security issue," says Joachim von Braun, Director General of

the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), in Washington. He has been bombarded by calls

from officials around the world, all asking one question : How long will the crisis last ?

The forecast is grim. Government might quell the protests, but bringing down food prices could take at

least a decade, food analysts say. One reason : billions of people are buying ever-greater quantities of

food-especially in booming China and India, where many have stopped growing their own food and now

have the cash to buy a lot more of it. Increasing meat consumption, for example, has helped drive up

demand for grain, and with it the price. There are other problems too. The spike in oil prices, (an

unbelievable $ 109 per barrel), has pushed up fertilizer prices, as well as the cost of trucking food from

farms to local markets and shipping it abroad In China, where food prices have soared 23% in a year,

officials have frozen the price of fertilizer and boosted farm subsidies, in an effort to lower pork and

wheat prices and avert possible protests. But the problems do not end there. Harvests have been

seriously disrupted by freak weather, including prolonged droughts in Australia and Southern Africa,

floods in West Africa, deep frost in China and record-breaking warmth in Northern Europe. The push to

produce bio fuels as an alternative to hydrocarbons in further straining food supplies, especially in the

U.S., where generous subsides for ethanol have lured thousands of farmers away from growing crops for

food and increasing the area used for bio fuel cultivation. As always in a crisis, there are winners. The

creeping fear that the world might actually run short of food has led speculators to pour billions into

commodities further accelerating price rises.

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For the world's poorest people, the price spikes are disastrous. Aid officials say that millions who

previously eked out enough to feed their families can no longer afford the food in their local stores, and

are seeking help from relief organizations. "We are seeing a new face of hunger," says the Executive

Director of the U.N.'s World Food Program, "People who were not in the urgent category are now

moving into that category." Despite the widespread demonstrations, the food crisis has been largely

ignored by North American and European officials–who pay for much of the world's food aid “because

no one is starving in rich countries.”

Several African countries have begun planting high-protein, pest-resistant rice crops, and aid

organization are beginning to recruit locals for new job programs to help people pay their food bills. In

the poorest parts of Asia and Africa, officials hope that sky-high food prices might lift out of poverty

small farmers who have barely scraped by on low crop prices–a hope that would get a big boost if the

rich world agreed to cut agricultural subsidies in the current round of trade talks.

Q. 11. What have experts predicted about the current food crisis?

(A) They believe it will pose a severe security risk which they fear governments will not be able to

handle.

(B) China and India will reduce their food exports drastically to feed their own population.

(C) It is unlikely that food prices will be reduced in the near future.

(1) Only A (2) Both A and B (3) Only B (4) All A, B & C (5) None of these

Q. 12. Which of the following cannot be considered as a cause of rising food grain prices?

(1) In creased meat consumption

(2) Manipulation of commodities markets

(3) Recommendations of International Food Policy Research Institutes

(4) Drastic shifts in existing weather patterns

(5) Exorbitant oil prices

Q. 13. What does the phrase “new face of hunger” imply in the context of the passage?

(A) In some countries a large section of the middle class cannot afford food.

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(B) Aid organization themselves cannot afford local food prices in some countries and require increased

aid.

(C) The number of people below the poverty line has drastically grown.

(1) None (2) Only A (3) Only B (4) Both B & C (5) None of these

Q. 14. Why has the area being utilized for bio fuel cultivation increased?

(1) Low hydrocarbon levels have forced farmers to grow bio fuels.

(2) Prices of ethanol have soared resulting in higher profits for farmers.

(3) Governments have provided a high subsidy for bio fuels like ethanol

(4) Rise in prices of fertilizers required for the cultivation of traditional crops.

(5) None of these

Q. 15. Why have U.S. officials not paid attention to the food crisis?

(1) Relief organization have been handling the crisis well

(2) Crops grown for food are highly subsidized in America

(3) The U.S. has a huge surplus stock of food.

(4) The percentage of those affected by the crisis in America is low.

(5) None of these

Q. 16. What measures have relief organization taken to help people in poorer countries to cope with the

food crisis?

(1) Creating awareness among rich and developed nations about the severity of the food short age.

(2) Hiring local labor to help implement new programmers.

(3) Providing knowledge to local farmers on the latest farming technology such as pest resistant crops.

(4) Threatening to wind up their operations in affected countries if Western countries don't increase aid.

(5) Campaigning to reduce fuel prices.

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Q. 17. How can small farmers benefit from high food prices?

(A) If their governments increase the subsidies offered on their agricultural produce.

(B) If rich countries participate in trade talks to set fixed export duties.

(C) If all government agree to sub sides oil prices.

(1) None (2) Only A (3) Both A and B (4) Only C (5) All A, B and C

Q. 18. Which of the following is not an impact of high food prices?

(A) Riots and destruction of property in many parts of the world.

(B) IFPRI has been boycotted by several governments.

(C) Officials have become rich by capitalizing on high prices.

(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Both B and C (4) Only C (5) None of these

Q. 19. Which of the following is a measure that governments have taken to deal with the food crisis?

(1) Placed the blame for the crisis on the International Food Policy Research Institute.

(2) Uniformly decided to cut export duties.

(3) Reduced subsidies on bio fuels.

(4) Set a fixed price on fertilizers.

(5) Funded research on the causes of extreme climatic conditions.

Q. 20. What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Criticizing subsidy policy of rich countries

(2) Urging governments to control pollution and reduce its impact on the climate.

(3) Berating citizens for using violent means of protest.

(4) Cautioning governments against speculators.

(5) Drawing our attention to the global and severe nature of the food crisis.

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Q. (21 – 23): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in

the passage.

Q. 21. SPARKED

(1) Flickered (2) Flashed (3) Enlivened (4) Provoked (5) Energized

Q. 22. PUSH

(1) Entice (2) Promote (3) Drive (4) Assault (5) Encourage

Q. 23. REELING

(1) Suffering (2) Wavering (3) Shivering (4) Falling (5) Shocked

Q. (24 – 25): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in

the passage.

Q. 24. QUELL

(1) Instigate (2) Focus (3) Rebel (4) Allay (5) Oppose

Q. 25. GRIM

(1) Flexible (2) Pleasant (3) Amiable (4) Gentle (5) Friendly

Q. (26 – 30): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the

phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is

given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer

Q. 26. Improving from the quality of new recruits, the company is planning to devote greater resources

to training.

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(1) By improving

(2) In order to improve in

(3) To improve

(4) An improvement of

(5) No correction required

Q. 27. Your plan sounds easy in theory but it will be quite difficult putting in practice.

(1) while in practice

(2) In practice

(3) when putting to practicing

(4) To put up for practice

(5) No correction required

Q. 28. The volume of exports of goods and services from the U.S. are all time highest.

(1) at its highest of all time

(2) higher all the time

(3) higher than all time

(4) at an all time high

(5) No correction required

Q. 29. Much of the money allotted by the State for primary education goes unspent every year.

(1) Lot of the money allotted

(2) Mostly of the money allotment

(3) More the allotted money

(4) So much of the money been allotted

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(5) No correction required

Q. 30. Collaboration of world leaders has helped addressed some of the most pressing problems the

world is currently facing.

(1) can help address

(2) is helping the address of

(3) will be addressed to

(4) is a help to addressing

(5) No correction required

Answers

Q. 1. (5) while in– during I was in

Q. 2. (2) was– as the event is of past, a past verb will follow the subject.

Q. 3. (1) soon–little girls quickly became fond of them so, 'soon' will be used.

Q. 4. (4) promised–to say that something will surely or definitely happen

handled–take care of something or deal with a situation.

worried–to make somebody anxious about something or annoy or disturb somebody.

eg. Why do you worry her all the time.

Taught–eg. He taught me English at school.

Q. 5. (3) making–ing (progressive) form of the verb is often used in place of an object in the sentence.

eg. She is good at (cooking food)–taken as the name of the action.

wore– Past of wear.

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eg. She wore a nice dress at the party.

tore—Past of tear

eg. The baby tore the book in to bits of paper.

Q. 6. (3) for–during.

For the rest of my stay–during rest of the time while I stayed there

Q. 7. (2) top of the shelf– upper most part of the shelf.

They placed it at the top of the shelf so that the rats could not reach there (to keep it safe from rats)

coating–upper layer usually of paint or material.

wide– broad bottom–lower most part of something

eg. The magazines are at the bottom of the rack.

Q. 8. (4) able to– become capable of doing something

have the skill needed for it.

eagerly–(adverb) means with interest/excitement.

eg. He eagerly waited for the results.

Q. 9. (5) more–comparative is used to compare the comfort he was getting earlier with the comfort he

was provided when he was able to tell his needs to the farmer's daughter.

Q. 10. (1) call by name—in the sentence it means to tell the name of that thing.

ask– eg. The teacher asked him some questions

throw–eg. Throw away the waste you have kept in the bin.

help– eg. Sam is ready to help me in the project.

hit–eg. Ajit hit the dog with a stone.

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Q. 11. (5)

Q. 12. (3)

Q. 13. (5)

Q. 14. (3)

Q. 15. (5)

Q. 16. (2)

Q. 17. (1)

Q. 18. (2)

Q. 19. (4)

Q. 20. (5)

Q. 21. (4) Provoked Caused something to happen, especially negative to make a person angry.

For other option:

(1) Flickered - to shine with a light that is sometimes bright and sometimes weak.

eg: The wind made the candle flicker.

To appear for a short time or to make a sudden movement.

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eg. On hearing the news, a smile flickered on her face.

(2) Flashed – shine make something shine suddenly and brightly.

eg. My vision was blurred due to the light that the car flashed move very fast.

eg. They flashed past the building, in a car.

(3) Enlivened- make something more interesting.

eg. His presence enlivened the show.

(5) Energized - make someone feel energetic or eager.

eg. The short break energized the employees.

Q. 22. (1) Entice to persuade someone to do something by offering something pleasant.

For other options:

(5) Encourage Make someone more likely to do something or make something more likely to happen.

eg. We do not encourage in discipline.

(2) Promote to encourage the popularity, sale, development ot existence of something.

eg. Advertisement are meant to promote the sale of products.

(3) Drive to force someone or something to go somewhere or do something.

eg. Your absurd behavior will drive me mad.

(4) Assault violent attack, determined or serious attempt to do something difficult.

eg. He died during an assault on the world’s second highest mountain.

Q. 23. (1) suffering experiencing something difficult, un pleasant or painful.

For other options:

(2) Wavering1. loosing strength, determination or purpose.

eg. You should meditate in order to stabilize your wavering concentration.

2. Confused (between two options)

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eg. You should persuade the wavering students to join your course.

3. Shivering shaking slightly, due to cold, illness or fear.

eg. The dog is shivering due to cold.

4. Falling going down from a high position to a bad one or from good condition to a bad one.

eg. The growth rate is falling.

5. Shocked feeling upset or surprised.

eg. I was shocked when I heard that she has resigned from her job.

Q. 24. (1) Quell something by using force. So the antonym should be instigate cause a situation or event

to happen.

eg. The dererogatory speech instigated violence in the city.

For other options

Focus (usually used with on/upon) give lot of attention to one particular person, subject or thing.

eg. The debate focused on the failure of government policies.

Roberto fight against government or refuse to obey rules etc.

eg. Muslim women in Paris rebelled against the rule to prevent them from wearing bursa.

(4) All make someone feel less worried or frightened.

eg. The government is doing nothing to allay the fears of the guardians of the students who have been

kidnapped.

(5) Opposed to disagree with something or someone.

eg. The grading system was opposed by many teachers.

Q. 25. (2) Grim causing worry which means unpleasant.

So, the antonym should be pleasant causing happiness.

eg. The news was pleasant for many.

For Other Options:

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(1) Flexible able to change or be changed according to the need or situation.

eg. Our schedule is flexible, we can be asked to go anywhere, anytime.

(3) Amiable person or their behavior that is pleasant and friendly.

eg. Today she was in an amiable mood.

(4) Gentle calm, kind or soft.

eg. The customer was pleased by his gentle behaviors.

(5) Friendly like that of a friendly

eg. There is a friendly atmosphere in my office.

Q. 26. (3) To is used with infinitive (Verb (present form) to express the purpose of something, according

to the sentence the purpose of devoting greater resources to training is to improve the quality of new

recruits.

recruit new member of an organization.

By can be used to express source or agency

eg. The quality of the new recruits can be improved by devoting greater resources to training.

Q. 27. (2) in the first part of the sentence the adjective (easy) is followed by in noun

(theory) the latter part should also use the same ie. difficult + in + noun (practice) parallel ideas in

sentences should be expressed in parallel forms.

Q. 28. (4) at an all time high means.

They are high all the time.

Q. 29. (5) Much of the money allotted big part of the money that has been allotted.

Q. 30. (4) gerund from the verb is used as a noun in the sentence.

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Part – 2 Reasoning

Q. 1. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and

each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be

third from the right end?

(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) K (5) None of these

Q. 2. In a row of children facing North. Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of

Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row?

(1) 29 (2) 28 (3) 30 (4) 27 (5) None of these

Q. 3. In a certain code READ is written as #5%6 and PAID is written as $%46. How is RIPE written in that

code?

(1) # 4$5 (2) #6$5 (3) $4#5 (4) $4#6 (5) None of these

Q. 4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the first, the fourth, the fifth and the ninth

letters of the word VERSATILE using each letter only once second letter of that word is your answer. If

more than one such word can be formed your answer is M and if no such word can be formed your

answer is N.

(1) A (2) S (3) E (4) N (5) M

Q. 5. What will come next in the series given below?

1 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 2 3 4 5

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 2 (5) None of these

Q. (6 – 12): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions

numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at

variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given

conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

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Q. 6. Statements: Some grapes are apples.

Some apples are papayas.

All papayas are mangoes.

No mango is banana.

Conclusions: I. No banana is papaya.

II. Some apples are mangoes.

III. Some bananas are grapes.

IV. No banana is grape.

(1) Only I and II follow

(2) Only either III or IV follows

(3) Only I and either III or IV follow

(4) I, II and either III or IV follow

(5) None of these

Q. 7. Statements: All flowers are trees.

Some trees are stars.

Some stars are clouds.

No cloud is rock.

Conclusions: I. No rock is star.

II. Some stars are flowers.

III. Some rocks are flowers.

IV. Some rocks are stars.

(1) None follows

(2) Only either I or IV follows

(3) Only I follows

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(4) Only III & IV follow

(5) All follow

Q. 8. Statements: Some pens are stands.

Some stands are containers.

All containers are boxes.

All boxes are drawers.

Conclusions: I. Some boxes are stands.

II. Some drawers are stands.

III. Some drawers are containers.

IV. Some boxes are pens.

(1) Only I & II follow

(2) Only II & III follow

(3) Only I, II and III follow

(4) All follow

(5) None of these

Q. 9. Statements: All paints are colours.

Some colours are brands.

Some brands are certificates.

All certificates are degrees.

Conclusions: I. Some brands are degrees.

II. Some certificates are colours.

III. Some colours are paints.

IV. No paint is degree.

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(1) None follows

(2) Only I follows

(3) Only III follows

(4) Only either I or II follows

(5) None of these

Q. 10. Statements: Some files are covers.

All covers are keys.

All keys are locks.

Some locks are doors.

Conclusions: I. Some doors are keys.

II. Some doors are covers.

III. All keys are covers.

IV. Some doors are files.

(1) None follows

(2) Only I follows

(3) Only II follows

(4) Only II & III follow

(5) None of these

Q. 11. Statements: Some desks are chairs.

All chairs are tables.

All tables are computers.

All computers are phones.

Conclusions: I. Some phones are desks

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II. Some computer are chairs.

III. All tables are phones.

IV. Some desks are tables.

(1) Only II & IV follow

(2) Only I & II follow

(3) Only I, II & III follow

(4) Only III follows

(5) None of these

Q. 12. Statements: Some bricks are stones.

Some stones are rocks.

All rocks are clay.

No clay is sand.

Conclusions: I. Some stones are clay.

II. Some bricks are sand.

III. Some rocks are sand.

IV. No brick is sand.

(1) None follows

(2) Only either II or IV follows

(3) Only I and either II or IV follow

(4) Only II & IV follow

(5) None of these

Q. (13 – 20): In these questions the symbols @, #, Ú, $ and © are used with different meanings as

follows:

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

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‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.

‘A ÚB’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the

conclusions I, II, III given below them is/are definitely true and mark your answer accordingly.

Q. 13. Statements: H $ K, K © R, R @ J, J # F

Conclusions: I. R # H II. F $ R III. H $ J

(1) Only I & II are true

(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only II & III are true

(5) All are true

Q. 14. Statements: L @ M, M U P, M # D, D $ F

Conclusions: I. L @ P II. P @ D III. M © F

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only III is true

(3) Only either I or III is true

(4) Only I & II are true

(5) None of these

Q. 15. Statements: T @ V, V # Q, Q © L, L UM

Conclusions: I. M @ Q II. T @ L III. T # L

(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true (4) Only I & III are true (5) None of these

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Q. 16. Statements: J U E, D @ E, E $ K, K © T

Conclusions: I. J $ D II. J UD III. E $ T

(1) None is true (2) Only II & III are true (3) Only I & III are true (4) All are true (5) None of these

Q. 17. Statements: H @ I, I # L, L U A, A $ Q

Conclusions: I. H # L II. H U L III. Q # H

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only I & II are true

(3) Only III and either I or II are true

(4) Only either I or II is true

(5) None of these

Q. 18. Statements: V # W, W ÚT, T © K, K @ F

Conclusions: I. T @ V II. T $ V III. F U T

(1) Only either I or II is true

(2) Only III is true

(3) Only I and II are true

(4) Only III and either I or II are true

(5) None of these

Q. 19. Statements: F U E, E © H, H @ I, I $ W

Conclusions: I. W # H II. F $ H III. E # I

(1) None is true

(2) Only I & II are true

(3) Only III is true

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(4) Only either I or III is true

(5) None of these

Q. 20. Statements: L @ R, R #M, N $ M, N # K

Conclusions: I. L # N II. K $ M III. R # N

(1) None is true

(2) Only I & II are true

(3) Only I & III are true

(4) Only II & III are true

(5) All are true

Q. (21 – 25): In each of these questions, a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of

digits/ symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). The letters are to be coded as per the scheme and

conditions given below. You have to find out which of the four digit/symbol combinations correctly

represents the group of letters. The serial number of those combinations is your answer. If none of the

combinations is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. ‘None of these.’

Letters: P E Q A R T J L F I H U B D G

Digit/symbols: 3 7 # 9 6 2 $ 1 © 4 5 @ % 8 U

Conditions:

(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel their codes are to be interchanged.

(ii) If the as well as the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as £.

(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded by the code for

consonant.

Q. 21. PTLAFI

(1) 3219©4 (2) 4219©3 (3) 4219©4 (4) 3219©3 (5) None of these

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Q. 22. FQEJL

(1) %#@7$% (2) 1#@7$© (3) 1#@7$1 (4) ©#@7$1 (5) None of these

Q. 23. AJQTHI

(1) 9$#259 (2) 9$#254 (3) £$#25£ (4) 4$#259 (5) None of these

Q. 24. EBGLRQ

(1) #%U16# (2) 7%UL6# (3) #%U167 (4) 7%U167 (5) None of these

Q. 25. DUARFE

(1) 8@96©7 (2) 8@96©8 (3) 7@96©7 (4) %@96©% (5) None of these

Q. (26 – 30): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

J, K, H, R, F, L, N and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. H is third to the left of L who

is to the immediate right of K. R is third to the left of N but is not a neighbor of H or L. J is second to the

right of Q.

Q. 26. Who is second to the left of N?

(1) Q (2) K (3) J (4) F or J (5) None of these

Q. 27. Which of the following groups of persons has the first person sitting between the next two?

(1) LKN (2) QFL (3) JHR (4) JHF (5) None of these

Q. 28. Who is to the immediate left of R?

(1) Q (2) K (3) F (4) N (5) None of these

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Q. 29. Which of the following is correct position of J with respect to K?

(1) Third to the left

(2) Third to the right

(3) Second to the left

(4) Second to the right

(5) Fourth to the right

Q. 30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their seating positions and so

form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) RQ (2) LK (3) HJ (4) JR (5) FQ

Q. 31. These questions are based on the following information:

‘A+B’ means ‘A is father of B’.

‘A×B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.

‘A–B’ means ‘A is sister of B’.

‘A÷B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.

Q. 32. Which of the following expressions represents ‘J is daughter of D’?

(1) D × K + J ÷ H (2) D × K + H – J (3) D × K + J – H (4) D + K ÷ J (5) None of these

Q. 33. In M ÷ L + T × R, how is T related to M?

(1) Nephew (2) Niece (3) Nephew or Niece (4) Daughter (5) Can't be determined

Q. 34. Which of the following expressions represents ‘V is mother of L’?

(1) V÷F+J–L (2) F×V+J–L (3) F÷V+J–L (4) V×F+J–L (5) None of these

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Q. (34 – 35): These questions are based on following set of numbers:

349 483 766 598 674

Q. 34. If in each of the numbers the positions of the first two digits are interchanged and then the

numbers are arranged in ascending order which number will be at the second position?

(1) 349 (2) 483 (3) 766 (4) 598 (5) 674

Q. 35. If in each of the numbers the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged and then

the numbers are arranged in descending order which number will be at the fourth position?

(1) 349 (2) 483 (3) 766 (4) 598 (5) 674

Answers

Q. 1. (4)

According to the question arrangement the third letter from the right end is – K

Q. 2. (2)

Total Number = 15 + 2 + 11 = 28

Q. 3. (1)

R E A D P I

# 5 % 6 $ 4

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Q. 4. (5) SAVE, and VASE

Q. 5. (3) 1 12 123 1234 12345 123456 1234567 123456

Next number is 6.

Q. 6. (4) Some apples are papayas (I) + All papayas is mango (A) = I+A = I = Some Apple are papayas II

follows. All papayas is mango (A)+ No mango is banana (E). A + E = E = No papayas. is banana I follows.

And conclusion III and IV are complementary pair.

Q. 7. (2) From given statement no conclusion are formed and conclusion I and IV are complementary

pair. either I or IV follow.

Q. 8. (3) Some stands are Containers. I +A All Containers is box (A) = I + A = I = Some stands are box is

conversion into I some boxes are stand, I follow. Some stands are boxes I +All boxes are drawers (A) =

I+A= I is Drawers are stands II follow I All Containers. are box (A)+ All boxes are drawer =A+A= All

Containers. is drawer is convert into I some containers are drawer III follow.

Q. 9. (5) Some brands are certificate I + All certificates are degree (A) = I +A = I = Some brands are degree

I follows and All paints are colours is convert into I. Some colours are paint III follows.

Q. 10. (1) From given statement no conclusion is follows.

Q. 11. (5) From given statement all conclusion follows.

Q. 12. (3) Some stone are rock I + All rocks are clay (A) I +A= I = Some stone are clay I follows and

conclusion II and IV are complementary pair.

Q. 13. (1) Statement % H > K = R, R < J, J < F

F > J > R = K

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H > K

Conclusion % I. R < H = True

II. F > R = True

III. H > J = False

Q. 14. (5) Statement: L < M, M > P, M < D, D > F

D > F

D > M > P

M > L

Conclusion % I. L < P = False

II. P < D = False

III. M = F = False

Q. 15. (3) Statement: T < V, V < Q, Q = L, L > M

Q = L > M

Q > V > T

Conclusion: I. M < Q = False

II. T < L = False

III.T < L = True

Q. 16. (2) Statement: J < E, D < E, E > K, K = T

J > E > K = T

J > E > D

Conclusion % I. J > D = False

II. J > D = True

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III. E > T = True

Q. 17. (1) Statement: H < I, I < L, L > A, A > Q

L > A > Q

L > I > H

Conclusions: I. H < L = True

II. H > L = False

III. Q < H = False

Q. 18. (2) Statement: V < W, W > T, T = K, K < F

F > K = T and W > T

W > V

Conclusion: I. T < V = False

II. T > V = False

III. F > T = True

Q. 19. (1) Statement: F > E, E = H, H < I, I > W

I > W , I > H = E and F > E

Conclusion: I. W < H = False

II. F > H = False

III. E < I = False

Q. 20. (5) Statement: L < R, R < M, N > M, N < K

K > N > M > R > L

Conclusion: I. L < N = True

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II. K > M = True

III. R < N = True

Q. 21. (2) P T L A F I - 4 2 1 9 © 3

Condition (i) follows

Q. 22. (5) F Q E J L - © # 7 $ 1

None condition follows.

Q. 23. (3) A J Q T H I - £ $ # 2 5 £

Condition (ii) follows

Q. 24. (1) E B G L R Q - # % * 16 #

Condition (iii) follows

Q. 25. (5) D U A R F E - 7 @ 9 6 © 8

Condition (i) follows

Q. (26 – 30):

Q. 26. (3) J is second to the left of N

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Q. 27. (3) J is sitting between H and R

Q. 28. (1) Q is immediate left of R

Q. 29. (1) J is third to the left of K

Q. 30. (5) Second person sitting immediate right of first person

Q. 31. (3)

Q. 32. (2)

Q. 33. (4)

Q. 34. (3) According to question

Second number = 676 = 766

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Q. 35. (5) According to question

After arrangement in descending order

Fourth number = 476 = 674

Test – 3 Quantitative Aptitude

Q. (1 – 5): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q. 1.

= ?

(1) 53 (2) 46 (3) 63 (4) 66 (5) None of these

Q. 2. 1888 ÷ 32 ÷ 8 = ?

(1) 472 (2) 7.375 (3) 29.5 (4) 9.485 (5) None of these

Q. 3. 42.3 × 22.3 × 81.7 = ?

(1) 64 (2) 512 (3) 16 (4) 4096 (5) None of these

Q. 4. 18.8 × ? × 14.2 = 5232.416

(1) 20.3 (2) 17.4 (3) 19.6 (4) 16.8 (5) None of these

Q. 5. 2

+ 2

+ 1

= ?

(1) 6

(2) 8

(3) 8

(4) 6

(5) None of these

Q. (6 – 10): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

questions? (Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

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Q. 6. = ?

(1) 43 (2) 56 (3) 32 (4) 28 (5) 65

Q. 7. 17.998 × 23.005 × 11.99 = ?

(1) 3824 (2) 4055 (3) 5138 (4) 5446 (5) 4964

Q. 8. 9876.5 ÷ 18.5 ÷ 3.2 = ?

(1) 128 (2) 194 (3) 152 (4) 167 (5) 179

Q. 9. (18.6)3 = ?

(1) 7245 (2) 5225 (3) 6435 (4) 7705 (5) 8045

Q. 10.

×

×

=?

(1) 1511345 (2) 1639714 (3) 1851216 (4) 1420165 (5) 1583628

Q. 11. In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both

equations and–Give answer If

(1) X > Y (2) X > Y (3) X < Y (4) X < Y (5) X = Y or the relationship cannot be established

Q. 11. I. X2 + 9 X + 20 = 0 II. Y2 + 13 Y + 42 = 0

Q. 12. I. X2 + 11X + 24 = 0 II. Y2 + 12Y + 35 = 0

Q. 13. I. 2X + 3Y = 14 II. 4X + 2Y = 16

Q. 14. I. X2 + 7X + 12 = 0 II. Y2 + 10 Y + 24 = 0

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Q. 15. I. X2 + 28 = 11X II. Y2 – 15Y+ 56 = 0

Q. 16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘CREAM’ be arranged?

(1) 480 (2) 120 (3) 260 (4) 25 (5) None of these

Q. 17. What will be the difference between the simple interest and compound interest accrued on an

amount of Rs. 19200 at the end of 3 years @12 p. c.p.a.?

(1) Rs. 722.6826 (2) Rs. 802.5144 (3) Rs. 862.6176 (4) Rs. 798.1824 (5) None of these

Q. 18. A 240 metre long train crosses a platform in 20 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

(1) 10 metres/sec (2) 12 metres/sec. (3) 18 metres/sec. (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 19. The number obtained after interchanging the digits of a two digit number is greater than the

original number by 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 13, what is the original number?

(1) 67 (2) 58 (3) 76 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 20. The average of the ages of a man and his daughter is 34. If the respective ratio of their ages after

four years from now is 14 : 5, what is the daughter's present age?

(1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 10 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. (21 – 25): Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow.

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Q. 21. What is the number of girls in College D?

(1) 188 (2) 192 (3) 176 (4) 164 (5) None of these

Q. 22. Which college has the lowest number of girls?

(1) B (2) F (3) E (4) D (5) None of these

Q. 23. The number of boys from College A form what percent of total number of students from that

college? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 56.29 (2) 22.83 (3) 38.41 (4) 43.67 (5) None of these

Q. 24. What is the total number of boys from colleges E & F together?

(1) 310 (2) 215 (3) 283 (4) 251 (5) None of these

Q. 25. Which college has the maximum number of boys?

(1) C (2) D (3) A (4) B (5) None of these

Q. (26 – 30): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Number of students studying in six different classes of six different schools

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Class School

V VI VII VIII IX X

P Q R S T U

152 148 161 159 147 150

160 166 152 142 144 160

145 150 140 149 158 162

156 155 145 140 163 160

147 157 143 142 154 161

144 143 165 168 150 140

Q. 26. What is the respective ratio of students studying in Class IX of schools Q & R together to those

studying in class VI of schools S & T together?

(1) 181 : 127 (2) 150 : 143 (3) 127 : 181 (4) 143 : 150 (5) None of these

Q. 27. The number of students studying in Class VII from School U forms what percent of the total

number of students from all the classes together from that school? rounded off to two digit after

decimal

(1) 18.28 (2) 15.93 (3) 16.14 (4) 17.36 (5) None of these

Q. 28. Number of studying in Class X from school P form approximately what percent of the total

number of students studying in Class X from all schools together?

(1) 24 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 29 (5) 16

Q. 29. Which class has the maximum number of students from all schools together?

(1) VI (2) X (3) VIII (4) V (5) None of these

Q. 30. Total number of students studying in School T from all classes together forms what percent of

total number of students studying in School S from all classes together? (rounded off to two digits after

decimal)

(1) 100.26 (2) 103.52 (3) 101.78 (4) 102.64 (5) None of these

Q. (31 – 35): Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow

Percent increase in profit of two companies over the years

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Q. 31. What is the percent increase in profit of Company A in the year 2006 from the previous year?

(1) 60 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 45 (5) None of these

Q. 32. If the profit of Company B in the year 2002 was Rs. 679 995 what would its profit have been in the

year 2001?

(1) Rs. 503700 (2) Rs. 501500 (3) Rs. 453330 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 33. What is the percent increase in percent increase in profit of Company A in the year 2007 from the

previous year? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 9.09 (2) 8.12 (3) 10.11 (4) 7.64 (5) None of these

Q. 34. Based on the graph, which of the following statements is TRUE?

(1) There is no increase in the profit of Company B in the year 2003 from the previous year

(2) Company B has made the highest profit in the year 2007

(3) Company A has made the lowest profit in the year 2003

(4) Company B has made more amount of profit than Company A over the years

(5) None of these

Q. 35. What is the increase in the percent in profit of Company A in the year 2004 from the previous

year?

(1) 25 (2) 5 (3) 15 (4) 10 (5) None of these

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Answers

Q. 1. (5)

=?

= 56

Q. 2. (2) = 59 ÷ 8

= 7.375

Q. 3. (4) 22.3 × 22.3 × 23.17

= 212

= 4096

Q. 4. (3) 266.96x = 5232.416

x = 19.6

Q. 5. (1) =

+

+

=

=

= 6

Q. 6. (1)

= 43 (approx)

Q. 7. (5) = 18 × 23 × 12

= 4968 (approx) 4964

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Q. 8. (4) = 166.83

= 167 (approx)

Q. 9. (3) = 6434.85

= 6435 (approx)

Q. 10. (2) = 445 × 867 ×

= 1639714

Q. 11. (1) I. x2 +9x + 20= 0

= x2 + 5x + 4x + 20= 0

= x (x + 5) +4 (x + 5) = 0

= (x + 4) (x + 5)= 0

x = -4, -5

II. y2 + 13y + 42 = 0

= y2 + 7y + 6y + 42 = 0

= y (y + 7) + 6 (y + 7) = 0

= (y + 7) (y + 6) = 0

y = -6, -7

From equation I and II x > y

Q. 12. (5) I. x2 + 11x + 24 = 0

= x2 + 8x + 3x + 24 = 0

= x (x + 8) + 3 (x + 8)

= (x + 8) (x + 3) = 0

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x = -8, -3

II. y2 + 12y + 35 = 0

= y2 + 7y + 5y + 35 = 0

= y (y + 7) + 5(y + 7)

= (y + 7) (y + 5) = 0

y = -7, -5

From equation I and II the relationship can not established.

Q. 13. (3) 2x + 3y = 14 —(i)

4x + 2y = 16 —(ii)

From equation I and II x = 2.5, y = 3

So y > x

Q. 14. (2) I. x2 + 7x + 12 =0

= x2 + 4x + 3x + 12 = 0

= x (x + 4) + 3 (x + 4) = 0

= (x + 4) (x + 3) = 0

x = -3, -4

II. y2 + 10y + 24 = 0

= y2 + 6x + 4y +24 = 0

= y (y + 6) + 4 (y + 6)

= (y + 6) (y + 4) = 0

y = -6, -4

From equation I and II x > y

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Q. 15. (4) x2 + 28 = 11x

= x2 - 11x + 28 = 0

= x2 - 7x - 4x + 28 = 0

= x (x-7) -4 (x-7) = 0

x = 7, 4

II. y2 - 15y + 56 = 0

= y2 - 8y - 7y + 56 = 0

= y (y-8) -7 (y-8)

= (y - 8) (y - 7) = 0

y = 8, 7

From equation I and II y > x

Q. 16. (2) 5! = 5 ×4 ×3 ×2×1 = 120

Q. 17. (3) Shortcut

D =

= 19200 ×

= Rs. 862.6176

Q. 18. (4) Because the length of plot form is not mentioned so speed can't be determined.

Q. 19. (1) 10y + x-10x - y = 9

= 9y - 9x = 9

Y - x = 1

X + y = 13

x = 6, y = 7

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So two digit number is 67

Q. 20. (5) Let the present age Man and daughter is 14 x and 5x

So

= 34

= 19x – 8 = 68

= 19x = 76

X = 4

Present age of Daughter is 20 – 4 = 16 years.

Q. (21 – 25):

College No. of Boy No. of girls Total No. of student

A -321 -414 -735

B -135 -180 -315

C -597 -558 -1155

D -432 -198 -630

E -101 -144 -245

F -114 -306 -420

Q. 21. (5)

Q. 22. (3)

Q. 23. (4)

Q. 24. (2)

Q. 25. (1)

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Q. 26. (2) Total student from Q and R in IX standard

= 157 + 143

= 300

Total student from S and T

From VI standard = 142 + 144

= 286

Ratio = 300 : 286

150 : 143

Q. 27. (4) Student in VII from U = 162

=

= 17.36

Q. 28. (5) Total number of student in class X = 910

=

= 15.82

= 16 (approx)

Q. 29. (1) Maximum number of student studying in class VI = 924

Q. 30. (3) Total student from T = 916

Total student from S = 900

=

= 101.78

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Q. 31.(2) Percent increase in profit of company A

= 65 - 60

= 5

Q. 32. (1) Profit of Company B in 2001

=

= 503700

Q. 33. (5) Percent increase in percentage profit of company A in 2007

=

= 7.69%

Q. 34. (3) Company B has made highest profit in year 2007.

Q. 35. (4) Percentage profit of company A in 2004

=

= 10%