IMPORTANT MCQs PART-2

1) Which of these activities are usually restricted (partially or fully) in National parks? 1. Hunting of wild animals 2. Destruction of habitat 3. Construction of tourist lodges 4. Collecting minor forest products

Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2 c) 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: d)

National parks and sanctuaries are areas of significant ecological, floral, faunal or natural significance.

Hunting of wild animals, encroachment and/or destruction of habitat, construction of tourist lodges and other such activities are prohibited in protected areas.

A National park is a protected area which is reserved for the conservation of only animals, where no human interference in any form of harvesting of timber, collecting minor forest products and private ownership rights is allowed.

But, a wildlife sanctuary is a protected area which is reserved for the conservation of only animal and human activities like harvesting of timber, collecting minor forest products and private ownership rights are allowed as long as they do not interfere with the well-being of animals.

They are notified by the State Governments; and protected by the Forest Departments under

the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 & its amendments, Indian Forest Act of

1927, Forest (Protection) Act of 1980, Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and the Forest Rights Act,

2006.

2) Consider the following statements regarding World Wildlife Fund (WWF). 1. It has an office/branch even in Antarctica. 2. It was established right after the Rio Earth Summit, 1992. 3. WWF-India is India’s nodal agency for implementing the conservation goals under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 1, 2 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d)

It does not have any office in Antarctica, so it is based in only 6 continents.

It was set up as a Charitable Public Trust in 1961 (Rio Summit in 1992). It was then known as the World Wildlife Fund-India, much before the terms 'wildlife' and 'environment' had caught the attention of the government or the public.

NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for SDGs.

What are the Sustainable Development Goals?

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by all United

Nations Member States in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet and

ensure that all people enjoy peace and prosperity by 2030.

3. In the Indian Parliamentary model of Government a) The Executive is responsible to none but Constitutional ideals b) The Judiciary controls the Executive c) The Executive is responsible to the Legislature d) The Legislature controls the Judiciary Solution: c)

The relationship between the executive and the legislature in a parliamentary system is called responsible government.

Here the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from its ability to command the

confidence of the legislative branch. Legislature also holds the executive accountable.

4. The Parliament exercises budgetary control over the executive, that is, control ‘before’ the appropriation of grants through the enactment of the budget by a) Public Accounts Committee b) Departmental Standing Committees c) Committee on Public Undertaking d) Estimate Committee Solution: b)

The parliamentary control over the Executive in financial matters operates in two stages:

Budgetary control, that is, control before the appropriation of grants through the enactment of the budget; and

Post-budgetary control, that is, control after the appropriation of grants through the three

financial committees – PAC, Estimate Committee and CoPU.

The Departmental standing committees consider the demands for grants of the concerned

ministries /departments before they are discussed and voted in the Lok Sabha. It also considers

the annual reports of the Ministries and departments.

5. Consider the following statements regarding the Contingency Fund of India. 1. The fund is established directly by the Constitution of India. 2. The fund is placed at the disposal of the President. 3. No such fund exists at the State level. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 2 only c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3 Solution: b)

Parliament may by law establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of an imprest to be entitled "the Contingency Fund of India" into which shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law, and the said Fund shall be placed at the disposal of the President to enable advances to be made by him out of such Fund for the purposes of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation of such expenditure by Parliament by law under article 115 or article 116.

The Legislature of a State may by law establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of an imprest

to be entitled "the Contingency Fund of the State" into which shall be paid from time to time

such sums as may be determined by such law, and the said Fund shall be placed at the disposal

of the Governor of the State to enable advances to be made by him out of such Fund for the

purposes of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation of such expenditure by the

Legislature of the State by law under article 205 or article 206.

6. Consider the following statements. 1. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide. 2. The Chairperson of a Panchayat and other members of a Panchayat whether or not chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area shall have the right to vote in the meetings of the Panchayats. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c) The Chairperson of a Panchayat and other members of a Panchayat whether or not chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area shall have the right to vote in the meetings of the Panchayats. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide; and a Panchayat at the intermediate level or district level shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members thereof.

7. The ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity in Indian constitution have been borrowed from a) American Constitution b) British Constitution c) France Constitution d) Canadian Constitution Solution: c) Ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity in Indian constitution is borrowed from France Constitution. 8. The act created for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India: a) Charter Act of 1833 b) Act of 1891 c) Act of 1909 d) Government of India Act 1935 Solution: a) Charter Act of 1833 was the final step towards centralisation in British India. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.

9. Consider the following statements. 1. There is no mention of District Courts in the Constitution. 2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. 3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge must be an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1, 3 b) 2 only c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 2 Solution: a) As per the constitution (A233), appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State. A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State shall only be eligible to be appointed a district judge if he has been for not less than seven years an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment.

10. The “Sovereignty” of India means 1. No external power can dictate to the government of India. 2. Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds. 3. There is freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens. Select the correct answer code:

a) 1, 2 b) 1 only c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: b) Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes its own decisions ultimately guided by the people. No external agency dictates terms to India. However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the framework of all democratic rights. For e.g. a sovereign state might very well discriminate between its citizens. Same applies for freedom of speech and expression. A sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an absolute right, even though it is vital to a democracy. 11. Consider the following statements about Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions 1. The committee classifies bills and allocates time for discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members. 2. This is a special committee of the Lok sabha only. 3. In Lok sabha it is chaired by the Deputy Speaker. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1, 2 c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: d) This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers). This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.

12. Consider the following statements 1. 44th constitutional amendment added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity to preamble 2. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b) Preamble has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.

13. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the a) Government of India Act of 1935 b) Montague Chelmsford Act 1919 c) Objectives Resolution, 1946

d) Nehru Report, 1928 Solution: a) Dr B R Ambedkar had said ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.’ What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive.

14. Consider the following statements regarding Preamble 1. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity-to the Preamble. 2. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature 3. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 2, 3 b) 1, 3 c) 2 only d) 1, 2 Solution: a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), added three new words— socialist, secular and integrity- to the Preamble. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. 15. According to the Constitution, Territory of India includes which of the following categories 1. Territories of the states 2. Union territories 3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time Select the correct answer code: a) 1 only b) 1, 2 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: d) According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories: (i) Territories of the states (ii) Union territories (iii) Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. 16. Article 1 of our Constitution says – “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of states”. This declaration signifies 1. That the Union of India has resulted out of an agreement between the states. 2. The component units/states have no right to secede from the Union. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: a) Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. 17. The climate of a place is not necessarily affected by its a) Latitude b) Longitude c) Altitude and Relief d) Continentality Solution: b) The factors affecting the climate of a region are location, altitude, distance from the sea, and relief. Climate isn’t necessarily affected by longitude, but by latitude since it affects the availability of solar insolation. No geographical factor (pressure, temperature, wind etc.) depends necessarily on longitude. 18. Tropic of cancer does not pass through which of these Indian states? a) Bihar b) Rajasthan c) Madhya Pradesh d) Gujarat Solution: a) Tropic of Cancer passes through 17 countries and India is one of them. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India: Gujarat (Jasdan) Rajasthan (Kalinjarh) Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur) Chhattisgarh (Sonhat) Jharkhand (Lohardaga) West Bengal (Krishnanagar) Tripura (Udaipur) Mizoram (Champhai) Tropic of Cancer crosses Mahi River twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time.

19. Assam shares its borders with which among the following states/countries? 1. Sikkim 2. China 3. Tripura 4. Meghalaya 5. Bhutan Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 4, 5

Solution: b)

20. Arrange these geographical regions from the East to West. 1. Gulf of Aden 2. Laccadive Sea 3. Gulf of Thailand 4. South China Sea Select the correct answer code: a) 4321 b) 4312 c) 2134 d) 4123 Solution: a)

21. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Famous Temples State 1. Virupaksha Temple Karnataka

2. Khajuraho Temple Odisha

3. Konark Sun Temple Madhya Pradesh

4. Ramanathaswamy Temple Tamil Nadu

Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) All of the above Solution: (c)

Khajuraho temple: Madhya Pradesh Konark Sun Temple: Odisha Ramanathaswamy Temple: Tamil Nadu Virupaksha Temple: Karnataka 22. Utkarsh 2022, often seen in the news, is related to a) Space technology b) Military system c) Governance system d) Banking system Solution: d) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board had finalized a three- year roadmap to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank. It is a three-year road map for medium term objective to be achieved for improving regulation, supervision of the central bank Utkarsh 2022 is a medium-term strategy in line with the global central banks’ plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism.

23. New Arrangement to Borrow (NAB), a funding mechanism, recently seen in news is related to which bank a) World Bank b) Asian Development Bank c) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank d) International Monetary Fund Solution: d) The New Arrangement to Borrow is the fund mobilization arrangement of the IMF to mobilise additional funds through borrowing from member countries. Under NAB, member countries and institutions can stand ready to lend to the Fund.

24. Which of the following statements about the Enforcement Directorate (ED) is incorrect?

a) ED is appointed on the approval of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) headed by Prime Minister. b) It functions under the aegis of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). c) It is responsible for tracking black money and hawala trade cases. d) None of the above. Solution: b) The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a law enforcement agency and economic intelligence agency responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crime in India. It functions under the aegis of the Department of Revenue, Union Ministry of Finance. It has a mandate to enforce two of most stringent laws in the country. They are Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) to check black money and hawala trade cases. Enforcement Directorate (ED) in India will be most concerned with The prime objective of the Enforcement Directorate is the enforcement of two key Acts- the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999 (FEMA) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 (PMLA). 25. SWIFT Code, sometime seen in the news, is related to a) International Banking Transaction b) Payment Gateway System c) Quick Toll Plaza Electronic Payment d) None of the above Solution: a) The SWIFT - Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication - is a secure financial message carrier — it transports messages from one bank to its intended bank recipient. Its core role is to provide a secure transmission channel between banks.

26. Specified financial transactions, recently seen in news is related to? a) Donations received from foreign countries to Indian NGOs. b) Financial transactions which are exempt from Income tax payments c) High-value transactions undertaken by citizens which will be tracked by the Government d) None of the above Solution: c) Specified financial transactions are certain high-value transactions undertaken by citizens that the Government proposes to track with an intent to curb black money and widen the tax base in India.

The government recently proposed to expand the scope of reporting of SFTs by including new high-value transactions, such as domestic business-class air travel/foreign travel; payment of educational fee/donations; purchase of jewellery, white goods, paintings, marble and electricity consumption above ₹1 lakh; payment of life insurance policy above ₹50,000; hotel spends; and payment of health insurance premium more than ₹20,000. As per the I-T department’s notification in May 2020, SFTs will be part of the new Form 26AS. This SFT information will be of immense use to the taxman to cross-verify suspicious transactions. 27. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under a) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 c) Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 d) Hazardous waste Handling and management act, 1989 Solution: a) Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3(3) of the ‘Environment (Protection) Act, 1986’ for the purpose of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the Country. CGWA grants ‘No Objection Certificates’ (NOC) for ground water abstraction in 23 States/UTs.

28. Global Coalition of the Willing on Pollinators is an initiative of a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) b) Conference of the Parties–Convention of Biological Diversity c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) d) Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Solution: b) About the Global Coalition of the Willing on Pollinators: The organisation was formed to follow up on the findings of IPBES Assessment on Pollinators, Pollination and Food Production, which found that many of the world’s pollinator species are on the decline. The initiative to form a coalition was taken by the Netherlands on December 12, 2016 at the Conference of the Parties–Convention of Biological Diversity held in Mexico. 29. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Hope Spots’. 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands are the first in India to make it to the list of global hope spots. 2. A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special protection because of its wildlife and significant underwater habitats. 3. They are declared by Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands have been named as the "hope spots" by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and Mission Blue, an organization involved in the study of oceans.

A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special protection because of its wildlife and significant underwater habitats. The two group of islands, considered extremely rich in marine biodiversity, are the first places in India to have been added in the list of global 'hope spots'. 30. Flexitarian Movement is often seen in news. It is related to a) Providing protein rich food to Children and adolescents b) Moving to flexible interest rates for loans rather than the fixed interest rate c) Reducing the animal-based food and increasing the plant based food d) None of the above Solution: c) The Flexitarian Diet is a style of eating that encourages mostly plant-based foods while allowing meat and other animal products in moderation. It's more flexible than fully vegetarian or vegan diets.

31. Consider the following statements regarding National Board for Wildlife (NBWL). 1. National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. Its roles is “advisory” in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country. 3. It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3 Solution: c) National Board for Wildlife: • It is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

• Its roles is “advisory” in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country.

• Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests.

• It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.

• No alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.

• Composition: The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister. It has 47 members including the Prime Minister. Among these, 19 members are ex-officio members. Other members include three Members of Parliament (two from Lok Sabha and one from Rajya Sabha), five NGOs and 10 eminent ecologists, conservationists and environmentalists.

32. PLAN BEE’, an initiative of Indian Railways concerns a) Reducing traffic on passenger trains b) Safety of wild elephants c) Hiking tariff on congested routes to improve turnaround times d) Preserving trees on newly constructed or to be constructed railway tracks Solution: b)

PLAN BEE is an amplifying system imitating the buzz of a swarm of honey bees to keep wild elephants away from railway tracks. It is a unique strategy adopted by Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR). It has earned the best innovation award in Indian Railways for the 2018-19 fiscal. Speakers that play the sound of bees scare the elephants away. Elephants have long been known to be frightened by the buzzing of bees and stings. Nearly 50 buzzing amplifiers have been deployed as part of "Plan Bee" at a dozen "elephant corridors" in the vast forests of Assam state, home to nearly 6,000 elephants, 20 percent of the country's total.

33. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘Bamboonomics’? a) Bamboo plantation in urban areas in order to maintain a sustainable environment and pollution free clean air. b) Promoting Bamboo as an alternative in building construction. c) Encourage bamboo plantation by farmers in private lands. d) A movement to combat desertification and climate change Solution: d) Bamboonomics: It is a movement to combat desertification and climate change which will involve the tribal community of India since they have the expertise in this field. The movement will ensure that tribals can earn a livelihood without causing environmental harm. It was launched at the COP 14 of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

34. Consider the following statements: 1. India is the founding member of the Global Tiger Forum (GTF). 2. Pakke Tiger reserve is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh. 3. National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 headed by the Prime Minister. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: a) The Global Tiger Forum (GTF) is the only inter- governmental international body established with members from willing countries to embark on a global campaign to protect the Tiger. The GTF was formed in 1993 on recommendations from an international symposium on Tiger Conservation at New Delhi, India. The first meeting of the Tiger Range countries to setup the forum was held in 1994, in which India was elected to the Chair and was asked to form an interim secretariat. Pakke Tiger Reserve, also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve, is a Project Tiger reserve in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 headed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

35. Consider the following statements regarding Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI). 1. TRAI regulates telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services. 2. One of the objectives of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment promoting a level playing field amongst players and facilitating fair competition.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above Solution: c) The entry of private service providers brought with it the inevitable need for independent regulation. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was, established in 1997 by an Act of Parliament, called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government. One of the main objectives of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment which promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition. The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. 36. Consider the following statements regarding the role and functions of National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)? 1. It imparts basic and operational level training to State Response Forces like Police and Home guards. 2. It is responsible for organizing Public Awareness Campaigns about disaster management. 3. It is the statutorily sanctioned force for guarding sensitive international borders during a disaster. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 c) 1 only d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: a) Functions of National Disaster Response Force (NDRF): • Specialized response during disasters.

• Proactive deployment during impending disaster situations.

• Acquire and continually upgrade its own training and skills.

• Liaison, Reconnaissance, Rehearsals and Mock Drills.

• Impart basic and operational level training to State Response Forces (Police, Civil Defence and Home Guards).

• Community Capacity Building Programme.

• Organize Public Awareness Campaigns. 37. Ministry of Mines is responsible for 1. Survey and exploration of all minerals 2. Mining and metallurgy of non-ferrous metals 3) Administration and management of Geological Survey of India Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c) Ministry of Mines is responsible for survey and exploration of all minerals, other than natural gas, petroleum and atomic minerals; for mining and metallurgy of non-ferrous metals like aluminium, copper, zinc, lead, gold, nickel etc. and for administration of the Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act, 1957 in respect of all mines and minerals other than coal, natural gas and petroleum. A list of subjects allocated to the Ministry of Mines, Attached Office, Subordinate Office, Public Sector Undertakings and Research Institutions under the administrative control of Ministry of Mines are given below:- (a) Legislation for regulation of mines and development of minerals within the territory of India, including mines and minerals underlying the ocean within the territorial waters or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone and other maritime zones of India as may be specified, from time to time by or under any law made by Parliament. (b) Regulation of mines and development of minerals other than Coal, Lignite and Sand for stowing and any other mineral declared as prescribed substances for the purpose of the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (33 of 1962) under the control of the Union as declared by law, including questions concerning regulation and development of minerals in various. States and the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. All other metals and minerals not specifically allotted to any other Ministry/Department, such as Aluminium, Zinc, Copper, Gold, Diamonds, Lead and Nickel. Planning, development and Control of, and assistance to, all industries dealt with by the Ministry. Administration and Management of Geological Survey of India. Administration and Management of Indian Bureau of Mines Metallurgical Grade Silicon. 38. The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme aimed at providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window with flexible and simplified procedure for the farmers for their overall credit requirements such as 1. Marketing of produce 2. Maintenance of farm assets 3. Consumption requirements of farmer households 4. Post-harvest expenses Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: d) The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme, introduced in 1998, aimed at providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window with flexible and simplified procedure for the farmers for their overall credit requirements such as cultivation of crops, post-harvest expenses, marketing of produce, maintenance of farm assets, activities allied to agriculture and also consumption requirements of farmer households.

39. Consider the following statements regarding VidyaDaan 2.0 1. It is a national programme launched by the ministry of human resource development to develop and contribute e-learning content.

2. The content will be used on the DIKSHA app to help millions of children across the country to continue their learning anytime and anywhere. 3. Contributions can be made only by the subject experts. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: a) The ministry of human resource development launched the national programme VidyaDaan 2.0 for inviting e-learning content contribution. The content will be used on DIKSHA app to help millions of children across the country to continue their learning anytime and anywhere. The programme was launched due to the increasing requirement for e-learning content for students (both school and higher education) especially in the backdrop of the situation arising out of Covid-19 and also due to the urgent need to integrate digital education with schooling to augment learning. Contributions can be made by educationists, subject experts, schools, colleges, Universities, institutes, government and non-government organisations, individuals.

40. Consider the following statements regarding 'Samudrayaan' project. 1. It is a pilot project of the Ministry of Earth Sciences for deep ocean mining for rare minerals. 2. It proposes to send humans into the deep sea in a submersible vehicle for ocean studies. 3. The project has been undertaken by ISRO. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 3 b) 2, 3 c) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: c) Samudrayaan: It is a pilot project of the Ministry of Earth Sciences for deep ocean mining for rare minerals. It proposes to send men into the deep sea in a submersible vehicle for ocean studies. The project is expected to become a reality by 2021-22. The project has been undertaken by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT). 41. Consider the following statements regarding 'Mission Parivar Vikas'. 1. Mission Parivar Vikas is a family planning programme aimed at stabilising population growth in all the states of the country. 2. The objective of the mission is to accelerate access to high quality family planning choices based on information, reliable services and supplies within a rights-based framework. 3. The goal is to reduce the Total Fertility Rate and to bring it to 2.1 by 2025. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: c)

The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched Mission Parivar Vikas for improved family planning services in 146 High Focus districts in seven states. The objective of mission is to accelerate access to high quality family planning choices based on information, reliable services and supplies within a rights-based framework. The goal is to reduce the Total Fertility Rate and to bring it to 2.1 by 2025 in these districts. These districts are located in the seven high focus states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Assam. They are having the highest total fertility rates and constitute 44% of the country’s population. 42. Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched “Chunauti” programme. 1. Chunauti is a Next Generation Startup Challenge Contest launched by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. 2. It aims to boost startups and software products with special focus on Tier-II towns of India. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has launched “Chunauti”- Next Generation Startup Challenge Contest. Aims and Objectives:

• To further boost startups and software products with special focus on Tier-II towns of India.

• Identify around 300 startups working in identified areas and provide them seed fund of upto Rs. 25 Lakh and other facilities.

Under this challenge the Ministry of Electronics and IT will invite startups in the following areas of work:

• Edu-Tech, Agri-Tech & Fin-Tech Solutions for masses.

• Supply Chain, Logistics & Transportation Management.

43. Consider the following statements regarding Mission Karmayogi. 1. Mission Karmayogi, is a new capacity-building scheme for civil servants aimed at upgrading the post-recruitment training mechanism. 2. Mission Karmayogi programme will be delivered through a digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi. 3. Capacity Building Commission will prepare and monitor annual capacity building plans and audit human resources available in the government. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: d) The Union Cabinet recently approved ‘Mission Karmayogi’, a new capacity-building scheme for civil servants aimed at upgrading the post-recruitment training mechanism of the officers and employees at all levels. Mission Karmayogi programme will be delivered by setting up a digital platform called iGOTKarmayogi.

The platform will act as a launchpad for the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), which will enable a comprehensive reform of the capacity building apparatus at the individual, institutional and process levels. Also, there will be a Capacity Building Commission, which will include experts in related fields and global professionals. This commission will prepare and monitor annual capacity building plans and audit human resources available in the government.

44. SAANS campaign, sometimes seen in news is related to a) Reducing child mortality due to pneumonia b) Improve the overall quality of life of children through early detection of birth defects c) Prevention of anaemia among under-5 children d) Vaccination against vaccine preventable diseases Solution: a) SAANS, a campaign aimed at reducing child mortality due to pneumonia, which contributes to around 15% deaths annually of children under the age of five. SAANS, short for ‘Social Awareness and Action to Neutralise Pneumonia Successfully’ was launched to mobilise people to protect children from pneumonia, and train health personnel and other stakeholders to provide prioritised treatment to control the disease.

45. Mission Sahakar 22, sometimes seen in news aims to a) Open defecation free India by 2022 b) 100 percent rural electrification by 2022 c) Double farmers’ income by 2022 d) Elimination of TB by 2022 Solution: c) National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) is a major financial institution for cooperatives, and has started Mission Sahakar 22, which aims to double farmers’ income by 2022. 46. Which of the following are correctly matched? 1. DIKSHA: National Digital Infrastructure for Teachers. 2. SWAYAM: Provide High Quality Educational Channels through DTH (Direct to Home). 3. SWAYAM PRABHA: National online education platform. Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2 b) 1 only c) 1, 3 d) 2, 3 Solution: b) DIKSHA will serve as National Digital Infrastructure for Teachers. All teachers across nation will be equipped with advanced digital technology. Diksha portal will enable, accelerate and amplify solutions in realm of teacher education. It will aid teachers to learn and train themselves for which assessment resources will be available. The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educational programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite. SWAYAM is a programme initiated by Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity and quality. The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. SWAYAM seeks to bridge the

digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy.

47. Consider the following statements regarding ExoMars. 1. It is an initiative of SpaceX. 2. It aims to examine the change in Martian orbit patterns. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c) About ExoMars: It is a joint endeavour between ESA and the Russian space agency, Roscosmos. The primary goal of the ExoMars programme is to address the question of whether life has ever existed on Mars. Launch of ExoMars rover delayed to 2022. 48. RaIDer-X, recently seen in news, has applications in a) Explosive detection b) Narcotics control c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above Solution: c) It is an explosives detection device. It can detect up to 20 explosives from a stand-off distance of two meters. Developed by the High Energy Material Research Laboratory (HEMRL) — an arm of the DRDO — in Pune and the Indian Institute of Science in Bangalore. It can also discern bulk explosives even if they have been concealed. Applications: The device has various applications including narcotics, for local police, for customs and other detection agencies who need to detect various elements which may be explosive or non-explosive in nature.

49. Consider the following statements regarding Bhabha Kavach. 1. Bhabha Kavach is India’s lightest bullet-proof jacket which can withstand bullets from an AK-47 assault rifle. 2. It is developed by DRDO. 3. The jacket is powered with nano technology from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: b) Bhabha Kavach, billed as “India’s lightest bullet-proof jacket”, was launched at the International Police Expo 2019.

The bullet-proof jacket, developed jointly by the Ordnance Factories Board and the public sector metals and metal alloys manufacturer MIDHANI, can withstand bullets from an AK-47 assault rifle (7.62 mm hard steel core bullets), and the 5.56 mm INSAS rifle. The Kavach weighs 9.2 kg, a half kilogram less than the weight for a bullet-proof jacket prescribed by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The jacket “is powered with nano technology from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre”, and has a five-year warranty.

50. Consider the following regarding World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). 1. It was founded alongside the World Trade Organization (WTO). 2. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: a) WIPO was established by the WIPO Convention in 1967 with a mandate from its Member States to promote the protection of IP throughout the world through cooperation among states and in collaboration with other international organizations. WTO was established in 1995. As a specialized agency of the UN, WIPO is dedicated to developing a balanced and accessible international intellectual property (IP) system. It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

51. Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), sometimes seen in news, is related to a) Code of Conduct for civil servants working for United Nations b) Prevention of the proliferation of ballistic missiles c) Prohibition of the usage of biological weapons by the member countries d) None of the above Solution: b) The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established on 25 November 2002 as an arrangement to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles.

52. Convention no. 185 of the International Labour Organisation (ILO), often seen in the news, deals with? a) Protection of Workers against Radiations b) Equal treatment of labour c) Seafarer Identity Document d) None of the above Solution: c) India has become the first country in the world to issue Biometric Seafarer Identity Document (BSID), capturing the facial bio-metric data of seafarers. The new card is in confirmation of the Convention No. 185 of the International Labour Organisation on BSID. 53. Momentum for Change is an initiative of a) UN Climate Change secretariat

b) UNEP c) World Bank d) UNICEF Solution: a) Momentum for Change is an initiative spearheaded by the UN Climate Change secretariat to shine a light on the enormous groundswell of activities underway across the globe that are moving the world toward a highly resilient, low-carbon future. Momentum for Change recognizes innovative and transformative solutions that address both climate change and wider economic, social and environmental challenges. 54. Consider the following statements about the Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal (BBIN) initiative. 1. The main objective of BBIN is to facilitate seamless cross-border movement of vehicles. 2. Asian Development Bank (ADB) is providing technical, advisory, and financial support to the BBIN. 3. The initiative also aims to phase out all custom duties and tariff on international trade in goods and services between the member countries. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 3 b) 2, 3 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 2 Solution: d) As per the agreement, member countries would allow vehicles registered in the other countries to enter their territory under certain terms and conditions. Customs and tariffs will be decided by the respective countries and these would be finalised at bilateral and trilateral forums. Benefits: It would permit unhindered movement of passenger and cargo vehicles among the four countries. Cargo vehicles do not have to be changed at the border. The BBIN agreement will promote safe, economical efficient and environmentally sound road transport in the subregion and will further help each country in creating an institutional mechanism for regional integration. Assistance from ADB: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has been providing technical, advisory, and financial support to the BBIN MVA initiative as part of its assistance to the South Asia Sub regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) program, a projects-based economic cooperation initiative that brings together the BBIN countries, Maldives, Sri Lanka and more recently, Myanmar. ADB is the secretariat of SASEC.

55. The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) includes which of these member countries? 1. Australia 2. Indonesia 3. India 4. Japan 5. China Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 4, 5 c) 2, 3 d) 3, 4, 5 Solution: a)

The IONS is a regional forum of Indian Ocean littoral states, represented by their Navy chiefs, launched by India in 2008. It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues and, in the process, endeavors to generate a flow of information between naval professionals that would lead to common understanding and possibly agreements on the way ahead.

56. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) member states include 1. Afghanistan 2. Belarus 3. Mongolia 4. Iran Select the correct answer code: a) 2, 3 b) 1, 3 c) 1, 2, 4 d) None of the above Solution: d) The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).

57. The Budapest Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to a) World Trade Organization b) Cyber Security c) Organic Farming d) Ozone Depletion Solution: b) The Convention on Cybercrime, also known as the Budapest Convention on Cybercrime or the Budapest Convention, is the first international treaty seeking to address Internet and computer crime (cybercrime) by harmonizing national laws, improving investigative techniques, and increasing cooperation among nations. It was drawn up by the Council of Europe in Strasbourg, France, with the active participation of the Council of Europe's observer states Canada, Japan, Philippines, South Africa and the United States. Since 2018, India has been reconsidering its stand on the Convention after a surge in cybercrime, though concerns about sharing data with foreign agencies remain. 58. The Indian Army commemorates September 23 every year as Haifa Day to pay its respect to the three Indian Cavalry Regiments that helped liberate Haifa. Haifa is located in a) Saudi Arabia b) Jordon c) Palestine d) Israel Solution: d) In 2018 the northern Israeli coastal city of Haifa celebrated the centenary year of its liberation from Ottoman rule during World War I, honouring the brave Indian soldiers who laid down their lives in what is considered "the last great cavalry campaign in history".

The Indian Army commemorates September 23 every year as Haifa Day to pay its respects to the three Indian Cavalry Regiments - Mysore, Hyderabad and Jodhpur Lancers, that helped liberate Haifa following a dashing cavalry action by the 15th Imperial Service Cavalry Brigade of the then British Indian Army at the Battle of Haifa in 1918.

59. Doumeira Islands, sometimes seen in news is located in a) Black Sea b) Red Sea c) Caspian Sea d) Mediterranean Sea Solution: b) The Doumeira Islands are situated northeast of Djibouti and east of Eritrea near the Bab el-Mandeb in the Red Sea. 60. Kunduz, Ghormuz and Ghazni, often seen in news, is located in a) Afghanistan b) Pakistan c) Iran d) Turkmenistan Solution: a)