IMPORTANT RQS: RITA – Solved on 02/03/2019

Q1: By encircling an abutment tooth 180 degrees, a removable partial denture clasp assembly serves to

A- Prevent tooth movement away from the clasp

B- Increase the retention provided by the clasp

C- Increase the support derived from the abutment tooth

D- Decrease the applied occlusal torquing forces

ANS:A IT IS ASDA QUESTION AND ANSWER CONFIRMED FROM MASTRY APP

Q2: Which of the following is contraindicated as a pre-prosthodontic regimen to optimize soft tissue health?

A- Oral hygiene instructions

B- Prophylaxis

C- Daily rinses of chlorhexidine

D- Premedication with oral antibiotics

ANS:D

Q3: Diazepam-mediated effects include

A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation

B- Lowering seizure Threshold

C- Anterograde amnesia

D- Analgesia

ANS:C

Q4: primary drug for The treating oral candidiasis in patient with HIV is

A- Nystatin (Mycostatin)

B- Acyclovir (Zovirax)

C- Penciclovir (Denavir)

D- Chlorhexidine (Peridex)

ANS: A

Q5: Which of the following represents the major cause of pulpal damage associated with cavity preparation?

A- Vibration

B- Heat generation

C- Dentin desiccation

D- Adverse effects of local anesthesia

ANS:B CONFIRMED FROM DD

Q6: A new diagnostic test is evaluated against an independent “gold” standard” in 100 subjects with thefollowing results:

True positive = 48

True negative = 8

False positive = 12

False negative= 32

What is the negative predictive value of this new diagnostic test?

A- 20 percent

B- 40 percent

C- 60 percent

D- 80 percent

ANS: A

TN/TN+FN *100% = 8/8+32*100% = 20%

Q7: Adrenal suppression may result from which of the following regimens of hydrocortisone?

A- 20 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years

B- 2 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years

C- 10 mg for 1 week within 1 year

D- 1 mg for 1 week within 1 year

ANS:A

Q8: Which of the following 2 designs in tooth preparation can be used with all-ceramic crowns?

A- Butt-joint shouldwe use er or chamfer

B- Bevel or butt-joint shoulder

C- Bevel or feather edge

D- Chamfer or feather edge

ANS: A

For all crown - Chamfer + bevel

All ceramic -Shouylder + chamfer

Q9: The highest incidence of caries around Class II composite resin restorations occurs on which of thefollowing margins?

A- Occlusal

B- Facial proximal

C- Lingual proximal

D- Gingival proximal

ANS: D

Q10: Which of the following is the best treatment for a traumatically intruded primary tooth which in notimpinging on the permanent tooth bud?

A- Extraction

B- Allow tooth to spontaneously re-erupt

C- Reposition tooth orthodontically

D- Reposition tooth surgically

ANS: B

Q11: Which of the following is NOT correct concerning informed consent?

A- It must be obtained in advance of treatment

B- It must be in writing

C- It must include risks, benefits, and complications

D- It must include treatment options

ANS: B

Q12: When performing a pulpal evaluation, the dentist should ideally use which of the following as controls?

A- Adjacent teeth only

B- Adjacent teeth and opposing tooth

C- Adjacent teeth and contralateral tooth

D- Opposing tooth and contralateral tooth

ANS: C

Q13: In recurring necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which of the following is most associated with exacerbation?

A- Occlusal trauma

B- Stressful episodes

C- Amount of suppuration present

D- Increase in gram positive organisms

ANS: B

Q14: The means by which dental patients are treated to eliminate the caries process is called

A- Antibiotic prophylaxis

B- Primary prevention

C- Secondary prevention

D- Tertiary prevention

ANS: C

Q15: A fail-safe mechanism on an analgesia machine for nitrous oxide and oxygen prevents the delivery ofnitrous oxide greater than

A- 20 percent

B- 50 percent

C- 70 percent

D- 90 percent

ANS:C

Q16: A wear facet is seen on the mesio-buccal incline of the mesio-buccal cusp of a mandibular first molarcomplete metal crown. This facet clould have been formed during which jaw movements?

A- Working only

B- Protrusive or working

C- Protrusive or non-working

D- Non-working or retrusive

ANS: B

Q17: Which of the following drugs are categorized as tricyclic antidepressants?

A- Tranylcypromine (Parnate) and parglyline (Eutonyl)

B- Gabapentin (Neurontin) and tramadol (Ultram)

C- Imipramine and amitriptyline

D- Promethazine and hydroxyzine

ANS: C

Q18: What is the most likely pulpal diagnosis for a primary molar with deep caries and a history of transientcold sensitivity with an intact periodontal ligament space on radiographic examination?

A- Reversible pulpitis

B- Irreversible pulpitis

C- Pulpal necrosis

D- Calcification metamorphosis

ANS: A

Q19: In removing a torus palatinus, the practitioner inadvertently removed the midportion of the palatineprocess of the maxilla. One would expect to see

A- The nasolacrimal duct

B- The inferior nasal concha

C- An opening into the nasal cavity

D- An opening into the maxillary antrum

ANS: C

Q20: Smooth surface lesions resulting from flexure of the tooth structure are known as which of the following?

A- Abrasion

B- Erosion

C- Abfraction

D- Attrition

ANS: C

Q21: Damage to biological systems from ionizing radiation is due primarily to which of the following?

A- Trasmutation of a key atom

B- A direct hit on a key atom or molecule

C- Radiolysis of water molecules

D- Excitation of macromolecules

ANS: C

Q22: Which of the following clinical entities is most likely to be misdiagnosed as an endodontic lesion?

A- Lateral periodontal cyst

B- Periodontal abscess

C- Tori or exostoses

D- Gingival cyst

ANS: A

Q23: A patient is complaining about bleeding and pain when they brush. Which is the most appropriate initialresponse to initiate the patient’s oral health behavior change?

A- “So you want healthy teeth and the gums but it hurts when you brush”

B- “No pain no gain. You want the benefits of brushing but it hurts”

C- “Keep brushing even if it hurts. You know you have to do it”

D- “I’d to hear that you are brushing every day when you come back”

ANS: D

Q24: Low-dose aspirin therapy prevents the formation of thromboemboli by preferentially inhibiting which ofthe following?

A- Phospholipase A2 in the blood vessels walls

B- Prsotacyclin synthetase in the blood vessels walls

C- Tromboxane synthetase in the platelets

D- Vitamin K in the liver

ANS: C

Q25: What is the predominant method of financing dental care in Health Maintenance Organizations?

A- Fee for service

B- Capitation

C- Usual, customary, and regular fee

D- Table of allowances

ANS:B

Q26: Billing for a full-mouth series of radiographs as if they were a number of individual radiographs is anexample of

A- Non-rendering services

B- Upcoding

C- Unbunding

D- Mischaracterization

ANS: C

Q27: Which of the following is the most likely cause of ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint?

A- Neoplasm

B- Rheumatoid arthritis

C- Traumatic injury

D- Developmental abnormality

ANS: C

Q28: Which differential diagnostic method is best for determining whether pathosis is endodontic orperiodontic in nature?

A- Pulp vitality testing

B- Nature of symptoms

C- History of periodontal disease

D- Location of swelling, if present

ANS: A

Q29: Which action represents the most effective means of preventing caries on overdenture roots?

A- Daily treatment with prescription fluoride gel

B- Coverage of roots with cast copings

C- Daily treatment with antimicrobial rinse

D- Placement of amalgam restoration in root canal orifice

ANS : B FIRST FROM DD IF NOT AVAILABLE THEN A

Q30: Which type of enamel caries has a broad area of origin with a conical or pointed extension towards theDEJ?

A- Pit and fissure caries

B- Smooth surface caries

C- Cusp tip caries

D- Root surface caries

ANS: B

Q31: What is the maximum recommended dose of acetaminophen that can be prescribed in a 24 hour timeperiod?

A- 2.5 grams

B- 3 grams

C- 3.5 grams

D- 4 grams

ANS: D

Q32: A patient on intravenously administered bisphosphonate therapy for 2 years has caious and non-restorableanterior teeth. Which is the best treatment option?

A- Surgical extraction with primary closure

B- Endodontic therapy of retained roots

C- Discontinue bisphosphonates for 3 months before extraction

D- Surgical extraction, alveoloplasty, and primary closure

ANS: B CORONOCTOMY , EXTRACTION CONTRAINDICATED HERE

0

Q33: Which of the following represents the dentist primary responsibility when caring for the elderly dentalpatient?

A- Speak slowly and simply to the patient

B- Involve a caretaker/surrogate in decision making

C- Provide long appointments so the patient will have to travel less often

ANS: B

Q34: Behcet disease has oral lesions which are most similar to which of the following

A- Aphthous ulcers

B- Candidiasis

C- Herpangina

D- Herpes zoster

ANS:A

Q35: Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate, they are consistent. This test hashigh

A- Generalizability

B- Specificity

C- Reliability

D- Validity

ANS:C

Q36: Which of the following conditions is associated with hypodontia?

A- Ectodermal dysplasia

B- Cleidocranial dysplasia

C- Apert Syndrome

D- Gardner syndrome

ANS: A

Q37: Cervical caries can be secondary to the effect of radiation on

A- Enamel

B- Dentin

C- Cementum

D- Salivary gland

E- Alveolar crestal bone

ANS: D

Q38: During an extraction under sedation, the patient aspirates the crown of the tooth. Where would the crownmost likely appear on a chest x-ray?

A- Esophagus

B- Right bronchus

C- Left bronchus

D- Infundibulum

ANS:B

Q39: Methods to prevent overheating of the bone implant site preparation include the use of which of thefollowing?

A- High speed handpiece

B- Chlorhexidine irrigation

C- High torque handpiece

D- Air cooling

ANS: C LOW SPEED HIGH TORQUE

Q40: When the isthmus of a MOD cavity preparation is extended beyond 1/3 of the cusp-tip to cusp-distance,the restoration of choice is a

A- MOD amalgam

B- MOD inlay

C- MOD onlay

D- Full crown

ANS:C RESISTANCE ISSUE

Q41: What final process in coronary arteries causes myocardial infarction rather than angina?

A- Atherosclerotic lesions

B- Arterial spasm

C- Thrombosis

D- Fatty deposits

ANS:C

Q42: Which of the following occurs with the use of dipherhydramine (Benadryl)

A- Increased salivation

B- Bronchoconstriction

C- Antagonism of motion sickness

D- Increased capillary permeability

ANS:C

Q43: The maxillary and mandibular definitive casts have been articulated. The maxillary cast was mountedwithout a face-bow transfer. If the dentist were to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm, it would benecessary to

A- Open the articulator by 4 mm

B- Change the condylar guide settings

C- Obtain a new centric relation record

D- Increase the rest vertical dimension

ANS:C

Q44: The minimum required bony buccolingual ridge width in millimeters for placement of 4.0 mm root formimplants is which of the following?

A- 4

B- 6

C- 8

D- 10

ANS:B

Q45: What is the EXCEPTION to the 5 principles of the ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of ProfessionalConduct?

A- Nonmaleficence

B- Competency

C- Justice

D- Veracity

ANS:B

Q46: An articulating paper mark on the lingual incline of the buccal cusp of the mandibular molar representswhich type of interference?

A- Working

B- Non-working

C- Protrusive

D- Retrusive

ANS:B

Q47: Which of the following is most likely to create complications when making an acrylic resin temporaryrestoration for a large MOD onlay preparation?

A- Overextended resin removed

B- Undercuts in the preparation blocked out

C- Completion of polymerization outside the mouth

D- Occlusal surfaces left in slight infraocclusion

ANS:D SOME SUGGEST B, it is not c because it says outside the mouth, check it

Q48: Nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated for patients

A- With anxiety

B- With special health care needs

C- With profound local anesthesia

D- In the first trimester of pregnancy

ANS:D

Q49: Administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

A- Asthma

B- Hemophilia

C- Nasal congestion

D- Sickle cell anemia

ANS:C

Q50: A dentist administered a survey to patients to determine their satisfaction with practice characteristics andservices provided. The survey was administered to patients seen during 1 month. Which type of study designwas used by the dentist?

A- Cross-sectional

B- Cohort

C- Case control

D- Clinical trial

ANS: D

Q51: A protrusive jaw relation record is made in order to set the

A- Horizontal condylar inclination of the articulator

B- Anterior guide table of the articulator

C- Lateral condylar guidance of the articulator

D- Lateral translation of the articulator

ANS : A

Q52: A protrusive jaw relation record is made in order to set the

A- Horizontal condylar inclination of the articulator

B- Anterior guide table of the articulator

C- Lateral condylar guidance of the articulator

D- Lateral translation of the articulator

ANS: A

Q53: For a patient with myasthenia gravis, which of the following medications is acceptable?

A- Erythromycin

B- Clarithromycin

C- Imipenem

D- Penicillin

ANS: D

Q54: The gingival around teeth and the mucosa around implants have similar

A- Connective tissue attachments

B- Alignment of collagen fiber bundles

C- Non-keratinized junctional epithelia

D- Distribution of vascular structures apical to the junctional epithelia

ANS:C

Q55: 40-year- old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. The only defects are deep-stained grooves in posterior teeth.The grooves are uncoalesced. What is the treatment of choice?

A- Periodic observation

B- Pit and fissure sealant

C- Preventive resin restoration

D- Application of topical fluoride

ANS:A

Q56: Which of the following conditions is most often characterized by a painful response that subsides quicklywith stimulus

A- Normal pulp

B- Nonvital pulp

C- Reversible pulpitis

D- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

ANS:A

Q57: Which statement most accurately describes the finish line and margin of crown?

A- The finish line should be placed in hard dentin when it is possible

B- The crown margin at the gingival crest accumulates the least amount of food

C- The location of the crown margin is more important than the fit and finish

D- The subgingival crown margin may be an etiologic factor in predisposing periodontitis

ANS:D

Q58: The diagnosis of pulpal status is predicated upon assessing the amount or extent of

A- Decay

B- Pain

C- Inflammation

D- Pathologic resorption

ANS:C mosby second edition page 5

Q59: The diagnosis of pulpal status is predicated upon assessing the amount or extent of

A- Decay

B- Pain

C- Inflammation

D- Pathologic resorption

ANS:C

Q60: Clicking of the dentures during speech most often indicates which of the following?

A- Inadequate denture retention

B- Decreases occlusal vertical dimension

C- Insufficient interocclusal space

D- Improper buccolingual position of the teeth

ANS:C

Q61: A person best exemplifies active listening by doing which of the following?

A- Rephrasing the listener’s understanding of the speaker’s communication

B- Using direct eye contact

C- Gathering pertinent information from the speaker quickly and succinctly

D- verifying that the speaker has heard what the listener has said

ANS:B

Q62: Which of the following is the drug of choice for a 5-year-old child with pain following routine extraction?

A- Aspirin

B- Clindamycin

C- Acetaminophen

D- Codeine

ANS:C

Q63: Which of the following conditions is rarely a symptom of combination syndrome?

A- Hyperplastic/redundant soft tissues

B- Resorption in the anterior maxilla

C- Increased occlusal vertical dimension

D- Downgrowth of the maxillary tuberosities

ANS:C

Q64: Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of failure of dental amalgam restorations?

A- Moisture contamination

B- Improper cavity design

C- Improper condensation

D- Inadequate trituration

ANS:A failure is due to moisture contamination , fracture is due to improper cavity design

Q65: Which primary tooth, if lost prematurely, will most frequently result in space loss?

A- Maxillary canine

B- Maxillary first molar

C- Mandibular second molar

D- Mandibular first molar

ANS: C

Q66: Which of the following explains why proper contouring of the axial surface of complete cast restorationsis extremely important?

A- Retention

B- Occlusal wear

C- Effect on gingival tissue health

D- Ability to provide caries resistance

ANS:C

Q67: Gastric regurgitation causes which of the following in the teeth?

A- Erosion

B- Abrasion

C- Attrition

D- Abfraction

ANS:A

Q68: A 52-year-old female presents with red, glossy, and swollen gingival. She has denuded and red areas onboth buccal mucosae. The lesions have been present for months and vary from time to time in severity. Whichof the following represents the most probable diagnosis?

A- Vitamin deficiency

B- Linear gingival erythema

C- Erosive lichen planus D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

ANS: C

Q69: Hyperplastic palatal tissue (papillomatosis) is best treated by

A- Chemical cauterization

B- Radical excision

C- Temporary cessation of denture use

D- Supra-periosteal dissection or electrosurgery

ANS: D (if it mentions hyperplastic indication is electrosurgery, if it says inflamed then c)

Q70: Stridor is diagnostic for

A- Laryngospasm

B- Bronchospasm

C- Hypotension

D- Hypothermia

ANS: A

Q71: Which of the following represents the function of occlusal (night) guards?

A- Reduce mobility

B- Prevent bruxism

C- Increase attachment level

D- Redistribute forces on the teeth

ANS:D it doesn’t prevent bruxism, it eliminates its effects on teeth by distributing forces

Q72: The difference between a 330 carbide bur and 245 carbide bur is

A- The 245 creates sharp line angles whereas the 330 bur creates rounded line angles

B- The head of a 245 bur is narrower than the head of a 330 bur

C- The head of a 245 bur is longer than the head of a 330 bur

D- The 245 is tapered

ANS: C

Q73: Which of the following refers to a decreased occlusal vertical dimension?

A- Vertical dimension that leaves the teeth in a clenched, closed relation in normal position

B- Occluding vertical dimension that results in a excessive interocclusal clearance when the mandible is in restposition

C- Insufficient amount of interarch distance because of the bony ridges

D- Condition in which the patient cannot open mandible because of temporomandibular joint pathology

ANS:B

Q74: Which of the following is NOT an indication for removal of a third molar?

A- The presence of bony pathology

B- History of repeated pericoronal infections

C- Prevent crowding and displacement of the incisor teeth

D- Advanced, generalized periodontal disease that endangers the second molar

ANS:C

Q75: The decision to reduce a cusp and restore it should be based primarily upon which principle?

A- Outline form

B- Retention form

C- Resistance form

D- Convenience form

ANS:C

Q76: A patient says, “I have been avoiding coming to see you because there is an ugly, red sore spot on the roofof my mouth”. Which of the following responses by the dentist best exemplifies a reflective response?

A-“Has you diet changed lately”

B-“You really shouldn’t worry about it”

C-“Don’t be afraid, I’ll take a careful look”

D-“You should have had something like that looked at right away”

E-‘It sounds as if you’re quite concerned about this condition”

ANS:E

Q77: Filtration is used in dental x-ray machines to remove

A- Scatter radiation photons

B- High energy electrons

C- Long wavelength photons

D- Low energy electrons

ANS:C

Q78: In examining a maintenance patient, the dentist observes residual calculus, bleeding on probing, andprobing depths less than 5 mm. The dentist should do which of the following?

A- Scaling and root planing

B- Osseous surgery

C- Continued maintenance

D- Open flap debridement

ANS:A some suggested a , but it is a secondary visit , it means dentist failed to eliminate all the calculus atthe first visit , maybe because improper access or visualization , so the suggested tt here to open flap fordebridement

Q79: Which of the following sealer components interferes with composite resin polymerization?

A- Zinc oxide

B- Zinc stearate

C- Polyvinyl resin

D- Eugenol

ANS:D

Q80: Which of the following is LEAST important in determining the outline form a class III compositerestoration?

A- Convenience for access

B- Extension for prevention

C- Size, shape, and location of caries

D- Esthetics

ANS:B

Q81: A 9 year old presents with acute gingival pain of four days duration. There are small, round ulcers on theinterproximal gingival and buccal mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A- Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

B- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

C- Apthous stomatitis

D- Gingival abscess

Ans:C

If fever and systemic - go for herpesif just Interdental and buccal mucosa and no systemic - Apthous

Q82: Compared to permanent molars, primary molars have

A- Comparatively higher pulp horns

B- Thicker enamel caps

C- Less pronounced cervical constrictions

D- Deeper occlusal fissures

ANS: A

Q83: If there is insufficient space between the maxillary tuberosity and the retromolar pad, then the dentistshould

A- Open the articulator to gain space

B- Avoid covering the pad with the mandibular base

C- Avoid covering the macillary tuberosity

D- Surgically reduce the occlusal aspect of the tuberosity

ANS:D

Q84: Which of the following factors has the LEAST effect on the prognosis of a periodontally involved tooth?

A- Degree of mobility

B- Suppuration from the pocket

C- Amount of attachment loss

D- Degree of furcation involvement

ANS:B

Q85: Which of the following represents the purpose of periapical palpation?

A- To evaluate the gingival involvement of pulpal disease

B- To determine if the periapical inflammatory process has penetrated the cortical bone

C- To improve the tactile skills of the clinician relative to periapical disease

D-To massage localized swelling of the alveolar tissue to promote drainage

ANS:B

Q86: In treating a tooth with both endodontic and periosontic involment, which of the following would thedentist perform first?

A- Antibiotic regimen

B- Endodontic therapy

C- Periodontic therapy

D- Endodontic and periodontic therapies should be performed simultaneously

ANS:B endo first

Q87: Pressure on the midpalatine suture will improve

A- Denture retention only

B- Denture stability only

C- Both denture retention and denture stability

D- Neither denture retention nor denture stability

ANS:D it is a relief area

Q88: The incisal guide table is designed to

A- Allow selective grinding of anterior teeth

B- Prevent overclosure of the vertical dimension

C- Prevent posterior cusps from exceeding the condyle angle

D- Protect the function and arrangement of anterior teeth

ANS:D

Q89: Pseudomembranous colitis can occur most readily after prolonged oral administration of which of thefollowing drugs?

A- Erythromycin

B- Penicillin V

C- Clindamycin

D- Sulfisoxazole

E- Azithromycin

ANS:C

Q90: Trough the bloodborne Pathogen Standard, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)directs all health-care workers, in carrying out infection control, to use universal precautions.

- Based on these OSHA guidelines, patients identified as carriers of blood-borne pathogens require specialinfection-control considerations

A- Both statements are true

B- Both statements are false

C- The first statement is true, the second is false

D- The first statement is false, the second is true

ANS:C

Q91: Which finding would most likely suggest a non-odontogenic toothache?

A- Pain intensified by heat

B- Local anesthesia does not eliminate pain

C- Dull, aching, throbbing pain

D- Pain intensity changing over time

ANS:B

Q92: A patient complains of pain, trismus, fever and dysphagia associated with and impacted third molar. Thebest course of action for this patient is

A- Curettage utilizing local anesthesia

B- Prescription of a nonsteroideal anti-inflamatory agent

C- Referral to an oral an maxillofacial surgeon

D- Immediate extraction of the offending tooth

ANS:C

Q93: For the porcelain veneer preparation, the standard amount of tooth reduction in the middle one third of thefacial surface is

A- 0.3 mm

B- 0.5 mm

C- 0.8 mm

D- 1.0 mm

ANS:B (it is 0.3, 0.5 and 0.7 from gingival to occlusal surface)

Q94: What should the dentist use to begin managing an apprehensive 5 year old child?

A- Voice control

B- Oral sedation

C- Tell-show-do technique

D- Nitrous oxide/oxygen conscious sedation

ANS:C

Apprehensive – C

if anxiuos – Sedation

Q95: Sensitivity to cold and pressure 2 weeks after cementation of a posterior crown is most likely related to

A- Occlusal trauma

B- Luting agent

C- Vertical root fracture

D- Food impaction

ANS:A

Q96: Which form external root resorption is associated with pulpal necrosis?

A- Inflamatory

B- Replacement

C- Surface

D- Idiopathic

ANS:A

Q97: When designing a clinical study, one uses the power of the statistical test to accomplish which of thefollowing?

A- Measure validity

B- Set the alpha level

C- Reject the null hypothesis

D- Determine sample size

ANS:C

Q98: Which type of root resorption results in ankylosis?

A- Inflamatory

B- Replacement

C- Internal

D- External

ANS:B

Q99: - Which of the following can have prodromal symptoms which mimic dental pulp pain?

A- Cytomegalovirus infection

B- Herpangina

C- Herpes zoster

D- Primary herpetic stomatitis

ANS: C

Q100: The drug of choice for marked bradycardia is which of the following?

A- Atropine

B- Epinephrine

C- Propanolol

D- Calcium chloride

ANS: A

Q101: Diagnostic radiology is based on which of the following iteractions of X-radiation with matter?

A- Thompson effect

B- Pair production

C- Photoelectric effect

D- Photonuclear disintegration

ANS:C

Q102: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the connective tissue graft procedure?

A- Good gingival color match

B- Requirement of two Surgical sites

C- High predictability for root coverage

D- Palatal donor site can be completely sutured closed

ANS:B

Q103: Rubella embryopathy is an example of which of the following causes of mental retardation?

A- Generic

B- Cultural

C- Acquired

D- Chromosomal

ANS: C

Q104: Which part of the cutting edge of the curet should be adapted to the line angle of the tooth?

A- Lower third

B- Middle third

C- Upper third

D- Entire cutting edge

ANS:A

Q105: After a patient places an aspirin directly on his oral tissue for an extended period time, the tissue becomewhite. Which of the following accounts for this change in color?

A- Edema

B- Necrosis

C- Acanthosis

D- Hyperkeratosis

E- Vasoconstriction

ANS:B

Q106: The complement cascade is activated by the

A- B-cells

B- T-cells

C- Lymphokines

D- Immune complex

ANS:D

Q107: Primary dentition calcification begins at

A- 2 months in utero

B- 4 months in utero

C- 8 months in utero

D- Birth

ANS:B

Q108: Which is the best approach for a a patient who becomes very uncomfortable when a planned surgicalprocedure is discussed?

A- Explain post-operative instruction only after the procedure

B- Explain post-operative instructions, obtain informed consent, and help the patient to resolve anxiety beforethe procedure

C- Explain and obtain only informed consent before the procedure, and apologize for making the patientuncomfortable

D- Explain and obtain informed consent before the procedure and explain post-operative instructions after theprocedure

ANS:B

Q109: A patients with a large composite resin restoration placed 1 year ago reports sensitivity in the tooth.Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A- Trauma

B- Fracture of the restoration

C- Microleakage of the restoration

D- Pulpal reaction to the phosphoric acid

ANS: C

Q110: Angioedema is associated with which of the following medications?

A- Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

B- Calcium channel blockers

C- Beta-blockers

D- Diuretics

ANS: A

Q111: Periodontal maintenance following completion of active periodontal therapy

A- Should only be done by periodontist

B- Should be tailored to the needs of the individual patient

C- Is not a cost-effective approach for ongoing patient care

D- Requires strict adherence to a 6-month interval

ANS:B

Q112: Which pigmented lesion of the oral cavity will resolve spontaneously?

A- Varix

B- Hematoma

C- Ephelis

D- Oral melanocic macule

ANS:B

Q113: - Naltrexone (Revia) can be used

A- To treat strong pain

B- In opioid rehabilitation program

C- To treat diarrhea

D- To manage muscle tremors

ANS: B

Q114: What is the optimal average amount of fluoride, in ppm, for public drinking water of most communities?

A- 0.5

B- 0.7

C- 1.0

D- 1.2

ANS:C

Q115: Which of the following is the most important factor in determining patient satisfaction with dentures?

A- Dentist-patient relationship

B- Bone height for denture fit

C- Patient personality traits

D- Technical quality of the denture

E- Cultural definitions of esthetics

ANS: C

Q116: After receiving an inferior alveolar nerve block the patient develops a needle track infection. Which ofthe following anatomic spaces might have been involved?

A- Temporal

B- Submandibular

C- Pharyngeal

D- Pterygoid

ANS: D

Q117: Which of the following conditions describes steatorrhea, increased pulmonary mucous retention, chronic

respiratory infections, and functional disturbance in secretory mechanisms of various glands including elevatedsodium chloride in the sweat?

A- Lead poisoning

B- Cystic fibrosis

C- Juvenile onset diabetes

D- HIV/AIDS

ANS:B

Q118: Which of the following is the diameter, in millimeters, of a 21 mm long, #35 K-file at D16?

A- 0.35

B- 0.41

C- 0.67

D- 0.74

ANS:C

Q119: Which of the following agents is active against herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, andcytomegalovirus?

A- Amantadine (Symmetrel)

B- Zidovudine (Retrovir)

C- Ribavirin (Virazole)

D- Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

ANS: D

Q120: Which of the following would be the best orthognathic surgical option for a patient that has an 8mmanterior open bite?

A- LeFort I osteotomy

B- Intraoral vertical oblique osteotomy

C- Sagittal split osteotomy

D- Sliding genioplasty

ANS:A

Q121: Some metal elements used in ceramic restorations have been known to cause reactions in patients. Themost common causative element is

A- Cobalt

B- Nickel

C- Chromium

D- Beryllium

ANS:B

Q122: Which of the following analgesics has the greatest margin of safety for a patient with renal disease?

A- Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

B- Flurbiprofen

C- Ibuprofen (Motrin)

D- Ketoprofen

E- Keterolac (Toradol)

ANS:A

Q123: - The epithelium of a free autogenous gingival graft undergoes degeneration at the recipient site

- Genetic information as to the nature of the epithelium overlying the connective tissue is contained within thegraft connective tissue

A- Both statements are true

B- Both statements are false

C- The first statement is true, the second is false

D- The first statement is false, the second is true

ANS:A

Q124: Tree months ago, an epidemiologist conducted clinical examinations to assess the dental cariesexperience of elementary school children. The study could best describe as

A- Retrospective

B- Case- control

C- Cross-sectional

D- Prospective

ANS:C

Q125: Which of the following is used primarily as filter material in a dental X-ray machine?

A- Oil

B- Lead

C- Aluminum

D- Tungsten

E- Molybdenum

ANS: C

Q126: In arranging the patient’s maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist should create a pleasant, natural-lookingsmile line. This can be done by contouring the incisal edge to follow the

A- Lower lip when smiling

B- Upper lip when smiling

C- Lower lip without smile

D- Upper lip without smile

ANS:A

Q127: Which of the following is NOT a clinical presentation of oral Candidiasis?

A- Erythematous patch

B- White, hyperplastic patch

C- White, curd-like patch

D- Ulcerative patch

ANS:D

Q128: In conducting a patient interview, the dentist should begin by asking questions that are general, becauseit provides the patient with a greater opportunity to express his or her concerns and emotions

A- Both statement and the reason are correct and related

B- Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related

C- The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

D- The Statement in NOT correct, but the reason is correct

E- NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

ANS:A

Q129: -What pathogenic microbiota is most likely associated with a failing implant?

A- Gram-positive facultative cocci

B- Gram-negative facultative cocci

C- Gram-negative anaerobic rods

D- Gram-positive anaerobic rods

ANS:C

Q130: What is true regarding wheelchair transfers?

A- A wheelchair-bound patient is often the best source of how to do the transfer

B- The patient should be asked to remove his/her catheter and collection bag before attempting the transfer

C- The patient’s belt should not be used during transfer process

D- Sliding board transfers continue to be the best approach

ANS: A ACCORDING TO ADA CODE OF ETHICS

Q131: Which of the following is NOT true regarding orthodontic tooth movement?

A- Blood flow within the PDL is altered after force application

B- Pulpal tissue activates a neural response

C- Chemical changes in the compressed PDL stimulate cellular differentiation

D- Oxygen tension is increased in some areas of the PDL and decreased in other areas.

ANS: B

Q132: The dentist places a MOD amalgam restoration on tooth 30. The patient bites down immediately aftercarving, and the marginal ridge fractures easily. Which amalgam properties contributed to this failure?

A- Creep

B- Resilience

C- Edge strength

D- Setting time

ANS: D

Q133- Which of the following is NOT an internal line angle found in a disto-occlusal (DO) class II cavitypreparation?

A- Axio pulpal

B- Axio gingival

C- Distoaxial

D- Mesio facial

ANS:C

Q134- When used for intravenous conscious (moderate) sedation, midazolam (Versed) produces

A- Amnesia

B- Analgesia

C- Antitussive activity

D- Cardiovascular depression

ANS:A

Q135- Perforation at which of the following sites has the poorest prognosis?

A- At the apex

B- 3mm coronal to the apex

C- 3mm apical to the gingival sulcus

D- 3mm coronal to the gingival sulcus

ANS: C

Q136- Auxilliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as boxes and grooves should ideallybe located?

A- Facially

B- Lingually

C- Occlusally

D- Proximally

ANS: D

Q137- If a local anesthetic without a vasoconstrictor is required, then which of the following local anestheticsshould be used?

A- Procaine

B- Benzocaine

C- Lidocaine

D- Articaine

E- Mepivacaine

ANS: E

Q138- Which of the following causes speech problems in a patient with cleft palate?

A- Inability of the tongue to close the nasopharyngeal air flow

B- Inability of the soft palate to close the nasopharyngeal air flow

C- Poorly aligned teeth that make articulation difficult

D- Poor nasal resonance because of oroantral fistula

ANS:B

Q139- Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an elastomeric material for making an interocclusalregistration?

A- The material offers too much resistance to the jaw closure

B- The fragility of elastomeric records requires handing with extreme care

C- There is a potential for inaccurate mounting of casts due to rebound of the material

D- The material lacks adequate long term stability

ANS:C

Q140- Which of the following represents the initial consideration in the treatment planning progress?

A- Medical/systemic evaluation

B- Periodontal evaluation

C- Radiographic evaluation

D- Elimination of pain and discomfort

ANS:A KAPLAN

Q141- Which of the following dental treatments require antibiotic prophylaxis fot those at risk for infectivebacterial endocarditis?

A- Local anesthesic injections

B- Shedding of primary teeth

C- Mucosal or lip lacerations

D- Periapical surgery

ANS:D

Q142- An HIV-infected patient’s viral load is 100,000 and T cell count is 30. Which of the following statementsis true?

A- There is no contraindication to providing treatment

B- The virus is under control suggesting improved ability to resist infection

C- The virus is almost under control and there is low risk for infection

D- The T cell count is low, putting the patient at risk for infection and complications

ANS:D

Q143- What is the most common form of wound healing after a periodontal flap surgery?

A- Long junctional epithelium

B- New connective tissue attachment

C- Connective tissue adhesion

D- Regeneration of the new periodontal ligament, cementum and bone

ANS: A

Q144- Which of the following statements most describes the purpose of using sodium hypochlorite duringbiomechanical preparation?

A- Dissolves necrotic tissue

B- Reduces hemorrhage

C- Produces cavitation

D- Chelates inorganic tissue

ANS:A

Q145- The purpose of electronic pulp testing is to differentiate

A- Various stages of pulpitis

B- Normal pulp from diseased pulp

C- Between pulpitis and periodontitis

D- Between responsive and unresponsive pulpal nerves

ANS:D

Q146- A Patient who has been wearing a maxillary denture for 15 years notices multiple, reddened, nodularlesions on his palate. The lesions are soft and painless. The most likely diagnosis is

A- Torus palatinus

B- Epulis fissuratum

C- Nicotinic stomatitis

D- Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

ANS:D

Q147- Which of the following best describes the outcome of and intrapulpal anesthetic injection?

A- Provides anesthesia by back-pressure

B- Control intrapulpal hemorrhage

C- Does not create any period of discomfort during injection

D- Usually provides anesthesia after 30 seconds of depositing anesthetic

ANS:A

Q148- Smokeless tobacco has NOT been associated with which of the following?

A- Tooth abrasion

B- Gingival recession

C- Verrucous carcinoma

D- Nicotine stomatitis

E- Squamous cell carcinoma

ANS:D it is due to cigar and pipe

Q149- Opiates do NOT produce which of the following effects?

A- Diuresis

B- Euphoria

C- Mental clouding

D- Cough suppression

E- Respiratory depression

ANS:A

Q150- What pathogenic microbiota is most likely associated with a failing implant?

A- Gram-positive facultative cocci

B- Gram-negative facultative cocci

C- Gram-negative anaerobic rods

D- Gram-positive anaerobic rods

ANS: C

Q151- In conducting a patient interview, the dentist should begin by asking questions that are general, becauseit provides the patient with a greater opportunity to express his or her concerns and emotions

A- Both statement and the reason are correct and related

B- Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related

C- The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

D- The Statement in NOT correct, but the reason is correct

E- NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

ANS:A

Q152- Which of the following is NOT a clinical presentation of oral Candidiasis?

A- Erythematous patch

B- White, hyperplastic patch

C- White, curd-like patch

D- Ulcerative patch

ANS:D

Q153- In arranging the patient’s maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist should create a pleasant, natural-lookingsmile line. This can be done by contouring the incisal edge to follow the

A- Lower lip when smiling

B- Upper lip when smiling

C- Lower lip without smile

D- Upper lip without smile

ANS: A

Q154- Which of the following is used primarily as filter material in a dental X-ray machine?

A- Oil

B- Lead

C- Aluminum

D- Tungsten

E- Molybdenum

ANS: C

Q155:A 6-year-old patient exhibits defiant behavior at a recall examination. Which of the followingtechniques is indicated for the examination?

A- Conscious sedation

B- General anesthesia

C- Physical restraint

D- Voice control

Ans: D

Q156: Which of the following is the most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration?

A- Moisture contamination

B- Excessive firing temperature

C- Rapid cooling

D- Inadequate porcelain condensation

Ans: D

Q157: A 21-year-old male has a painless, compressible and fluctuant, slowy growing enlargement of theanterior midline of the neck. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A- Squamous cell carcinoma

B- Branchial cleft cyst

C- Thyroglossal duct cyst

D- Epidermoid cyst

Ans: c

Q158: Which of the images below can best be used to visualize the integrity of thezygomatic arches?

A- Panoramic

B- Waters view

C- Lateral oblique

D- CT scan

Ans: D

Q159: Dens invaginatus is most commonly associated with which tooth?

A- Maxillary central incisor

B- Mandibular central incisor

C- Maxillary lateral incisor

D- Mandibular lateral incisor

Ans: c

Q160: Which of the following anatomic structures CANNOT be seen on periapicalradiographs?

A- Mental foramen

B- Hamular process

C- Mandibular foramen

D- Anterior nasal spine

E- Intermaxillary (median palatine) suture

Ans: C

Q161: A child watches her older brother receive dental treatment. The dentist notices that the next timethe child is in the dental chair her behavior is greatly improved. This is an example of

A- Classical conditioning

B- Primary reinforcement

C- Modeling

D- Cognitive coping strategy

Ans: C

Q162: Each of the following is a property of sodium hypochlorite EXCEPT one. Which one is theEXCEPTION?

A- Chelating agent

B- Lubricating agent

C- Solvent of necrotic tissue

D- Antimicrobial agent

Ans: A

Q163: Patients with Sjogren syndrome are at increased risk for developing

A- Carcinoma

B- Sarcoma

C- Lymphoma

D- Leukemia

Ans: C

164. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for a patient with localized aggressiveperiodontitis?

A- Dental prophylaxis plus subgingival irrigation

B- Dental prophylaxis

C- Scaling and root planing

D- Scaling and root planing plus systemic antibiotics

Ans: D

165. The strength of a soldered connector is best increased by

A- Using a higher carat solder

B- Electroplating the joint with gold prevent corrosion

C- Increasing its dimension in a direction parallel to the applied force

D- Increasing its dimension in a direction perpendicular to the line applied force

E- Increasing the with of the joint by having a space of at least 0.5 inch between the parts to be soldered

Ans: C

166.Which of the following odontogenic lesions occurs most frequently

A- Ameloblastoma

B- Odontoma

C- Ameloblastic fibroma

D- Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Ans: B

167: A radiograph of a 12-year-old child’s asymptomatic permanent maxillary right central incisorreveals an obliterated root canal. Which of the following is the treatment of choice?

A- Extraction

B- Apicoectomy

C- Endodontic therapy

D- Periodic observation

Ans: D

168: Microscopic suprabasal intraepithelial bullae and acantholysis characterize which of the followingdiseases?

A- Pemphigus vulgaris

B- Erythema multiforme

C- Lupus erythematosus

D- Mucous membrane pemphigoid

Ans:A

Q169: A patient with syphilis is highly infectious during which of the following stages?

A- Secondary stage only

B- Tertiary stage only

C- Primary and secondary stages

D- Primary, secondary, and tertiary stages

Ans: A

Q170: Rising with a new mouth rinse results in a statistically significant decrease in the Gingival Index(GI) score, but does NOT result in improved oral health for the patient. This finding suggest which of thefollowing?

A- Non-clinical significance

B- Double-blind study

C- Improper study desing

D- Bias

Ans: A

Q171: Which of the following agents is available in the form of troches for the topical treatment of oralcandidiasis?

A- Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

B- Intraconazole (Sporanox)

C- Clotrimazole (Mycelex)

D- Fluconazole (Diflucan)

Ans:c

Q172: Upon mastication, a patient has severe pain in a mandibular first molar. Clinical examinationreveals furcal bone loss, a sinus tract that is draining through the sulcus, normal interproximal boneheight, and no response to vitality testing. The treatment of choice is

A- Root canal treatment only

B- Periodontal therapy only

C- Periodontal therapy first, then root canal treatment, should the lesion not resolve

D- Root canal treatment first, then periodontal therapy, should the lesion not resolve

ANS: D

Figure 1furcal bone loss

Q173: Which of the following is NOT one of the major classes of drugs used to treat angina?

A- Thiazides

B- Beta-blockers

C- Nitrates and nitrites

D- Calcium channel blockers

ANS:A

Q174: Which of the following can best determine asymptomatic apical periodontitis?

A- Ice test

B- Radiographs

C- Electric pulp test

D- Transillumination

Ans: B

Q175: Infections arising from the periapical region of mandibular third molars perforate through the

lingual cortex to the

A- Pterygomaxillary space

B- Submental space

C- Sublingual space

D- Submandibular space

Ans: D

Q176: What is the best indicator of periodontal stability over time for the patient on periodontalmaintenance therapy?

A- Plaque control

B- Bleeding on probing

C- Probing depths

D- Attachment levels

Ans: A

Q177: Hypotensive effect and itching from oxycodone is due, in part, to its

A- Allergenicity

B- Release of histamine

C- Antispasmodic effect

D- Cardiac depressant effect

E- Excitation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone

Ans: b

Q178: A 45-year-old patient has undergone scaling and root planing in all 4 quadrants. The oral hygieneof the patient is excellent but generalized 5 mm and 6 mm pockets remain that bleed upon probing. Whatis the next step and the best treatment for the patient?

A- Periodontal surgery

B- Maintenance therapy

C- local drug delivery

D- additional round of scaling and root planning

Ans: a

Q179: A dentist considers using nitrous-oxide conscious sedation for a patient. This type of sedation willbe contraindicated, however, if the patient has a history of which of the following?

A- Psychosis

B- Chronic pain

C- Hypertension

D- Dental anxiety

E- Depression

Ans: A

Q180: A patient’s measured stimulated salivary flow volume is 0.5 ml/minute. The term that bestdescribes this condition is

A- Xerostomia

B- Normal salivary flow

C- Hyposalivation

D- Hypersalivation

Ans:C

q181: Which of the following is NOT true regarding topical fluoride?

A- Promotes remineralization of surface enamel

B- Inhibits bacterial plaque glycolysis

C- Has a direct antibacterial effect on plaque

D- Enhances enamel pt and fissure coalescence

ans:D

Q182:A diabetic child is experiencing insulin shock in a dental office. In managing this emergency, thedentist should immediately

A- Administer oxygen

B- Have the child drink a glass of orange juice

C- Administer xylitol by mouth

D- Administer insulin

ANS: B

Q183 : An extended course of cortisone therapy can produce

A- Osteoporosis

B- Osteopetrosis

C- Osteoclerosis

D- Osteochondritis

ANS:A

Q184: Which of the following symptoms or clinical findings would indicate that a tooth has anirreversible pulpitis?

A- Spontaneous toothaches

B- Sensitivity to sweets

C- Radiographic evidence of pulpitis

D- Sensitivity to palpation of the mucoperiosteum

ANS: A

Q185: A patient with hypertension arrives for a scheduled crown preparation appointment with a bloodpressure of 160/100 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 90 bpm. The initial response by the dentist should be to

A- Call the patient’s physician

B- Reschedule the patient

C- Have the patient take nitroglycerin

D- Wait 15 minutes to re-take vital signs

ANS: D

Q186:A 55-year-old patient with a history of angina pectoris requires extraction of several teeth. Whichof the following should NOT apply to this patient?

A- Preoperative sedation

B- Preoperative sublingual nitroglycerin

C- Preoperative prophylaxis with an antibiotic

D- Limiting the local anesthetic with epinephrine 1:100,000 to 4 ml

ANS:C

Q187:According to ADA recommendations, a professionally applied topical neutral sodium fluorideapplication should remain in contact with teeth for

A- 1 minute

B- 2 minute

C- 3 minute

D- 4 minute

ANS:D

Q188: Repeated fracture of a metal ceramic partial fixed dental prosthesis is primarily caused by

A- Insufficient retention form

B- Improper firing schedule

C- Failure to use a metal conditioner

D- Inadequate framework design

ANS:D

Q189: Which of the following is most likely to result from prolonged use of antibiotics in children?

A- CandidiasisB- Histiocytosis XC- Ulcer membranous stomatitis D- Lichen planus

ANS:A

Q190: Which of the following mesial root surfaces is unlikely to be thoroughly cleaned with the use of floss?

A- Maxillary central incisorB- Mandibular fist premolarC- Maxillary first premolar D- Mandibular first molar

ANS:C

Q191: A posterior tooth has a large carious lesion extending subgingivally. Which of the following is the bestinitial treatment?

A- Endodontic therapyB- Crown lengthening surgery C- Caries excavation D- Crown fabrication

ANS:B

Q192: Which characteristic is most frequently associated with osteoradionecrosis?

A-Maxillary locationB- History of radiation therapy with 42.50 Gy (4,250 rads)C- History of bisphosphonate usage D- Mandibular location

ANS: d

Q193: What is the most likely cause for hemorrhage 3 day after removal of a mandibular third molar?

A- Vascular fragilityB- Platelet deficiency C- Prothrombin deficiencyD- Fibrinolysis

Ans: D

Q194: A posterior tooth has a large carious lesion extending sub gingivally. Which of the following is the bestinitial treatment?

A.Endodontic therapy

B- Crown lengthening surgery

C-Caries excavation D- Crown fabrication

ANS: B

Q195: The primary etiologic factor associated with periodontal attachment loss in a furcation is the presence of

A-Occlusal trauma B- Accessory root canalsC- Oral biofilmD- Cervical enamel projections

ANS:C

Q196: A patient has received a new mandibular removable dental prosthesis. Soon afterward, the throat of thispatient becomes sore. Which of the following has probably caused this soreness?

A-An overextension of the distofacial flangeB- An overextension of the distolingual flange C- An impingement of the lingual bar upon the patient’s lingual frenumD- An insufficient relief provided for the lingual bar

ANS: B

Q197: An 82-year-old presents as new dental patient. The son provides paperwork that names the patient’sguardian. How will that impact the dentit’s approach to care?

A- Does not impact care if a first degree relative has brought the patient to the officeB- The guardian must be consulted for consent to treat the patient C- The patient may provide consent to careD- The guardianship applies to consent involving only irreversible procedures

ANS: B

Q198: The access opening for a maxillary central incisor of a 14-year-old patient is triangular in shape

A- To establish straight line accessB- Due to the shape of the crownC- To include any remnants of pulp horns within the access opening D- To facilitate the final restoration of the access opening

Ans:c

Q199: 20mg doxycycline Hyclate primary mechanism of action is

A Breakdown of the phospholipid bilayerB- Inhibition of DNA gyraseC- Inhibition of the 50s ribosomal subunit D- Inhibition of collagenase

Ans: d

Q200: Which of the following would be the first step to perform during a reevaluation appointment?

A-Establish a plan for maintenance intervalsB- Identify need for additional therapyC- Update medical historyD- Determine plaque index

Ans: c

Q 201: A patient has a 7-years-old chipped porcelain veneer on tooth 9 and desires to have the veneer repairedinstead of replaced. Which of the following should be done to the porcelain before repairing with composite?

A- Pumice, etch, bonding resin, silanate

B- Sandblast, etch, bonding resinC- Silanate, pumice, bonding resinD- Micro-etch, etch, silanate, bonding resin

Ans: d

Q202: Beclomethasone (Because AQ) is used for bronchial asthma because it

A- Has a short duration of actionB- Stimulates beta adrenergic receptors in the lungC- Produces little adrenal suppression when administered by inhalationD- Is only effective orallyE- Is less potent than cortisol

Ans: A

Q203: What would be found in a patient with untreated acromegaly?

A-Excessive mandibular growthB- Excessive maxillary growthC- An anterior deep biteD- A posterior open bite

Ans: A

Q204: When designing a clinical study, one uses the power of the statistical test to accomplish which of thefollowing?

A- Measure validityB- Set the alpha levelC- Reject the null hypothesisD- Determine sample size

ANS: C

Q205: A dental office employee wishes to verify that instruments have been sterilized. Which of the followingmethods is most accurate?

A- Place indicator tape on the instruments B- Use biological monitorsC- Examine the sterilizer packages for color changesD- Observe the temperature gauge on the sterilizing unit

ANS:B

Q206: Phenytoin is most often recommended for controlling which of the following seizures?

A- Status epilepticus- diazepamB- Tonic-clonic (grand mal) - phenytoinC- Absence epilepsy (petit mal) ethosuximide and valporic acidD- Myoclonic seizure in childhood

ANS: B

Q207: What is the easiest method for examining a 12-month-old child?

A- Child in the dental chair and parent at chairsideB- Parent in the dental chair and the child sitting on parent’s lapC- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position whit the child’s head on dentist’s lapD- Dentist and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head on parent’s lap

ANS: C

Q208: Which of the following has been most strongly implicated in the cause of aphthous stomatitis?

A-CytomegalovirusB- Allergy to tomatoesC- Herpes simplex virus

D- Staphylococcal organismsE- Human leukocyte antigens

ANS:E

Q209: Which of the following represents the best way to increase a patient’s pain tolerance?

A- Stress that pain does not signify damageB- Tell the patient that the procedure will be completed soonC- Tell the patient that he/she should be able to tolerate the painD- Increase the patient’s sense of control over the denture of the pain

ANS:d

Q210: A normal stimulated salivary flow rate for an adult patient should be

A- .01 mL per minuteB- 0.1 mL per minuteC- 1.0 mL per minute D- 10 mL per minute

ANS: C

Q211: The decision to replace an existing amalgam restoration should be made as soon as the restoration exhibits

A- CreepB- Recurrent caries C- Corrosion and tarnishD- Ditching around occlusal margins

ANS:B

Q212: A child’s behavior problem can be managed by desensitization if the basis of the problem is

A- PainB- Fear C- EmotionalD- The parents

ANS: B

Q213: Drug-induced hypnosis can be produced by depressing which of the following?

A-CerebellumB- Hypothalamus

C- limbic system D- Reticular activating system

ANS: D

Q214: Surgical flap access therapy is indicated and most beneficial when used

A- For those early to moderate defects not resolved with initial therapyB- As the initial treatment for patients having extremely heavy subgingival calculusC- To eliminate pocketing more rapidly so the patient can proceed with treatmentD- To improve plaque control effectiveness in patients having difficult achieving good plaque control

ANS:A

Q215: Auxiliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as boxes and grooves shouldideally be located?A- FaciallyB- LinguallyC- Occlusally D- Proximally

ANS: D

Q216: Informed consent reflects which of the following ethical principles?

A- JusticeB- Autonomy C- BeneficenceD- Non-maleficence

ANS: B

Q217: Which of the following most closely resembles normal parotid gland histologically?

A- Pleomorphic adenomaB- Monomorphic adenoma C- Acinic cell carcinoma D- Adenoid cystic carcinoma

ANS:A

Q218: A developmentally-disabled patient should be treated with

A- FlatteryB- DeferenceC- ConsistencyD- Permissiveness

ANS: C

Q219: Which of the following premolars is most likely to have three canals?

A- Maxillary first B- Maxillary secondC- Mandibular firstD- Mandibular second

ANS: A

Q220: A 14-year-old female has gingival tissues that bleed easily on gentle probing. The color of the gingivaranges from light red to magenta. Probing depths range from 1 - 3mm. Some of the interdental papillae areswollen. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?

A- Gingivitis B- Localized aggressive periodontitisC- Herpetic gingivostomatitisD- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

ANS: A

Q221: A 65-year-old white male smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He had a heart attack six weeks ago andcontinues to have chest pains even while at rest. He is transported to the office by wheelchair because Hebecomes extremely short of breath with even mild exertion. The physical status that best describes the abovepatients is

A- P.S. IB- P.S.II C- P.S.IIID- P.S.IV

ANS: D

Q222: A displaced fracture of the mandible courses from the angle to the third molar. This fracture ispotentially difficult to treat with a closed reduction because of

A- Injury to the neurovascular bundleB- Malocclusion secondary to the injuryC- Compromise of the blood supply to the mandibleD- Distraction of the fracture segments by muscle pull

ANS:D

Q223: Which of the following is the most reliable method for determining the pulp responsiveness of a toothwith a full coverage crown?

A- Radiographic examinationB- Electric pulp testC- Thermal test D- Palpation

ANS:C

Q224: Which of the following statements is true about setting expansion of plaster, stone, and improved stone(Type IV)?

A- The setting expansion of improved stone is the highestB- Increasing the spatulation decreases expansion C- Increasing the water/power ratio decreases the setting expansionD- Adding water to surface during setting decreases expansion

ANS:C

Q225: The water supply of a community has 0.28 ppm fluoride. Which of the following procedures isappropriate for a 4-year-old child exhibiting moderate caries risk?

A- Prescribing a fluoride mouth rinseB- Prescribing a systemic fluoride supplement C- Applying fluoride topically at each visitD- Additional fluoride is unnecessary

ANS:B

Q226: Which of the following type(s) of amalgam alloy provide the best clinical durability?

A- High copper spherical onlyB- Conventional spherical onlyC- High cooper admixture and high cooper spherical D- High cooper admixture and conventional spherical

ANS:C

Q227: What is the minimum amount of bone needed between 2 adjacent implants?

A- 1mmB- 2mmC- 3mm D- 4mm

ANS:C

Q228: Which of the following would be LEAST likely to lead to the development of root surface caries onfacial surfaces?

A- Low salivary flowB- Elevated levels of sucrose consumption C- Streptococcus sangrias dominating adjacent plaqueD- History of head/neck radiation therapy

ANS:C

Q229: A dentist has planned in-office-bleaching and porcelain laminate veneers for a patient’s maxillaryanterior teeth. What would be the best sequence of treatment?

A- Bleaching, 2 week delay, tooth preparation, bonding procedures B- Bleaching and tooth preparation, 2-5 day delay, bonding proceduresC- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bleaching, and bonding proceduresD- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bonding, and then bleaching procedures

ANS: a

Q230: Which of the following has been most strongly implicated in the cause of aphthous stomatitis?

A- CytomegalovirusB- Allergy to tomatoesC- Herpes simplex virus D- Staphylococcal organismsE- Human leukocyte antigens

ANS:E

Q231: A patient with Stage I medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) with exposed bone in themaxilla is best treated with

A- Radiation therapyB- Hyperbaric oxygen C- Debridement of the areaD- Chlorhexidine rinses

ANS:D

Q232: If a particular test is to correctly identify 95 out of 100 existing disease cases, then that test would have a

A- Specificity of 95%B- Sensitivity of 95%C- Positive predictive value of 95%D- Validity of 95%

ANS:B

Q233: Disadvantages of oral sedation include which of the following?

A- Multiple drugs needed for proper sedationB- High incidence and severity of adverse reactions C- Unpredictable absorption of drugs from the GI tractD- Short duration of action

ANS:C

Q234: Which of the following directly image the TMJ disc?

A- TMJ tomography B- TMJ arthrographyC- Panoramic radiographyD- Transcranial radiographyE- Magnetic resonance imaging

ANS:E

Q235: Which of the following explains why the fovea palatini are not used as landmarks for determining the preciseposterior border of maxillary denture base?

A- They have no relation to the vibrating line areaB- They are inconsistent in their relationship to the vibrating lineC- They are opening of mucous glands that should not be covered y the denture borderD- They are located on the horizontal hard palate

ANS:C

Q236: Which of the following might precipitate an asthma attack?

A- Narcotic analgesicsB- Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs C- CorticosteroidsD- Sympathomimetic amine

ANS:B

Q237: Which of the following factors does NOT impact the development of xerostomia in an aging population?

A- Chronological ageB- Medications

C- Radiation therapy to the head and neckD- Systemic disease

ANS:A

Q238: Infections arising from the periapical region of the mandibular first premolars perforate through thelingual cortex to the

A- Pterygomaxillary spaceB- Submental spaceC- Sublingual spaceD- Submandibular space

ANS:C

Q239: A ‘W” in front of the rubber dam clamp number indicates that the rubber dam clamp

A- Is made from work-hardened metalB- Has a non-reflective surfaceC- Has a wingD- Is wingless

ANS:D

Q240: A dentist will make impressions for a patient who has an excessive salivary flow. To decrease the flow,this dentist might appropriately prescribe which of the following drugs?

A- Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) B- Salsalate (Disalcid)C- Pilocarpine (Salagen)D- Neostigmine (Prostigmin)

ANS:A

Q241: The best time perform oral surgery on a patient receiving dialysis 3 times per week is

A- Day of dialysisB- 1 day before dialysisC- 1 day after dialysis D- 2 days after dialysis

ANS:C

Q242: The mother of an 8-year-old patient insists on staying in the room during treatment. In the past, she seemed to be veryoverprotective of her child with her body language and comments. Which were disruptive to treatment. How could the dentist bestaddress this patient’s mother?

A- “You seem really concerned, perhaps you need to be talking with someone about this”B- I know you care, however you are causing your child to be more upset, no less”C- “I’m sorry, but I need you to stay in the waiting room so we can get his work done”D- “I know you are concerned. Please stay in the room, and try to be as positive and quiet as possible”

ANS:C

Q243: The purpose of scaling is to remove acquired deposits on the teeth. Scaling can be performed on both enamel and root surfaces

A- Both statements are trueB- Both statements are falseC- The first statement is true, the second is false D- The first statement is false, the second is true

ANS: a

Q244: Mandibular hypoplasia, coloboma of the lower eyelid, and malformations of the pinna of the ear are fracture of which of thefollowing diseases?

A- Apert SyndromeB- Cleidocranial dysplasiaC- Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins Syndrome) D- Crouzon syndrome (craniofacial dysostosis)

ANS:C

Q245: What percent of hydrogen peroxide should be used for debriding and intraoral wound?

A- 3 percent B- 10 percentC- 20 percentD- 37 percent

ANS:A

Q246: During clinical evaluation of a complete crown on a mandibular right first molar, a premature contact causes the mandible todeviate to the patient’s left. One would expect to see the interfering contact marked on which surfaces of the crown?

A- Mesial marginal ridgeB- Buccal inclinesC- Mesial inclinesD- Lingual inclines

ANS:B

Q247: At 90 kVp and 15mA at a BID distance of inches, the exposure time for a film is 0.5 seconds. In the samesituation, which of the following should represent the exposure time at 16 inches?

A- 0.25 secondsB- 1.0 second C- 2.0 secondsD- 4.0 seconds

ANS:C (0.5*4=2.0 SEC)

Q248: A 55-year-old male patient, who is currently prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg daily, requiressurgical therapy. What is the most appropriate pre-surgical laboratory test?

A- Fibrinogen timeB- Partial thromboplastin timeC- International normalized ratio D- Bleeding time

ANS:C

Q249: Dental phobia is classified as a personality disorderDental anxiety can result from the pairing of previously innocuous stimuli with an unpleasant experience

A- Both statements are true B- Both statements are falseC- The first statement is true, the second is falseD- The first statement is false, the second is true

ANS:D

Q250: Causality (cause and effect) may NOT be inferred from which of the following studies?

A- Cross-sectional B- CohortC- Case-controlD- Clinical trial

ANS:A

Q251: One advantage of using a fiber-reinforced post for restoring an endodontically treated tooth is that it

A- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to stainless steelB- Has a modulus of elasticity similar to dentin C- Is highly radiopaque and easy to visualize on a radiographD- Is stronger and more resistant to fracture than a cast metal post

ANS:B (Literatures said that RFPs have same MOE of dentine , moreover have high tensile strength, low electric conductivity, resistance tosolubility, & resistance to biochemical degradation, totally RL in x ray, never causes stresses on rct treated teeth, that’s why it's preferred than metalposts)

Q252: Which of the following represents the 3 essential factors for the initiation of the carious lesion?

A- Bacteria, polysaccharides, and enamelB- Bacteria, suitable carbohydrate, and susceptible tooth *C- Lactobacilli, easily fermentable carbohydrate, and susceptible toothD- Lactobacilli, suitable substrate, and enamel

ANS:B

Q253: Each of the following is a common cause of denture gagging EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A- Inadequate posterior palatal sealB- Excessive vertical dimensionC- Bulkiness of dentureD- Excessive anterior guidance

ANS:D

Q254: Which of the following is a interference during working movements for a posterior complete crownrestoration?

A- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of maxillary teethB- The lingual inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines of maxillary teethC- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the buccal inclines of maxillary teethD- The buccal inclines of mandibular teeth contact the lingual inclines of maxillary teeth

ANS:D (LUBL)

Q255: Which permanent teeth are least often congenitally missing?

A- Lateral incisorsB- Canines C- PremolarsD- Third molars

ANS:B

Q256: Adolescents undergoing orthodontic treatment often have problems with home oral hygiene regimens.The MOST effective management plan is to

A- Educate the patient about the importance of oral hygiene when wearing braces B- Develop a plan of contingent reinforcement for brushing and flossingC- Refuse to continue treatment unless oral hygiene improvesD- Have parents remind adolescents to brushE- Provide limited praise for small progress made at each visit

ANS:E

Q257: The most dominant emotional factor in management of 4-to-6-year-old children is fear of

A- PainB- The unknown C- The dentistD- Being separated from parents

ANS:B

Q258: Which of the following substances is contraindicated for a patient taking ginseng?

A- PenicillinB- DigitalisC- Aspirin D- Alcohol

ANS:C

Q259: Excessive trituration of amalgam should be avoided because it will

A- Cause excessive expansion B- Cause the amalgam to set prematurelyC- Remain soft for too longD- Cause the amalgam to lose its anatomy in 24 hours

ANS:B

Q260: Which of the following is most likely the major consideration prior to performing a gingivectomy?

A- Amount of attachment lossB- Measurement probe depthC- Level of the alveolar crest D- Width of the attached gingiva

ANS:D

Q261: In which of the following mandibular fracture cases should the intermaxillary fixation be releasedearliest?

A- A high condylar fractureB- A fracture through the site of an impacted third molar C- An angle fracture and contralateral parasymphyseal fractureD- A jaw in which the treatment has been delayed by the management of other injuries

ANS:A (TO avoid ankylosis)

Q262: A panoramic radiograph of a 55-year-old female reveals generalized widening of the periodontalligament space and bilateral resorption of the mandibular angles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A- Fibrous dysplasiaB- Progressive systemic sclerosis C- OsteosarcomaD- Marfan syndrome

ANS:B

Q263: A new patient presents with severe chronic periodontitis and has a history of two heart attacks. Thepatient is not sure when the heart attacks occurred or the severity. The dentist’s next step in treatment should beto

A- Complete gross scaling to decrease the bacterial loadB- Have the patient rinse with chlorhexidine gluconate (Peridex)C- Request a consult from the patient’s physician prior to any treatment D- Confine the treatment to simple restorative procedures

ANS:C

Q264: Which hematologic disorder represents a malignancy of plasma cell origin?

A- Burkitt lymphomaB- HemophiliaC- ThalassemiaD- Multiple myeloma

ANS:D

Q265: Plaque microorganisms produce extra-cellular substances that separate one bacterial cell from another and that form a matrixfor further plaque accumulation. This “matrix” is made up of dextran’s and

A- Levans B- MucoproteinsC- DisaccharidesD- Monosaccharides

ANS:A

Q266: Which of the following represents a common side effect of the alkylating-type anticancer drugs such as mechlorethamine(Mustargen)?

A- OtotoxicityB- NephrotoxicityC- Bone marrow depression D- Accumulation of uric acid

ANS:C

Q267: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a modified Widman Flap procedure?

A- Submarginal incisionB- Replaced flap C- Inverse bevel incisionD- Flap margin placement at the osseous crest

ANS:D

Q268: A furcation radiolucency in a 5-year-old child’s primary molar is most due to

A- TraumaB- Pulpal necrosisC- Normal anatomy D- Eruption of a premolar

ANS:B

Q269: Which of the following neuralgias is correctly associated with its cranial nerve?

A- Tic douloureux – XIIB- Bell palsy – VII C- Auriculotemporal syndrome – VID- Eagle syndrome – X

ANS:B

Q270: Gingivectomy is NOT indicated when the base of the pocket is located

A- Apical to the alveolar crest B- Below the free gingival grooveC- Coronal to the cementoenamel junctionD- Apical to the cervical convexity of the tooth crown

ANS:A

Q271: Compared with high noble alloys for metal-ceramic restorations, base metal alloys are best used forwhich of the following?

A- Optimum estheticsB- Single crowns C- Long-span bridges D- Patients with allergies to metals

ANS:C

Q272: The pathogenic microorganisms of chronic periodontitis includes each of the following EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A- Porphyromonas gingivalisB- Prevotella intermedia C- Tannerella forsythensisD- Actinomyces viscous

ANS:D

Q273: What is the indicated treatment for a primary molar with a carious pulp exposure and a furcationradiolucency?

A- Formocresol pulpotomyB- Indirect pulp capC- Extraction D- Direct pulp cap

ANS:C

Q274: Regeneration of the periodontal attachment apparatus include

A- Cementum, bone, and periodontal ligamentB- Dentin, cementum, and periodontal ligamentC- Cementum, junctional epithelium, and bone D- Junctional epithelium, gingival fibers, and periodontal ligament

ANS:A

Q275: Which of the following is NOT true regarding paraphrasing?

A- Paraphrasing is restating the patient’s views in one’s own wordsB- Paraphrasing is agreeing with and accepting the other person’s positionC- The secret to good paraphrasing is voicing patient values D- Paraphrasing is attempt to understand and acknowledge another’s perspective

ANS:B

Q276: Patients with low health literacy are

A- Less likely to ask questions during their dental visitsB- More likely to fail to show for dental appointments C- Likely to look over written materials and say they don’t understandD- High school graduates

ANS:B

Q277: A normal unstimulated salivary flow rate for an adult dentate patient should be

A- 0.01 mL per minuteB- 0.1 mL per minuteC- 1.0 mL per minute D- 10.0 mL per minute

ANS:B

Q278: Which teeth are the most susceptible to recurrence of periodontal disease after active periodontaltreatment is completed?

A- Maxillary premolars because of lateral occlusal forcesB- Mandibular premolars because of non-working interferencesC- Maxillary molars because of anatomy of their furcation’s D- Mandibular molars because of increased number of cervical enamel projections

ANS:C

Q279: In attempting to correct a single tooth anterior crossbite with a removable appliance, which of thefollowing is the most important for the dentist to consider?

A- Making periodic adjustmentsB- Incorporating maximum retentionC- Patient’s overbiteD- Making sure there is adequate space

ANS:D

Q280: Which of the following represents the most significant finding regarding ectodermal dysplasia?

A- Multiple osteomasB- Supernumerary teethC- Multiple impacted teeth D- Sparse hair

ANS:D

Q281: During a routine examination, the dentist sees a large radiolucency at the apex of the maxillary right firstpremolar. The tooth is not painful, does not respond to pulp testing, and has no evidence of a sinus tract. Themost probable diagnosis is

A- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis B- Symptomatic apical periodontitisC- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis D- Chronic apical abscess

ANS:A

Q282: A 32-year-old male patient reports a history of having been hospitalized for psychiatric evaluation, and iscurrently taking lithium carbonate on a daily basis. Which of the following diseases does this patient most likelyhave?

A- ParkinsonismB- SchizophreniaC- Bipolar disorder D- Psychotic depressionE- Paranoia with delusions

ANS:C

Q283: To achieve ideal overjet and overbite in an adult patient with a 16 mm pretreatment overjet, orthodontictreatment would most likely require

A- Orthodontic tooth movement onlyB- Orthognathic surgical treatment onlyC- Combined orthodontic/surgical treatment D- Premolar extraction therapy only

ANS:C

Q284: Which term refers to a physician or dentist performing an operation for which there was no consent?

A- AssaultB- NonmaleficenceC- DisclosureD- Battery

ANS:D

Q285: Which of the following is the best choice to avoid the effect of metamerism?

A- Select a porcelain shade using light onlyB- Select the shade that looks optimal under multiple light sources C- Avoid fluorescent lighting when selecting a porcelain shadeD- Add additional layer of opaque porcelain prior to placing body porcelain

ANS:B

Q286: What is the LEAST likely reason for postoperative sensitivity after a Class I occlusal compositerestoration is placed?

A- Gap formation which allows bacterial penetration into the dentin tubulesB- Gap formation which allows an outward flow of fluid from through the dentin tubules C- Direct toxic effects of a 15 second acid etc on the pulpD- Cuspal deformation due to contraction forces of polymerization shrinkage

Ans - C

Q287: Subgingival margin of crown is indicated when

A- Surrounding soft tissue is thick bio-typeB- Porcelain laminate veneer is plannedC- An all-ceramic crown is plannedD- Cemental hypersensitive is suspect

B-

ANS:D

Q288: Which area of the mouth has the LEAST amount of keratinized tissue on the buccal aspect?

A- Maxillary incisorsB- Maxillary premolarsC- Mandibular incisors D- Mandibular premolars

ANS:D

Q289: Pain referred to the ear derives most often from which teeth?

A- Maxillary molars

B- Maxillary premolarsC- Mandibular molars D- Mandibular premolars

ANS:C

Q290: Most dens invaginates defects are found in which of the following types of teeth?

A- Maxillary central incisorB- Maxillary lateral incisor C- Mandibular first premolarD- Maxillary first premolar

ANS:B

Q291: The patient should sign the informed consent for surgery

A- At the time of filling out history and insurance formsB- After medical history and physical examinationC- After formulation by dentist of a surgical treatment planD- After a full discussion of the surgical treatment plan

ANS:D

Q292: Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in Which of the following locations?

A- TongueB- Posterior maxillaC- Posterior mandibleD- Floor of the mouth

ANS:C

Q293: Which of the following is the single most important factor affecting pulpal response to toothpreparation?

A- Heat B- Remaining dentin thicknessC- DesiccationD- Invasion of bacteria

ANS:B

Q294: A 16-year-old patient has a long history of mild pain in the area of the mandibular left first molar.Radiographs reveal deep caries in the tooth with an irregular radiopaque lesion apical to the mesial root. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis?

A- Peri-radicular granulomaB- Condensing osteitisC- Asymptomatic apical periodontitisD- Periapical cyst

ANS:B

Q295: Distinctly blue color of the sclera is a feature of Which of the following conditions?

A- Gardner syndromeB- Osteogenesis imperfecta

C- Hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasiaD- Stuge-weber angiomatosis

ANS:B

Q296: Glossitis and angular cheilitis are oral manifestations of what type of nutrient deficiency?

A- CalciumB- Vitamin DC- Iron D- Zinc

ANS:C

Q297: Blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins does NOT produce which of the following conditions?

A- AntipyresisB- Increased gastric mucous productionC- Decreased platelet aggregation D- Decreased renal blood flow

ANS:B

Q298: A patient has only the mandibular anterior teeth remaining. The treatment plan calls for a maxillarycomplete denture and mandibular removable partial denture. Which of the following is desirable in the occlusalscheme?

A- Bilateral simultaneous contact of anterior and posterior teeth in centric relation position B- Canine guidance with posterior disocclusion during excursive movementsC- Bilateral balanced contact during excursive movementsD- Unilateral group function during excursive movements

ANS:C

Q299: An edentulous patient is to be treated using maxillary and mandibular complete dentures. The patient ishealthy and the ridges are well healed. A maxillary torus is present and extends beyond the area of the proposedposterior palatal seal. Which of the following represents the treatment of choice?

A- Removal of torus, followed by fabrication of maxillary and mandibular complete dentures

B- Extension of maxillary denture base onto the moveable soft palate to achieve adequate seal

C- Fabrication of a maxillary denture with an open/horshoe palate which avoids the torus

D- The use of relief over the area of the torus during maxillary and mandibular denture fabrication

ANS:A

Q300: Leukemia is suspected when a patient demonstrates which of the following signs or symptoms?

A- Red scleraB- Pale conjunctivae C- Splinter hemorrhage under the finger nailsD- Spontaneous gingival bleeding

ANS:D

Q301: A patient’s mandibular canal is positioned lingually to her mandibular third molar. In what directionwould the canal appear to move on a radiograph, if the X-ray tube were moved inferiorly (i.e., if the x-ray beam

were pointing superiorly)?

A- ApicallyB- MesiallyC- DistallyD- Occusally

ANS:A

302: The prostaglandin analog misoprostol (Cytotec) is most commonly used in treating gastric ulcersassociated with

A- Chronic use of anti-inflammatory drugB- Chronic use of tobacco productsC- Hypersecretory conditions such as Zollinger-Ellison syndromeD- Hyperactivity of the gastrin-secreting chief cells

ANS:A

Q303: At 90 kVp and 15mA at a BID distance of 8 inches, the exposure time for a film is 0.5 seconds. In thesame situation, which of the following should represent the exposure time at 16 inches?

A- 0.25 secondsB- 1.0 second C- 2.0 secondsD- 4.0 seconds

ANS:C (0.5*4=2.0)

Q304: What is the most common side effect when administering nitrous oxide and oxygen?

A- Allergic reactionB- Respiratory depressionC- TachycardiaD- Nausea

ANS:D

Q305: Xray shows caries on distal and mesial on one primary tooth, pulp is not involved, cannot detect lesionclinically, how do you tx?

a) MOD amalgamb) MO and DO compositec) MOD composited) Stainless steel crown

ANS:D

Q306: Hypotensive effect and itching from oxycodone is due, in part, to its

A- AllergenicityB- Release of histamine C- Antispasmodic effectD- Cardiac depressant effect

E- Excitation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone

ANS:B

Q307: A patient says, “I have been avoiding coming to see you because there is an ugly, red sor spot on the roofof my mouth”. Which of the following responses by the dentist best exemplifies a reflective response?

A- “Has you diet changed lately”B- “You really shouldn’t worry about it”C- “Don’t be afraid, I’ll take a careful look” D- “You should have had something like that looked at right away”E- ‘It sounds as if you’re quite concerned about this condition”

ANS:E

Q308: Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate, they are consistent. This test hashigh

A- GeneralizabilityB- Specificity C- Reliability D- Validity

ANS:C

Q309: Diazepam-mediated effects include

A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxationB- Lowering seizure ThresholdC- Anterograde amnesia D- Analgesia

ANS:C

Q310: Which of the following is related to reciprocal anchorage in orthodontic therapy?

A- Tipping a toothB- Extraoral forceC- Equal and opposite forces D- Bodily movement of a tooth

ANS:C (reciprocal anchorage --anchorage in which the movement of one tooth (or more) is balanced against the movement of one or more opposingteeth.)

Q311: A 6-year-old patient exhibits defiant behavior at a recall examination. Which of the following techniquesis indicated for the examination?

A- Conscious sedationB- General anesthesiaC- Physical restraintD- Voice control

ANS:D

Q312: Nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated for patients

A- With anxietyB- With special health care needs

C- With profound local anesthesiaD- In the first trimester of pregnancy

ANS:D

Q313: Diagnostic radiology is based on which of the following interactions of X-radiation with matter?

A- Thompson effect B- Pair productionC- Photoelectric effectD- Photonuclear disintegration

ANS:C

Q314: Each of the following would be included in a differential diagnosis of the palatal pigmentation EXCEPTone. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A- Lentigo B- Melanotic maculaC- Melanocytic nevusD- Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor

ANS:A

Q315: Paresthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve is most often seen after the fracture of which area of themandible?

A- Angle

B- CondyleC- SymphysisD- Coronoid process

ANS:A

Q316: Which of the following does NOT produce a pharmacologic decrease in saliva production?

A- Atropine (AtroPen)B- Scopolamine (Trasderm-Scop)C- Pilocarpine (Salagen) D- Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)

ANS:C

Q317: 1- The patient

A- Is at increased risk for bleeding B- Is at increased risk for hepatocellular carcinomaC- Is a potential carrier for hepatitis AD- Had a disease that does not involve a bloodborne pathogen

2- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?

A- Gingival inflammationB- Salivary hypofunctionC- Tissue hyperplasiaD- Aphthous ulcers

3- The patient states that “all of my teeth are sensitive to hot and cold, and my gums bleed whenever I brush myteeth”. The initial treatment should involve each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is theEXCEPTION?

A- Full-mouth scalling and root planningB- Prescription for a desensitizing toothpasteC- 4 quadrants of periodontal surgeryD- Home care instruction, then follow up visit

4- The most likely cause of the V-shaped radiolucency between the roots of the teeth 2 and 4 would be

A- An idiopathic bone cavity B- A maxillary sinus pseudocystC- Maxillary sinusD- A radicular cyst

5- Which would NOT be included in a differential diagnosis of the right mandibular radiolucency?

A- Keratocystic odontogenic tumor B- AmeloblastomaC- Periapical (radicular) cystD- Lateral periodontal cyst

6- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?

A- Gingival inflammationB- Salivary hypofunction

C- Tissue hyperplasiaD- Aphthous ulcers

7- The best initial management for the mandibular radiolucency would be

A- Radiographic follow-up in 6 monthsB- Endodontic therapy on tooth 31C- Incisional biopsyD- Block resection

8- The technique to image the lingual opacity was

A- An occlusal radiographB- A modified panoramic imageC- An axial plane cone beam CTD- A modified periapical radiograph

9- What is the Angle Classification of the molar relationships?

A- Left Class I, Right Class IIB- Left Class I, Right Class IIIC- Left Class II, Right Class ID- Left Class II, Right Class IIIE- Left Class III, Right Class I

10- An exaggerated curve of the occlusal plane and loss of the image clarity of the roots of the anterior teeth isindicative of a

A- Normal findingB- Panoramic positioning errorC- Film processing errorD- Developmental disorder

11- Preventive oral health behavior is influenced by each of the following factors EXCEPT one. Which one isthe EXCEPTION?

A- Public policyB- Social contextC- Psychological factorsD- Access to preventive measures

12- What is the most likely cause of the chalky-white appearance of the enamel of this patient’s teeth?

A- FluorosisB- Ectodermal dysplasiaC- Amelogenesis imperfectaD- Dentinogenesis imperfecta

13- Which is true about the position of tooth 27?

A- Missing premolar on the mandibular left has allowed more space for the left canineB- Mandibular incisors have shifted to the right blocking out the right canineC- Posterior teeth have drifted mesially more on the mandibular right than the leftD- Right canine has ankylosed whereas the left canine has undergone normal eruption

14- The lesion between teeth 30 and 31 is treated by enucleation and curettage. Each of the following are riskswith this procedure EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A- Devitalization of teeth 30 and 31B- Damage to the lingual nerveC- Post-operative infectionD- Damage to the inferior alveolar nerveE- Lesion recurrence