insights ias | insightsonindia ias | insightsonindia 6 s – 2018 statement 1: growing trees convert...

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SERIES – 3 : SOLUTIONS (Days 9-12)

1. Solution: d

Answer Justification:

In 2016, Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAMPA), 2016 was passed by Parliament to ensure expeditious and transparent utilization of compensatory levies realized in lieu of forest land diverted for non-forest purpose, which presently is of the order of about Rs. 49,000 crore.

Therefore statement 1 is correct.

Source: MoEF Report

http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/press-releases/Final%20Printed%20Book.pdf

Highlights of the CAMPA act:

The Bill establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.

These Funds will receive payments for: (i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present value of forest (NPV), and (iii) other project specific payments. The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%.

These Funds will be primarily spent on afforestation to compensate for loss of forest cover, regeneration of forest ecosystem, wildlife protection and infrastructure development.

Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

The Bill also establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds.

Therefore, statement 3 is correct

Source:

http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-compensatory-afforestations-fund-bill-2015-3782/

2. Solution: b


From the below source refer the guidelines (as per the sections provided in the document).

GUIDELINES FOR ECOTOURISM

2.1.3. No new tourist facilities are to be set up on forest lands. This is in compliance with the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and the directives of the Honourable Supreme Court.

Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

2.1.5. The State Forest Department should be the arbiter in case of any dispute regarding the ecological advisability of any tourism plans, whether Protected Area Management, private entity, temple board or community, as the welfare of wildlife and Protected Areas/ biodiversity takes precedence over tourism.

Therefore statement 2 is correct.

Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-information/Draft%20Ecotourism%20Guidelines%202%20June.pdf

http://www.insightsonindia.com/


http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-compensatory-afforestations-fund-bill-2015-3782/

http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-information/Draft%20Ecotourism%20Guidelines%202%20June.pdf

http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-information/Draft%20Ecotourism%20Guidelines%202%20June.pdf



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3. Solution: a


CoP-10 to the CBD in October 2010 had adopted a Strategic Plan for Biodiversity for 2011-2020, with five goals and 20 Aichi Targets, as an ambitious plan developed with the purpose of inspiring broad-based action in support of biodiversity over the decade by all countries and stakeholders. The Strategic Plan and Aichi Targets are the overarching framework on biodiversity not only for CBD and biodiversity related conventions, but for the entire UN system.

The UN General Assembly vide a resolution has declared 2011-2020 as the UN Decade on Biodiversity, coinciding with the duration of the Strategic Plan.

Accordingly, India through an extensive consultative process, has developed 12 national biodiversity targets along with indicators for monitoring, using Aichi targets as a framework, and brought out a National Biodiversity Action Plan Addendum 2014 to NBAP 2008.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

All targets don’t have 2020 as a target year. Example:

Target 9: By 2015, Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization as per the Nagoya Protocol are operational, consistent with national legislations.

Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Sources:

http://www.moef.nic.in/division/convention-biological-diversity-cbd

http://www.cbd.int/countries/?country=in

http://envfor.nic.in/sites/default/files/NBAP%20Addendum%202014.pdf

4. Solution: a


Amur falcon (eastern red-footed falcon)

Raptor

It breeds in south-eastern Siberiaand Northern China before migrating in large flocks across India and over the Arabian Sea to winter in Southern Africa.

Amur falcons come to roost at Nagaland (Doyang Lake) during their flight from Mongolia to Africa.

Amur Falcon Conservation:

Migratory Amur Falcons visiting Nagaland were hunted. With support of people in the region, the Government was successful in drastically reducing the hunting of the birds. The birds have also been satellite tagged and movement tracked.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the hunting was observed in Nagaland as per the report.

Source:


5. Solution: d


http://www.moef.nic.in/division/convention-biological-diversity-cbd

http://www.cbd.int/countries/?country=in

http://envfor.nic.in/sites/default/files/NBAP%20Addendum%202014.pdf




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Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017.

Restrictions of activities in wetlands.

(1) The wetlands shall be conserved and managed in accordance with the principle of ‘wise use’ as determined by the Wetlands Authority.

(2) The following activities shall be prohibited within the wetlands, (i) Conversion for non-wetland uses including encroachment of any kind. (ii) Setting up of any industry and expansion of existing industries. (iii) Manufacture or handling or storage or disposal of construction and demolition

waste, hazardous substances, electronic waste. (iv) Solid waste dumping. (v) Discharge of untreated wastes and effluents from industries, cities, towns, villages

and other human settlements. (vi) Any construction of a permanent nature except for boat jetties within fifty metres

from the mean high flood level observed in the past ten years calculated from the date of commencement of these rules.

(vii) Poaching.

All 3 statements are correct.

http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Wetlands%20(C&M)%20Rules,%202017.pdf

6. Solution: d


In a major success in the fight against wildlife crime, Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB), Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, coordinated “OPERATION THUNDER BIRD” in India, from January 30-February 19, 2017. Operation Thunderbird is the codename for INTERPOL’s multi-national and multi-species enforcement operation.

The operation is not species-specific. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.

The operation is co-ordinated by WCCB, not AWBI. So, statement 2 is too incorrect.

7. Solution: c

To encounter the menace of the illegal trade through e-commerce platform, WCCB organized and coordinated an enforcement operation named “Operation Wildnet” to tackle illegal Wildlife trade through internet using Social Media Platforms such as Facebook, Twitter, Whatsapp, Wechat etc. apart from various online classified sites and trade portals, websites and Blog Spots.

Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Wetlands%20(C&M)%20Rules,%202017.pdf

8. Solution: b

In 1972 there were an estimated 1827 tigers. Now the figure stands at 2226 in 2016. The number of tiger reserves has increased to 50 from 9 in 1973. We have 2/3rd of wild tigers of the world in our country.

Tiger is at the apex of the forest ecosystem and depicts the health of our jungles. That is why tigers are called indicator species.

There are 2/3rd of wild tigers of the world in India, not 1/3rd.

So, statement 1 is incorrect. Other statements are correct.






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Being the dominant predators of the ecosystem (So, statement 2 is correct), they ensure that the numbers of herbivores like deer are kept balanced. A steep fall in tiger population could lead to a rise in herbivore population, which could potentially destroy forests by consuming the trees and plants

So, statement 3 is correct

Source:


9. Solution: c

Coral Reef Restoration at Gulf of Kachchh by ZSI is a successful and first of its kind attempt in the world to restore coral species which have become extinct at Gulf of Kachchh about 10 thousand years ago. Significant area of degraded reefs has been restored with branching coral species belonging to family Acroporidae, which are the dominant reef contributors in all world reefs. Coral Sanatorium for Global warming affected corals (coral refugia), coral spawning and discovery of dugong are some of the outcomes of the project.

So, both statements are correct.

Source:


10. Solution: c


A pilot initiative of electronic surveillance (“e-Eye”), using long range, intelligent thermal and infrared cameras, has been implemented in the southern part of the Corbett Tiger Reserve for round the clock surveillance. This facility would be extended to other Tiger Reserves.

It is used for surveillance not just in low vision but round the clock. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 1 is correct.

The e-surveillance cameras can scan 360 degrees and track animal and human movement. It is an excellent tool for checking poaching as well as studying the migratory route of the big jumbos.

Statement 3 is also correct.

Source:


http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/an-eeye-for-corbett/article3483640.ece

11. Solution: c

Green India Mission has a goal inter alia:

To improve/enhance eco-system services like carbon sequestration and storage (in forests and other ecosystems), hydrological services and biodiversity; along with provisioning services like fuel, fodder, and timber and non-timber forest produces (NTFPs).

The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) report 2005 defines Ecosystem services as benefits people obtain from ecosystems and distinguishes four categories of ecosystem services i.e. Supporting services, Provisioning services, Regulating services and Cultural









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services. Regulating services include carbon sequestration and climate regulation, waste decomposition and detoxification, purification of water and air, pest and disease control.

Source:

http://www.moef.nic.in/division/introduction-22

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem_services

12. Solution: a

It is the first attempt in India to protect and restore a sinking island. Deployment of artificial reefs parallel to the sinking island in the seaward side reduces the effect of currents and waves, enhances fish habitats for higher fish production and protection of fish diversity. Natural corals get attached to artificial reefs over time and start regeneration.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct whereas statement 3 is incorrect as the deployment of artificial reefs protect fish diversity.

Source:

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/tamil-nadu-deploying-artificial-reefs-to-save-sinking-islands-58392

13. Solution: c

NAFCC

Launched in 2015 to provide 100% central grant to the State Governments for implementing climate change adaptation projects. Hence statement 1 is correct.

objective — assist states/UTs that are particularly vulnerable to adverse effects of climate change in meeting the cost of adaptation. Union Government encourages States to come up with innovative and scalable projects to develop resilience against climate change and mainstream it in the planning processes.

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is National Implementing Entity (NIE) for NAFCC. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Source:

http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Environment%20AR%20English%202016-2017.pdf

14. Solution: d

Explanation:

The Department of Biotechnology (DBT), under the Ministry of Science and Technology, convened the Smart Agriculture Conclave in New Delhi from August 29 – 31 2017, in partnership with the UK’s Biotechnology and Biological Sciences Research Council (BBSRC) and Research Councils UK (RCUK) India.

The objective of this conclave was to set the stage for “FarmerZone” – a collective open-source data platform for smart agriculture which will use biological research and data to improve the lives of small and marginal farmers. It is envisaged that “FarmerZone” will help cater to all needs of the farmer, from dealing with climate change, weather predictions and soil, water, and seed requirements to providing market intelligence.

Source:

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170426

15. Solution: c


http://www.moef.nic.in/division/introduction-22

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem_services








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Statement 1 : Growing trees convert carbon dioxide to woody biomass and decomposing trees release carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere. Whether trees naturally decompose or burn, carbon dioxide is emitted back into the atmosphere, replacing what was just taken out. Hence wood is considered as carbon-neutral material. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2:

Plastic making process contributes to the global GHG emission during transportation of oil or petroleum products (rawmaterial for resin) and manufacturing process that involves heating resin at high temperature to breakdown larger hydrocarbons into smaller one that releases CO2 as by product.

Steel making process involves heating iron ore — which is mostly iron oxide —with carbon; the process forms carbon dioxide as a byproduct. Production of a ton of steel generates almost two tons of CO2 emissions, accounting for as much as 5 percent of the world’s total greenhouse-gas emissions.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Learning:

The government has launched “Wood is Good” Campaign under the Partnership for Land Use Science (Forest-Plus), a partnership between USAID and India’s environment ministry.

The idea is to promote wood as a climate-friendly resource and a substitute to materials like plastic and steel because it is carbon neutral unlike the others while they leave a carbon footprint in their production.

Source:


16. Solution: a

Tiger range countries (TRCs) are those where the big cats roam freely.

The 13 tiger range countries include Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand, and Vietnam.

Statement 2 is incorrect as India’s all neighbours are not Tiger Range Countries. Eg: Pakistan

Source:

https://www.livemint.com/Politics/yTxetwY5x1He7AFnd7EcfL/Over-a-third-of-protected-areas-surveyed-are-at-risk-of-losi.html

17. Solution: c

The SECURE – securing livelihoods, conservation, sustainable use and restoration of high range Himalayan ecosystems – is meant for specific landscapes.

It includes:

Changthang (Jammu and Kasmir),

Lahaul – Pangi and Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh),

Gangotri – Govind and Darma – Byans Valley in Pithoragarh (Uttarakhand) and

Kanchenjunga – Upper Teesta Valley (Sikkim).

Arunachal Pradesh is not covered under the project.

Therefore, option (c) is correct.

18. Solution: d







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India Forest Amendment act that amends clause (7) of section 2 of The Indian Forest Act, 1927.

The word “bamboos” is omitted from the definition of tree, in order to exempt bamboos grown on non-forest area.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Consequent to the amendment, felling or transportation of bamboos growing in non-forest areas will not require any permits.


Since, Parliament was not in session and immediate action was required to be taken, the Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 was promulgated by the President on the 23rd day of November, 2017.

Accordingly, the Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 replaces the Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017.

Source:

http://164.100.24.219/BillsTexts/LSBillTexts/asintroduced/208_2017_LS_Eng.pdf

http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-indian-forest-amendment-bill-2017-5001/

19. Solution: c

Mangroves for the future (MFF) is being coordinated by International Union for Conservation of Nature, IUCN covering, initially, six Tsunami affected countries namely India, Indonesia, Maldives, Seychelles, Srilanka and Thailand. India has agreed to participate in the IUCN- MFF Initiative.

New members: Bangladesh, Cambodia, Myanmar, Pakistan and Vietnam.

MFF in India works at the national level by networking, influencing policy issues, conducting training missions and through regional coordination activities. At the local level community networking, experience sharing and site-specific actions are at the core of MFF’s activities.

For execution of MFF projects, five States in India were identified as priority areas. Selection of the five States was accomplished with seven categories in mind, which include: human pressure, pollution, degradation, cyclone, climate change and sea level rise, seascape setting and unique features.

Both the statements are correct.

Source:

https://www.mangrovesforthefuture.org/countries/members/india/

20. Solution: a

The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development is a regional intergovernmental learning and knowledge sharing centre serving the eight regional member countries of the Hindu Kush Himalayas – Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan – based in Kathmandu.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.

It is not based in New Delhi.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

21. Solution: d


http://164.100.24.219/BillsTexts/LSBillTexts/asintroduced/208_2017_LS_Eng.pdf

http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-indian-forest-amendment-bill-2017-5001/

https://www.mangrovesforthefuture.org/countries/members/india/



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Apart from above mentioned uses, it has many other applications. It was in news in AUgust 2017(following link)

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/08/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-01-aug-2017/

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liquid_nitrogen#Uses

22. Solution: c

Ahead of the festive seasons of Dussehra and Deepavali, the Supreme Court has prohibited the use of five chemicals, labelled as toxic by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), in the manufacture of firecrackers.

The banned chemicals include antimony, lithium, mercury, arsenic and lead in any form whatsoever.

The responsibility to ensure compliance particularly in Sivakasi is given to the Petroleum and Explosive Safety Organisation (PESO).

23. Solution: a


The Ratle Hydroelectric Plant is a run-of-the-river hydroelectric power station currently under construction on the Chenab River, downstream of the village of Ratle, near Drabshalla in Kishtwar district of the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir. The project includes a 133 m (436 ft) tall gravity dam and two power stations adjacent to one another.

Run-of-river hydroelectricity (ROR) or run-of-the-river hydroelectricity is a type of hydroelectric generation plant whereby little or no water storage is provided.

Run-of-the-river power plants may have no water storage at all or a limited amount of storage, in which case the storage reservoir is referred to as pondage.

A plant without pondage is subject to seasonal river flows, thus the plant will operate as an intermittent energy source.

Conventional hydro uses reservoirs, which regulate water for flood control and dispatchable electrical power.

24. Solution: c


Statement – 2: It can provide credit to MSMEs (see below)

As per National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (Amendment) Bill, 2017 , which is passed by the parliament, following are the changes brought in NABARD.

Increase in capital of NABARD: Under the 1981 Act, NABARD may have a capital of Rs 100 crore. This capital can be further increased to Rs 5,000 crore by the central government in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

The Bill allows the central government to increase this capital to Rs 30,000 crore. The capital may be increased to more than Rs 30,000 crore by the central government in consultation with the RBI, if necessary.

Transfer of the RBI’s share to the central government: Under the 1981 Act, the central government and the RBI together must hold at least 51% of the share capital of NABARD. The Bill provides that the central government alone must hold at least 51% of the share capital of NABARD. The Bill transfers the share capital held by the RBI and valued at Rs 20 crore to the central government. The central government will give an equal amount to the RBI.

Micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME): The Bill replaces the terms ‘small-scale industry’ and ‘industry in the tiny and decentralised sector’ with the terms ‘micro



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liquid_nitrogen#Uses





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enterprise’, ‘small enterprise’ and ‘medium enterprise’ as defined in the MSME Development Act, 2006. Under the 1981 Act, NABARD was responsible for providing credit and other facilities to industries having an investment of upto Rs 20 lakh in machinery and plant. The Bill extends this to apply to enterprises with investment upto Rs 10 crore in the manufacturing sector and Rs five crore in the services sector.

Under the 1981 Act, experts from small-scale industries are included in the Board of Directors and the Advisory Council of NABARD. Further, banks providing loans to small-scale, tiny and decentralised sector industries are eligible to receive financial assistance from NABARD. The Bill extends these provisions to the micro, small, and medium enterprises.

25. Solution: d


What gives colour to the firecrackers?

Red: Strontium salts (Nitrates, carbonates and sulphates of strontium).

Orange: Calcium salts (Carbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium).

Yellow: Sodium salts ( Nitrates and oxalates of sodium).

Green: Barium salts (Nitrates, carbonates, chlorides and chlorates of barium).

Blue: Copper salts (Carbonates and oxides of copper).

Purple: A combination of copper and strontium compounds.

White: The burning of metals like magnesium, aluminium and titanium).

26. Solution: a


The Siberian crane (Leucogeranus leucogeranus), also known as the Siberian white crane or the snow crane, is a bird of the family Gruidae, the cranes.

They are distinctive among the cranes, adults are nearly all snowy white, except for their black primary feathers that are visible in flight and with two breeding populations in the Arctic tundra of western and eastern Russia.

The eastern populations migrate during winter to China while the western population winters in Iran and formerly, in India and Nepal. Among the cranes, they make the longest distance migrations.

Their populations, particularly those in the western range, have declined drastically in the 20th century due to hunting along their migration routes and habitat degradation.

Source:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siberian_crane

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_endangered_animals_in_India

27. Solution: c

Uses of Sundari Trees:

The timber has many uses; in bridge building, house construction, boat building and joinery, as utility poles and tool handles, making hardboard and as firewood.

The tree is grown commercially in plantations.

The bark of H. fomes is rich in procyanidins. The ethanol extract has been shown to have antioxidant properties.

It also shows antimicrobial activities against Kocuria rhizophila, Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus subtilis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa and is non-toxic in brine shrimp toxicity tests.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siberian_crane

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_endangered_animals_in_India



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All the statements are correct.

Source:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heritiera_fomes

28. Solution: c

Statement 1 : At a height between 1500m and 2500m there is high snowfall causing snow to snow accumulate on branches and leaves or needles. The conical shape of conifer trees (mountain) prevents as much accumulation of snow as there would be on a wider shaped tree. The conical shape of the tree also helps to get the snow to fall off the tree quickly and to get the sunlight. Hence statement 1 is correct

Statement 2 : The Pinophyta, also known as Coniferophyta or Coniferae, or commonly as conifers, are a division of vascular land plants containing a single extant class, Pinopsida.

They are gymnosperms, cone-bearing seed plants.

All extant conifers are perennial woody plants with secondary growth. Hence statement 2 is correct. The great majority are trees, though a few are shrubs.

29. Solution: d

Statement 1 is incorrect because the trees in Tropical Rain Forests shed their leaves at different times of the year. Therefore, they always appear green.

Statement 2 is incorrect because teak and shisham are found in tropical deciduous forests.

Statement 3 is also incorrect because these forests are found in a narrow strip of the Western slope of Western Ghats.

Source:

NCERT Class VI Geography.

30. Solution: c

The altitude in Ladakh varies from about 3000m in Kargil to more than 8,000m in the Karakoram. Due to its high altitude, the climate is extremely cold and dry. The air at this altitude is so thin that the heat of the sun can be felt intensely. Hence Statement 1 in correct

The day temperatures in summer are just above zero degree and the night temperatures well below –30°C. It is freezing cold in the winters when the temperatures may remain below –40°C for most of the time. As it lies in the rain shadow of the Himalayas, there is little rainfall, as low as 10 cm every year. The area experiences freezing winds and burning hot sunlight. One will be surprised to know that if you sit in the sun with your feet in the shade, you may suffer from both sunstroke and frost bite at the same time. Hence Statement 2 is correct

Source:

NCERT Geography Class VII chapter 10.

31. Solution: b

In recent years, they have become endangered due to poaching.

They are hunted for their soft and warm wool which is usually obtained after death. This wool is known as shahtoosh and is used to weave shawls.

At present, international trade in their products is strictly prohibited. Recently, its IUCN Red List of Threatened Species ranking was raised to Near Threatened.


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heritiera_fomes



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Source:

NCERT Class VI chapter 8.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tibetan_antelope

32. Solution: a

Warm currents bring about warm temperature over land surface. The areas where the warm and cold currents meet provide the best fishing grounds of the world. Seas around Japan and the eastern coast of North America are such examples.

So Statement 1 is correct.

The areas where a warm and cold current meet also experience foggy weather making it difficult for navigation.

So Statement 2 is incorrect.

Source: NCERT Geography VII Chapter 5.

33. Solution: c

The west and south west margins of the continents have Mediterranean vegetation is mostly found in the areas around the Mediterranean Sea in Europe, Africa and Asia, hence the name. So statement 1 is correct

This kind of vegetation is also found outside the actual Mediterranean region in California in the USA, south west Africa, south western South America and South west Australia. These regions are marked for hot dry summers and mild rainy winters.

Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated here because people have removed the natural vegetation in order to cultivate what they want to. So statement 2 is correct.

There isn’t much wildlife here.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: NCERT Class VII Chapter 6.

34. Solution: b

The temperate grasslands of North America are known as the Prairies.

It is a region of flat, gently sloping or hilly land. For the most part, prairies are treeless but, near the low lying plains, flanking river valleys, woodlands can be found.

Tall grass, up to two metres high, dominates, the landscape. It is actually a “sea of grass.”

Source: NCERT Geography Class VII Chapter 9.

35. Solution: c

You will be surprised to know that present day Sahara once used to be a lush green plain. Cave paintings in Sahara desert show that there used to be rivers with crocodiles. Elephants, lions, giraffes, ostriches, sheep, cattle and goats were common animals. But the change in climate has changed it to a very hot and dry region. So statement 1 is correct.

People of Sahara:

The Sahara desert despite its harsh climate has been inhabited by various groups of people, who pursue different activities. Among them are the Bedouins and Tuaregs. These groups are nomadic tribes rearing livestock such as goats, sheep, camels and horses. These animals provide them with milk, hides from which they make leather for belts, slippers, water bottles; hair is used for mats, carpets, clothes and blankets.


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tibetan_antelope



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They wear heavy robes as protection against dust storms and hot winds. So statement 2 is correct

Source: NCERT Geography class VII chapter 10.

36. Solution: d

Important Bird Areas

Important for the conservation of bird populations

identified by BirdLife International

These sites are small enough to be entirely conserved and differ in their character, habitat or ornithological importance from the surrounding habitat.

From the table of Important Bird Areas (IBAs) in India

S. No. Site Name PA Status IBA

Criteria Final Code

35 BhagwanMahavir Wildlife Sanctuary

(including Molem) WLS

A1, A2, A3

IN174

From the table of Potential Important Bird Areas (IBAs) in India

S. No Site Name Stat

e

Potential or New IBAs

Codes

23 Bondla Goa IN-GA-05

25 Netravali Goa IN-GA-07

Source: http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/IBA_8463.aspx

37. Solution: b

The Nilgiri tahr inhabits the open montane grassland habitats at elevations from 1200 to 2600 m (generally above 2000 m) of the South Western Ghats.

Their range extends over 400 km from north to south.

Eravikulam National Park is home to the largest population.

Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The other significant concentration is in the Nilgiri Hills, with smaller populations in the Anamalai Hills, Periyar National Park, Palni Hills and other pockets in the Western Ghats south of Eravikulam, almost to India’s southern tip.

Hence Statement 1 is incorrect as the species’ habitat is spread outside Nilgiri hills also.

Source:

https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/threatened_species/nilgiri_tahr2/

38. Solution: b

The preferred habitat of an Indian rhinoceros is alluvial flood plains and areas containing tall grasslands along the foothills of the Himalayas. Formerly, extensively distributed in the Gangetic plains, today the species is restricted to small habitats in Indo-Nepal terai and northern West Bengal and Assam. In India, rhinos are mainly found in Kaziranga NP, Pobitara WLS, Orang NP, Manas NP in Assam, Jaldapara NP and Garumara NP in West Bengal and Dudhwa TR in Uttar Pradesh.

https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/greater_one_horned_rhino/about_one_horned_rhino/


http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/IBA_8463.aspx

https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/threatened_species/nilgiri_tahr2/





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The one horned rhinoceros of Asia is the second largest of the five species of rhino. The African white rhino is the largest and the African black rhino is third, followed by the Sumatran rhino and the Javanese rhino.

Hence Statement 2 in incorrect.

http://factsanddetails.com/asian/cat68/sub433/item2458.html

Rhino translocations began in April 2008, under IRV 2020 moved 18 Indian rhinos from Pabitora Wildlife Sanctuary and Kaziranga National Park to Manas National. An additional eight rhinos were moved to Manas by the Centre for Wildlife Rehabilitation and Conservation.

https://rhinos.org/where-we-work/indian-rhino-vision-2020/

39. Solution: b

The critically endangered species of IUCN Red List face an extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future.

CITES Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances. Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled in order to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.

Source:

Extensive list: http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/ScheduleSpeciesDatabase_7969.aspx

40. Solution: c

Though Keoldeo National Park and Chilika Lake were designated the status of Ramsar site on the same day but Chilka lake is the first Ramsar Site.


The lake was included in the Montreux Record (Threatened list) in 1993 by Ramsar Secretariat due to the change in the ecological character of the lake ecosystem. Susequently, however, due to successful restoration of the lake ecosystem by Chilika Development Authority it was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002 (first site from Asia).

Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Chilika Lake is the largest brackish water lake with estuarine character that sprawls along the east coast of India.

It is considered to be the largest lagoon in India and counted amongst the largest lagoons in the world.

The lake is a unique habitat that comprises of Marine, brackish and freshwater ecosystem and supports any biodiversity comprising of birds and aquatic animals.


Source: http://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5896/

41. Solution: a

Great hornbills are found in the forests of India, Bhutan, Nepal, Mainland Southeast Asia and Indonesian Island of Sumatra and North eastern region of India.

The distribution of the species is fragmented over its range in the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia.


http://factsanddetails.com/asian/cat68/sub433/item2458.html

https://rhinos.org/where-we-work/indian-rhino-vision-2020/

http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/ScheduleSpeciesDatabase_7969.aspx

http://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/5896/



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In the subcontinent they are found in a few forest areas in the Western Ghats and in the forests along the Himalayas.

Their distribution extends into Thailand, Burma, Malaya, and Sumatra. A small feral population is found in Singapore.

Their habitat is dense old growth (unlogged) forests in hilly regions. They appear to be dependent on large stretches of forest, unlike many of the smaller hornbills.


Tribal peoples threaten the great Indian hornbill by hunting it for its various parts. The beaks and head are used in charms and the flesh is believed to be medicinal. Young birds are considered a delicacy.

The Hornbill Festival is a celebration held every year from 1 – 10 December, in Nagaland to revive, protect, sustain, and promote the richness of the Naga heritage and traditions.


42. Solution: b

According to the Convention for Biological Diversity, invasive alien species are the second largest cause of biodiversity loss in the world (Hence Statement 1 in incorrect) and impose high costs to agriculture, forestry, and aquatic ecosystems.

In fact, introduced species are a greater threat to native biodiversity than pollution, harvest, and disease combined. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

Source: http://www.bsienvis.nic.in/Database/Invasive_Alien_species_15896.aspx

43. Solution: d

As per the provisions of the act. (Clause wise)

17A. Prohibition of picking, uprooting, etc., of specified plants.

No person shall –

(a) willfully pick, uproot, damage destroy, acquire or collect any specified plant from any forest land and area specified, by notification, by the Central Government, (Hence Statement 1 in incorrect)

(b) possess, sell, other for sale, or transfer by way of gift or otherwise, or transport any specified plant, whether alive or dead, or part or derivative thereof.

17C. Cultivation of specified plants without licence prohibited.

No person shall cultivate a specified plant except under, and in accordance with a licence granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden or any other officer authorised by the State Government in this behalf. (Hence Statement 2 in incorrect)

http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife1c3a.pdf

44. Solution: c

The Snow Leopard is assessed as Vulnerable because the global population is estimated to number more than 2,500 but fewer than 10,000 mature individuals, and there is an estimated and projected decline of at least 10% over 22.62 years (3 generations).

Statement 1 is about Snow Leopard.

http://www.iucnredlist.org/details/22732/0

For statements 2 and 3, refer Insights Exclusive Environment module.

45. Solution: b


http://www.bsienvis.nic.in/Database/Invasive_Alien_species_15896.aspx

http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife1c3a.pdf

http://www.iucnredlist.org/details/22732/0



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The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Sch. I and part 11 of Sch H to be vermin for any area and for such period as may be specified therein and so long as such notification is in force, such wild animal shall be deemed to have been included in Sch.V.

46. Solution: c


The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) would soon no longer be the sole collector and custodian of financial data as the Law Ministry has approved a revised Cabinet proposal on the creation of the Financial Data Management Centre (FDMC) that would subsequently collect raw data directly.

“FDMC will collect data in electronic format from the (financial) regulators. Over time, it will gradually build capacity to collect data from the regulated entities i.e. Financial Service Providers,” says the revised proposal which accepts that the data warehouse could be set up only through an Act.

Initially, FDMC was to be a non-statutory body to collect data from financial sector regulators, standardise and analyse them on issues relating to financial stability for onward decisions by the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC). It was also to provide regular access to the data. However, the Department of Legal Affairs turned down the initial Cabinet proposal saying that a non-statutory FMDC would find it difficult to acquire data from the regulators, majority of which were statutory.

First statement is correct because it says “IT SEEKS to…”

47. Solution: c


Highlights of Agriculture Census 2010-11

Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare has released Agriculture Census 2010-11(Phase-II). Highlights of the Census are:

Highlights -

As per Agriculture Census 2010-11,

Total number of operational holdings were estimated as 138.35 million.

The total operated area was 159.59 million hectare.

The average size of the holding has been estimated as 1.15 hectare. The average size of holdings has shown a steady declining trend over various Agriculture Censuses since, 1970-71.


http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/nearly-70-percent-of-indian-farms-are-very-small-census-shows-115120901080_1.html

48. Solution: b


Statement-1: We have changed the number here, so that you remember it well (it’s an important fact to remember).

Preterm is defined as babies born alive before 37 weeks of pregnancy are completed. There are sub-categories of preterm birth, based on gestational age:

extremely preterm (less than 28 weeks)










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very preterm (28 to 32 weeks)

moderate to late preterm (32 to 37 weeks).

Induction or caesarean birth should not be planned before 39 completed weeks unless medically indicated.

Statement- 2:

Every year, an estimated 15 million babies are born preterm (before 37 completed weeks of gestation), and this number is rising.

Preterm birth complications are the leading cause of death among children under 5 years of age, responsible for approximately 1 million deaths in 2015 (1).

Three-quarters of these deaths could be prevented with current, cost-effective interventions.

Across 184 countries, the rate of preterm birth ranges from 5% to 18% of babies born.

49. Solution: c


Melbourne has been named ‘The World’s Most Liveable City’ for the seventh consecutive year by the annual Economist Intelligence Unit’s (EIU) Global Liveability Index.

Background:

The EIU’s Liveability Ranking assesses living conditions in 140 cities across the globe by assigning a rating across five broad categories.

The rating quantifies the challenges that might be presented to an individual’s lifestyle in any given location, and allows for direct comparison between locations.

Every city is assigned a rating of relative comfort for over 30 qualitative and quantitative factors across five broad categories – stability, healthcare, culture and environment, education and infrastructure.

Top five most liveable cities:

Melbourne

Vienna

Vancouver

Toronto

Adelaide, Calgary.

50. Solution: d


The Turkmenistan–Afghanistan–Pakistan–India Pipeline (TAPI), also known as Trans-Afghanistan Pipeline, is a natural gas pipeline being developed by the Galkynysh – TAPI Pipeline Company Limited with participation of the Asian Development Bank.

The pipeline will transport natural gas from the Galkynysh Gas Field in Turkmenistan through Afghanistan into Pakistan and then to India. Construction on the project started in Turkmenistan on December 13th, 2015.

The pipeline is expected to be operational by 2019.

The abbreviation TAPI comes from the first letters of those countries. Proponents of the project see it as a modern continuation of the Silk Road.

51. Solution: c






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AQI Category

(Range)

PM10 (24h

r)

PM2.5 (2

4hr)

NO2 (24

hr)

O3 (

8hr)

CO

(8hr)

SO2 (2

4hr)

NH3 (24

hr)

Pb

(24hr)

Good (0–50) 0–50 0–30 0–40 0–

50 0–1.0 0–40 0–200 0–0.5

Satisfactory

(51–100) 51–100 31–60 41–80

51–

100 1.1–2.0 41–80 201–400 0.5–1.0

Moderately

polluted (101–

200)

101–250 61–90 81–180

101

–

168

2.1–10 81–

380 401–800 1.1–2.0

Poor (201–300) 251–350 91–120 181–280

169

–

208

10–17 381–

800

801–

1200 2.1–3.0

Very poor

(301–400) 351–430 121–250 281–400

209

–

748

17–34 801–

1600

1200–

1800 3.1–3.5

Severe (401–

500) 430+ 250+ 400+

748

+ 34+ 1600+ 1800+ 3.5+

Source: http://cpcb.nic.in/displaypdf.php?id=bmF0aW9uYWwtYWlyLXF1YWxpdHktaW5kZXgvQWJvdXRfQVFJLnBkZg==

https://app.cpcbccr.com/AQI_India/

52. Solution: d

Statement 1: “First-generation” or conventional biofuels are biofuels made from food crops grown on arable land. With this biofuel production generation, food crops are thus explicitly grown for fuel production, and not anything else. The sugar, starch, or vegetable oil obtained from the crops is converted into biodiesel or ethanol, using trans-esterification, or yeast fermentation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 : Second generation biofuels are fuels manufactured from lignocellulosic biomass or woody crops, agricultural residues or waste plant material (from food crops but they have already fulfilled their food purpose). Biomass is a wide-ranging term meaning any source of organic carbon that is renewed rapidly as part of the carbon cycle. Biomass is derived from plant materials, but can also include animal materials. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biofuel

53. Solution: d

Earth Overshoot Day marks the date when humanity has exhausted nature’s budget for the year. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect

For the rest of the year, we are maintaining our ecological deficit by drawing down local resource stocks and accumulating carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. We are operating in overshoot. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Ecological Footprint accounting measures the demand on and supply of nature.

On the demand side, the Ecological Footprint measures the ecological assets that a given population requires to produce the natural resources it consumes (including plant-based food and fiber products, livestock and fish products, timber and other forest products, space for urban infrastructure) and to absorb its waste, especially carbon emissions.


http://cpcb.nic.in/displaypdf.php?id=bmF0aW9uYWwtYWlyLXF1YWxpdHktaW5kZXgvQWJvdXRfQVFJLnBkZg

http://cpcb.nic.in/displaypdf.php?id=bmF0aW9uYWwtYWlyLXF1YWxpdHktaW5kZXgvQWJvdXRfQVFJLnBkZg

https://app.cpcbccr.com/AQI_India/

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biofuel



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The Ecological Footprint tracks the use of six categories of productive surface areas: cropland, grazing land, fishing grounds, built-up land, forest area, and carbon demand on land.

On the supply side, a city, state or nation’s bio capacity represents the productivity of its ecological assets (including cropland, grazing land, forest land, fishing grounds, and built-up land). These areas, especially if left unharvest, can also absorb much of the waste we generate, especially our carbon emissions.

Source: https://www.footprintnetwork.org/resources/glossary/

54. Solution: d

All are rightly matched.

Factual information:

World Ozone Day – September 16.

World Day to combat Desertification and Drought 2017 – June 17.

World Environment Day – June 5.

55. Solution: a

Light Pollution has a disruptive effect on natural cycles and inhibits the observation of stars and planets. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

Light Pollution disturbs the reproductive cycles of some animals and disturbs migration of birds that navigate using stars. Eg., sea turtles. Artificial lights discourage females from nesting. If a female fails to nest after multiple false crawls, she will resort to less-than-optimal nesting spots or deposit her eggs in the ocean. In either case, the survival outlook for hatchlings is slim. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

In humans, it disturbs circadian rhythms that regulate hormones and other bodily functions. Excessive blue light emitted from LEDs directly affect the sleep pattern in Human by suppressing the production of the hormone melatonin, which mediates the sleep-wake cycle in humans. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Source: https://www.livescience.com

56. Solution: d

Blue carbon is the carbon stored in coastal and marine ecosystems. The Blue Carbon Initiative currently focuses on carbon in coastal ecosystems – mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrasses which are found on every continent except Antarctica. These ecosystems sequester and store large quantities of blue carbon in both the plants and the sediment below. For example, over 95% of the carbon in seagrass meadows is stored in the soils.

Projects are being developed at sites globally to protect and restore coastal ecosystems for their “blue” carbon value.

Research into the sequestration, storage and loss of carbon from blue carbon systems is ongoing.

All statements are correct.

57. Solution: b

Species Habitat

1) Non-venomous snake Aquatic Rhabdops Wetern Ghats

2) Rock gecko Hemidactylus kangerensis Eastern Ghats

3) Moth Zygaenid Apatani Glory Arunachal Pradesh

4) Wild banana Musa Paramjitiana Andaman Nicobar Islands


https://www.footprintnetwork.org/resources/glossary/

https://www.livescience.com/



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Correctly matched species and habitats.

Refer Insights Exclusive Environment Module.

58. Solution: d

Mulching is the process of covering the topsoil with plant material such as leaves, grass, twigs, crop residues, straw etc. In some places, materials such as plastic sheets or even stones are used for covering the soil. However, in organic agriculture the term ‘mulching’ refers only to the use of organic, degradable plant materials.

Uses of mulching

– Protecting the soil from wind and water erosion

– Improving the infiltration of rain and irrigation water

– Keeping the soil moist by reducing evaporation

– Feeding and protecting soil organisms

– Suppressing weed growth

– Preventing the soil from heating up too much

– Providing nutrients to the crops

– Increasing the content of soil organic matter

Source: http://teca.fao.org/read/8365

59. Solution: d

Biological weathering is the weakening and subsequent disintegration of rock by plants, animals and microbes.

Growing plant roots can exert stress or pressure on rock. Although the process is physical, the pressure is exerted by a biological process (i.e., growing roots). Biological processes can also produce chemical weathering, for example where plant roots or microorganisms produce organic acids which help to dissolve minerals.

Microbial activity breaks down rock minerals by altering the rock’s chemical composition, thus making it more susceptible to weathering. One example of microbial activity is lichen; lichen is fungi and algae, living together in a symbiotic relationship. Fungi release chemicals that break down rock minerals; the minerals thus released from rock are consumed by the algae. As this process continues, holes and gaps continue to develop on the rock, exposing the rock further to physical and chemical weathering.

Burrowing animals can move rock fragments to the surface, exposing the rock to more intense chemical, physical, and biological processes and so indirectly enhancing the process of rock weathering.

Although physical, chemical, and biological weathering are separate processes, some or all of the processes can act together in nature.


Source:

http://passel.unl.edu/pages/informationmodule.php?idinformationmodule=1124303183&topicorder=5&maxto=6

60. Solution: c

Natural vegetation refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. (Hence Statement 1 and 2


http://teca.fao.org/read/8365





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are correct) This is termed as virgin vegetation. Thus, cultivated crops and fruits, orchards form part of vegetation but not natural vegetation (Hence Statement 3 is incorrect).

The virgin vegetation, which are purely Indian are known as endemic or indigenous species to India (Hence Statement 4 is correct) but those which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants for India.

Source: NCERT Geography Class IX chapter 5.

61. Solution: a

A medium-sized, evergreen tree, up to 18 m tall; a semi root-parasitic at its earlier growth stage. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)It requires host plants to partner with. It is dependent on these host plants for its nutrients and water demands to achieve and sustain healthy growth.

Sandal wood tree is probably native to peninsular India. It is distributed in India, parts of Malesia, Australia, New Zealand and Polynesia, extending to the Hawaiian Archipelago and Juan Fernonduos Islands (Chile). In India it is found in the peninsular region. The tree occurs mainly in the open scrub forests. (Hence Statement 3 is correct). The principal natural tracts of sandal trees are confined to parts of Mysore in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

Santalum antalum antalum album has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN. (Hence Statement 4 is incorrect).

http://bsienvis.nic.in/State_trees/Karnataka%20State%20Tree%20-%20Final%20-%209.12.2013.pdf

62. Solution: a

India is the only country in the world that has both tigers and lions. (Hence Statement 1 is correct). The natural habitat of the Indian lion is the Gir forest in Gujarat. Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan region. Leopards too are members of the cat family. They are important among animals of prey. The Gir Forest is the last remaining habitat of the Asiatic lion. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

Source: NCERT Class IX chapter 5.

In the 1950s, biologists advised the Indian government to re-establish at least one wild population in the Asiatic lion’s former range to ensure the population’s reproductive health and to prevent it from being affected by an outbreak of an epidemic. In 1956, the Indian Board for Wildlife accepted a proposal by the Government of Uttar Pradesh to establish a new sanctuary for the envisaged reintroduction, that is Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary, covering 96 km2 (37 sq mi) in eastern Uttar Pradesh, where climate, terrain and vegetation is similar to the conditions in the Gir Forest. In 1957, one male and two female wild-caught Asiatic lions were set free in the sanctuary. This population comprised 11 animals in 1965, which all disappeared thereafter.

(Hence Statement 3 is incorrect).

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asiatic_lion#India

63. Solution: b

The Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallachiana) is a medicinal plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh. (Not all Himalayan states. Hence Statement 1 is inorrect)




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asiatic_lion#India



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A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of this tree, and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers – the drug is now the biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation. In the last one decade, thousands of yew trees have dried up in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh. It denotes downtrend not uptrend. (Hence Statement 3 is incorrect)

64. Solution: d

Farmers and citizen’s groups like the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya have shown that adequate levels of diversified crop production without the use of synthetic chemicals are possible and economically viable.

Source: NCERT Class X Geography Chapter 2.

This movement has not only resulted in higher yields but also improved the soil fertility and agro-biodiversity.

Hence all statements are correct.

Source: http://www.euttarakhand.com/beej-bachao-andolan

65. Solution: a

The objective of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project is to assist Government of India (GoI) in building national capacity for implementation of comprehensive coastal management approach in the country, and piloting the integrated coastal zone management approach in states of Gujarat, Orissa and West Bengal.

There are four components to the project, the first component being national ICZM capacity building. The national component will include mapping, delineation and demarcation of the hazard lines, and delineation of coastal sediment cells all along the mainland coast of India. The second component is the piloting ICZM approaches in Gujarat. This component will support capacity building of the state level agencies and institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cell that includes the Gulf of Kachchh, and pilot investments. The third component is the piloting ICZM approaches in Orissa. This component will include capacity building of the state level agencies and institutions, including preparation of an ICZM plan for the coastal sediment cells that include the stretches of Paradip-Dhamra and Gopalpur-Chilika, including a regional coastal process study, and pilot investments. Finally, the fourth component is the piloting ICZM approaches in West Bengal.

Kerala and Tamilnadu are not covered.

Source:

http://projects.worldbank.org/P097985/integrated-coastal-zone-management?lang=en

66. Solution: a

The e-Green Watch is a web-based and user friendly application that is transparent, reliable and accountable. It is an integrated e-governance portal that enables the temporal change detection for the effective online monitoring and evaluation of works in forestry sector undertaken by State CAMPA. (Hence the answer is a)

Refer Insights MoEF concise report.

67. Solution: c

Other two BRs are not in MAB list.

Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/BR%20List.pdf


http://www.euttarakhand.com/beej-bachao-andolan

http://projects.worldbank.org/P097985/integrated-coastal-zone-management?lang=en

http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/BR%20List.pdf



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No

. Name

Date of

entry into

MAB

Area (in

sq.km) Location (State)

13 Agasthyamalai 2016 1828

Neyyar, Peppara and

Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and

their adjoining areas in Kerala.

14 Achanakamar

– Amarkantak 2012 3835.51

Covers parts of Anupur and Dindori

districts of M.P. and parts of Bilaspur

districts of Chhattishgarh State.

68. Solution: c

Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats

The Government of India provides financial and technical assistance to the State/UT Governments for activities aimed at wildlife conservation through the Centrally Sponsored Scheme viz. ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats’.

Support to Protected Areas:

Eligible PAs:

National Parks

Wildlife Sanctuaries

Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves, other than those availing central assistance under the CSS- Project Tiger, which are duly notified under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and are under the control of the Chief Wildlife Wardens.

Tiger reserve do not come under the scheme.

69. Solution: a

Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve has the highest number of tigers among all tiger reserves with 208. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)

It’s Karnataka that has hihest number of tigers. Uttarakhand has the second highest number of tigers. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect)

Bandipur TR has 109.

Nagarhole TR has 93.

Source:

http://www.walkthroughindia.com/wildlife/top-10-tiger-reserves-in-india-with-maximum-tiger-population/

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Indian_states_by_wildlife_population

70. Solution: d

The Animal Welfare Board of India

The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.

It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.

It ensures that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed.

It provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations.




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Indian_states_by_wildlife_population



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It advises the Government of India on animal welfare issues.

71. Solution: c


Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme for unorganised sector workers such as personal maids, drivers, gardeners etc, was launched in June 2015 by the government. This social security scheme was introduced as a replacement to previous government’s Swavalamban Yojana NPS Lite, which wasn’t well accepted by people.

APY aims to help these workers save money for their old age while they are working and guarantees returns post retirement. The scheme also promises a co-contribution by a worker, up to Rs. 1000 per annum, but only to those who joined APY before 31.12.2015. Further, this co-contribution would be made only for 5 years, from FY 2015-16 to 2019-20 in the eligible cases subject to conditions mentioned below.

You are eligible for the Atal Pension Yojana if you are:

1. An Indian citizen 2. Have a valid bank account 3. Are between 18 and 40 years of age.

72. Solution: c


Bagan in central Burma is one of the world’s greatest archeological sites. The Ayeyarwady (Irrawaddy) River drifts past its northern and western sides. From the 9th to 13th centuries, the city was the capital of the Pagan Kingdom, the first kingdom that unified the regions that would later constitute modern Myanmar. During the kingdom’s height between the 11th and 13th centuries, over 10,000 Buddhist temples, pagodas and monasteries were constructed in the Bagan plains alone.

73. Solution: d

Kazakhstan is all set to open the world’s first Low Enriched Uranium Bank in Oskemen. The International Atomic Energy Agency launched the project in 2010.

The bank will hold 90 tons of uranium—enough to power a large reactor for three years—and member states that withdraw from the bank will cover the cost of restocking.

To ensure transport, the IAEA signed an agreement with Russia in 2015 to allow the material to travel through the country.

74. Solution: b


Gobindobhog rice, a speciality from Burdwan district of West Bengal, has got the geographical indication (GI) status.

Significance of this move:

As a result of getting the GI tag, as the certification is also called, rice from other regions or rice of other varieties cannot be branded as ‘Gobindobhog’. Hence, the marketability of the rice would be strengthened, for the local, national and international markets.

About Gobindobhog rice:

Gobindobhog is a rice cultivar from West Bengal. It is a short grain, white, aromatic, sticky rice having a sweet buttery flavor.







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It derives its name from its usage as the principal ingredient in the preparation of the offerings to Govindajiu, the family deity of the Setts of Kolkata.

The rice has several advantages. It is cultivated late and therefore not much affected by rains. It is less prone to pests as well. The productivity per area is high and farmers get better prices for Gobindobhog rice

75. Solution: a


Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) was first constituted on May 28, 1990 and it was last re- constituted on March 11, 2013 for a period of three years. Subsequently, with the approval of the competent authority, the tenure of the committee has been extended till re-constitution of the new committee.

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

The GEAC is also responsible for approval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II).

76. Solution: c

During the course of millions of years of their existence, many species would have evolved a relatively constant internal (within the body) environment that permits all biochemical reactions and physiological functions to proceed with maximal efficiency and thus, enhance the overall ‘fitness’ of the species. This constancy, for example, could be in terms of optimal temperature and osmotic concentration of body fluids. Ideally then, the organism should try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment (a process called homeostasis) despite varying external environmental conditions such as temperature that tend to upset its homeostasis.

Evolutionary biologists believe that the ‘success’ of mammals is largely due to their ability to maintain a constant body temperature and thrive whether they live in Antarctica or in the Sahara desert.

So statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 can be inferred from statement 1.

So, both the statements are correct.

Source: NCERT class XII Chapter 13.1.2

77. Solution: b

While considering the various alternatives available to organisms for coping with extremes in their environment, we have seen that some are able to respond through certain physiological adjustments while others do so behaviourally (migrating temporarily to a less stressful habitat).

These responses are also actually, their adaptations. So, we can say that adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, behavioral) that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.


Some desert plants like Opuntia, have no leaves – they are reduced to spines–and the photosynthetic function is taken over by the flattened stems. Mammals from colder





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climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. (This is called the Allen’s Rule.)

In the polar seas aquatic mammals like seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin that acts as an insulator and reduces loss of body heat.


Source: NCERT class XII Chapter 13.1.3

78. Solution: c

Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Table 13.1

79. Solution: a

In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright, i.e., producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores are more in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher level.

There are exceptions:

The pyramid of number of insects feeding on a big tree is inverted. The pyramid of biomass in sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. Hence statement 1 is correct and 3 is incorrect.

Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Chapter 14.5

80. Solution: d

In situ conservation are biosphere reserves, 90 national parks, > 450 wildlife sanctuaries and many sacred groves. Ex situ conservation methods include protective maintenance of threatened species in zoological parks and botanical gardens.

In recent years ex situ conservation has advanced beyond keeping threatened species in enclosures. Now gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques, eggs can be fertilised in vitro, and plants can be propagated using tissue culture methods. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be kept for long periods in seed banks.

All given methods are ex situ conservation methods.

Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Chapter 15.2.2

81. Solution: d




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Noise is undesired high level of sound. We have got used to associating loud sounds with pleasure and entertainment not realising that noise causes psychological and physiological disorders in humans. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The bigger the city, the bigger the function, the greater the noise!! A brief exposure to extremely high sound level, 150 dB or more generated by take-off of a jet plane or rocket, may damage ear drums thus permanently impairing hearing ability. Even chronic exposure to a relatively lower noise level of cities may permanently damage hearing abilities of humans. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Noise also causes sleeplessness, increased heartbeat, altered breathing pattern, thus considerably stressing humans. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Source: NCERT Class XII Biology Chapter 16.1

82. Solution: c

Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from the industries and homes can radically accelerate the aging process. This phenomenon has been called Cultural or Accelerated Eutrophication. Hence statement 2 is correct.

83. Solution: b

The fruits of the cotton plant (cotton bolls) are about the size of a lemon. After maturing, the bolls burst open and the seeds covered with cotton fibres can be seen. Then, the cotton is obtained.


The jute plant is normally harvested when it is at flowering stage. The stems of the harvested plants are immersed in water for a few days. The stems rot and fibres are separated by hand.


Source: NCERT Class VI Science

84. Solution: d

Green Growth means fostering economic growth and development, while ensuring that natural assess continue to provide the resources and environmental services on which our well-being relies.

Green growth policies need to be founded on a good understanding of the determinants of green growth and need to be supported with appropriate indicators to monitor




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progress. This book presents a selection of updated and new indicators that illustrate the progress that OECD and G20 countries have made since the 1990s. It updates the 2014 edition.

Source:

http://www.oecd.org/environment/green-growth-indicators-2017-9789264268586-en.htm

85. Solution: b

A consortium of 12 Indian and British universities, including Oxford and Cambridge, has received a £7 million grant from the U.K. government to build self-sufficient solar-powered buildings in remote Indian villages.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The grant is part of a new solar project called ‘SUNRISE’ aimed at developing printed photovoltaic cells and new manufacturing processes which can be used to make solar energy products in India.


These will then be integrated into buildings in at least five villages of India, allowing them to harness solar power to provide their own energy and go off-grid.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Source:

http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/putting-the-sun-to-work/article19458995.ece

86. Solution: c

After Parliament/Cabinet approval the formal Instrument of ratification needs to be deposited with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), Government of India (GoI). The instrument of ratification may be forwarded along with a formal Note Verbale to MEA which in case of ISA is the formal depository.


Source: http://isolaralliance.org/docs/ISA%20FA%20Ratification%20Steps.pdf

Neither China nor USA has signed the ISA Framework Agreement.

Hence statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is incorrect.

Refer the tables provided in the source below.

http://isolaralliance.org/MemberCont.aspx

International Solar Alliance (ISA) is conceived as a coalition of solar resource rich countries to address their special energy needs and will provide a platform to collaborate on addressing the identified gaps through a common, agreed approach. It will not duplicate or replicate the efforts that others (like International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Partnership (REEEP), International Energy Agency (IEA), Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century (REN21), United Nations bodies, bilateral organizations etc.) are currently engaged in, but will establish networks and develop synergies with them and supplement their efforts in a sustainable and focused manner.



http://www.oecd.org/environment/green-growth-indicators-2017-9789264268586-en.htm



http://isolaralliance.org/docs/ISA%20FA%20Ratification%20Steps.pdf

http://isolaralliance.org/MemberCont.aspx



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87. Solution: d

Studies on the biodiversity of five uninhabited islands — Bangaram, Thinnakara, Parali I, II and III, of which Parali I reveal that these are inundated.

All these are in Lakshadweep archipelago.

Percentage of inundation:

Parali I (100%),Parali II (80%), followed by Thinnakara (14.38%), Parali III (11.42%) and Bangaram (9.968%)


Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-life/lakshadweep-island-parali-i-has-vanished/article19633348.ece

88. Solution: b

The Basel Convention on the Control of Trans-boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was adopted on 22 March 1989.

Rotterdam Convention was adopted on Pesticides and industrial chemicals on 10 September 1998.

The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants was adopted on 22 May 2001.

Pairs 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Source: http://www.pic.int/

89. Solution: d

All the statements are correct.

EESL is a joint venture of four National Public Sector Enterprises – NTPC Limited, PFC, REC and POWERGRID, and was set up under Ministry of Power. EESL is a Super Energy Service Company (ESCO). Hence statement 1 is correct.

EESL is creating a new normal through large-scale transformation through the following programmes.

UJALA, AgDSM, Solar AgDSM, SLNP, AJAY, Energy Efficient Buildings, MEEP, Energy Efficient ACs, Smart Meters, Fin. Asst. Programmes, Solar Study Lamp and e-Vehicles.

Hence statement 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Source: https://www.eeslindia.org/

90. Solution: d

The State Government of Goa over a year after de-classifying the coconut palm as a tree, passed an amendment restoring the coconut palm in the list of trees and also according it the status of State tree.

The State government has decided to include coconut palm as tree in the Goa, Daman and Diu (Preservation) Trees Act, 1984 to regulate felling of coconut trees under this Act.

Source:

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/coconut-palm-declared-state-tree-of-goa/article19409874.ece

91. Solution: d

The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) and the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) started the tropical cyclone naming


http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-life/lakshadweep-island-parali-i-has-vanished/article19633348.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-life/lakshadweep-island-parali-i-has-vanished/article19633348.ece

http://www.pic.int/

https://www.eeslindia.org/





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system in 2000. Tropical cyclone are named to provide ease of communication between forecasters and the general public regarding forecasts, watches, and warnings.

The Cyclones worldwide are named by 9 regions — North Atlantic, Eastern North Pacific, Central North Pacific, Western North Pacific, North Indian Ocean, South West Indian Ocean, Australian, Southern Pacific, South Atlantic.

Cyclones in the North Indian Ocean basin are named by the Indian Meteorological Department and the first tropical cyclone was named in 2004 as Onil (given by Bangladesh).

The name Ockhi was given by Bangladesh which in Bengali means ‘eye’.

Eight north Indian Ocean countries — Bangladesh, India, the Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand, gave eight names each which was combined into a list of 64 names. One name from each country is picked in an order to name the cyclones.

The previous storm Mora that caused severe flooding across Northeast India in May was named by Thailand. Mora is the name of one of the healing stones and also means star of the sea. The next cyclone will be named Sagar — a name given by India.

All 3 statements are incorrect.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/how-cyclone-ockhi-got-its-name/article21218647.ece

92. Solution: a

The salient features of Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management & Trans boundary Movement) Rules, 2016 incorporates Waste Management hierarchy in the sequence of priority of prevention, minimization, reuse, recycling, recovery, co-processing; and safe disposal.

Refer Insights MoEF concise report

93. Solution: d

The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016

Increase minimum thickness of plastic carry bags from 40 to 50 microns and stipulate minimum thickness of 50 micron for plastic sheets also to facilitate collection and recycle of plastic waste. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Expand the jurisdiction of applicability from the municipal area to rural areas, because plastic has reached rural areas also; Hence statement 2 is correct.

To bring in the responsibilities of producers and generators, both in plastic waste management system and to introduce collect back system of plastic waste by the producers/brand owners, as per extended producers’ responsibility;

To introduce collection of plastic waste management fee through pre-registration of the producers, importers of plastic carry bags/multi layered packaging and vendors selling the same for establishing the waste management system;

To promote use of plastic waste for road construction as per Indian Road Congress guidelines or energy recovery, (Hence statement 3 is correct). or waste to oil etc. for gainful utilization of waste and also address the waste disposal issue; to entrust more responsibility on waste generators, namely payment of user charge as prescribed by local authority, collection and handing over of waste by the institutional generator, event organizers.


94. Solution: c


http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/how-cyclone-ockhi-got-its-name/article21218647.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/how-cyclone-ockhi-got-its-name/article21218647.ece



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Eco-Development Forces scheme

The Scheme was initiated by the Ministry of Defence in 1982 with a view to securing involvement of ex-servicemen (Hence statement 1 is correct) in afforestation and eco-development in remote and difficult areas (Hence statement 2 is correct.) to undertake restoration of degraded ecosystems through afforestation, soil conservation and water resource management techniques.

The scheme also serves as a mechanism to rehabilitate the ex-servicemen for productive work and to create employment for retired army personnel mainly in the rural areas. The Scheme has been in operation for last four Five Year Plans. Therefore, the basic requirements with regard to procedural and financial aspects stand fulfilled.

Eco task force (ETF) battalions work under the scheme.

The progress of the Eco- Task Force (ETF) Battalions is being closely reviewed jointly by Ministry of Defence and MoEFCC.


95. Solution: a

Ecosystems Service Improvement Project

Green India Mission Division intends to take up a World Bank aided “Ecosystem Services Improvement Project” (ESIP) in selected landscapes of Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh States which has been designed to enhance the outcomes of the GIM.

The project proposes to improve forest quality and productivity along with interventions aimed at reforestation, reducing land degradation, institutional capacities building and enhancing NTFP trade and improve the livelihoods of forest dependent communities in Central Indian Highlands.


96. Solution: b


Nuakhai or Nuankhai is an agricultural festival mainly observed by people of Western Odisha in India. Nuakhai is observed to welcome the new rice of the season.

According to the calendar it is observed on panchami tithi (the fifth day) of the lunar fortnight of the month of Bhadrapada or Bhaadra (August–September), the day after the Ganesh Chaturthi festival. This is the most important social festival of Western Odisha and adjoing areas of Simdega in Jharkhand.

97. Solution: c


Bharat Bill Payment System eases the payment of bills and improves the security & speed of bill pay.

The service is available in multiple payment modes, online and through a network of agents. An instant confirmation is generated for the bill payments.

The BBPS will transform the society from cash to electronic payment system, making it less dependent on cash.

Currently you can pay bill for Utility (Gas, electricity, water, DTH) and Telecom billers.

98. Solution: b








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The Mechi River is a trans-boundary river flowing through Nepal and India. It is a tributary of the Mahananda River. The Mechi originates in the Mahabharat Range in Nepal. It flows through Nepal, forms the boundary between India and Nepal and then flows through the Indian state of Bihar to join the Mahananda in Kishanganj district.

In August 2017, MoU was signed between India and Nepal for laying down implementation arrangement for construction of a new Bridge over Mechi River at Indo-Nepal border.

99. Solution: b


A bioindicator is any species (an “indicator species“) or group of species whose function, population, or status can reveal the qualitative status of the environment. For example, copepods and other small water crustaceans that are present in many water bodies can be monitored for changes (biochemical, physiological, or behavioural) that may indicate a problem within their ecosystem. Bioindicators can tell us about the cumulative effects of different pollutants in the ecosystem and about how long a problem may have been present, which physical and chemical testing cannot.

A biological monitor, or biomonitor, can be defined as an organism that provides quantitative information on the quality of the environment around it. Therefore, a good biomonitor will indicate the presence of the pollutant and also attempt to provide additional information about the amount and intensity of the exposure.

https://www.nature.com/scitable/knowledge/library/bioindicators-using-organisms-to-measure-environmental-impacts-16821310

100. Solution: b

The Namdroling Nyingmapa Monastery is the largest teaching center of the Nyingma lineage of Tibetan Buddhism in the world. Located in Bylakuppe, part of the Mysuru district of the state of Karnataka, the monastery is home to a sangha community of over five thousand lamas (both monks and nuns)







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Sanchi is located south of Vindhya’s going by the following map:

Tabo Monastery (or Tabo Chos-Khor Monastery) is located in the Tabo village of Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh, northern India. It was founded in 996 CE in the Tibetan year of the Fire Ape

As you know Dharamshala is in Himachal Pradesh.

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