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Description: Study Prep for the ITIL Foundations Test
1. 1. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
A An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
B SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
C An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use
D An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they
2. 2. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and3 D
3. 3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers
selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this
A The going rate that is agreed with Customers
B Market rate
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D Profitable B
4. 4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
D. Maintainability A
5. 5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid
spending a lot of money
B Be as high level as possible
C Match the organisations requirement for information to be held
D Vary according to cost A
6. 6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity
of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for
A Service Level Manager
B Capacity Manager
C Change Manager
D Financial Manager C
7. 7. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a
formal Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction
B Incident volume reduction
C Elimination of lost incidents
D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users B
8. 8. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Change & Release Management
B Service Level Management
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C IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.
D Change & Capacity Management A
9. 9. Possible problems with Change Management include:
A Lack of ownership of impacted services
B Increased visibility and communication of changes
C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change A
10. 10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational
Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
B Education and Awareness
C Review, Audit and Assurance
D Ongoing Training and Testing A
11. 11. Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?
1 Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 Senior IT technical managers
A 2 and 3 only
B All of them
C 1, 2 &4
D 1, 3 &4 B
12. 12. Consider the following activities:
1 The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service
Management software tool?
A 1, 2 & 4
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B 2 & 3
C All of them
D None of them A
13. 13. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation
resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B Business Impact Analysis
C Service Outage Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis B
14. 14. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours C
15. 15. What is SOA within Availability Management?
A System Optimisation Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis D
16. 16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the
IT infrastructure D
17. 17. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
A Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
B Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
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C Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
D Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity D
18. 18. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
C Purchase order
D Accommodation C
19. 19. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
D CDB B
20. 20. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management
1 Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities be taken?
A 4 2 1 3
B 4 3 2 1
C 2 1 4 3
D 2 1 3 4 B
21. 21. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers
their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does
not exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and
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continuouslyimprove on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost A
22. 22. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft
SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services,
negotiate, agree SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and
OLAs,negotiate service levels, agree SLAs D
23. 23. Which of the following statements is true?
A An urgent release is always a delta release
B A full release may contain package and delta releases
C package release may contain full and delta releases
D A full release may contain several delta releases C
24. 24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all
C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels D
25. 25. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now
complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with
capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
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C Capacity Management
D Problem Management B
26. 26. Consider the following:
1 Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A All four
D 1, 2 &3 A
27. 27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
A Remedial Service Desk
B Virtual Service Desk
C Local Service Desk
D Central Service Desk A
28. 28. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be
understood by everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding C
29. 29. Consider the following list:
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity
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A 1 & 2
B 1 & 3
C 3 & 4
D 2 & 4 B
30. 30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never D
31. 31. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
1 Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
A 1, 3 & 5
B 2 & 4
C 2, 3 & 5
D All of them D
32. 32. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident
Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is
noreliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little
importance to proactive Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate
Incident Management information C
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33. 33. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A The RFCs that it satisfies
B The number of updates to the OHS
C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration A
34. 34. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Chairing the CAB
B Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC
C Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs A
35. 35. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change Requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C 1 & 3
D 1, 2 & 3 C
36. 36. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of
the information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
B You shouldnt collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change
C You shouldnt worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get
the database loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff B
37. 37. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents
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1 One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 & 2only
B 2 & 3 only
C 1 & 3 only
D All of them C
38. 38. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added
by Problem Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
D The number of RFCs raised B
39. 39. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Changes taking place are properly coordinated
C All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
D Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with users calls D
40. 40. An unabsorbed cost is best described as:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream C
41. 1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle
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42. 2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics D
43. 3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3. Process Owner
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2 and 3 only C
44. 4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following
elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and
Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement D
45. 5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service
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a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and
manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an
external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place
where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes
defined by Service Design B
46. 6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between
IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above D
47. 7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery B
48. 8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
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c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement B
49. 9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication
during Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for
any other phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of
the Service Lifecycle C
50. 10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process D
51. 11. Demand Management is primarily used to?
a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost B
52. 12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved
in the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which
could otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to
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d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning D
53. 13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only A
54. 14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models? B
55. 15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only A
56. 16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle
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c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d) Developing operational functionality required by the busine D
57. 17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI) B
58. 18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met A
59. 19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the
Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above A
60. 20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about good practice?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL B
61. 21. Consider the following statements:
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1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2. A characteristic of the Process is that it is performance driven and able to be
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only B
62. 22. Warranty of a service means which of the following?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
63. 23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most
accurately described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items
(CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain
accurate configuration records D
64. 24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services D
65. 25. Facilities Management refers to?
a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as utilities, such as printers or
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network accessb) The Management of an outsourcing contractc) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Centerd) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure C
66. 26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance modeling processesb) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem management processesc) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and business unitsd) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages C
67. 27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a) Master copies of softwareb) Backups of application datac) Software licensesd) Master copies of controlled documentation B
68. 28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled mannerb) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectivelyc) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failured) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made A
69. 29. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledgeb) Closed loop systemsc) Self-Contained units of organizationsd) Focusing on transformation to a goal
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70. 30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of
d) An Incident that is easy to solve C
71. 31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and
Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on
application service provisioning A
72. 32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people A
73. 33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy A
74. 34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four Ps of Service
a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
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c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service
75. 35. Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an
external service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only C
76. 36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan B
77. 37. An Incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above A
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78. 38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management B
79. 39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven Ps of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the
data and using it to take corrective action D
80. 40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only C
81. 1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?
A. Internal Sourcing-.
B. External Sourcing
D. Managed Services C
82. 2. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation A
83. 3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
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84. 4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number
of errors. The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version.
Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management D
85. 5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service
Management Processes: How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried
out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual
D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated
multiple times to Implement Continual improvement B
86. 6. Consider the following statements:
1. Processes should be implemented in such a way that the Role and Function
in an organization are defined
2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. Both of the above
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only D
87. 7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
A. Application Management
B. Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Availability Management D
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88. 8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by
Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver
the Intended objectives
B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set
of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed,
tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed
89. 9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
6. Governance Framework
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
B. All of the above
C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only D
90. 10. A Service Provider is?
A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or external
C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
D. An organization supplying IT services B
91. 11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by
maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
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A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Financial Management for IT services C
92. 12. The Design Manager is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment
of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are
NOT responsibilities included in this role?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services,
technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed
current and future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service
Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting
93. 13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Problem Management
D. Availability Management B
94. 14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or
B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and
Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or
modify the Assets.
C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity
D. All of above D
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95. 15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for
A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period D
96. 16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
A. Services and Resources
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Resources and Business Processes
D. Services, Resources and Business Processes A
97. 17. What is the difference between a process and a project?
A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite
B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite
C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not
stop when the objective is met.
D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is
98. 18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service
improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the
Solution; continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived;
How do we keep the momentum going?
C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we
get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going? D
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99. 19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by
D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
are complied with C
100. 20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative
determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services
catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is
responsible for having this users PC replaced within three hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management B
101. 21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) C
102. 22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change
Management. What information is this?
A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change
Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors
C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change
D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change
103. 23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?
A. Application Service Provision
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B. Business Process Outsourcing
C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing
D. Co-Sourcing C
104. 24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
A. Service Catalogue
B. Service Improvement Program
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Quality Plan (SQP) B
105. 25. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a
A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.
B. The speed with which the change is made
C. The sequence in which the change is made
D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned A
106. 26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken,
for example using an emergency power provision. Which of the following ITIL
processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management A
107. 27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
A. Replacement Request
B. Request for Change
C. Request for Release
D. Service Request B
108. 28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an
interruption of a Configuration Item?
A. Availability Manager
B. Incident Manager
C. Problem Manager
D. Service Level Manager
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109. 29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?
1. What Is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
A. What is the ROI
B. How much did it cost.
C. How do we keep the momentum going.
D. What is the VOI? C
110. 30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is
effectively managed in all service and Service Management activities.
B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and
enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are
111. 31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD)
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1, 2 & 3
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C. 1, 2 & 4
D. All of above C
112. 32. Which of the following will complete the Four Ps of Service Design?
D. Partners C
113. 33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?
A. Average uptime of a service
B. Average downtime of a service
C. Average time between two consecutive incidents
D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period B
114. 34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration
Item or IT service.
B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT
Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to
Incidents being logged
D. All of above D
115. 35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive
Media Library (DML)?
A. Copies of all software versions that are needed
B. Copies of all live software programs
C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing C
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116. 36. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service
Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3only
C. All of above
D. 1 & 2 only C
117. 37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly
after Failure of a Component part.
B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this
contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability
for a supporting service or component.
C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be
restored to normal working after a failure.
D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed
function without interruption A
118. 38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
A. Capacity Forecasts
C. Components and resource forecasts
D. Countermeasures for risks D
119. 39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level
A. By checking contracts with suppliers
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B. By measuring customer satisfaction
C. By defining service levels
D. By reporting on all incidents B
120. 40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A. Designing and building a release
B. Testing a release
C. Compiling the release schedule
D. Communicating and preparing the release C
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