mcq’s 403 hrm: employment relations -...

DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH

Dr.Deepali S.Patil. www.dimr.edu.in

MCQ’s

403 HRM: Employment Relations

Sr.no Question Answer

Conceptual Framework of ER :

1

Industrial relations cover the following area(s)

a) Collective bargaining

b) Labour legislation

c) Industrial relations training

d) All of the above

d

2

Parties to industrial relations are

a) ILO, Government, Association of employers

b) ILO, Government, IMF

c) ILO, Board of Directors, Association of employers

d) Government, Board of Directors, Association of employers

a

3

The following is (are) included in ILO’s standards with

regard to industrial relations

a) Right of association

b) Right to organize and collective bargaining

c) Tripartite consultants

d) All of the above

d

4

According to Indian Labour Commission (ILC) major

recommendations, Union once recognised should be valid for a

period of _____ years to be co-terminus with the period of

settlement.

a) Two

b) Three

c



c) Four

d) Five

5

A proactive industrial relations programme must cover the

following decision(s)

a) Communication

b) Competence

c) Discipline and conflict

d) All of the above

d

6

Industrial Relation refer to

a) Central Government and State Government relations.

b) Employer, Employees and Government relationship

c) management and Customers relationship

d) Government and Public relations.

b

7

Who is known as ‘safety valve’ in the field of industrial relations

?

a) Employer

b) Trade Union

c) Safety officer

d) Welfare officer.

d

8

Which one of the following cannot be included under the purview

of industrial relations?

a) Relations between trade unions and trade unions

b) Relations between employers and trade unions

c) Relations between employers and customers

d) Relations between state, employer and trade unions

c

9

Absence of strikes and lock-outs is an indicator of

a) Peaceful industrial relations

b) Friendly industrial relations

a



c) Disturbed industrial relation

d) None of the above

10

The Government’s strategy in maintaining industrial relations in

India is

a) Laissez fair

b) Total intervention

c) Required intervention.

d) none of the above

c

11

Bipartite industrial relations include relations between:

a) Management and unions

b) Union and government

c) Management & Government

d) Management, Government & Union

a

12

Which of the following machinery cannot be said to be bipartite

machinery in the field of industrial relations?

a) Works Committee

Joint Management Councild

c) Shop Level Councilc

d) Canteen committee.

d

13

Which of the following cannot be said to be tripartite machinery

in the field of industrial relations?

a) Indian Labour Conference

b) Standing Labour Committee

c) International Labour Organisation

d) Wage board.

d

14

Which of the following is said to be an important aspect of

industrial relations?

a) Profit and loss of the organisation

c



b) Future expansion programme

c) Conflict and co-operation.

d) Quality Control

15

Which of the following ministries looks after industrial relations

situation in the country?

a) Ministry of Home Affair

b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

c) Ministry of Welfare

d) Ministry of Labour and employment.

d

16

Which one of the following international organisations is directly

related to industrial relations?

a) United Nations Organisation

b) UNESCO

c) World Health Organisation

d) International Labour Organisation

d

17

Which of the following areas cannot be directly included in the

field of industrial relations?

a) Trade Union Recognition

b) Strike and Lock-out

c) Minimum wages, Fair wages and Living wages.

d) Collective bargaining

c

18

Which of the following legislations cannot be included in the

category of industrial relations legislations in India?

a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

b) Trade Union Act, 1926

c) Industrial Employment (Standing orders)Act, 1946.

d) Equal Remuneration Act. 1976

d

19 Which of the following is not included under industrial relations d



policy of a country?

a) Recognition of trade unions and collective bargaining.

b) Restrictions on strikes and lock-outs.

c) Workers participation in management

d) Principles of wages determination.

20

Which of the following regulates industrial relations in India?

a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and Trade Unions Act, 1926.

b) Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946

c) Code of Discipline and Inter-union Code of Conduct

d) All of the above.

d

21

Peaceful industrial relations denote:

a) Absence of strike and lock out

b) Emphasis on bipartite.

c) Co-operation between the parties


d

22

Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following

a) Employers

b) Unions

c) Government

d) all of the above

d

23

Parties to industrial relations are

a) ILO, Government, Association of employers

b) ILO, Government, IMF

c) ILO, Board of Directors, Association of employers

d) Government, Board of Directors, Association of employers

a

24

A proactive industrial relations programme must cover the

following decision(s)

a) Communication

d



b) Competence

c) Discipline and conflict

d) All of the above

25

Characteristics of Industrial Relations do not include:

a) Industrial Relations are outcome of employment relationship

in an industrial enterprise.

b) Industrial Relations promote the skills and methods of

adjustment and co-operation with each other.

c) Industrial Relations create complex rules and regulations to

maintain cordial relations.

d) Industrial Relations system creates an environment of distrust

and conflict

d

26

The constitution of India upholds the principle ‘Freedom of

Association’ as a fundamental right enunciated by I. L. O.

convention in

a) Article 20(C)

b) Article 19(C)

c) Article 24(C)

d) Article 18(C)

b

27

Which of the following is not a determinant factor of industrial

relations?

a) Institutional factors

b) Economic factors

c) Technological factors

d) Social stratification factors

d

28 Who are not the actors according to Dunlop’s framework of

industrial relations system? d



a) Managers and their representatives

b) Workers and their organisations

c) Specialized government agencies

d) Communities and their associations

29

The structure of I.L.O. includes

a) an International Labour Conference

b) a Governing Body

c) an International Labour Office

d) All the above

d

30

Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following

a) Employers

b) Unions

c) Government

d) all of the above

d

31

Which of the following approaches assumes that the

understanding of industrial relations requires an

understanding of the capitalised society?

a) Marxist approach

b) Gandhian approach

c) Human relations approach

d) Giri approach

a

32

Which of the following approaches assumes that voluntary

negotiations between employers and employees are a means of

settling disputes?

a) Marxist approach

b) Giri approach

c) Human relations approach

b



d) Gandhian approach

33

Which of the following approaches insists on investigating the

underlying trends and patterns in the cause and effect of

industrial disputes?

a) Gandhian approach

b) Giri approach

c) Industrial sociology approach

d) Pluralist approach

c

34

Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial

relations?

a) Connectedness

b) Collective wisdom

c) Conflict prevention


a

35

What is the meaning of Employment relations?

a) Relationship between worker and workers

b) Relationship between employer and employers

c) Relationship between management and workers


c

36

Which of the following statements about workers’ participation

in Management in India is not true?

a) It is a part of the 20 point Economic programme.

b) It is provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

c) It is made a Constitutional provision under the 42ndAmendment

Act.

d) It is a justice able right of the workers.

d

37 Which one of the following is not a machinery for settlement of

Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947? c



a) Conciliation Officer

b) Board of Conciliation

c) Collective Bargaining

d) Labour Court

38

Which are not the characteristics of grievances?

a) Factual

b) Fabricated

c) Disguised

d) Imaginary

b

39

Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of

Workers’ Participation in Management?

a) To associate in decision making process of the organization.

b) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers.

c) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.

d) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment

for workers.

d

40

Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?

a) Award of Labour Court

b) Award of Tribunal

c) Arbitration Award

d) Consent Award

d

41

Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:

a) Information sharing

b) Consultative

c) Administrative

d) All the above

d

42 By which amendment the provisions of Workers’ Participation in

Management was incorporated in the Indian Constitution? c



a) 41

b) 42

c) 43

d) 44

43

Find out the characteristics of collective bargaining which is not

applicable;

a) It is a collective process.

b) It is a flexible process.

c) It is not a bipartite process.

d) It is interdisciplinary system.

c

44

Which of the following is not a mode of Workers’ Participation in

Management?

a) Works Committee

b) Employee Stock Option Plan

c) Joint Management Council

d) Joint Committee for Policy Formulation

b

45

In which type of collective bargaining workers lose something

instead of gaining?

a) Concession Bargaining

b) Coalition Bargaining

c) Productivity Bargaining

d) All the above

a

46

The method of collective bargaining refers to:

a) Negotiations between Employer, workers and Government

Representative.

b) Negotiations between Employer’s representative and Trade union’s

Representative.

c) Negotiations between Employers and the Government.

b



d) Negotiations between Employer, and Customers.

47

Who has first made use of the term Collective Bargaining?

a) G.D.H., Cole.

b) Samuel Gompers.

c) Sidney Webb.

d) Robert Owen.

c

48

Which of the following is helpful in the process of collective

bargaining

a) Conciliation and Mediation.

b) Voluntary Arbitration.

c) Adjudication.

d) None of the above.

a

49

If representatives of an employer and trade union meet together

and discuss the terms and conditions of employment with a view

to reaching and agreement, the process is called :

a) Collective Bargaining.

b) Join Consultation.

c) Worker’s Publication and Management

d) Arbitration.

a

50

An agreement arrived at by the parties and approved by a

Labour Court or Tribunal is called:

a) Award.

b) Settlement.

c) Consent Award


c

51

Which of the following weakens collective bargaining?

a. Inter-union rivalries

b. Absence of a collective bargaining legislation

d



c. Hostility among the parties

d. All the above.

52

According to V.V.Giri, which one is the best method for the

settlement of industrial disputes?

a) Conciliation. b) Mediation.

c) Adjudication. d) Collective Bargaining.

d

53

When a dispute is settled by the process of collective bargaining,

the document arrived a, is called :

a) Settlement. b) Agreement

c) Judgment. d) Award.

b

53

When an agreement is arrived at in the process of collective

bargaining and is registered with the conciliation officer, it is

called

a) Settlement.

b) Converted Settlement.

c) Bi-partite agreement.


b

54

The definition of collective bargaining that it is “negotiations

about working conditions and terms of employment between an

employer, a group of employers or one or more employers

organisations on the one hand, and one or more representative

workers organisations on the other, with a view to reaching

agreement” was given by :

a) Allen Flender

b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs.


d) Dankert.

c

55 The history of industrial disputes in India started after : b



a) 1855

b) 1859

c) 1875

d) 1881

56

Which of the following methods is more prominent in settling

industrial disputes in India?

a) Voluntary Arbitration

b) Conciliation

c) Adjudication

d) Mediation

b

57

Which of the following methods has not been given a statutory

form in India?

a) Conciliation

b) Mediation.

c) Voluntary Arbitration

d) Adjudication

b

58

Voluntary Arbitration means:

a) Giving an award by a third person mutually agreed upon by both

the parties.

b) Giving an award by person appointed by the appropriate

government without the consent of the parties.

c) An award of Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal.


a

59

Compulsory Arbitration means:

a) Reference of the dispute by an appropriate government to an

arbitrator appointed by the appropriate government.

b) Reference of the dispute by the appropriate government to an

arbitrator mutually agreed upon by the parties.

a



c) Taking the dispute to a third person by the parties.


60

Conciliation is a method in which a third person:

a) Mediates in and persuades the parties to come to an amicable

settlement.

b) Listens to both the parties and gives his own decision.

c) Gives his decision without listening to the parties.


a

The history of conciliation started in India from:

a) The Employers and Workmen (Disputes) Act, 1980.

b) The Trade (Disputes) Act, 1929.

c) The Defence of India Rules, 1940.

d) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

b

61

The Court of Inquiry under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 will

conclude its proceeding within a period of :

a) 14 days.

b) 02 months.

c) Six months.

d) One year.

c

62

A board of conciliation under the industrial disputes act, 1947

may consist of :

a) Three persons.

b) Five persons.

c) Three or five persons.


c

63

The appropriate government may appoint one or more industrial

tribunals for adjudication of industrial disputes relating to any

matter, whether specified in :

c



a) The second Schedule.

b) The Third Schedule.

c) Second or third schedule.


64

Section 22 and 23 of the industrial disputes act, 1947 are related

to

a) lay-off and Retrenchment.

b) Strikes and lock-outs.

c) Closure.

d) Protect workmen.

b

The Industrial Disputes Act 1947

65

The industrial disputes act in India was passed in :

a) 1926

b) 1946

c) 1947

d) 1948

c

66

Works-committee is a:

a) Bi-partite body.

b) Tripartite body.

c) Adjudication machinery.

d) Wage fixing machinery.

a

67

The conciliation officer generally concludes his proceeding

within:

a) Ten Days

b) Fourteen days.

c) One month.

d) Two months.

b

68 Which of the following methods is not incorporated under the a



industrial disputes act, 1947.

a) Collective bargaining.

b) Conciliation

c) Arbitration.

d) Adjudication.

69

Till what period from the conclusion of adjudication proceedings

a workman cannot go on strike under the industrial disputes act’

1947

a) Six Months.

b) Four months.

c) Three months.

d) Two months.

d

70

Industrial disputes may take place due to :

a) Wage.

b) Bonus.

c) Trade Union Recognition.

d) All the above.

d

71

Which one of the following cannot be said to be an industrial

dispute?

a) Disputes between employer and employer.

b) Disputes between employer and workmen.

c) Disputes between workmen & workmen.

d) Disputes between employer and the customer.

d

72

Among the methods for settlement for industrial disputes listed

below, which one is not relevant here?


b) Compulsory Adjudication.

c) Voluntary Arbitration

d



d) Reference to civil court.

73

Which one of the following is the last weapon in the hands of

workers:

a) Lay-off.

b) Lock-out.

c) Closure.

d) Strike

d

74

In a situation to be called as strike, which of the following must be

present?

a) Plurality of workmen.

b) Cessation of work or refusal to continue to work.

c) Acting in combination or concerted action under a common

understanding.

d) All the above.

d

75

Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) The notice of lockout or strike shall not be necessary where there is

already in existence a strike or as may be in case of lockout in public

utility service.

b) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike shall not be

deemed to be illegal.

c) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal lockout shall not

be deemed to be illegal.

d) A strike or lockout may be declared even before the date

mentioned in the notice.

d

76

The general provisions regarding lay-off apply to :

a) Industrial establishments in which atleast 50 workmen are

employed and which are not of a seasonal character.

b) Industrial establishments in which atleast 100 workmen are

a



employed.

c) Industrial establishments which are not of seasonal character.

d) To all industrial establishments which come under the purview of

the Factories Act, 1948.

77

The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial

Disputes Act, 1947 means?

a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days.

b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.

c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.

d) 240 days service in a year.

d

77

Who among the following is not entitled to lay-off compensation

under the industrial disputes act, 1947?

a) A permanent worker.

b) An irregular worker.

c) A casual worker

d) All the above.

c

78

Every workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an

industrial establishment and who presents himself for work at the

establishment shall be deemed to be laid-off if the employer does

not provide him work :

a) Within 2 hours of his so presenting.

b) Within 4 hours of his so presenting.

c) Within 6 hours of his so presenting.


a

79

A lay-off is declared is case of :

a Surplus labour.

b) When worker threaten to go on strike..

c) Failure of power or shortage of raw materials.

c



d) The employer is running in heavy loss.

80

The retrenchment compensation will be equivalent to:

a) 25 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

service.

b) 20 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

service.

c) 15 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

service.

d) 10 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

service.

c

81

Organizations employing 100 or more workmen will be required

to give a notice for retrenching an employee which should be:

a) 3 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.

b) 2 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.

c) One months notice in writing indicating the reasons of

retrenchment.


a

82

According to the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer will

normally retrench :

a) The senior most worker of that category.

b) An inefficient worker of that category.

c) Any worker of that category.

d) The last person to be employed in that category.

d

83

Termination of the services of surplus employees from any

organization is called:

a) Disciplinary action.

b) Retirement.

c) Lay-off.

d



d) Retrenchment

84

An employer of an establishment serves a three months notice on

the workmen to be retrenched. The statement above indicates

that the establishment employs:

a) 100 workmen.

b) More than 50 but less than 100 workmen.

c) Less than 50 workmen.


a

85

The “Protected Workmen” refer to:

a) Any member of a registered trade union in the establishment.

b) A workman who is a member of executive.

c) A workman who is an office bearer.

d) A workman who is either a member of executive or office bearer

of a registered trade union connected with the establishment.

d

86

Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends

to close down his undertaking will have to give a notice to the

appropriate government stating the reasons of closure.

a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure.

b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure.

c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure

d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure.

c

87

No notice of closure will be required to be served on the

appropriate government if the number of workers employed is:

a) Less than 200.

b) Less than 100.

c) Less than 50.

d) Less than 25.

c

88 Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, c



every workman shall be entitled to notice and compensation if he

has put in:

a) Five year of continuous service.

b) Two year of continuous service.

c) One year of continuous service.

d) Six months of continuous service.

89

How many days before, an employer intending to close down his

undertaking in which 62 workmen are employed, has to serve a

notice to the appropriate government:

a) 60 days.

b) 70 days.

c) 90 days.

d) 240 days.

a

90

Closure means:

a) Closing down the place of work for a short period.

b) Closing down the place of employment permanently.

c) Suspension of work due to shortage of raw materials.

d) Refusal to give employment due to industrial disputes.

b

91

An interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute by

any Labour Court is known as:

a) Agreement.

b) Settlement.

c) Award.

d) Judgment.

c

92

An Award must be published by the appropriate government in

the official gazette within:

a) 15 days from date of the receipt.

b) 30 days from date of the receipt.

b



c) 45 days from date of the receipt.

d) 60 days from date of the receipt.

93

An award will remain in operation for a minimum period of:

a) 06 months from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

b) One year from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

c) Two year from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

d) Three year from the date on which it becomes enforceable

b

Strikes and Lockouts

94

Which one of the following is the last weapon in the hands of

workers:

a) Lay-off. b) Lock-out.

c) Closure. d) Strike

d

95

Which one of the following is not an important element of strike:

a) Cessation of work.

b) By a body of persons.

c) Under a common understanding.

d) For a genuine reason

d

96

A lightening strike denotes:

a) Going on strike after serving a notice of strike.

b) Going on strike after obtaining strike ballot.

c) Going on strike after making all necessary preparation

d) Going on strike suddenly.

d

97

Lockout is:

a) A reward.

b)An industrial action.

c) An incentive.


b

98 A lockout in an industry is declared by: c



a) Union Government.

b) State Government.

c) Management.

d) Trade Union.

99

In a situation to be called as strike, which of the following must be

present?

a) Plurality of workmen.

b) Cessation of work or refusal to continue to work.

c) Acting in combination or concerted action under a common

understanding.

d) All the above.

d

100

Wild cat strike means:

a) A strike declared suddenly and without prior notice.

b) Workers resorting to violence during the strike.

c) A strike declared with the prior notice.

d) Standing demonstration at the gate of organisation.

a

1010

A temporary closing of employment due to industrial dispute or

the suspension of work or the refusal by an employer to continue

to employ any number of persons engaged by him would mean

that :

a) The industrial establishment is close down.

b) The industrial establishment is locked out.

c) the workmen of the industrial establishment are kept under

suspension.

d) None of above

b

102

In India, the ‘right to strike’ is:

a) A Fundamental Right.

b) Conferred by legislation.

b



c) Provided under the directive Principal of state policy.

d) Conferred of Government order.

103

As per the industrial disputes act, 1947 strikes and lockouts in

public utility services will be legal only when :

a) A written notice of strikes or lock out is given within six weeks of

strike or lockout.

b) Not resorting to strikes or lockouts within 14 days or giving such a

notice.

c) During the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a

Conciliation Officer and 07 days after the conclusion of such

proceeding.

d) All the above.

d

104

Which of the following statements is not correct.

a) The notice of lockout or strike shall not be necessary where there is

already in existence a strike or as may be in case of lockout in public

utility service.

b) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike shall not


c) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal lockout shall not


d) A strike or lockout may be declared even before the date

mentioned in the notice.

d

105

Which of the following statements is not correct

a) There is no need of giving strike notice in non-public utility service

under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

b) According to the Code of Discipline there should be no strike or

lockout without notice.

c) No strikes or lockouts in a non-public utility service can be

c



declared during the pendency of conciliation proceeding before a

Conciliation officer.

d) No strike or lock-out can be declared in a non –public utility

service during the pendency or proceedings before a Labour Court,

Tribunal or National Tribunal.

106

A strike in pursuance of an industrial dispute has already

commenced and is in existence. The appropriate Govt. has

referred the dispute to a Labour Court but did not prohibit the

continuance of the strike under sub-section (3) of the section10.

The continuance of that strike during the pendency of

proceedings before the Labour Court will be:

a) Legal.

b) Illegal.

c) Out of the preview of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.


a

107

Workers in a public utility service went on an illegal strike

without giving any notice. Soon thereafter, the employer also,

without giving any notice declared a lockout. Will that lockout be

a) Legal. b) Illegal.

c) Out of the preview of this Act. d) None of the above

a

108

A trade union in a steel factory served a notice of strike on 1st

January but the union went on strike in the middle of May. Will

the strike be :

a) Legal.

b) Illegal.

c) Does not come under the preview of this Act.


a

109 An award was given on the subject of Bonus three months back a



and it is still in operation. The union decides to go on strike on the

issue of revision of wages in that organisation will that strike be :

a) Legal.

b) Illegal.

c) Will not come under the preview of this Act.


Lay-Off

110

General provisions regarding lay-off are given in the industrial

disputes act, 1947 in its :

a) Chapter –V A

b) Chapter-VB.

c) Chapter-VI.

d) Chapter-VII.

a

111

The general provisions regarding lay-off apply to :

a) Industrial establishments in which atleast 50 workmen are

employed and which are not of a seasonal character.

b) Industrial establishments in which atleast 100 workmen are

employed.

c) Industrial establishments which are not of seasonal character.

d) To all industrial establishments which come under the purview of

the Factories Act, 1948.

a

112

The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial

Disputes Act, 1947 means?

a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days.

b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.

c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.

d) 240 days service in a year.

d

113 Whenever a workman is laid-off under the industrial disputes act, a



1947, the employer will pay him lay-off compensation which will

be equivalent to:

a) 50% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

b) 75% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

c) 80% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

d) 100% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.

114

In which of the following situations lay-off compensation shall not

be paid to a workman :

a) If he refuses to accept any alternative employment in the same

establishment.

b) If he does not present himself at work place atleast once a day.

c) If such laying off is due to strike or showing down of production.

d) In all the above situations.

d

115

In an industrial establishment where the special provisions

regarding lay-off apply, no workman shall be laid-off by his

employer except.

a) With the prior permission of appropriate government.

b) A notice in advance is given to the workmen 03 months before

declaring the lay off.

c) Without the consent of the trade union.


a

116

Prior permission of the appropriate government shall not be

necessary in lay-off if:

a) Such lay off is due to shortage of power.

b) Due to natural calamity.

c) In case of mine due to fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or

explosion.

d) In all the above.

d



117

Who among the following is not entitled to lay-off compensation

under the industrial disputes act, 1947?

a) A permanent worker.

b) An irregular worker.

c) A casual worker

d) All the above.

c

118

Every workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an

industrial establishment and who presents himself for work at the

establishment shall be deemed to be laid-off if the employer does

not provide him work :

a) Within 2 hours of his so presenting.

b) Within 4 hours of his so presenting.

c) Within 6 hours of his so presenting.


a

119

A lay-off is declared is case of :

a Surplus labour.

b) When worker threaten to go on strike..

c) Failure of power or shortage of raw materials.

d) The employer is running in heavy loss.

c

120

The The maximum period for which workmen can be laid-off

during any period of twelve months under the industrial disputes

act, 1947?

a) 15 days.

b) 30 days.

c) 45 days.

d) 60 days.

c

121 Inability to give employment to a workman on accounts of

shortage of coal, power or raw materials or the accumulation of c



stock or the break down of machinery is called:

a) Retrenchment.

b) Closure.

c) Lay-off.

d) Termination of employment.

Retrenchment

122

An organisation employing less than 100 workers, can not

retrench the services of an employee who has put in atleast:


b) Three year of continuous service.

c) Two year of continuous service.

d) One year of continuous service.

d

123

Retrenchment in organisations employing less than 100 workers

can be done only when:

a) The workmen has been given atleast one month notice in writing

indicating the reasons of retrenchment or wages in lieu of notice.

b) The workmen has been paid retrenchment compensation.

c) A notice served on the appropriate government.

d) All the above.

d

124

There will be no need of notice of retrenchment if:

a) The worker has committed a minor misconduct.

b) If he is a trade union member.

c) If he has not completed his one year of continuous service.

d) If he has disobeyed the management.

c

125

The retrenchment compensation will be equivalent to:

a) 25 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

service.

b) 20 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

c



service.

c) 15 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

service.

d) 10 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

service.

126

Organisations employing 100 or more workmen will be required

to give a notice for retrenching an employee which should be:

a) 3 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.

b) 2 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.

c) One months notice in writing indicating the reasons of

retrenchment.


a

127

The appropriate government either on its own or on the

application made by the employer or any workman may review

its order granting or refusing permission for retrenchment. If the

appropriate government refers this matter to a tribunal for

adjudication, the tribunal in such a situation will submit its

award within a period of:

a) 90 days.

b) 60 days.

c) 30 days.

d) No time of limit.

c

128 According to the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer wil

normally retrench :

a) The senior most worker of that category.

b) An inefficient worker of that category.

c) Any worker of that category.

d) The last person to be employed in that category.

d



129 Where any workman has been retrenched in an organisation and

the employer proposes to make further employment in the same

category, the industrial disputes act say that the:

a) Retrenched workers will not be re-employed again.

b) Only fresh workers will be taken into employment.

c) Retrenched workers will have preference over other workmen if

they offer for re-employment.


c

130 Termination of the services of surplus employees from any

organisation is called:

a) Disciplinary action.

b) Retirement.

c) Lay-off.

d) Retrenchment

d

131 Termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any

reason whatsoever otherwise than as a punishment is known as :

a) Suspension.

b) dismissal.

c) Lay-off.

d) Retrenchment

d

132 An employer of an establishment serves a three months notice on

the workmen to be retrenched. The statement above indicates

that the establishment employs:

a) 100 workmen.

b) More than 50 but less than 100 workmen.

c) Less than 50 workmen.


a

Protected Workmen



133 The provision of “Protected Workmen” deals with protecting the

union officials of

a) The recognized union only.

b) All the union in the establishment whether registered or not.

c) The union (S) selected as per the discretion of the employer.

d) The registered trade unions functioning in an establishment.

d

134 The “Protected Workmen” refer to:

a) Any member of a registered trade union in the establishment.

b) A workman who is a member of executive.

c) A workman who is an office bearer.

d) A workman who is either a member of executive or office bearer

of a registered trade union connected with the establishment.

d

135 An employer during the pendency of any proceeding in respect of

an industrial dispute:

a) Can take any action against any protected workman.

b) Can not take any action against a protected workman.

c) Can take any action against a protected workman only after

obtaining permission in writing from the authority before which the

proceeding is pending.


c

136 In every establishment the number of workmen to be recognized

as “Protected workmen” for the purposes of this act shall be:

a) One percent of the total workmen.

b) Two percent of the total workmen.

c) Five percent of the total workmen.


a

137 The minimum number of persons to be declared as protected

workmen in any organization shall be not less than: a



a) 5 persons.

b) 10 persons.

c) 15 persons.

d) 20 persons.

138 The maximum number of persons to be declared as “Protected

workmen” in any organisation should not be more than:

a) 50.

b) 100.

c) 150.

d) 200.

b

Closure

139 The provisions regarding closure have been given under:

a) Trade union Act, 1926.

b) Industrial disputes act, 1947.

c) Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1948.


b

140 Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends

to close down his undertaking will have to give a notice to the

appropriate government stating the reasons of closure.

a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure.

b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure.

c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure

d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure.

c

141 No notice of closure will be required to be served on the

appropriate government if the number of workers employed is:

a) Less than 200.

b) Less than 100.

c) Less than 50.

c



d) Less than 25.

142 No notice of closure will be required to be given to the

appropriate government indicating the reasons if the undertaking

is set-up for the construction of:

a) Building.

b) Bridges.

c) Roads, Canals & Dams.

d) All the above.

d

143 If the appropriate government is so satisfied it may direct that the

provisions of closure shall not apply to an undertaking if it is

closed due to :

a) Exceptional circumstances as accident in the undertaking or death

of the employer.

b) Exceptional loss to the employer.

c) Strong unionism among the workers.

d) Insufficient demand for the product.

a

144 Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever,

every workman shall be entitled to notice and compensation if he

has put in:


b) Two year of continuous service.

c) One year of continuous service.

d) Six months of continuous service.

c

145 For closing down the place of employment the employer will have

to serve:

a) One month notice in advance.

b) Or in lieu of wages.

c) Compensation at the rate of 15 days wages for every completed

d



year of service.

d) All the above.

146 Where an undertaking engaged in mining operation is closed

down by reason merely of exhaustion of the minerals in that area,

no workman shall be entitled to any notice or compensation if:

a) The employer provides the workmen alterative employment with

effect from date of closure.

b) On the same terms & conditions of service as were applicable.

c) The service of workman has not interrupted by the alternative

employment.

d) All the above.

d

147 Closure as defined under the industrial disputes act, 1947 means:

a) Permanent closing of the entire organisation.

b) Permanent closing of a major portion of the organisation.

c) Permanent closing of even a part of the organisation.

d) All the above.

d

148 How many days before, an employer intending to close down his

undertaking in which 62 workmen are employed, has to serve a

notice to the appropriate government:

a) 60 days.

b) 70 days.

c) 90 days.

d) 240 days.

a

149 Closure means:

a) Closing down the place of work for a short period.

b) Closing down the place of employment permanently.

c) Suspension of work due to shortage of raw materials.

d) Refusal to give employment due to industrial disputes.

b



Award and Settlement

150 An interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute by

any Labour Court is known as:

a) Agreement.

b) Settlement.

c) Award.

d) Judgment.

c

151 Award means an interim or final determination of any industrial

dispute by:

a) Labour Court

b) .b) Industrial Tribunal or National Tribunal.

c) An Arbitrator under section 10A.

d) d) All of the above.

d

152 An Award must be published by the appropriate government in

the official gazette within:

a) 15 days from date of the receipt.

b) 30 days from date of the receipt.

c) 45 days from date of the receipt.

d) 60 days from date of the receipt.

b

153 An award shall become enforceable on the expiry of:

a) 15 days from the date of publication.

b) 30 days from the date of publication.

c) 60 days from the date of publication.

d) 90 days from the date of publication.

b

154 An award under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947:

a) Shall not be final.

b) Shall not be compulsory in nature.

c) May be questioned in any Court of Law.

d



d) Shall be final and shall not be called in question by any Court.

155 An award will remain in operation for a minimum period of:

a) 06 months from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

b) One year from the date on which it becomes enforceable.

c) Two year from the date on which it becomes enforceable. d) Three

year from the date on which it becomes enforceable

b

156 The appropriate government may extend the period operation of

an award by any period not exceeding?

a) 06 months at a time.

b) One year at a time.

c) Two year at a time.

d) Three year at a time.

b

157 The total period of operation of an award should not exceed?

a) Two Years.

b) Three Years.

c) Four years.

d) five years.

b

158 Where an appropriate government is of opinion that on public

grounds affecting national economy or social justice:

a) It may stop the enforcement of the entire award.

b) It may stop the enforcement of a part of the award.

c) It may modify the award.


d

159 On the completion of the period of operation:

a) An award is automatically terminated.

b) An award is automatically extended.

c) A notice is to be given by any of the partly for the termination of

the award.

c




160 The award shall continue to be binding even after serving a notice

by any of the partly until:

a) A period of 30 days have lapsed from the date on which notice

given.

b) A period of two months have lapsed from the date on which notice

given

c) A period of three months have lapsed from the date on which

notice given

d) A period of six months have lapsed from the date on which notice

given

b

161 A settlement means:

a) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Conciliation Officer.

b) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Board of Conciliation.

c) An agreement arrived at otherwise than in the course of

Conciliation proceeding but registered with the Conciliation Officer.


d

162 A settlement will remain in operation for a minimum period of:

a) Three years.

b) Two years.

c) One year

d) Six months.

d

163 A settlement will remain in operation for a:

a) Maximum period of one year.

b) Maximum period of two year.

c) Maximum period of three year.

d) No maximum period has been mentioned under the Act.

d

164 A settlement after the completion of the period of its operation is: c



a) Automatically terminated.

b) Automatically extended.

c) One of the parties has to give a notice in writing to the other

expressing its intention to terminate the settlement.


Industrial employment (standing orders) act, 1946

165 The main objective of the industrial employment (standing

orders) act,1946 is to promote rules to govern the:

a) wages in the undertaking

b) conduct of the employer

c) conduct of the trade unions

d) define conditions of employment

d

166 The industrial employment act, 1946 applies to every industrial

establishment wherein the number of employed workmen is

atleast:

a) 50 b) 100

c) 150 d) 250

b

167 The employers of all the industrial establishments where the

industrial employment, act 1946 become applicable will be

required to submit draft standing orders to the certifying officer

within :

a) three months

b) six months

c) one year

d) three years

b

168 The employer will submit to the certifying officer

a) three copies of the draft standing orders

b) five copies of the draft standing orders

b



c) six copies of the draft standing orders


169 On receipt of the draft standing orders the certifying officer shall

forward a copy thereof to the :

a) central government b) I.L.O

c) trade union in the organization d) Indian labour

conference

c

170 The trade union or the workmen as the case may be will be

required to return the draft standing orders with their objections

or suggestions to the certifying officer within:

a) one week from the receipt of the notice

b) fifteen days from the receipt of the notice

c) one month from the receipt of the notice

d) three months from the receipt of the notice

b

171 After receiving suggestions or objections from the trade union or

the workmen, the certifying officer shall there upon certify the

draft standing orders after making any modifications therein and

shall send copies of the certified standing orders to the employer

and the trade union within:

a) three days b) seven days

c) fifteen days d) one month

b

172 The certified standing orders shall unless an appeal is preferred

come into operation on the expiry of :

a) fifteen days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof

are sent.

b) thirty days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are

c) a&b

d)none of the above

b



173 The text of the standing orders as finally certified under the

industrial employment act, 1946 shall be prominently posted by

the employer at or near the entrance in :

a) Hindi and regional languages

b) French and German languages

c) English and the language understood by the majority of his

workmen

d) Urdu and Punjabi language

c

174 The standing orders finally certified under the industrial

employment act, 1946 shall not be liable to modification until the

expiry of:

a) three months b) six months

c) nine months d) one year

b

175 The subsistence allowance paid to workmen during the period of

suspension, pending investigation shall be at the rate of :

a) 50% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension.

b) 25% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension

c) 75% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension

d) 100% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension

a

176 Any employer workman, trade union who is aggrieved by the

order of the certifying officer may appeal to the appellate

authority

a) within thirty days from the date on which the copies are sent.

b) within forty five days from the date on which the copies are sent

c) within fifteen days from the date on which the copies are sent

d) within six month from the date on which the copies are sent

a

177 Industrial employment standing orders act is applicable in every

industrial establishment where ____ workmen are employed. c



a. 200

b. 150

c. 100

d. 50

178 An authority who is appointed by the appropriate government by

notification in the official Gazette to exercise in such area as may

be specified?

a. Appellate Authority

b. Certifying officer

c. Acting officer

d. None of the above

a

179 What is the time frame in which the employer shall submit 5

copies of the draft standing orders proposed by him for adoption

in his industrial establishment?

a.1 month from the date on which standing orders act becomes

applicable

b. 12 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes

applicable

c. 18 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes

applicable

d. 6 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes

applicable

d

180 Section 10B in the act deals with ______

a. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to

all industrial establishments

b. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to

all industrial establishments in coal mines

c. Prescribed particulars of workmen

a




181 As per sub - section 3 of section 5 the standing orders shall come into

operation on the expiry of ______ days from the date on which

authenticated copies are sent.

a. 30 days

b. 7 days

c. 15 days

d. 5 days

a

182 In which language is the text of the standing orders posted on the

notice boards?

a. English or that is understood by majority of the workmen

b. Only English

c. Language as understood by the workmen


a

183 How many copies have to be submitted to the certifying officer while

making any modifications in the standing orders?

a. 10

b. 4

c. 5

d. 2

c

184 Which section takes care of payment of subsistence allowance in

standing orders act?

a. Section 10

b. Section 1

c. Sub section 1

d. Section 10A

d

The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970

185 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 applies to c



every establishment/ contractor in which ____________ workmen are

employed or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve

months as contract labour.

a) Ten or more

b) Fifteen

c) Twenty or more

d) Twenty-five or more

186 2. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 shall

not apply to establishments in which work is of _____

a) An intermittent or casual nature

b) Permanent work

c) Both (A) & (B)


a

187 3. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), 1970 can be

classified into the category of:

a) Social Security Act

b) Industrial Relations Act

c) Welfare Act

d) Commercial Act

c

188 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), prohibits use of

contract labour for….. Function.

a) Financial

b) Core

c) Day to day

d) D. Effective

b

189 One the objective of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition

Act),is use to …… contract employees. b



a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) Promote

d) D. Develop

190 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), prohibits use of

contract labour for core function. The purpose was to ensure interest

of

a) Factories

b) Contract employees

c) Permeant employee

d) D. Trade union

c

191 What are the facilities are needed for employees by an organization as

per the The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?

a) Drinking water

b) Washing facilities

c) Latrines & urinals

d) D. All of above

d

192 Which type of organization exempted under Contract Labour

(Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?

a) Work only if an intermittent nature

b) Work only if an casual nature

c) None of these

d) Both of these

d

193 What is minimum number for which canteen need to be present by

The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?

a) 50

b) 25

c) 100

c



d) 150

Trade Union Act, 1926

195 A trade union’s certificate of registration is liable to be cancelled

if it:

a) commits an unfair labour practice.

b) violates the provisions of the code of discipline

c) fails to submit annual returns

d) certificate is obtained by fraud means.

d

196 According to the trade unions act, 1926 the minimum number of

persons who can get a trade union registered is

a) 10 b) 15

c) 20 d) 7



a) 0.25 paise or more

b) 0.50 paise or more

c) Rs. 1 or more

d) Rs. 5 or more

202 Every appropriate government shall appoint an officer who will

look after the registration of trade unions under the trade union

act, 1926 and who will be known as :

a) commissioner of labour

b) Workmen’s compensation commissioner

c) Registrar of trade union

d) special officer

c

203 An application for registration by a trade union shall become

invalid if :

a) 25% of the total number of persons who made the application have

ceased to be members of the trade union.

b) exceeding 50% of the total number of persons who made the

application have ceased to be members of the trade union

c) 75% and above of the total number of persons who made the

application have ceased to be members of the trade union


b

204 Outsiders can be associated with a registered union as its office

bearers but their proportion should not be more than :

a) 25% b) 33 %

c) 75% d) none of the above

b

205 A person shall be disqualified to become a member of the

executive or any other office bearer of a registered trade union if

:

a) he is not educated

d



b) he is not an independent person

c) he is not associated with the trade union for the last ten years

d) he has been convicted by a court in India of any offence involving

moral turpitude.

206 A registered trade union may change its name with the consent of

:

a) one third of the total number of its member

b) two third of the total number of its member

c) one-half of the total number of its member


b

207 Any two or more registered trade unions may become

amalgamated as one union if :

a) one fourth of the votes of members of each trade union are

recorded and atleast 25% of the votes recorded are in the favour of

the proposal.

b) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded

and atleast 50% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal

c) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded

and atleast 60% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal


c

208 Every registered trade union shall send to the registrar every

year :

a) a quaterly return

b) half yearly return

c) annual return


c

209 A certificate of registration of a trade union may be withdrawn or

canelled by the registrar: d



a) if the certificate has been obtained by fraud means.

b) the trade union has ceased to exist

c) the union has willfully contravened any provision of the act

d) all the above.

210 In order to cancel the certificate of registration the registrar must

give a written notice specifying the ground on which the

certificate is being cancelled and it will be :

a) two months previous notice in writing.

b) three months previous notice in writing

c) six months previous notice in writing

d) no notice is required.

a

211 Trade unions’ sole purpose is:

a) To help management to raise employee productivity.

b) To resole employer-employee conflict.

c) To make protest.

d) To protect and promote workers’ interest.

d

212 Who said that “ A trade union is a continues association of wage

earners for the purpose of maintaining of improving the

conditions their working lives”?

a) Dankert.


c) R.A. Hoxie.

d) S.D. Punekar.

b

213 Which of the following is not type of Trade Union?

a) Craft union.

b) Industrial Union.

c) Federation.

d) World Federation of Trade Unions.

d



214 Which of the following was organised primarily to send labour

representative to I.L.O.?

a) Madras Labour Union.

b) Bombay Mill Hands’ Association.

c) Textile Labour Association.

d) All India Trade Union Congress.

d

215 Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory of

Trade Union?

a) N.M. Lokhande

b) B.P. Wadia

c) G.L. Nanda

d) M.K. Gandhi

d

216 Trade Union movement in India emerged between

a) 1920-1930

b) 1850-1870

c) 1870-1880

d) 1930-1947

c

217 According to Section 9 A of the Trade Union Act, 1926 minimum

requirement about membership of a trade union is

a) Seven

b) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen.

c) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is less.

d) D. Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is

less, subject to minimum seen.

d

218 A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area, if it

has membership of

a) 10% of the workers in that industry.

b) 15% of the workers in that area.

c



c) 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.

d) 30% of the workers in similar industry.

219 A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the executive or

any other office bearer of the registered trade union if he attained

the age of

a) Fifteen years

b) Eighteen years

c) Twenty one years

d) Twenty five years

a

220 Not more than 50% of members of the office bears of Trade

union can be outsiders, as per provisions of legislations.

a) Industrial Dispute Act

b) Trade Union Act

c) Mines Act

d) ESI Act

b

221 Trade union means any combination formed primarily for the

purpose of regulating the relations between

a) Workmen and employers permanently

b) Workmen and workmen permanently

c) Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers

and employers temporary or permanent

d) Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers

and employers permanently

d

223 The basic principle underlying the enactment of the Trade

Unions Act is:

a) To protect interests of workers against disregard of human

elements in industries.

b) To regulate the relationship of workers and their organization

b



by regulating the balance of power.

c) To provide strength to workers to settle the industrial disputes.

d) To provide security to workers against the occupational

hazards.

224 Which of the following is not a characteristic of Trade Union?

a) Is an association of employers or the employees or of the

independent workers?

b) Is relatively a permanent combination but not temporary or

casual.

c) Is an association of workers who are engaged in not securing

economic benefits for their members?

d) Is influenced by a member of ideologies.

c

225 Which of the following cannot be said to be a trade union in true

sense?

a) Craft Union

b) Industrial Union

c) Company Union

d) Federation

c

226 Which of the following statements is correct?

a) There is a statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions

in India at the Central level.

b) There is no statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions

in India at the Central level.

c) Code of discipline provides both for Registration and

Recognition.

d) There is provision for recognition under the Inter-Union Code

of Conduct

b

227 Which one is not a right of a recognized union? a



a) A right of ‘Check-off’

b) To use notice board on the premises of the undertaking

c) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic inquiry

d) inspecting the undertaking

228 The following persons are considered as insider of a registered

trade union.

a) Honorary member from the other organization.

b) Honorary member from other profession.

c) Politician who guides the registered trade union.

d) Retired and retrenched members of the trade union.

d

229 Trade Union should be registered as per the law must have

a) A.20% of the workers

b) B.150 workmen

c) Minimum 17 persons


d

230 Identify the correct definition of industrial relations:

a) A Relations between or among human beings

b) B Relations between employer and employees as individuals

c) C Relations between parties in an employment context

d) D Collective relationship between management and trade

unions

d

231 What duAration of existence is needed as per trade union act

1926, before making application of registration.

a) 1 year

b) 2 year

c) 3 year

d) 5 year

a

Workers’ participation in Management & Collective



bargaining

232 Which of the following statements about workers’ participation

in Management in India is not true?

e) It is a part of the 20 point Economic programme.

f) It is provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

g) It is made a Constitutional provision under the 42ndAmendment

Act.

h) It is a justice able right of the workers.

d

233 Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of

Workers’ Participation in Management?

e) To associate in decision making process of the organization.

f) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers.

g) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.

h) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment

for workers.

d

234 Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?

e) Award of Labour Court

f) Award of Tribunal

g) Arbitration Award

h) Consent Award

d

235 Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:

e) Information sharing

f) Consultative

g) Administrative

h) All the above

d

236 By which amendment the provisions of Workers’ Participation in

Management was incorporated in the Indian Constitution?

e) 41

c



f) 42

g) 43

h) 44

237 Find out the characteristics of collective bargaining which is not

applicable;

e) It is a collective process.

f) It is a flexible process.

g) It is not a bipartite process.

h) It is interdisciplinary system.

c

238 Which of the following is not a mode of Workers’ Participation in

Management?

e) Works Committee

f) Employee Stock Option Plan

g) Joint Management Council

h) Joint Committee for Policy Formulation

b

239 In which type of collective bargaining workers lose something

instead of gaining?

e) Concession Bargaining

f) Coalition Bargaining

g) Productivity Bargaining

h) All the above

a

240 The method of collective bargaining refers to:

a) Negotiations between Employer, workers and Government

Representative.

b) Negotiations between Employer’s representative and Trade union’s

Representative.

c) Negotiations between Employers and the Government.

d) Negotiations between Employer, and Customers.

b



241 Who has first made use of the term Collective Bargaining?

a) G.D.H., Cole.

b) Samuel Gompers.

c) Sidney Webb.

d) Robert Owen.

c

242 Which of the following is helpful in the process of collective

bargaining

a) Conciliation and Mediation.

b) Voluntary Arbitration.

c) Adjudication.


a

243 If representatives of an employer and trade union meet together

and discuss the terms and conditions of employment with a view

to reaching and agreement, the process is called :


b) Join Consultation.

c) Worker’s Publication and Management

d) Arbitration.

a

244 An agreement arrived at by the parties and approved by a

Labour Court or Tribunal is called:

a) Award.

b) Settlement.

c) Consent Award


c

245 Which of the following weakens collective bargaining?

a. Inter-union rivalries

b. Absence of a collective bargaining legislation

c. Hostility among the parties

d



d. All the above.

246 According to V.V.Giri, which one is the best method for the

settlement of industrial disputes?

a) Conciliation. b) Mediation.

c) Adjudication. d) Collective Bargaining.

d

247 When a dispute is settled by the process of collective bargaining,

the document arrived a, is called :

a) Settlement. b) Agreement

c) Judgment. d) Award.

b

248 When an agreement is arrived at in the process of collective

bargaining and is registered with the conciliation officer, it is

called

a) Settlement.

b) Converted Settlement.

c) Bi-partite agreement.


b

249 The definition of collective bargaining that it is “negotiations

about working conditions and terms of employment between an

employer, a group of employers or one or more employers

organisations on the one hand, and one or more representative

workers organisations on the other, with a view to reaching

agreement” was given by :

a) Allen Flender



d) Dankert.

c

250 Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?

i) Award of Labour Court d



j) Award of Tribunal

k) Arbitration Award

l) Consent Award

mcq’s 403 hrm: employment relations -...

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