1.During the transcription of a certain protein, an extra cytosine was placed into a gene region, throwing off the correct amino acid sequence. What type of mutation occurred?A. TransposonB. InsertionC. Base-pair substitutionD. Deletion2. DNA requires which of the following?A. Sunlight C. Protein synthaseB. Meiotic division D. Many enzymes3. Why is there no duplication of the DNA between meiosis I and meiosis II?A. To produce genetically identical daughter cellsB. To increase genetic variabilityC. To reduce the chromosome number to haploid in the resulting daughter cellsD. The chromosomes duplicate twice during meiosis I.4. The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia is an example ofA. pleiotropy. C. epistasis.B. heterozygous dominance. D. homozygous dominance.5. What is the key difference between mitosis in plant cells and mitosis in animal cells?A. The chromosomes aren't duplicated during interphase in plant cells.B. Animal cell mitosis results in two daughter cells; plant mitosis produces three.C. The two daughter cells formed in plant cell mitosis aren't genetically identical.D. A cell plate is formed during mitosis in plant cells.6. Which of the following genotypes causes Klinefelter syndrome?A. XO C. XXYB. XX D. XYY7. In experiments with Drosophilia, _______ procedures have helped identify many gene functions.A. pattern matching C. homeoticB. knockout D. deleterious8. When you notice that someone has unusually blue eyes, you've noticed theirA. phenotype. C. genotype.B. allele. D. hybridization.9. Why do researchers use DNA polymerase from a bacterium found in superheated water for PCR?A. It's the only bacterium that contains this enzyme.B. It can withstand the elevated temperatures that are required to unwind DNA.

C. DNA must go through high-temperature sterilization before PCA can occur.D. These bacteria contain more DNA polymerase than any other species.10. Why are there so many possible combinations of maternal and paternal traits in each generation of offspring?A. Because there are the same number of chromosomes in each cellB. Because of the random grabbing of chromosomes by the microtubules during metaphase IC. Because of the biological components that chromosomes are made ofD. Because of the high frequency of viral invasion11. Which of the following most contributes to a large variation of traits inherited by an offspring?A. Production of polar bodiesB. A small gene poolC. Homozygous dominanceD. Random shuffling of homologous chromosomes in gamete production12. Which of the following strands of DNA would be the complement strand to C-C-A-T-C-G?A. G-G-T-A-G-C C. A-A-C-G-A-TB. G-G-A-T-G-C D. T-T-G-C-T-A13. Why are there more males with color blindness than females?A. The gene for color blindness is found on the Y chromosome.B. The recessive gene is usually masked by another X chromosome in females.C. Color blindness is an X-linked dominant trait.D. All the sons of an affected male will have the disorder.14. Which of the following would have the same base sequencing in their DNA?A. A male parent and his male offspringB. SiblingsC. Identical twinsD. A female parent and her offspring15. Mitotic division produces two daughter cells with a _______ number of chromosomes, while meiosis produces four daughter cells with a _______ number of chromosomes.A. haploid, diploid B. haploid, haploidC. diploid, haploid D. diploid, diploid16. A recessive allele t is responsible for a condition

called distonia. A man who has this condition marries a woman who doesn't. One of their four children has the condition. What are the possible genotypes of the man and woman?A. The father is Tt; the mother is TT. B. The father is tt; the mother is TT. C. Both parents are tt.D. The father is tt; the mother is Tt.17. Suppose a cell's membrane becomes more permeable than usual and loses some of its proteins. If the cytoskeleton shrinks and becomes disorganized, the cell is probablyA. cancerous.B. ready to begin mitosis.C. being engulfed by a phagocyte.D. shutting down one of its X chromosomes as dosage compensation.18. During meiosis, the chromatids become daughter chromosomes during which stage?A. Prophase I B. Metaphase IIC. Anaphase II D. Telophase I19. If you wanted to produce a certain protein in the laboratory, which of the following would be necessary for establishing the correct amino acid sequence?A. Ribosomal proteins C. rRNAB. mRNA D. Anticodons20. The offspring of two parents that are heterozygous for a given trait have a _______percent chance of being homozygous for that trait.A. 0 C. 50B. 25 D. 10021. If a piece of DNA breaks off a chromosome and attaches itself to a nonhomologous chromosome at another location, what type of change has occurred?A. Translocation C. DeletionB. Duplication D. Inversion

22.If an autosomal recessive disorder which shows Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has an incidence of 1 in 6400 then the frequency of carriers is approximately _______.

a) 1 in 20

b) 1 in 40

c) 1 in 80

d) 1 in 160

23.If an X-linked recessive disorder is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the incidence in males equals 1 in 100, then the expected incidence of affected homozygous females would be _______.

a) 1 in 1000

b) 1 in 4000

c) 1 in 10 000

d) 1 in 40 000

24.Repeat core sequences consisting of 2, 3, or 4 base pairs are known as what?

a) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

b) Microsatellites

c) Minisatellites

d) Satellites

25. With which of the following relatives is an individual most likely to share a common HLA haplotype?

a) Father

b) Mother

c) Sister

d) Son

26. Which of the following disorders is not suitable for population carrier screening?

a) Cystic fibrosis

b) Oculocutaneous albinism

c) Sickle cell disease

d) Tay-Sachs disease

27.Male to male transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?

a) Autosomal dominantb) Autosomal recessivec) X-linked dominantd) X-linked recessive

28.Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance?

a) Autosomal dominantb) Autosomal recessivec) X-linked dominant

d) X-linked recessive29.Which of the following disorders does not show X-linked inheritance?

a) Duchenne muscular dystrophyb) Tay-Sachs diseasec) Haemophilia Ad) Haemophilia B

30. Which of the following would result in Angelman syndrome?

a) Maternal UPD 15b) Paternal UPD 15c) Deletion in the paternally derived chromosome 15d) A mutation in the SNRPN promoter

31. Leber's hereditary optic atrophy is caused by a mutation in:

a) chromosome 12.b) chromosome 18.c) chromosome 21.d) mitochondrial DNA.

32. Why didn't Mendel find linkage?1.Some genes were linked, but they were too close together to cross over.2.All seven genes were on separate chromosomes.3.Mendel did detect linkage. He discovered this genetic phenomenon.4.He didn't execute his crosses correctly, so linkage went undetected.5.Some genes were linked, but they were too far apart for crossing over to be distinguished from independent assortment, or linked genes were never tested for at the same time in the same cross.

33.Given what is known about single, double, and noncrossovers in a three-point map, triple crossovers in a four-point map can be predicted to be __________.

1 more frequent than single crossovers2 more frequent than noncrossovers3 more frequent than double crossovers4 less frequent than single crossovers, but more frequent than double crossovers5 less frequent than all of the above

34. The mutations blistered (bs) and clot (cl) are located on opposite ends of chromosome II in Drosophila. A blistered female is crossed with a clot male. The F1 female is then backcrossed to a blistered

clot male. What ratio will be expected in the offspring of the backcross?

1 9/16 wild: 3/16 blistered: 3/16 clot: 1/16 blistered, clot2 1/2 blistered: 1/2 clot3 2/24 wild: 1/4 blistered: 1/4 clot4 1/4 wild: 1/4 clot: 1/4 blistered: 1/4 blistered, clot5 4/10 blistered: 4/10 clot: 1/10 wild: 1/10 blistered, clot

35. Genes A and B are farther apart than are genes A and C, and all three are linked. What CANNOT be concluded?

1 B might be between A and C.2 C might be between A and B.3 A might be between B and C.4 More crossovers will occur between A and B than between A and C.5 All four statements may be true.

36. Interference in genetics is __________.1 the masking of one gene’s phenotype, due to the expression of another gene2 the phenomenon observed when one recombination event on a chromosome inhibits other closely linked recombination events3 used in “mapping the centromere”4 used in synteny testing

37. LOD scores are used to predict __________.1 crossover frequency2 gene sequence3 gene linkage4 the number of chromosomes in a genome5 the number of genes involved in the expression of a given trait

38. If you have three genes (A, B, and C) linked on the same chromosome, how can you determine the gene order?

1 Look for double crossover phenotypes involving the wild type and mutant alleles of genes A, B, and C.2 Look for single crossover phenotypes involving the wild type and mutant alleles of genes A, B, and C.3 Look for parental phenotypes.4 You cannot determine gene order by looking at the results of a cross.

39. Which of the following is NOT directly related to linkage groups?

1 a group of genes found on the same chromosome2. members of the same family expressing the same trait3 LOD scores4 the number of haploid chromosomes in an organism’s genome

40.Best way to differentiate between homocvstinuria and Marfans syndrome?

a. lens ectopia

b long arms

c autosomal dominant

d lack of thrombosis

e mental retardation

41.Which DNA screening test is the most useful:

a) CFTR

b) Prenatal determination of gender

c) Screening Mediterranean people for thalassaemia

d) Familial adenomatous polyposis coli

42.Prior to genetic testing for Huntington's disease which of the following must be performed first:

a) Examination

b) History taking

c) CT head

d) EEG

e) Genetic counseling

43.What best describes microsatellites:

a) Areas of genomic instability

b) Tandem repeats of up to six base pairs

c) RFLPs

44.Which is the most common laboratory finding in (-thalassaemia carrier (trait):

a) Mild microcytic anaemia

b) Gene deletion

c) Point mutation

d) Translocation

e) Macrocytic anaemia

45.In which of the following is the most commonly identified hereditary defect leading to the development of diabetes:

a) Glucose transporter

b) Glucokinase gene

c) Insulin receptor

d) Insulin

46.DNA imprinting is best described by:

a) Effect of parental gender gene origin on transmission of disease

b) Differential methylation of other allele

c) Altered DNA promoter region

d) ( Maternal option)

e) (Paternal option)

47.Some psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia are thought to have a genetic basis. The strongest supportive evidence for this is:

a) HLA association

b) Monozygotic concordance

c) Dizygotic concordance

d) Family clustering

48.Which of the following is less likely to be found in an example of an X-linked genetic disorder such as haemophilia?

a) male to male transmission

b) female to female transmission

c) consanguinity

d) skipping of generations

e) germinal mosaicism

49.Potential problems in the RFLP analysis

a) non-paternity

b) cross over between linked genes - non predictable

c) not knowing the exact base sequence of the gene (i e. DNA sequence)

d) need family study

e) need to know gene is causative (?need to know causative gene)

50.A child has a rare autosomal recessive condition but only 1 parent is found to be a carrier. This can be explained by

a) uniparental disomy

b) non-paternity

c) germline mosaicism

d) mitochondrial inheritance

e) incomplete penetrance

51.In situ hybridisation:

a.to detect rnRNA for protein products

b.detect location of mRNA in cell

c.method is as sensitive as immunofluorescence methods

52.Concerning mitochondrial DNA:

a. deletions have been demonstrated in human diseases

b.codes for parts of mitochondrial enzymes

c.originates in cell nucleus

d.exhibits RFLP

e.familial pathogenic mutations are always of maternal origin

53.With respect to mRNA, it can be determined by:

a.Southern blot

b.in-situ hybridisation with labelled oligonucleotides

c.Northern blot

d.PCR

e.in-situ hybridisation with labelled DNA probes

54.Which of the following is/are true of genes?

a) Mitochondrial genes are all maternally derived

b) Splicing of introns occurs in mRNA

c) Less than 10% of DNA is translated

d) Oncogenes are normal components of human DNA

e) Oncogenes are activated by the process of chromosomal translocation

55.Which of the following is/are true of genetic linkage?

a) A low lod score indicates linkage of two genes

b) It is distinct from association

c) Autosomal crossovers are equally frequent in males and females

d) Linked gene loci are sometimes on different chromosomes

e) Linkage disequilibrium is used in DNA diagnosis

56.Which of the following diseases can be diagnosed prenatally by DNA diagnostic tests?

a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

b) Cystic fibrosis

c) Sturge-Weber syndrome

d) Haemophiha A

e) Polycystic kidney disease

57.Which of the following is/are true of autosomal

recessive disorders?

All offspring of two individuals with autosomal recessive disorder will be affected

Genetic counselling for members of affected families is based on the assumption that mutation rates are high

58.Both parents heterozygotes for Cystic Fibrosis gene. They have 4 children. Which of the following are true:

a) The chance that no children will be affected is the same as that all children will be affected

b) The probability that no children will be affected is < 5%

c) The most likely outcome is one affected child

d) The chance of 4 affected children

59. _____ An allele is ___.

A. one of the bases in DNA

B. an alternate form of a gene

C. another term for epistasis

D. present only in males and is responsible for sex determination

E. found in mitochondria but not in nuclei

60. _____ What is the probability that on four flips of a coin, heads will occur on three flips and tails on 1?

A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 3/16

D. 1/8

E. insufficient information to answer this

61. _____ What would be the dimensions of a Punnett square for the cross Ww x ww?

A. 4 x 4

B. 2 x 2

C. 2 x 1

D. 1 x 1

62. _____ In dihybrid crosses, the ratio 9:3:3:1 indicates ___.

A. Codominance

B. Independent assortment

C. Intermediate dominance

D. Three alleles for each trait

63. _____In a cross of a round hybrid pea with a true breeding round parent (Ww x WW), what genotypic proportions would be observed in the offspring?

A. Half heterozygous, half homozygous dominant

B. Half round, half wrinkled

C. All heterozygous

D. All round

64 _____ The fundamental Mendelian process which involves the separation of contrasting genetic elements at the same locus would be called ___.

A. segregation

B. independent assortment

C. continuous variation

D. discontinuous variation

E. dominance or recessiveness

65. _____ Probabilities are calculated using the addition rule when they ___.

A. Are equally likely

B. Are independent

C. Are mutually exclusive

D. Occur disproportionately

66. _____ Probabilities are calculated using the multiplication rule when they ___.

A. Are equally likely

B. Are independent

C. Are mutually exclusive

D. Occur disproportionately

67. _____ What ratios typically result from crosses dealing with a single genetic locus?

A. 9:3:3:1, 1:2:1B. 1:1:1:1, 1:4:6:4:1C. 3:1, 1:1, 1:2:1D. 9:7, 12:3:1E. 15:1, 1:268. _____There are three different genotypes resulting from a monohybrid cross. How many different genotypes would there be resulting from a dihybrid cross?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 9

D. 16

69. _____ The base thymine is always paired with ___.

A. Adenine

B. Guanine

C. Cytosine

D. Thymine

70._____ The sequence of one strand of DNA is 5’ TCGATC 3’. The sequence of the complementary strand would be ___.

A. 5’ AGCTAG 3’

B. 5’ TCGATC 3’

C. 5’ CTAGCT 3’

D. 5’ GCTAGC 3’

E. 5’ GATCGA 3

71. _____ Starting with a cross between AA and aa, the proportion of heterozygotes in the F2 progeny will be ___.

A. 1/8

B. 1/4

C. 1/3

D. 1/2

E. All heterozygotes

72. _____ Genotype is to DNA as phenotype is to

A. Genotype

B. Proteins

C. Expressivity

D. RNA

E. Mutation

73. _____ Albinism, lack of pigmentation in humans, results from an autosomal recessive gene designated a. Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child. What is the probability that their next child will be albino? What is the probability that the next child will be an albino girl?

A. 1/2; 1/4

B. 1/4; 1/2

C. 1/4; 1/8

D. 1/8; 1/4

74. _____ Starting with a P generation with the following genotypes (AABB x aabb). Based on classical Mendelian inheritance, what is the expected phenotypic ratio observed among the F2 progeny?

A. 9:3:3:1

B. 1:2:1

C. 3:1

D. 1:1

E. 1:1:1:1

75. _____ In the previous , if A = plain fur and a = spotted fur and B = Long ears and b = short ears, what phenotypic class would be observed in the highest proportion in the F2 generation?

A. spotted - short ears

B. plain - short ears

C. spotted - long ears

D. plain - long ears

76. _____ A species of mice can have gray or black fur and long or short tails. A cross between black-furred, long-tailed mice and gray-furred, short-tailed mice produce all black-furred, long-tailed offspring. Using the gene symbols G for black, g for gray, S for long and s for short, what would be the genotype of a gray-furred, short-tailed mouse?

A. GGSS

B. ggSS

C. ggss

D. GgSs

E. Ggss

77. _____ Referring to 18, how many different gametes will the black-furred, long-tailed P1 mice produce?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 16

78. _____ Referring to 18, how many different gametes do the black-furred, long-tailed F1 mice produce?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 16

79. _____ What would be the dimensions of a Punnett Square depicting a dihybrid cross?

A. 1 x 4

B. 2 x 4

C. 4 x 4

D. 2 x 2.

80. _____ What would be the minimum dimensions of a Punnett square of a test cross with a dihybrid parent who is heterozygous at both loci?

A. 4 x 4

B. 4 x 1

C. 2 x 4

D. 4 x 2

E. 2 x 2

81. _____ To determine if an organism with a dominant phenotype is heterozygous, one can perform a ___.

A. reciprocal cross

B. dihybrid cross

C. test cross

82. _____ In a F1 dihybrid cross (WwGg X WwGg) where W = round, w = wrinkled, G = yellow and g = green, what is the probability of obtaining an individual that is wrinkled, green and true-breeding?

A. 1/16

B. 1/2

C. 9/16

D. 3/16

E. 1/4

83. _____ What genotype is present most often among the progeny (F2) of a dihybrid cross (AaBb X AaBb)?

A. AaBb

B. AABb

C. AABB

D. aabb

E. AAbb

84. _____ Barney and Betty are about to have their first child. They both have "normal" feet but Barney's father has flat feet and Betty has a child from a previous marriage who has flat feet. What is the

probability that they will have a boy with flat feet?

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 1/8

D. 3/4

E. 3/8

85. _____ In the previous , Barney and Betty learn that they will actually have twins - dizygotic twins. What is the probability that they will have both a boy and a girl, both of whom are flat footed?

A. 1/4

B. 1/8

C. 1/16

D. 1/32

E. 1/64

86. _____ Microbiologist who demonstrated that DNA was the genetic material.

A. Oswald Avery

B. Herbert Boyer

C. Rosalind Franklin

D. Barbara McClintock

E. James Watson

87. _____ Geneticist who discovered genes that could actually "move" from generation to generation.

A. Oswald Avery

B. Herbert Boyer

C. Rosalind Franklin

D. Barbara McClintock

E. James Watson

88. _____ Biochemist who discovered restriction endonucleases, one of the key tools for genetic engineering.

A. Oswald Avery

B. Herbert Boyer

C. Rosalind Franklin

D. Barbara McClintock

E. James Watson

89_____The base thymine is always paired with ___.

A. AdenineB. GuanineC. CytosineD. Thymine

90 _____The sequence of one strand of DNA is 5’ TCGATC 3’. The sequence of the complementary strand would be

A. 5’ AGCTAG 3’B. 5’ TCGATC 3’C. 5’ CTAGCT 3’D. 5’ GCTAGC 3’E. 5’ GATCGA 3

91 _____ DNA polymerase III is thought to add nucleotides

A. to the 5' end of the RNA primerB. to the 3' end of the RNA primerC. in the place of the primer RNA after it is

removedD. on single stranded templates without need

for an RNA primerE. in the 3' to 5' direction

92 _____ DNA replication in vivo is discontinuous due to

A. polymerase slippageB. trinucleotide repeatsC. being restricted to synthesis in the 5' to 3'

directionD. topoisomerases cutting the DNA in a random

fashionE. sister chromatid exchange

93 _____ Considering the structure of double stranded DNA, what kinds of bonds hold one complementary strand to the other?

A. ionicB. covalentC. Van der WaalsD. hydrogenE. hydrophobic and hydrophilic

94_____ The presence of a ___ with a free 3'-OH group is essential for DNA polymerase to synthesize DNA since no known DNA polymerase is able to

initiate chains.

A. origin of replicationB. restriction endonucleaseC. palindromeD. primerE. promoter