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Mock TestWBCS Mains, 2018

Conducted by - SI Classses

1. Paper III 2. Paper IV 3. Paper V4. Paper VI

Question Papers with Answers:

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1. “There has been no revolt like that which happened in the last three years. We are proud of the response of the movement.” The above opinion of Vallabhbhai Patel refers to – (A) Swadeshi Movement (B) Non-Cooperation Movement (C) Civil Disobedience Movement (D) Quit India Movement

2. Which of the following is not one of the ‘Three Jewels’ of Buddhism? (A) Buddha (B) Ahimsa (C) Dhamma (D) Sangha

3. Pick the wrong pair from the following – (A) Belan Valley - Uttar Pradesh (B) Pravara Valley - Rajasthan (C) Soan Valley - Madhya Pradesh (D) Hiran Valley - Saurashtra

4. Who conveyed to the Indians – "I am with you wholeheartedly and in terms of culture I am one of you?” (A) Annie Besant (B) Badruddin Tyabji (C) George Yule (D) Sir William Wedderburn

5. Who among Ashoka’s queen injured the Bodhi tree, being jealous of king’s devotion to it? (A) Ashandhimitta (B) Tishyaraksha (C) Devi (D) Padmavati

6. Who is generally acknowledged as the pioneer of local self-government in modern India? (A) Ripon (B) Mayo (C) Lytton (D) Curzon

7. The Dandi Salt March was notable for 1. It was this event that first brought Mahatma Gandhi to world attention 2. It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers 3. It forced upon the British the realisation that their Raj would not last forever, and that they would have to devolve some power to the Indians

Answer choices (A) 1 & 3 Only (B) 2 &3 Only (C) 1 & 2 Only (D) 1, 2 & 3

8. Sarojini Naidu was elected Congress President at: (A) Haripura, 1938 (B) Bombay, 1934 (C) Madras Session, 1927 (D) Kanpur Session, 1925

9. The name Ashoka is explicitly mentioned in – (A) three recenssions (at Maski, Gujarra and Nittur) of the First Minor Rock Edict. (B) two versions (at Nittur and Udegolam) of Second Minor Rock Edict. (C) Both of them (D) None of the above

10. Arrange the following events in the order of their chronology: 1. August Offer 2. Poona Pact 3. Third Round Table Conference Choose the correct option: (A) 1-2-3 (B) 2-3-1 (C) 2-1-3 (D) 3-2-1

11. Tathagat in Buddhism meant - (A) one who renounced worldly life (B) one who overcame desires (C) one who followed the middle path (D) one who attained the truth

12. Consider the following landmarks in Indian education: 1. Hindu College, Calcutta 2. University of Calcutta 3. Adam's Report 4. Wood's Despatch The correct chronological order of these landmarks is: (A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 1, 4, 3, 2 (C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (D) 3, 2, 4, 1

13. Pataliputra was the capital of which among the following dynasties – (A) Gupta (B) Kanva (C) Shunga (D) All of them

14. Which of the following was not included in the terms of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact? (A) Immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted for violence (B) Payment of suitable compensation to the released prisoners (C) Return of confiscated land not yet sold to third parties (D) Remission of all fines yet not collected

15. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the epithet ‘Lok- Manya’ during (A) Swadeshi Movement (B) Revolutionary Movement (C) Home Rule Movement (D) Quit India Movement

Answer Key: Mock Test

WBCS (EXE.) ETC. Examination (Mains), 2018 PAPER III

Full Marks: 200 Test Code: M1803 Date:20/05/2018 Time: 3 hours

Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3rd marks will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

Test Booklet Series

A



A

16. Who among the following visited Gandhiji in South Africa? (A) B. G. Tilak (B) Vallabhbhai Patel (C) G.K. Gokhale (D) J.L. Nehru

17. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice President of the Executive Council was: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (C) C. Rajagopalachari (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

18. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (A) 'Neel Darpan' was a play based on the exploitation of the Indigo farmers (B) The author of the play 'Ghashiram Kotwal's is Vijay Tendulkar (C) The play 'Navann' by Nabin Chandra Das was based on the famine of Bengal (D) Urdu theatre used to depend heavily on Parsi theatre

19. Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule: 1. Lord Curzon 2. Lord Chelmsford 3. Lord Hardinge 4. Lord Irwin Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure? (A) 1, 3, 2, 4 (B) 2, 4, 1, 3 (C) 1, 4, 2, 3 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4

20. The system of competitive examination for civil service was accepted in principle in the year (A) 1833 (B) 1853 (C) 1858 (D) 1882

21. Among the seven element of the state, according to Kautilya’s Saptanga Theory, ‘svamin’ means – (A) army (B) minister or high official (C) king (D) territory and population

22. Who among the said, “My boy, no, you are an Indian first and then a Muslim”? (A) Abul Kalam Azad (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (D) Syed Ahmad Khan

23. Who among the following was a prominent leader of the Congress Socialist Party? (A) M.N. Roy (B) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi (C) Pattam Thanu Pillai (D) Acharya Narendra Dev

24. Which Magadhan ruler is said to have fallen in love with Amrapali, a famous dancer of Vaishali? (A) Bindusara (B) Mahapadmananda (C) Ajatasatru (D) Sisunaga

25. Mahatma Gandhi owed his inspiration for civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes to (A) Thoreau (B) Leo Tolstoy (C) John Ruskin (D) G K Gokhale

26. The war of Haldighati was fought by the Mughal ruler with which of the following ruler? (A) Shivaji (B) Maharana Pratap (C) Raja Bhara Mal (D) Rana Sunga

27. Which of the following officials was responsible to look after the imperial household of Mughal Empire? (A) Mir Bakhshi (B) Mir Saman (C) Diwan (D) Mansbdar

28. The famous revolutionary song ‘Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil mein hai…’ was composed by – (A) Bhagat Singh (B) Khudiram Bose (C) Chandrassekhar Azad (D) Ramprasad Bismil

29. Which of the following leader never became the president of Indian National Congress? (A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) J L Nehru (C) Motilal Nehru (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

30. Who was the Mughal ruler during the Battle of Plassey? (A) Shah Alam II (B) Alamgir II (C) Bahadur Shah Jafar (D) Faruksiyar

31. Sir Charles Wood, who drafted the Education Dispatch of 1854, was the then (A) Secretary of state of India (B) President of the Court of Directors (C) President of the Board of Control (D) Prime Minister of England

32. During the region of Jahangir, the title of Nadir-ul-Asr was given to – (A) Mir Sayyid Ali (B) Abdus Samad (C) Abul Hasan (D) Ustad Manur

33. Tolkappiyam is associated with the (A) First Sangam period (B) Second Sangam period (C) Third Sangam period (D) Post-third Sangam period

34. Who was elected as the permanent President of the Muslim League in 1908? (A) Nawab Salimullah (B) Syed Ahmad Khan (C) Aga Khan (D) Syen Amir Ali

35. Which of the following were French visitors to the Mughal Empire, all of whom were in India in 1666? 1. Bernier 2. Thevenot 3. Tavernier 4. Manucci 5. Ralph Fitch Select the answer from the codes given below: (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of them

36. The All-India Khilafat Conference was held in 1919 at – (A) Lucknow (B) Delhi (C) Aligarh (D) Porbandar



A

37. During whose reign Malik Mohammad Jayasi composed ‘Padmavat’? (A) Humayun (B) Sher Shah (C) Akbar (D) Jahangir

38. Who among the following Buddhist scholars was not patronized by Kanishka? (A) Asvaghosha (B) Vasumitra (C) Nagarjuna (D) Vasugupta

39. In the 3rd Battle of Panipat(1761), who led the Marathas? (A) Madhava Rao (B) Balaji Vishwanath (C) Sadashiva Rao (D) Nana Saheb

40. “The king was freed from his people and they from their king” – On whose death did Badauni comment this? (A) Balban (B) Alauddin Khalji (C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

41. The first Sangam was presided over by – (A) Skanda (B) Tolkappiyar (C) Vasistha (D) Agastya

42. Who organized the society called Abhinav Bharat? (A) Ajit Singh (B) Har Dayal (C) Shyamji Krishna Varma (D) V D Savarkar

43. The dockyard at Lothal was well connected through a channel to the river – (A) Narmada (B) Bhima (C) Bhogava (D) Tapti

44. Which of the following texts shows that symbolic sati was practiced by the Aryns? (A) Rig Veda (B) Yajur Veda (C) Atharva Veda (D) Aitareya Brahmana

45. By whom the first republic of the world was established in Vaishali? (A) Maurya (B) Nanda (C) Gupta (D) Lichhavi

46. Which of the following first suggested boycott of British goods in Bengal? (A) Aurobindo Ghosh’s journal ‘Bande Mataram’ (B) Krishna Kumar Mitra’s weekly ‘Sanjivani’ (C) Motilal Ghosh’s ‘Amrit Bazar Patrika’ (D) Satish Chandra Mukherjee’s ‘Dawn’

47. Mrichhakatika was written by – (A) Vishakadutta (B) Sudraka (C) Kalhana (D) Banabhatta

48. In which century did Fahien visited India? (A) 4th century AD (B) 5th century AD (C) 6th century AD (D) 7th century AD

49. Which of the following animals is not found in the Sarnath Pillar of Ashoka? (A) Bull (B) Horse (C) Elephant (D) Tiger

50. Which of the following was decided the fate of the French in India? (A) Battle of Wandiwash (B) First Carnatic War (C) Battle of Buxar (D) Battle of Plassey

51. Microliths are tools of – (A) Palaeolithic Age (B) Mesolithic Age (C) Neolithic Age (D) Chalcolithic Age

52. The King who built the ‘Sun Temple of Konark’ was from (A) Rastrakuta dynasty (B) Ganga dynasty

(C) Pallava dynasty (D) none of these

53. ‘The Economic History of India’ was published by – (A) Dadabhai Naorji (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (C) Mahadev Govind Ranade (D) Romesh Chandra Dutt

54. Out of the battles fought between contemporary rulers and Babur, which among the following resulted in the firm establishment of Babur’s rule in North India? (A) Battle of Panipat (B) Battle of Khanva (C) Battle of Ghagra (D) Second Battle of Panipat

55. Consider the following statements: Kesab Chandra Sen encouraged 1. remarriage of widows 2. inter-caste marriage 3. abolition of the Purdah System 4. higher university education for women Which of the statements given above are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. First capital of the Delhi sultanate was – (A) Agra (B) Delhi (C) Lahore (D) none of these

57. Who among the following said, “For me every tiniest activity is governed by what I consider to be my religion”? (A) Swami Vivekananda (B) V D Savarkar (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Subhas Chandra Bose

58. The silver coin which was introduced by Sher Shah and continued by the Mughals was (A) Rupaya (B) Dinar (C) Asharfi (D) Muhar

59. In which language did Babur write his memoirs, called Tuzuk-i-Baburi? (A) Persian (B) Arabic (C) Urdu (D) Turkish

60. Which of the following dynasties did not take part in the triangular conflict for the control of Kanauj? (A) Palas (B) Challukyas



A

(C) Pratiharas (D) Rashtrakutas

61. Who among the following established the Mohammedan Literary Society in 1863 at Calcutta? (A) Nawab Abdul Latif (B) Syed Amin Ali (C) Shariatulla (D) Dr. Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari

62. Consider the following statements: Cornwallis’ Permanent Settlement of Bengal 1. deprived the zamindars of ownership of their land 2. put the ryots under the mercy of the zamindars 3. secured a stable income for the company 4. made zamindars allies of the East India Company Which of the above are correct? (A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2

63. ‘Free Hindustan’ was published by Taraknath Das from (A) London (B) San Francisco (C) Vancouver (D) Berlin

64. Which of the following statement is correct? (A) Dholavira is the latest discovered site of Indus Valley Civilization. (B) Bones of Camel was discovered at Lothal. (C) The biggest Harappa Civilization site is Rakhigarhi. (D) Cultivation of Sugarcane was prevalent at Harappa.

65. Which of the following newspapers/journals was from Maharashtra? (A) Kranti (B) Atmashakti (C) Sarathi (D) Sandhya

66. Who among the following did not attend the first session of the Indian National Congress at Bombay? (A) W C Bonnerjee (B) S N Banerjee (C) Badruddin Tyabji (D) K T Telang

67. Who among the following put forwarded the proposal of August Offer in 1940? (A) Wavell (B) Linlithgow (C) Willington (D) Brabourne

68. Which one of the following Saint's name is associated with Shivaji? (A) Ramanand (B) Ram Das (C) Chaitanya (D) Tukaram

69. Which of the following Sikh Guru compiled the Sikh scripture called the Adi Granth Saheb? (A) Guru Arjun Singh (B) Guru Har Govind Singh (C) Guru Ram Das (D) Guru Govinda Singh

70. Who bestowed the title of ‘Sakalauttarapathanatha’ to Harshavardhana? (A) Xuanzang (B) Pulkesin II (C) Pravakarvardhana (D) Shashanka

71. Which of the following Sultans of Delhi implemented the Iranian Theory of Divine Rights which said that Sultan is the representative of God on Earth? (A) Iltutumish (B) Balban

(C) Alauddin Khilji (D) Mohammad Tughlaq

72. Which of the following is not correct about early Vedic period? (A) The cow was held sacred. (B) Rig Vedic Aryans fought for cows and these fights were known as gavisti. (C) Beef was offered to the guests as delicious food. (D) The early Aryans led the life of a hunter-gatherer.

73. Who is the author of the Jaina Kalpasutra? (A) Sthulabhadra (B) Bhadrabahu (C) Sambhutavijaya (D) Vashumitra

74. Who founded the Fort William College at Calcutta? (A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Lord Ellenborogh (C)Lord Macaulay (D) Lord Wellesley

75. Who among the following rejected the title of ‘Knight Hood’ and refused to accept a position in the council of the Secretary of State for India? (A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) M G Ranade (C) G K Gokhle (D) B G Tilak

76. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Theodore Beck : Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College, Aligarh 2. Ilbert Bill : Ripon 3. Pherozeshah Mehta : Indian National Congress 4. Badruddin Tyabji : Muslims League Select the

Correct answer using the codes given below: Codes: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3

77. Who suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy Executive Council in which all the Portfolios including that of War Members were to be held by the Indian leaders? (A) Simon Commission (B) Simla Conference (C) Cripps Proposal (D) Cabinet Mission

78. With reference to Simon Commission's recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct? (A) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces (B) It proposed the setting up of interprovincial council under the home department (C) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the centre (D) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits

79. The Delhi general who successfully advanced up to Madurai was (A) Khizr Khan (B) Muhammad Ghori



A

(C) Malik Kafur (D) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

80. Who among the following Indian rulers was a contemporary of Akbar? (A) Rani Durgawati (B) Raja Sawai Jai Singh (C) Ahilya Bai (D) Martanda Varma

81. Consider the following statement: “We shall sendyou figs and the wine, but in Greece the forbid a sophist to be sold.” Who wrote this to whom? (A) SeleucusNikator to Chandragupta Maurya (B) Antiochus I to Bindusara (C) AntigonusGonata to Asoka (D) Alexander to Bindusara

82. Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular indignation that led to the massacre by the British at Jallianwala Bagh? (A) The Arms Act (B) The Public Safety Act (C) The Rowlatt Act (D) The Vernacular Press Act

83. Which among the following foreign travellers is not correctly paired with their respective period of visit in India? (A) Fa Hien – Gupta Period (B) Hiuen Tsang – Post Gupta Period (C) Al Beruni – Early Medieval Period (D) Ibn Batutta – Mughal Period

84. Who among the following is popularly known as ‘Periyer’? (A) C V Raman Pillai (B) C N Mudaliar (C) E V Ramaswamy Naicker (D) K Ramakrishna Pillai

85. Patanjali, the second great grammarian of Ancient India, was a contemporary of (A) Kanishka (B) Chandragupta-II (C) Gautamiputra Satakarni (D) Pushyamitra Sunga

86. Which of the following pairs (Buddha’s Life-events and symbol) is wrongly matched? (A) Birth – Lotus and bull (B) Great Renunciation - Horse (C) Nirvana – Bodhi tree (D) Death – Wheel

87. Which among the following statements is/are correct? (A) James Prinsep deciphered Brahmi script in 1837. (B) Wilkins translated Abhijnan-Shakuntalam into English in 1789. (C) William Jones translated the Bhagwat Gita into English in 1784. (D) All of the above

88. According to the Junagarh Rock Inscription, who constructed a lake in Saurashtra region called Sudarshana Lake for irrigation purpose? (A) Harshavardhan (B) Samudragupta (C) Chandragupta Maurya (D) Ashoka

89. Consider the following statements: The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he 1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British 2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians 3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

90. Consider the following statements: 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of the peasants. 2. Acharya J.B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi's colleagues in his Champaran investigation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

91. Ashtapadhan was a council of ministers in the – (A) Gupta administration (B) Chola administration (C) Vijaynagar admistration (D) Maratha administration

92. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because (A) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations (B) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion (C) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award (D) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

93. The book ‘Milindapanho’ which talks about the conversion of Menander to Buddhism by Nagasena was written in (A) Pali (B) Prakrit (C) Sanskrit (D) Greek



A

94. Which of the following was also called as ‘Gagging Act’? (A) Arms Act (1878) (B) Vernacular Press Act (1878) (C) Rowlatt Act (1919) (D) Factory Act (1881)

95. Who among the following Mauryan rulers did conquer the Deccan? (A) Ashoka (B) Chandragupta Maurya (C) Bindusara (D) Kunala

96. The Illbert Bill controversy was related to the (A) Imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians (B) Imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages (C) Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrate with regard to the trial of Europeans (D) Removal of duty on imported cotton cloth

97. Which of the following Sufi saints was known as ‘Chiragi-Delhi’? (A) KhwajaMuinuddinChisti (B) NizamuddinAuliya (C) Shaikh NasiruddinMahmud (D) KhwajaQutubuddinBakhtiyar Kaki

98. The contemporary source that provides statistical data immensely valuable to the study of economy of the Mughal Empire is the (A) Tabaqat-i-Akbari (B) Aini-Akbari (C) Tuhfah-i-Akbarshahi (D) Badshahnama

99. In 1943, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose proclaimed the formation of the Provisional Government of Independent India (Azad Hind) in (A) Singapore (B) Tokyo (C) Rangoon (D) Imphal

100. Consider the following statements and identify the ‘he’ 1. He served before as regent to the earlier king. 2. He established the military department Diwan-i-Arz 3. He introduced the festival of Nauroz and Sajda and Paibos. (A) Iltutmish (B) Balban (C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (D) Alauddin Khalji

101. The Salal Project is situated on which river?

(A) Jhelum (B) Ravi

(C) Chenab (D) Sutlej

102. What is the correct sequence of the rivers in the descending order of their lengths? (A) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi (B) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi (C) Godavari-Narmada-Tapi -Mahanadi (D) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi

103. The number of National park in west Bengal is (A) 4 (B) 6

(C) 8 (D) 10

104. Which of the following rivers originate from Amarkant plateau? (A) Tapi & Son (B) Son & Brahmaputra (C) Narmada &Tapi (D) Narmada & Son

105. The McMahon Line separates_____ (A) Sikkim & China (B) Himachal Pradesh & China (C) Uttarakhand & China (D) Arunachal Pradesh & China

106. The principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places? (A) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka (B) Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan (C) Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh (D) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar

107. Which part of India is worst affected by tropical cyclones? (A) West coastal plain (B) East coastal plain (C) Deccan plateau (D) Gangetic plain

108. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (A) Himalayas Tertiary: Fold Mountain (B) Deccan Trap: Volcanic fissure eruption (C) Western Ghats: Palaeozoic fold mountains (D) Aravalli: Pre Cambrian Relict Mountain

109. Which port is said to be developed as the first green port of India? (A) Kandla port (B) Vishakhapatnam port (C) Haldia port (D) Jawaharlal Nehru port

110. Which of the following soil is very hard to cultivate? (A) Black (B) Red (C) Alluvial (D) Sandy

111. The most abundant gas emitted from volcanoes is (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Nitrogen (C) Helium (D) Water vapour

112. Select the correct sequence in the chronological order of the following Greeks who have contributed vastly to the evolution of geographical thought during the ancient period: (A) Aristotle-Eratosthenes-Anaximander-Ptolemy (B) Eratosthenes-Anaximander-Ptolemy-Aristotle (C) Anaximander-Aristotle-Eratosthenes-Ptolemy (D) Ptolemy-Anaximander-Aristotle-Eratosthenes

113. Which is the right bank tributary of Godavari? (A) Amravati (B) Arunavati (C) Barna (D) Manjira

114. The Palghat Gap serves inland communications from (A) Panaji to Kochi



A

(B) Kochi to Chennai (C) Mangalore to Mumbai (D) Madurai to Thiruvananthapuram

115. Where is the Muruguma Dam situated (A) Bankura (B) Purulia (C) West Midnapore (D) Purba Bardhaman

116. Indian subcontinent lies between _______and _______Longitudes

(A) 8°4' & 37°6' n (B) 68°7'E & 97°25'E (C) 8°4'E & 97°6'E (D) 68°7'N & 37°6'N

117. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (A) LANDSAT is a geo-stationary satellite (B) IRS is a sun-synchronous satellite (C) INSAT is a geo-stationary satellite (D) SPOT is a sun-synchronous satellite

118. Where would you find the Arabari Forest Range? (A) East Midnapore (B) Jalpaiguri (C) South 24 Parganas (D) West Midnapore

119. Which wildlife sanctuary is known as “Deer Park” (A) Ballabhpur wildlife sanctuary (B) Bibhutibhusan wildlife sanctuary (C) Chapramari wildlife sanctuary (D) Bethuadahari wildlife sanctuary

120. Which one of the following National Highway has crossed Farakka Barrage? (A) NH 31 (B) NH 6 (C) NH 40 (D) NH 34

121. 'Canada Dam' is associated with the project named__ (A) Damodar (B) Kansabati (C) Mayurakshi (D) Jaldhaka

122. Which of the following cities has maximum northern latitude? (A) Ranchi (B) Dhanbad (C) Jamshedpur (D) Barddhaman

123. Zaskar, Nubra and Shyok are tributaries of (A) Satluj (B) Brahmaputra (C) Indus (D) Chenab

124. In which one of the following is the Himalayan pass Shipki La located? (A) Chandra valley (B) Hunza valley (C) Nubra valley (D) Sutlej valley

125. What kind of climate do you find in the Andaman and Nicobar Island? (A) Wet & dry (B) Littoral climate (C) Tropical climate (D) Sub tropical climate

126. Which one of the following does not share boundaries with Bangladesh? (A) Meghalaya (B) Tripura (C) Mizoram (D) Nagaland

127. How many states have “Bay of Bengal” as their Boundary?

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

128. Silver revolution is related to which of the following? (A) Egg and Poultry (B) Milk Production (C) Cotton (D) Jute

129. Which of the following states has the longest Time Difference (Longest and Shortest day)? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) J&K (D) Gujarat

130. Swttwe multimodal Transport corridor runs through (A) Swttwe port to Manipur (B) Swttwe port to Aizal (C) Meghalaya to Mizoram (D) Monipur to Meghalaya

131. Which of the following place has never got the vertical rays of the Sun? (A) Srinagar (B) Mumbai (C) Chennai (D) Thiruvananthapuram

132. High temperature and low pressure over the Indian Subcontinent during the summer seasons draws air from the Indian Ocean leading to the blowing of the (A) South-east monsoon (B) South-west monsoon (C) Trade winds (D) Westerlies

133. What makes the Ankleshwar famous? (A) Coal mining (B) Exploration of oil and natural gas (C) Iron and steel industries (D) Cotton textile industries

134. Which one of the following sectors has the greater proportion of the total water used in India? (A) Domestic use (B) Irrigation (C) Industries (D) Mining and coal field

135. Which of the following statement is not true? (A) Garo hills received more rainfall in a single day than received by jaisalmer in a long span of ten years (B) The Garo-Rajmahal gap separates the Meghalaya plateau from the main block of peninsular plateau (C) Jaisalmer expects Max diurnal range of temperature. (D) Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are the prominent ranges; starting from east to west in Deccan Plateau

136. Which of the following river join the Brahmaputra river from the south? (A) Belsiri (B) Subansiri (C) Dhansiri (D) Sankosh

137. Which mountains lie to the east side of Himachal Pradesh and northern side of Uttarakhand? (A) Zaskar (B) Aghil (C) Himalayas (D) Kunlun



A

138. Geographically, which is the oldest part of India? (A) The Deccan Plateau (B) The Coastal Plains (C) The Peninsular Plateau (D) North Indian Plains

139. Which Indian River does the Beas meet at Harike? (A) Indus (B) Jhelum (C) Chenab (D) Satluj

140. Mullaperiyar Dam has been a long pending issue between which of the following two states? (A) Karnataka & Kerala (B)Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (C) Karnataka & Tamil Nadu (D) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

141. Mohammed bazaar of Birbhum is famous for (A) China clay (B) Lime stone (C) Dolomite (D) None of these

142. The oldest rocks in India are reported from (A) Shivalik range, Punjab (B) Dharwar region, Karnataka (C) Aravalli range, Rajasthan

(D) Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh

143. Nathpa Jhakri hydel power project is located on ………………. river (A) Ganga (B) Brahmaputra

(C) Satluj (D) Yamuna

144. Which of the following passes cuts through the Pir- Panjal range and links Manali and Leh by road? (A) Rohtas Pass (B) Mana Pass (C) Niti Pass (D) Nathula Pass

145. Find out the correct sequence of the Himalayan peaks in descending order of highest above sea level? (A) Kanchenjunga, Dhaulagiri, Annapurna Nanda Devi (B) Kanchenjunga, Annapurna, Nanda Devi, Dhaulagiri (C) Kanchenjunga, Annapurna, Dhaulagiri, Nanda Devi, (D) Kanchenjunga, Nanda Devi, Annapurna, Dhaulagiri,

146. Port Blair is situated in (A) North Andaman (B) South Andaman (C) Middle Andaman (D) Little Andaman

147. Shimla hill station belongs to which part of the Himalayan ranges (A) Lesser Himalayas (B) Inner Himalayas (C) Greater Himalayas (D) Shiwaliks

148. Which of the following is not the other name of the Mount Everest? (A) The goddess of the sky (B) Goddess mother of the world (C) Peak XV (D) All of the above is the meaning of the other name of the Mount Everest

149. Which of the following city is known as world’s largest producer and most important trading centre of turmeric in Asia? (A) Thanjavur (B) Kochi (C) Madurai (D) Erode

150. Which among the following is the only place in India, where Chinese Fishing Nets are used? (A) Kolkata (B) Bhubaneswar (C) Pondicherry (D) Kochi

151. Which of the following statement is not true? (A) West Bengal is the fourth-most-populous state (B) Temple of Bishnupur in Bankura, one of the older examples of the terracotta arts of India (C) There are 23 districts and 5 divisions in West Bengal. (D) The part of Malda lying to the south of river Kalindi is known as tal.

152. From where does the Chenab originate? (A) Rohtang Pass (B) Khardung La (C) Nathu La (D) Bara Lacha Pass

153. Which one of the following is a key concept in humanistic geography? (A) Development and quality of life (B) Spatial location (C) Spatial concentration (D) Geographical distribution

154. Which of the following statement is not correct? (A) West Bengal is the sixth-largest state economy in India (B) At least nine districts in West Bengal suffer from arsenic contamination of groundwater (C) 3.26% of the geographical area of West Bengal is protected land (D) All of the above statements are correct

155. The Western Ghats region runs to a length of 1600 kilometres. Which among the following states are covered by the Western Ghats? (A) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, Goa (C) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra (D) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra, Gujarat

156. The K2 Peak is located in which among the following ranges? (A) Central Himalayas (B) Trans-Himalayas (C) Karakoram Range (D) Kumaun Himalayas

157. ”Pipavav” in Gujarat is best known for which among the following? (A) India’s First ship breaking yard (B) India’s First Greenfield refinery (C) India’s first private port (D) None of the above

158. Coal, iron ore, petroleum, diesel etc. are the examples of (A) Biotic resources (B) Abiotic resources (C) Renewable resources (D) Non-renewable resources



A

159. The Kharif crops sown in which months? (A) March-April (B) July-October (C) October-November (D) January-February

160. Which one of the following term is used to identify the old and new alluvial respectively? (A) Khadas & Tarai (B) Tarai & Bangar (C) Bangar & Khadar (D) Tarai & Dvars

161. Chenab River also known as Chandrabhaga forms with the merging of Chandra and Bhaga Rivers near which among the following places? (A) Leh (B) Lahaul & Spiti (C) Sri Nagar (D) Mithankot

162. At which among the following places, Asia’s first EPZ (Export Processing Zone) was set up in 1965? (A) Surat (B) Cochin (C) Kandla (D) Chennai

163. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip? (A) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary (B) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary & National Park (C) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary (D) Simlipal National Park

164. Which one of the following mountain peaks of Himalayas is NOT in India? (A) Annapurna (B) Nanda Devi (C) Mt. Kamet (D) Kanchenjunga

165. Which of the following States has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste? (A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) M. P (D) Punjab

166. Most Indians belong to the group_________ (A) Caucasoid (B) Mongoloid (C) Australoid (D) Negroid

167. Which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? (A) Sand deserts of northwest India (B) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir (C) Salt marshes of western Gujarat (D) Western Ghats

168. The Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli lies between which of the following states of India? (A) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh (B) Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh (C) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra (D) Gujarat and Maharashtra

169. Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaking? (A) Cauvery and Tungabhadra (B) Godavari and Krishna (C) Mahanadi and Son (D) Narmada and Tapti

170. The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as: (A) Valley (B) Coast (C) Passes (D) Duns

171. Which of the following mountain ranges forms a dividing line between the Ganges Plain and the Deccan Plateau? (A) Aravalli (B) Vindhya (C) Satpura (D) Ajanta

172. Which among the following is the most optimum place to source Geothermal Energy? (A) Konkan coast (B) Ladakh district (C) Aravali hills (D) Coromandal Coast

173. In 2011, ONGC discovered India’s first shale gas reserve in which among the following states? (A) Assam (B) Gujarat (C) West Bengal (D) Maharashtra

174. Which of the following ranges are not parts of the Himachal? (A) Pir Panjal (B) Kamet (C) Mahabharata (D) Dhaula Dhar

175. Which of the two states does river Kaveri pass through? (A) Telangana and Karnataka (B) Andhra Pradesh and Kerala (C) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (D) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

176. Which of the following is/are the key part of India's three stage nuclear power programme? (A) Thorium-based fuels (B) To design for an atomic reactor using thorium and low-enriched uranium (C) To develop a prototype atomic reactor using thorium and low-enriched uranium (D) All of the above

177. The National Waterway 1 or NW1 is runs from Haldia to Allahabad across from which of the following river system? (A) The Brahmaputra, Sadiya-Dhubri (B) The Ganga, Haldia-Allahabad (C) West Coast Canal, Kottapuram to Kollam (D) None of the above

178. Which of the following regions does not receives much rainfall in the south-west monsoon season? (A) Chota Nagpur plateau (B) Eastern Himalayas (C) Tamil Nadu coast (D) Maharashtra

179. Which one of the following is the largest linguistic group of India? (A) Sino – Tibetan (B) Indo – Aryan (C) Austria (D) Dravidian

180. Which one of the following Indian state has the highest rank in the Human Development Index? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Gujarat (C) Kerala (D) Jammu & Kashmir



A

181. Which of the following is the largest fresh water lake of India? (A) Dal lake (B) Wular Lake (C) Loktak Lake (D) Kolleru Lake

182. Kunchikal falls are located in which of the following States in India? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Karnataka (D) Chhattisgarh

183. South-west monsoon reaches Kerala coast by the end of May, Konkan coast in early June and extends over entire country by: (A) Early September (B) Mid-August (C) August (D) End of July

184. Which of the following reason for the tropical climate of India? (A) Seasonal influence of jet streams (B) Location of the Himalayas in its north (C) Over-powering influence of Indian Ocean (D) Country being a part of Asian landmass

185. Select the correct Increasing order of the hill stations on the basis of heights: - (A) Darjeeling, Srinagar, Leh, Simla (B) Srinagar, Darjeeling, Simla, Leh (C) Srinagar, Leh, Simla, Darjeeling (D) Simla, Srinagar, Leh, Darjeeling

186. “Everything else can wait, but not agriculture”Which among the following leaders is noted for the above famous statement in context with agriculture in India? (A) Sardar Balwant Singh (B) Sardar Patel (C) Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Mahatma Gandhi

187. Which of the following about Cencus-2011 is/are correct? 1. UP has the highest rural population. 2. UP has the highest scheduled caste population. 3. UP has the highest scheduled tribe population. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

188. Sundarbans National Park was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in the year of (A) 19886 (B) 1987 (C) 1989 (D) 1991

189. Plasto Steel Park is established in which district of West Bengal? (A) Burdwan (B) Bankura (C) Howrah (D) Purulia

190. At which among the following places, Brahamputra takes a U-turn at the time of entering into India? (A) Kula Kangri (B) Lunpo Gangri (C) Namcha Barwa (D) Noijin Kangsang

191. Apart from Karnataka, which among the following state has reported production of Gold in India? (A) Orissa (B) Jharkhand

(C) Rajasthan (D) Andhra Pradesh

192. A ship starts its journey from Kandla port on west coast of India for Kolkata Port on East Coast. Which among the following is a correct set of the major ports of India coming on the way? (Don’t include Port Blair) (A) Mumbai, Cochin, Tuticorin, Ennore, Paradip (B) Mumbai, Tuticorin, Ennore, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam (C) Mumbai, Mormugao, Cochin, Ennore, Chennai (D) Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Haldia, Paradip

193. Which among the following is India’s highest salt producing state? (A) Rajasthan (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Gujarat

194. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the semi-arid regions of India I. North-Eastern Madhya Pradesh II. South-Western Andhra Pradesh III. Saurashtra (A) Both I & II (B) II Only (C) Both II & III (D) I, II and III

195. The chief production in region having black soil is__ (A) Cotton (B) Rice (C) Wheat (D) Tea

196. Which river rises from the Mahaldhiram of Ghum Range of the Darjeeling district? (A) Torsha river (B) The Jaldhaka river (C) Mahananda river (D) The Mayurakshi

197. The domestic demand of which among the following fertilizers in India is fulfilled by almost 100% import? (A) Ammonium Chloride (B) Ammonium Sulphate (C) Potassium Sulphate (D) Urea

198. Which of the following statement is not correct? (A) Bihar is the 3rd most crowded state from the Top (B) Arunachal Pradesh 3rd most crowded state from the Bottom (C) Dibang Valley in Arunachal Pradesh is the lowest populated district of India. (D) India’s literacy rate stand at 73% for age 6 and above

199. Which is the Indian state with the highest number of power looms? (A) Gujarat (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Maharashtra (D) Tamil Nadu

200. Sona, PB-18 and Kalyan were the High Yielding Variety Seeds used in HYVS programme for which among the following crops? (A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Cotton (D) Maize



A

1. duringgallantryforawardhighestWhich is thepeacetime? (A) Vir Chakra (B) Param Vir Chakra (C) Ashok Chakra (D) Mahavir Chakra

2. Which among the following countries National Anthem has only music not words? (A) India (B) Germany (C) Bahrain (D) Spain

3. Who wrote the 'Communist Manifesto'? (A) Lenin (B) Karl Marx (C) Stalin (D) None of these

4. Sunita Williams has set the record for the maximum number of space-walks by a woman astronaut. The exact number of the walks is (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 6

5. CD-ROM is a (A) Magnetic Memory (B) Secondary Memory (C) Semiconductor Memory (D) Memory Register

6. Which of the following affects Biodiversity? (A) Environmental Pollution (B) Ocean acidification (C) Climate change (D) All of the above

7. "Whether I earned your vote or not, I have listened to you, I have learned from you. You have made me a better President", was said by - (A) Pranab Mukherjee (B) George Bush (C) Barack Obama (D) APJ Abdul Kalam

8. Major Somnath Sharma who was honoured with Paramveer Chakra posthumously in 1947 belonged to (A) Gorkha Rifle (B) Garhwal Rifle (C) Dogra Regiment (D) Kumaon Regiment

9. Find out the wrong statement - (A) Kuchipudi is a dance form Kerala. (B) The Khalsa (t Gurubyhe pure) was foundedGobind Singh. (C) The founder of Zoroastrianism was Zarathustra. (D) The world's highest observatory is locate in J & K

10. French economist Jean Trirole got Noble Prize 2014 in Economic in his work related to (A) Mechanism Design Theory (B) New Trade Analysis Theory (C) Analysis of Market Power and regulation (D) Efficient Market Hypothesis

11. In Cyber Law terminology 'DOS' means (A) Disk Operating System (B) Distant Operator Service (C) Denial of Service (D) None of the above

12. India signed the Kyoto Protocol in the year - (A) 2000 (B) 1998 (C) 2002 (D) 1995

13. ___________ is declared as International Day for the Abolition of Slavery. (A) November 2 (B) December 2 (C) November 3 (D) December 3

14. First Indian woman who reached Antarctica - (A) Ujjawala Patial (B) Pritisu Gupta (C) Mahel Musa (D) Geeta Ghosh

15. Which football team has won the 72nd edition of Santosh Trophy Football tournament? (A) Services (B) West Bengal (C) Kerala (D) Hyderabad

16. Who is the newly elected President of Myanmar? (A) Htin Kyaw (B) Win Myint (C) Myint Swe (D) Aung San Suu Kyi

17. Which country’s team has clinched bronze at the Hockey World League (HWL-2017) tournament? (A) Germany (B) India (C) Nepal (D) Italy

18. Name of the longest Train route of India (A) Jammu Tawi Express (B) Jammu Kanyakumari Express (C) Himsagar Express (D) Vivek Express

19. areOrganisationHealthWorldHeadquarters ofsituated at (A) The Hague (B) Oslo (C) New York (D) Geneva

20. Under the PIN Code System, the number of postal zones in India are (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

21. Who is the author of 'Abol Tabol'? (A) Sandip Ray (B) Satyajit Ray (C) Sukumar Ray (D) Upendrakishore Raychowdhuri


WBCS (EXE) Examination (Mains), 2018 PAPER IV

Full Marks: 200 Test Code: M1804 Date: 20/05/2018 Time: 3 hours

Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3rdmarks will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

Test Booklet Series

A



A

22. Which state cricket team has won the 2018 Vijay Hazare trophy? (A) Saurashtra (B) Karnataka (C) Maharashtra (D) Hyderabad

23. Which state opened India’s first Insect Museum? (A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Assam (D) Odisha

24. The most common format for a home video recorder is VHS. VHS stands for...?

(A) Video Home System (B) Very high speed (C) Video horizontal standard (D) Voltage house standard

25. Which of the following programs aims at the promotion of savings among rural women? (A) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (B) Mahila Samriddhi Yojna (C) Indira Mahila Yojna

(D) Javhar Rozgar Yojna

26. Which among the following multilateral convention seeks to protect the human health and environment from Persistant Organic Pollutants (POPs)? (A) Bonn Convention (B) Stockholm Convention (C) Rotterdam Convention (D) Basel Convention

27. The capital of Estonia is ___. (A) Tallinn (B) Libreville (C) Pristina (D) Valletta

28. Which of the following State has become India's first carbon Free State? (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Maharashtra

29. The new Parliament building of which of the following countries is built by India? (A) Afghanistan (B) Bhutan (C) Nepal (D) Maldives

30. Who was the first Hindi writer to receive Jnanpith Award? (A) Dr. Randhari Singh Dinkar (B) S. H. Vatsyayan (C) Mahadevi Verma (D) Sumitranandan Pant

31. DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics Research Centre is situated at (A) Pune (B) New Delhi (C) Hyderabad (D) Kolkata

32. Sukharanjan Sengupta, who passed away recently, was associated with which field? (A) Politics (B) Journalism (C) Film Industry (D) Law

33. From where was the 100th Space Mission of ISRO launched in September 2012? (A) Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh) (B) Mahendragiri (Tamil Nadu) (C) Thumba (Thiruvananthapuram) (D) Bengaluru (Karnataka)

34. In wildlife conservation, which one among the following best defines an 'endemic' species? (A) A species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else (B) When the critical number of a species declines in a forest due to parasitic attack (C) A species which is cosmopolitan and can be commonly found in a biosphere (D) An endangered species which is found in a few restricted areas on the Earth

35. 18th SAARC summit held in which country (A) Pakistan (B) Afghanistan, (C) Nepal (D) None of these

36. When the National programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education was launched? (A) 1995 (B) 2004 (C) 2007 (D) 2010

37. Anthophobia is fear of which of the following? (A) Boss (B) Fire (C) Flowers (D) Dogs

38. The nuclear plant disaster in Chernobyl took place in: (A) 1980 (B) 1986 (C) 1990 (D) 1992

39. IRV 2020 Project is related to: (A) River interlinking in India (B) Alternative energy resource development in India (C) Rhinoceros conservation in India (D) Development of solar energy villages in India

40. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Indian Missile:Feature (A) Trishul: Short-range surface to air missile (B) Akash: Medium-range multi target missile (C) Nag: Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (D) Brahmos: Surface to surface missile

41. Multi-purpose river valley projects are "New temples of modern India". The above statement is made by: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Rajiv Gandhi (D) Motilal Nehru

42. Which state has become the India’s first state to opt out of the National Health Protection Scheme “Modi Care”? (A) Karnataka (B) Punjab (C) Kerala (D) West Bengal

43. India will co-host the first International Solar Alliance (ISA) summit with which country? (A) France (B) Germany



A

(C) Japan (D) Canada

44. Who became the first lady President of South Korea in February 2013? (A) Park Jong-sun (B) Park Geun-hye (C) Kang Ji-won (D) Kim Soon-ja

45. Highly polluting industries come under the category of (A) Orange (B) Red (C) Yellow (D) Black

46. Which online security campaign has been launched by Google India to safeguard internet users? (A) #SecureInternetKiya (B) #OnlineSecurityKiya (C) #OnlineSecurityKiya (D) #SecurityCheckKiya

47. Shiv Kumar Sharma is famous for - (A) Sarod Recital (B) Santoor Recital (C) Sitar Recital (D) Flute Recital

48. The 2016 Nobel Prize in literature was won by (A) Alice Munro (B) Svetlana Alexievich (C) Bob Dylan (D) Angus Deaton

49. On 24 November 2015 Russian jet was shot down by _____ Air Force. (A) American (B) German (C) British (D) Turkish

50. NREGA was renamed 'MNREGA' on (A) October 2, 2007 (B) February 2, 2008 (C) October 2, 2009 (D) October 2, 2010

51. Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is located at (A) Lucknow (B) Dehradun (C) New Delhi (D) Darjeeling

52. Which of the following statements is incorrect?(A) Flow of energy in an ecology is unidirectional(B) Flow of energy follows Lindeman’s 10% law(C) Minimum of 6-7 tropic levels are there in an

Ecological pyramid(D) All are correct

53. Blue-green algae are example of: (A) Autotroph (B) Heterotroph (C) Chemoautotroph (D) Decomposer

54. The Earth Summit (1992) was held in – (A) Rio de Janeiro (B) Stockholm (C) Paris (D) Vienna

55. Which of the following biosphere reserves in India is not included in UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere Reserve Programme list? (A) Agasthyamalai (B) Kanchanzongha (C) Gulf of Mannar (D) Achanakmar Amarkantak

56. Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called - (A) Keystone species (B) Allopatric species

(C) Sympatric species (D) Threatened species

57. greenhouspotentThe most theamonggasefollowing is (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane (C) Water Vapour (D) Ozone

58. Lloyd's Botanical Garden is in – (A) Kolkata (B) Darjeeling (C) Panaji (D) Cochin

59. Approximate height of the Troposphere is – (A) 12 km (B) 50 km (C) 80 km (D) none of these

60. IndiaofTo conserve coral reefs, Governmentdeclared one of the following as Marine Park- (A) Gulf of Mannar (B) Andaman Islands (C) Gulf of Kutch (D) Lakshadweep Islands

61. Which of the following Environmentalists first gave the concept of Biodiversity ‘hotspots’? (A) Gaylord Nelson (B) Norman Myers (C) John Muir (D) Julia “Butterfly” Hill

62. Which among the following multilateral environment agreements (MEAs) is not correctly paired with the respective issue it deals with? (A) Montreal Protocol of 1987 – Ozone Depleting Substances. (B) Bonn Convention of 1979 – The conservation of Migratory Species. (C) Basel Convention of 1989 – Regulation of transboundary movement, transit, handling and use of Living Modified Organisms. (D) Rotterdam Convention of 1998 – inConsensual International Tradecertain andChemicalsHazardousPesticides.

63. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Ozone Depletion? 1. Ozone hole is measured in terms of ozone Dobsoninexpressediswhichconcentrations, units. 2. The major cause for Ozone Depletion is the presence of CFCs in stratosphere – areCFCs entirely man made and not found naturally. . (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both (D) None

64. In the H1N1 Virus, the alphabet H and N stands for: I. H stands for haemagglutinin II. N stands for neuraminidase

(A) Only I is correct (B) Only II is correct (C) Both are correct (D) Both are incorrect

65. Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary, India’s only dolphin sanctuary, is located in which among the following states of India? (A) West Bengal (B) Bihar



A

(C) Assam (D) Uttar Pradesh

66. Aichi Target is the outcome of which among the following protocols / summits? (A) Kyoto Protocol (B) Nagoya Protocol (C) Copenhagen Climate Summit (D) Bali Communiqué

67. Consider the following Pollution Diseases of Japan: 1. Minamata Disease 2. Itai-Itai Disease Which among the following is the correct set of causing agents of these diseases? (A) Mercury, Arsenic (B) Mercury, Mercury (C) Mercury, Cadmium (D) Arsenic, Mercury

68. Who among the following activists of Chipko movements was awarded Raman Magsaysay Award in 1982? (A) Ghanasyam Raturi (B) Sundarlal Bahuguna (C) Gaura Devi (D) Chandi Prasad Bhatt

69. Which of the following energy sources is the best in keeping the environment clean? (A) Petroleum Product (B) Forest Product (C) Nuclear Fission (D) Solar Cells

70. Regarding ‘Carbon Credits’, which one of the following statements is not correct? (A) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol (B) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota. (C) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission (D) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme.

71. The depth of water of Wet Land does not exceed (A) 6 metres (B) 10 metres (C) 6 feet (D) 10 feet

72. Sea level is expected to rise because of warmer climate due to the following – (A) Oceans expand as they get warmer (B) Glaciers and ice-sheets melt (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above

73. The Kamlang Tiger Reserve is situated in – (A) Assam (B) Nagaland (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Sikkim

74. The Ecological Pyramid that is always upright – (A) Pyramid of Energy (B) Pyramid of Biomass

(C) Pyramid of Number (D) None of these

75. Which of the following supposed to be the most stable environment? (A) Tropical rainforest (B) Temperate grasslands (C) Hilly regions (D) Deep sea regions

76. Suppose, a high concentration of DDT is found in a pond causing the phenomenon of Bio Magnification. Now which of the following, living there, will accumulate the highest amount of DDT in their bodies? (A) The producers (phytoplankton) (B) Zooplanktons (C) Small fishes that feed on zooplanktons (D) Large fishes that feed on several small fishes

77. Why is Water Hyacinth known as the ‘terror of Bengal’? (A) It is a great household for the snakes live in water, which causes several deaths of fishermen and workers by snakebite. (B) It pollutes the water bodies by secreting poisonous chemicals from its roots. (C) It sucks all the oxygen from the water bodies for its growth. This leads to the death of the fish, which is the staple diet in West Bengal. (D) None of the above

78. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (A) Bandipur National Park – Karnataka (B) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary - Assam (C) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary – Kerala (D) Simlipal National Park – Madhya Pradesh

79. Which among the following gas was leaked at Bhopal during the Bhopal gas tragedy at 2-3 December 1984? (A) Methyl Isocyanide (B) Methyl Isocyanate (C) Methyl Isochloride (D) Methyl Isochlorate

80. Green Mufflers are commonly used to prevent the (A) Radiation pollution (B) Noise pollution (C) Air pollution (D) Thermal pollution

81. The ‘Cloud Computing’ technology refers to: (A) A distributed computer architecture that provides software, infrastructure and platform just as required by applications/users (B) A set of algorithms that solves problems using fuzzy logic. (C) Many computers that are interconnected through wireless networks and satellites. (D) A futuristic technology that will use clouds to perform computing.

82. Who is known as the father of Indian nuclear programme? (A) A P J Abdul Kalam (B) Raja Ramanna



A

(C) Homi J Bhaba (D) Vikram Sarabhai

83. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Large Hadron Collider’ is/are not correct? 1. It is a project of NASA. 2. It is world’s largest and most powerful accelerator. 3. It combines elements theory of relativity with quantum theory. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 3 (D) All are correct

84. Most modern TV's draw power even if turned off. What function does the circuit do that uses the power? (A) Sound (B) Remote control (C) Colour balance (D) High voltage

85. The purpose of choke in tube light is - (A) To decrease the current (B) To increase the current (C) To decrease the voltage momentarily (D) To increase the voltage momentarily

86. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Every geostationary orbit is a geosynchronous orbit 2. Every geosynchronous orbit is a geostationary orbit 3. A satellite will be geostationary if its revolution is West to East with respect to rotation of the Earth. (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3

87. A computer’s ‘clock-speed’ is measured in – (A) Megabytes and gigabytes (B) Nanoseconds and picoseconds (C) Bits and megabits (D) Megahertz and gigahertz

88. A microwave oven cooks food faster because – 1. Microwaves carry lot of energy 2. Microwaves are directly absorbed by food molecules setting them into vibrations 3. Very little energy is wasted in heating the utensil and the surroundings Which of the above statements is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 (D) All three

89. Neutrino is – (A) Electrically positive and weakly interacting particle (B) Electrically positive and strongly interacting particle (C) Electrically neutral and weakly interacting particle (D) Electrically negative and weakly interacting particle

90. Which one of the following is an ‘Air-to-Air’ missile? (A) Astra (B) Akash (C) Becquerel (D) Prithvi

91. The space shuttle that landed man on the moon is – (A) Apollo (B) Challenger (C) Columbia (D) Eagle

92. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? 1. Assessment of crop productivity 2. Locating groundwater resources 3. Mineral exploration 4. Telecommunications 5. Traffic studies Select the correct answer using the code given below. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 4 and 5 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

93. Scientists have identified __________ in the human body, which could help understanding the spread of cancer within the body. (A) Interstitium (B) Lunkivitus (C) Pansitium (D) Intestinium

94. ISRO's GSLV rocket injects GSAT-6A communication satellite into orbit with the mission life of how many years? (A) 15 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 12

95. Chandrayaan-2 will carry which of the following to the moon? 1. An orbiter 2. A lander 3. A rover (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) All three

96. The first nuclear test conducted in India under the code-name of Smiling Buddha in the year – (A) 1973 (B) 1974 (C) 1988 (D) 1996

97. What is ‘Hot Line’? (A) A telecommunication link (B) An electric wire (C) Imaginary line indicating atmospheric pressure (D) None of the above

98. Who had developed the polio vaccines (A) Jonas Salk (B) Alexander Fleming (C) Edward Jenner (D) Louis Pasteur

99. What does APK stands for? (A) Android Programmed Kernel (B) Application Programme Platform (D) Android Platform Package (D) Android Package Kit

100. First nuclear reactor in India Apsara was designed by (A) Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) (B) Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC) (C) Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC) (D) None of the above

101. First satellite to be placed in orbit by Indian-made launch vehicle SLV-3 is – (A) Aryabhata (B) Rohini (C) Bhskara-1 (D) INSAT



A

102. Which of the following is correct about Indian Defence’s Aircrafts and Helicopter? 1. Tejas is a multi-role combat aircraft. 2. SARAS is India’s first indigenous civilian aircraft. 3. Lakshya is a pilotless target Aircraft.

Select the correct option/options given below: (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) All of the above

103. The inventor of World Wide Wave (WWW) is – (A) Edward Kasner (B) Bill Gates (C) Tim Berners-Lee (D) Vinod Dham

104. India’s first Naval Museum is commissioned at this sea port – (A) Kochi (B) Mumbai (C) Chennai (D) Vishakhapatnam

105. In genetic engineering, a chimera is (A) An enzyme that links DNA molecules (B) A plasmid that contains foreign DNA (C) A virus that infects bacteria (D) A fungus

106. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are (A) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests (B) Long fibre and resistance to aphids (C) High yield and resistance to bollworms (D) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests

107. The genetically engineered ‘Golden Rice’ synthesize large amount of: (A) Vitamin K (B) Beta-carotene (C) Vitamin C (D) Beta-galactosidase

108. The most-used version of the Android OS is – (A) Lollipop (B) Marshmallow (C) Nougat (D) Oreo

109. Which among the following is not the functionality of Robots? (A) Re-programmability (B) Multi-functionality (C) Efficient Performance (D) Responsibility

110. In MICR, C stands for? (A) Code (B) Colour (C) Computer (D) Characte

111. ‘Farad’ is the unit of – (A) Resistance (B) conductance (C) Capacitance (D) inductance

112. The working principle of a washing machine is – (A) Capillarity (B) Centrifugation (C) Decantation (D) Diffusion

113. If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion, then its (A) Acceleration remains uniform (B) Velocity changes (C) Speed changes (D) Velocity remains uniform

114. If speed of rotation of the earth increases, the mass of a body at equator – (A) Decreases (B) increases (C) Remains same (D) becomes zero

115. Why is sound heard with more intensity through CO2 than through the air? (A) Density of CO2 is less than that of air (B) Density of CO2 is more than that of air (C) Air is bad conductor of heat (D) CO2 is a compound, but air is a mixture of gases

116. Consider the following statements: 1. Steam at 1000C and boiling water at 1000C contain same amount of heat. 2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the latent heat of vaporization of water. 3. In an air-conditioner, heat is extracted from the room air at the evaporator coils and is rejected out at the condenser coils. Which of these statements is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) Only 3 (D) All are correct

117. Which element has the highest electronegativity? (A) Francium (B) Gallium (C) Copper (D) Fluorine

118. Two pieces of metallic wire having equal lengths and equal volume placed in air have different resistance. The two wires must (A) Have different cross-sections (B) Have different temperatures (C) Be of different materials (D) Be of same intensity

119. Which of the following metals is found liquid in normal room temperature? (A) Mercury (B) Gallium (C) Caesium (D) All of these

120. An object is kept 5 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What will be the nature of the image? (A) Virtual, not magnified (B) Virtual, magnified (C) Real, not magnified (D) Real, magnified

121. The equivalent resistance of two resistors of 10 ohms and 5 ohms joined in parallel is – (A) 3.3 ohms (B) 5 ohms (C) 10 ohms (D) none of these

122. Materials for rain-proof coats and tents owe their water-proof properties to (A) Surface tension (B) viscosity (C) Specific gravity (D) elasticity

123. An alternating current can be changed into direct current by means of a (A) Capacitor (B) transistor (C) Diode (D) triode



A

124. Which of the following are the ingredients of gun metal? (A) Iron, Zinc, Titanium (B) Iron, tin (C) Iron, Brass, Tin (D) Copper, Tin

125. Cobalt-60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it emits (A) Alpha Ray (B) Beta rays (C) Gamma rays (D) X rays

126. The current drawn in amperes by 750 W electric iron when operated at 220 V is – (A) 0.34 (B) 0.29 (C) 2.90 (D) 3.41

127. Bleaching powder is also chemically known as – (A) Calcium Sulphate (B) Calcium Carbonate (C) Calcium Hypochlorite (D) Calcium Hydroxide

128. The technique of recording and reproducing 3D images of an object is known as – (A) Photography (B) Holography (C) Cartography (D) Lexicography

129. When an electric bulb breaks, there is a mild bang due to – (A) The chemical reactions between the enclosed gases (B) The compressed gases rushing out suddenly (C) The air rushing in to fill the evacuated space (D) Some other reason

130. Which of the following order of the units of distance is correct? (A) Light year > Parsec > Astronomical Unit (AU) (B) Parsec > Astronomical Unit (AU) > Light year (C) Astronomical Unit (AU) > Parsec > Light year (D) None of these

131. Some types of solutions with an example is given below i. Gas in liquid – Vinegar ii. Solid in liquid – Brine iii. Solid in solid – Brass iv. Liquid in liquid – Coca-Cola

Which of the above are matched correctly? (A) i and ii (B) ii and iii (C) i, iii and iv (D) ii, iii and iv

132. An example of substance which is neither a good conductor of electricity nor an insulator is (A) Sodium (B) Germanium (C) Uranium (D) Magnesium

133. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts because (A) It has a high specific heat (B) It has no colour (C) It has a high dipole moment (D) It has a high boiling point

134. Teflon, the tough and fire resistant polymer, contains the halogen – (A) Fluorine (B) Chlorine (C) Bromine (D) Iodine

135. Which one of the following burns without producing a flame? (A) LPG (B) Coal (C) Candle (D) Wood

136. For respiration in deep sea, divers use mixture of: (A) Oxygen and helium (B) Oxygen and hydrogen (C) Oxygen and carbon dioxide (D) Oxygen, Helium & nitrogen

137. The most stable form of carbon under standard conditions is – (A) Charcoal (B) Graphite (C) Diamond (D) Amorphous carbon

138. What is the number of naturally occurring Halogens in the periodic table? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

139. From which mineral is Radium obtained? (A) Rutile (B) Haematite (C) Limestone (D) Pitchblende

140. Which among the following is known as White Vitriol? (A) Zinc Sulphate (B) Zinc Chloride (C) Zinc Phosphate (D) Zinc oxide

141. What is the general pH level at human skin? (A) 3.2 (B) 3.9 (C) 4.7 (D) 5.5

142. Synthesis of DNA in cell division into two copies is done during – (A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase (C) Telophase (D) Interphase

143. Which of the following is/are test(s) for detecting HIV? (A) Western blot test (B) PCR test (C) ELISA (D) All of these

144. Organs help in the elimination of excretory wastes of human body: Which is NOT matched? 1. Kidneys – Urea 2. Lungs – CO2 (18 litres/day) + Water 3. Liver – Cholesterol 4. Skin – Lactic acid Answer choices (A) 1 & 2 Only (B) 2 & 3 Only (C) 3 & 4 Only (D) None of the Above

145. Which one of the following is the infective stage of the Malarial Parasite? (A) Trophozoite (B) Sporozoite (C) Schigozoite (D) Sporoblast



A

146. Plants receive their nutrients mainly from (A) Chlorophyll (B) Atmosphere (C) Light (D) Soil

147. Location of a particular gene on sex chromosome of autosomes can be identified by – (A) Test Cross (B) Out Cross (C) Back Cross (D) Reciprocal Cross

148. What is the name of the platform that is launched to enable women employees to file complaints related to sexual harassment at the workplace? (A) e-Harassment Portal (B) SHe-box Portal (C) E-shikayat Portal (D) None

149. Bioplastic mostly is produced from – (A) Bacteria (B) Algae (C) Fungi (D) Protozoa

150. The largest White Blood Corpuscle is (A) Lymphocyte (B) Monocyte (C) Thrombocyte (D) Erythrocyte

151. What is ‘breakbone fever’ most commonly known as? (A) Typhoid (B) Rhinitis (C) Yellow fever (D) Dengue

152. The name of India's first home built stealth warship whose features reduce the probability of being detected at sea is - (A) Sahyadri (B) Satpura (C) Shivalik (D) Shivaji

153. What is meaning of one unit carbon permit? (A) One cubic metre of carbon dioxide (B) One quintal carbon dioxide (C) One metric ton of carbon dioxide (D) One million ounce of carbon dioxide

154. The normal term of office of UN Secretary-General is (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

155. Hopman cup is related to which sports? (A) Football (B) Lawn Tennis (C) Badminton (D) Cricket

156. Shiva Thapa who qualified for the 2016 Olympics, is associated with which sport? (A) Swimming (B) Shooting (C) Archery (D) Boxing

157. What is the full form of the SWAYAM – an indigenous IT platform for hosting the Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs)? (A) School Website of Active Lesson for Youth Aspiring Minds (B) Study Webs of Active Learning For Young Aspiring Minds. (C) Student Website of Active interaction for Young Aspiring Minds (D) None

158. Which state of India is known as 'Tiger State'? (A) Gujarat (B) West Bengal (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Assam

159. Which of the following religions “Tower of Silence” is related to in India? (A) Zoroastrians (B) Christians (C) Muslims (D) Jews

160. Amnesty International is__: (A) An agency of the United Nations to help refugees

of civil wars (B) A global Human Rights Movement (C) A non-governmental voluntary organization to

help very poor people (D) An inter-governmental agency to cater to medical

emergencies in war-ravaged regions

161. ‘Hornbill festival’ is celebrated in which of the following States of India? (A) Nagaland (B) Meghalaya (C) Mizoram (D) Assam

162. Chishti Order is a Sufi order which arose from Chisht, a small town in which among the following countries? (A) Afghanistan (B) Turkmenistan (C) Kazakhstan (D) Uzbekistan

163. Name the 22nd chief election commissioner of India? (A) Achal Kumar Jyoti (B) Nasim Zaidi (C) Om Prakash Rawat (D) H. S. Brahma

164. Mirabai Chanu has clinched India’s first gold at the 21st Commonwealth Games (CWG-2018). She is related to which weightlifting category? (A) 58 kg (B) 48 kg (C) 47 kg (D) 57 kg

165. Napoleon Bonaparte belongs to which country? (A) Italy (B) France (C) Germany (D) Russia

166. Which of the following is not an air pollutant? (A) Smoke (B) Carbon Dioxide (C) Nitrogen Gas (D) Sulphur Dioxide

167. Which of the following is a ‘classical’ dance form? (A) Kalaripayattu (B) Chhobia (C) Bhawai (D) Kathakali

168. Who has the record for scoring the most goals in World Cup history? (A) Ronaldo (B) Diego Maradona (C) Miroslav Klose (D) Lionel Messi

169. Which of the following combination of years represents the years when the Olympic Games were not held due to the two World Wars? (A) 1914, 1940, 1944 (B) 1916, 1940, 1944 (C) 1920, 1936, 1940 (D) 1936, 1840, 1944



A

170. Which Scheme has been ranked the best among 552 such social sector schemes from across 62 countries that were nominated for the coveted UN award? (A) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna (B) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojna (SSY) (C) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (D) Kanyashree Prakalpa

171. 'OS' computer abbreviation usually means? (A) Order of Significance (B) Open Software (C) Operating System (D) Optical Sensor

172. Each Year Ramzan occurs about ______from the previous year? (A) 11 Days earlier (B) 11 Days later (C) 17 Days earlier (D) 17 Days later

173. Which among the following is the main feature of Dravidian Style of Temple architecture? (A) Gopuram (B) Garbha Griha (C) Vimana & Shikhara (D) Manastambha

174. Who led the Indian contingent in the opening ceremony of the 2014 Asian Games? (A) Sardar Singh (B) P Kashyap (C) Yogeshwar Dutt (D) Sania Mirza

175. Which female astronaut spent the maximum time in space? (A) Lisa Norwak (B) Kalpana Chawla (C) Sunita Williams (D) None of these

176. In which year were the Commonwealth Games held for the first time? (A) 1930 (B) 1932 (C) 1933 (D) 1934

177. The term ‘IndARC’ sometimes seen in the news, is the name of? (A) An indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence (B) India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of Indian Ocean Rim (C) A scientific establishment set up by India in Antarctic region (D) India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region

178. Which of the following series is true about energy flow in an ecosystem? (A) Producers, Decomposers, Consumers (B) Decomposers, Consumers, Producers (C) Producers, Consumers, Decomposers (D) Consumers, Producers, Decomposers

179. Who of the following was awarded the Golden Boot Award for most goals in the tournament of 2014? (A) Miroslave Klose (B) Lionel Messi (C) James Rodriguez (D) Neymar

180. Which team has won the 2016 Pro Kabaddi League (PKL) trophy? (A) Bengaluru Bulls (B) Puneri Paltan (C) Dabang Delhi (D) Patna Pirates

181. ‘New Horizons’ spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planet? (A) Mars (B) Pluto (C) Jupiter (D) Mercury

182. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic (A) Algae and bacteria (B) Algae and fungi (C) Bacteria and fungi (D) Fungi and mosses

183. Clyde, the mascot of the 2014 Commonwealth Games is a/an - (A) Animal (B) Bird (C) Marine animal (D) Flowering plant

184. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity? (A) Bhitarkanika National Park (B) Keoladeo Ghana National park (C) Keibul Lamjao National Park (D) Sultanpur National park

185. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances? (A) Bretton Woods Conference (B) Montreal Protocol (C) Kyoto Protocol (D) Nagoya Protocol

186. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (A) Saltwater crocodile (B) Olive Ridley turtle (C) Gangetic dolphin (D) Gharial

187. What is the maximum working distance of ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’? (A) Less than 20 cm. (B) Less than 30 cm. (C) Less than 40 cm. (D) Less than 50 cm.

188. Which of the following is not one of the official languages of the U.N.O.? (A) French (B) Spanish (C) Italian (D) Arabic

189. Who is credited with creating the world famous Raaga Miya ki Malhar? (A) Amir Khusro (B) Tansen (C) Meera Bai (D) Bhimsen Joshi

190. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (A) AIDS (B) Bird flu (C) Dengue (D) swine flu



A

191. Joy Goswami has been chosen for the 31st Moortidevi Award for collection titled _____? (A) Shanjhbati's Dreams (B) Yara brishtite bhijechilo (C) Amar Shyamashri Ichchhe (D) Du Dondo Phowara Matro

192. Ramkinker Baij was a well known (A) Dancer (B) Theatre personality (C) Violinist (D) sculptor

193. Who has been honoured with 2017 Big Little Book Award in Bengali language category? (A) Kartik Ghosh (B) Amarendra Chakrovorty (C) Nabaneeta Dev Sen (D) Shirshendu Mukhopadhyay

194. Who is the India’s flag-bearer at the closing ceremony of the 21st Commonwealth Games 2018? (A) Saina Nehwal (B) Mary Kom (C) Heena Sidhu (D) Sutirtha Mukherjee

195. Name the scheme which has been launched for leadership development among Minority Women? (A) Nai Roshni (B) Nai Udaan (C) Nai Manzil (D) Nai Kalyan

196. Taj Mahal at Agra may be damaged by: (A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Chlorine (C) Hydrogen (D) Oxygen

197. The 25th anniversary of the fall of the Berlin Wall is observed in ___________ (A) 2010 (B) 2012 (C) 2014 (D) 2016

198. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels:

(A) Above 80 (B) Above 100 (C) Above 120 (D) Above 140

199. Sutirtha Mukherjee was a part of Gold medal winning Indian women's team at 2018 Commonwealth Games. Is associated with which sport? (A) Basketball (B) Badminton (C) Tennis (D) Archery

200. Who bagged India’s first medal at the 21st Commonwealth Games 2018? (A) Mirabai Chanu (B) Sutirtha Mukherjee (C) Sridhar Nataraj (D) P Gururaja



A

1. During the period of British rule in India, the Rules made under which one of the following was known as the Devolution Rules? (A) Government of India Act, 1919 (B) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 (C) Indian Councils Act, 1892 (D) The Government of India Act, 1935

2. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution? (A) About 6 months in 1949 (B) About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947 (C) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948 (D) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946

3. What is the implication of the Union Government giving ‘Special Status’ to a State? (A) Subsequently large percentage of the Central assistance will be grants-in-aid (B) Current account budgetary deficit will be bridged by the Union Government (C) The extent of loan as a percentage of total assistance will be high (D) The Union Government meets entire expenditure of the State during the period of ‘Special Status’

4. At which case, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution (A) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) (B) Berubari Union case (1960) (C) Both (a) & (b) (D) None of the above

5. Who decides the salary and allowance of the speaker of the Legislative Assembly? (A) Legislature (B) Governor (C) Chief Minister (D) None of the following

6. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women (B) Participation of workers in the management of industries (C) Right to work, education and public assistance (D) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

7. Who among the following had moved the resolution proposing that “the National Flag of India be a “horizontal tricolour of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion”, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Bhimrao Ambedkar (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Sucheta Kriplani

8. In which of the following schedule of the Indian Constitution have mentioned the scheduled languages of India? (A) One (B) Fourth (C) Eighth (D) Ninth

9. Which Amendment to the Constitution inserted a new Article 21-A providing Right to Education in the Constitution? (A) 85th Amendment (B) 86th Amendment (C) 75th Amendment (D) 76th Amendment

10. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes untouchability? (A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 19 (D) 20

11. The Right to Freedom of Religion granted by the Indian Constitution implies that the Indian citizens (A) Not having faith in some religion shall not be appointed to the Government offices (B) Have to follow the religion of the State (C) Are free to have faith in a religion other than the State religion (D) Have the freedom to profess, practise or propagate a religion of their choice

12. Cultural and Educational Rights are mentioned in (A) Article 28 & 29 (B) Article 29 & 30 (C) Article 30 & 31 (D) Article 27, 28 & 29

13. Who said that our constitution is almost Quasi-Federal (A) K.C.Wheare (B) D. D.Basu (C) Sir William Ivor Jennings (D) H.M. Seervai

14. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in (A) Bombay (B) Lahore (C) Calcutta (D) New Delhi

WBCS (EXE) Examination (Mains), 2018 PAPER V

Full Marks: 200 Test Code: M1805 Date: 27/05/2018 Time: 3 hours

Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3rd

marks will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

Test Booklet Series

A




A

15. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up by (A) By the Indian National Congress (B) Through a resolution of the provisional

government (C) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 (D) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947

16. The initial idea of recruitment on merit principle can be traced to the (A) Lee Commission (B) Macaulay Commission (C) Islington Commission (D) Maxwell Committee

17. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitutions of India? (A) Quasi-federal structure. (B) Written Constitution and supremacy of the Constitution (C) Distribution of powers (D) Committed judiciary

18. What is the minimum age to be appointed as the Chief Minister of a state? (A) 25 years (B) 21 years (C) 18 years (D) 30 years

19. The Advocate General of the State is responsible to whom? (A) Governor (B) Chief Minister (C) Speaker of the Assembly (D) None of these

20. Preamble has been amended by which amendment act (A) 44th (B) 61st (C) 40th (D) 42nd

21. Which of the following is not matched correctly? (A) Article 167: Duties of the Chief Minister (B) Article 163: sworn in of the Chief Minister (C) Article 164: Provisions related to State Ministers (D) Article 166: Operations by the State Government

22. Which statement is not correct in the case of "Sovereign India"? (A) India is not dependent on any country (B) India is not a colony of any other country (C) India can give any part of its country to any other

country (D) India is obliged to obey the UN in its internal

affairs

23. Which one among the following pairs of Articles relating to the Fundamental Rights not suspended during the enforcement of emergency under Article 359 of the Indian Constitution? (A) Article 14 and 15 (B) Article 16 and 17 (C) Article 20 and 21 (D) Articles 24 and 25

24. Which one of the following writs examines the functioning of Subordinate Courts? (A) Quo Warranto (B) Mandamus (C) Certiorari (D) Habeas Corpus

25. Under the provisions of the Indian Constitution a community can be declared a minority community on the basis of (A) Religion only (B) Either Religion or Language (C) Either Language or Caste (D) Either religion or Race

26. Which of the following appointments not made by the president of India?

(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (B) Chief justice of India (C) Chief of air staff (D) Chief of Army

27. A presidential ordinance can remain force? (A) For Three Months (B) For Six Months (C) For Nine Months (D) Indefinitely

28. Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographical area as a Scheduled area? (A) Governor (B) Chief Minister (C) Prime Minister (D) President

29. Ordinance of Governor has to be passed by the assembly within? (A) 6 Weeks (B) 8 Weeks (C) 10 Weeks (D) 12 Weeks

30. Who was the first woman governor of a state in free India from out of following? (A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu (B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani (C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi (D) Mrs.Vijay Laxmi Pandit

31. Which Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of India? (A) 25 (B) 75 (C) 35 (D) 36

32. Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution : (A) The Fundamental Rights (B) Seventh Schedule (C) The D.P.S.P (D) Preamble

33. Member of the Legislative Council submits his resignation to (A) Chairman (B) President (C) Chief Minister (D) Governor

34. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (A) Fundamental Right (B) Natural Right (C) Constitutional Right (D) Legal Right

35. Which articles are correctly matched with their provision? 1. Article 7 - Persons migrated to Pakistan but later returned 2. Article 6 - Persons migrated from Pakistan 3. Article 9 - Persons of Indian origin residing outside India (A) 1, 3 (B) 2, 3 (C) 1, 2 (D) All of the above



A

36. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has to be amended to provide for the formation of a new State? (A) First Schedule (B) Second Schedule (C) Third Schedule (D) Ninth Schedule

37. Which one of the following items/subjects belongs to the Concurrent list of the VIIth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? (A) Public Health and Sanitation (B) Forests (C) Stock Exchanges (D) Agriculture

38. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for how many years immediately before making an application (A) One year (B) Five year (C) Seven year (D) Twelve year

39. President can proclaim National Emergency under Article 352 in the entire country or in any part of it, on the grounds of : (A) External Aggression (B) Armed Rebellion (C) Internal Disturbance (D) Both 1 and 2

40. The States of the Indian Union can be re organised or their boundaries altered by (A) Two thirds majority of both the Houses of

Parliament (B) Two thirds majority of both the Houses of

Parliament and the consent of the concerned State Legislature

(C) An executive order of the Union Government with the consent of the concerned State Government

(D) The Union Parliament by a simple majority in the ordinary process of legislation

41. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the (A) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership (B) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership (C) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership (D) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

42. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Directive Principles of State Policy (D) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

43. The committee of parliament on official language comprises the members? (A) 20 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha (B) 10 from lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha (C) 10 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha (D) 20 from lok sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha

44. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? 1) The Oath of office to the president is administered by the senior most judge of the Supreme Court. 2) In emergency, the president emoluments and allowances can be diminished during his term of office. 3) President can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Lok Sabha. (A) 1, 2 only (B) 3, 2 only (C) 1, 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 only

45. Which of the following non-member of parliament has the right to address it? (A) Attorney General (B) Solicitor General of India (C) Chief justice of India (D) Chief election Commissioner

46. Special representation in Panchayati Raj Institutions is given to (A) Woman (B) Co-operative Societies (C) Backward classes (D) All of the above

47. A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city with a population of not less than (A) 1 lakh (B) 10 lakh (C) 12 lakh (D) 5 lakh

48. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of Panchayati Raj? (A) Gram Sabha (B) Gram Panchayat (C) Zila Parishad (D) Panchayat Samiti

49. The Municipalities get their grants from the (A) Consolidated fund of India (B) Consolidated fund of the state (C) Contingency fund of India (D) All of the above

50. The minimum age to be qualified as a member of municipality is (A) 18 years (B) 20 years (C) 21 years (D) 25 years

51. Which party provided two prime ministers on two years’ time? (A) B.J.P. (B) Janata Party (C) Janata Dal (D) Samajwadi Party

52. Who exercises the actual executive power under the parliamentary form of government? (A) Parliament (B) Prime minister (C) President (D) Bureaucracy

53. The council of ministers of Indian union is collectively responsible to the? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Rajya Sabha (D) Lok Sabha



A

54. Who for the following became prime minister of India without becoming a union cabinet minister? (A) Chaudhary Charan Singh (B) H.D. Deve Gowda (C) Morarji Desai (D) I. K. Gujral

55. Who said, ‘Parliamentary system provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the government?” (A) B.R. Ambedkar (B) B.N. Nehru (C) Jawahar Lal Nerhu (D) Rajendra Prasad

56. In which of the following committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha? (A) Public accounts committee (B) Committee on public undertakings (C) Committee on government assurance (D) Estimates Committee

57. Consider the following statements. 1) The Election of Vice-President does not include the members of the State Legislative Assemblies. 2) The Vice-President should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. 3) The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of Vice-President must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders. Which of the statement given above is / are correct (A) 1 only (B) 1, 2 only (C) 1, 3 only (D) 1,2,3

58. Who among the following Prime Minister was appointed by President using his discretionary powers for the first time: (A) H.D. Deve Gowda (B) P.V. Narasimha Rao (C) Charan Singh (D) P. Singh

59. A member of a State Public Service Commission can be appointed and removed respectively by __: (A) Governor, Governor (B) Governor, President (C) President, Governor (D) President, President

60. Which of the following commission was appointed by the Janta Party government to investigate the circumstances that warranted the declaration of an Emergency in 1975? (A) Sarkaria Commission (B) Shah Commission (C) Mukherjee Commission (D) Kothari Commission

61. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of (A) Morarji Desai Government (B) Vajpayee Government (C) Indira Gandhi Government (D) Narasimha Rao Government

62. Consider the following statements about National emergency: 1. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament within one month. 2. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament passes a resolution disapproving its continuation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) Only1 (B) Only2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) neither 1 nor 2

63. In which of the following years the fundamental duties have been added to the existent fundamental right the constitution of India? (A) 1965 (B) 1976 (C) 1975 (D) 1991

64. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? (A) To develop the scientific temper (B) To vote in public elections (C) To abide by me Constitution and respect its idea (D) To safeguard public property

65. The provisions regarding Union Public Service Commission are carried in (A) Part XIII (B) Part XIV (C) Part XV (D) Part XX

66. Which of the following communities has been notified as a religious community by the National Commission for Minorities? (A) Sikhs (B) Buddhists (C) Zoroastrians (D) Jains

67. In which year was the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) institutionalised? (A) 1950 (B) 1958 (C) 1964 (D) 1976

68. Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of 1. Members of armed forces. 2. Members of para-military forces. 3. non-combatatants employee of armed forces like barber, carpenters etc. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (A) 1, 2 only (B) 3, 2 only (C) 1, 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 only

69. Consider the following statements 1. Territory of India includes States, Union territories and Acquired territories 2. Union of India encompasses larger area than territory of India. Select the correct answer using following codes: (A) Only1 (B) Only2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) neither 1 nor 2



A

70. Which one of the following articles of the directive principles of state policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security? (A) 51 (B) 43A (C) 48A (D) 49

71. The DPSP of Indian Constitution is borrowed from Irish Constitution which they borrowed from - (A) Constitution of Japan (B) Canadian Constitution (C) Constitution of Spain (D) None of these

72. On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Supreme Court (D) Lok Sabha

73. Which article of Indian constitution says that there will be an election commission in India? (A) Article 124 (B) Article 123 (C) Article 324 (D) Article 347

74. Which was the first Indian state to establish the institution of Lokayukta? (A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Maharashtra

75. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 2. Organizing village Panchayats 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy? (A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

76. When was the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) set up? (A) 2000 (B) 2005 (C) 2010 (D) 2015

77. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the suability of the State of India? (A) Article 100 (B) Article 200 (C) Article 300 (D) Article 330

78. Who among the following serves as the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? (A) An eminent human rights activist (B) A senior member of the ruling party (C) Retd. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (D) A senior member of the Press Council of India

79. In which year was the National Commission for Women established? (A) 1992 (B) 1993 (C) 1994 (D) 1995

80. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to the Finance Commission of India? (A) The Finance Commission of India came into existence in 1950. (B) It is established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. (C) It is established by the President of India. (D) As per the Constitution, the commission is appointed every five years and consists of a chairman and four other members.

81. The lowest court of revenue is that of a (A) Naib Tehsildar (B) Sub-judge (C) Third class magistrate (D) Munsif

82. Which of the following cases cannot be filed directly in the Supreme Court? (A) Cases against encroachment on Fundamental Rights (B) If one's property is forcefully occupied by the other (C) Both (a) and (b) above. (D) Disputes between two or more States

83. After retirement, a Judge of a High Court can undertake practice in (A) Any other court except the same court (B) Wherever he intends to practice. (C) The same court (D) Lower courts only

84. The President of India referred the Ayodhya issue to the Supreme Court of India under which Article? (A) 136 (B) 138 (C) 143 (D) 144

85. Which of the following amendments curtailed the power of judicial review of the Supreme Court and the High Court? (A) 24th (B) 44th (C) 42th (D) 48th



A

86. The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not involve (A) Criminal Cases (B) Cases involving interpretation of the Constitution (C) Civil Cases (D) Disputes arising out of pre-Constitution treaties and agreements

87. Appointment of officers and servants of a High Court are made by the (A) Chief Justice of the High Court (B) President (C) Governor (D) None of these

88. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn from the (A) Grants-in-aid (B) Public Accounts (C) Contingency Fund (D) Consolidated Fund

89. Consider the following statements 1. Writ of Habeas Corpus is very powerful safeguard against executive only. 2. Writ of Habeas Corpus is nature of calling concerned authority to produce the imprisoned before the executive. (A) Only1 (B) Only2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) neither 1 nor 2

90. When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant – (A) The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker. (B) The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker. (C) The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker. (D) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.

91. The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by: (A) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament. (B) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament. (C) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures. (D) By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.

92. A minister who is not a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six months, without being a member of either house of parliament):

(A) Can participate in the proceedings of Lok Sabha only. (B) Can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha only. (C) Can participate in the proceedings of either house of parliament. (D) Cannot participate till he becomes a Member of either house of parliament.

93. Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admissions in private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled castes/tribes and other backward classes? (A) 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 (B) 93nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 (C) 94nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 (D) 95nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003

94. Inter-state council was constituted in? (A) 1980 (B) 1985 (C) 1990 (D) 1990

95. Which Indian artist decorated the handwritten Copy of the Constitution? (A) Mihir Sen (B) S.N. Banerjee (C) Mukesh Bandhopadhyay (D) Nandalal Bose

96. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements: 1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency. 2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both (D) None

97. Who among the following is the first Attorney General of India? (A) S.V. Gupte (B) Soli J. Sorabjee (C) M.C. Setalvad (D) M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar

98. In addition to the Chief Election Commissioner, two other Election Commissioners were appointed in the Election Commission for the first time in (A) 1988 (B) 1989 (C) 1990 (D) 1992

99. Which of the following is/are true? 1) CAG cannot conduct propriety audit. 2) CAG is responsible only to the Parliament. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both (D) None

100. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by – (A) Government via a resolution (B) President



A

(C) Parliament (D) (B) or(c) depending on the type of extension.

101. If the Reserve Bank of India wants to increase the Cash Reserves of Commercial Banks, which among the following would be the most probable step taken by it? (A) Release Gold from its reserves (B) Buy bonds in the open market (C) Prohibit the transactions that involve bill of exchange (D) Increase the tranche reserves with the IMF

102. Government uses which among the following as last resort in deficit financing? (A) External Borrowing (B) Internal Borrowing (C) External Grants (D) Printing Currency

103. The net value of GDP after deducting depreciation from GDP is (A) Net national product (B) Net domestic product (C) Gross national product (D) Disposable income

104. Which of the following method/s is/are used to calculate national income in India? (A) Production method (B) Expenditure method (C) Income method (D) All the above

105. If the contribution of the agricultural sector is decreasing in a country's economy, then what conclusion can be drawn? (A) The country is growing in the direction of being a developed nation (B) The country is moving towards becoming developing nation (C) The country is moving towards becoming less developed nation (D) The economic growth rate of the country has stopped

106. Which Indian state gives highest income tax collection to the Government of India? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Maharashtra (D) Goa

107. Consider the following statements: 1. Real GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at constant prices. 2. Nominal GDP is the value of GDP at the current prevailing prices. 3. The ratio of Real GDP to Nominal is known as Index of prices (GDP Deflator) Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, and 3

108. Currency notes and coins are called Fiat money because (A) They do not have intrinsic value like gold or silver (B) Made on special imported paper (C) They are printed by government (D) Exchanged for goods and services

109. Dual economy refers to existence of (A) Imports and export activities (B) Bilateral ties (C) Traditional and modern aspects in the economy (D) Both a and b

110. Arrange in the right order the contribution of sectors to the GDP from highest to lowest. (A) Agriculture, manufacturing, tertiary (B) Agriculture, tertiary, manufacturing (C) Tertiary, manufacturing, agriculture (D) Manufacturing, tertiary, agriculture

111. Economic development is characterized by (A) Structural change in the economy (B) Change in the occupational structure (C) Both a and b (D) None of the above

112. The component/s of HDI is/are (A) Life expectancy index (B) Infant mortality rate (C) Population growth rate (D) All the above

113. The additional capital used per unit of additional production is called (A) Induced investment (B) Autonomous investment (C) Incremental COR (D) None of the above

114. Depression is characterized by (A) Unprecedented level of underemployment (B) Drastic fall in income (C) Drastic fall in output and employment (D) All the above

115. Devaluation of currency can correct a Balance of Payments deficit because___ (A) It lowers price of exports in foreign currency and rises price of imports in home currency (B) It raises price of exports in foreign currency and lowers price of imports in home currency (C) It raises price of exports and imports in foreign currency (D) It lowers price of exports and imports in home currency



A

116. Maximum share in India’s total external debt is of which among the following currency? (A) US Dollar (B) Indian Rupee (C) Euro (D) Japanese Yen

117. Which among the following cannot be called an anti- inflationary measure? (A) Raising the Bank Rates (B) Raising the Reserve Ratio Requirements (C) Purchase of securities in the Open Markets (D) Rationing of the Credit

118. Economic growth is normally coupled with? (A) Inflation (B) Hyper Inflation (C) Deflation (D) Stagflation

119. Major recommendation of which among the following committees led to restructure the Swarnajayati Gram Swarojgar Yojna to National Rural Livelihood Mission? (A) Radhakrishna Committee (B) Suresh Tendulkar Committee (C) Y S P Thorat Committee (D) Usha Thorat Committee

120. Among the various sub sectors of the service Sector which claims the largest share in India’s GDP? (A) Insurance, real estate and business services (B) Trade, hotels, and restaurants (C) Community, social, and personal services (D) Construction

121. Which among the following state has highest number of Export Oriented Units in India? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Maharashtra (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh

122. What is the current difference between Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) and Bank Rate? (A) 100 basis points (B) 50 basis points (C) 25 basis points (D) 0 basis points

123. RBI Central board consists of not more than _____ deputy governors (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

124. Where is not a currency printing press located? (A) Dewas (MP) (B) Salboni (WB) (C) Nasik (D) Mumbai

125. Investment in which among the following is the Most Risk Free asset of a Bank as per the RBI guidelines? (A) Housing Loans (B) Loans against Jewellery (C) Government Securities (D) Government Approved Securities

126. An economy is at the ‘take off’ stage on its path to development when it (A) Becomes stagnant (B) Begins steady growth (C) Is liberalized (D) Gets maximum foreign aid

127. Which one of the following was launched with the objective of helping the poor in rural areas to become self-employed? (A) DPAP (B) IRDP (C) TRYSEM (D) DDP

128. India’s central bank, RBI performs various functions. Which of these are its functions according to the RBI act, 1934. 1. Managing inflation 2. Acting as banker’s bank 3. Managing India’s Forex 4. Handling government’s borrowing program (A) 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

129. How many households were found to have access to toilets According to National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey (NARSS) 2017-18? (A) 93% (B) 73% (C) 83% (D) 63%

130. In which of the following five year plans in India, the actual expenditure on the Rural Development was almost double than the plan outlay? (A) 5th Five year Plan (B) 6th Five year Plan (C) 7th Five year Plan (D) 8th Five year Plan

131. What is India’s rank in World Happiness Index 2018, recently released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network? (A) 133rd (B) 123rd (C) 134th (D) 144th

132. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme was launched by Prime Minister in__________ (A) January 2015 (B) January 2016 (C) January 2016 (D) January 2017

133. Mortgage is a__________ (A) Security on movable property for a loan (B) Security on immovable property for a loan (C) Concession on immovable property (D) Security on loan sanctioned against fixed deposits

134. Who decides on the quantity of coins to be minted? (A) The Government of India (B) RBI (C) Either 1 or 2 (D) None



A

135. The expenditure in India is classified as capital and revenue. Which of the following is/are revenue expenditure? 1. Interest payments on debt 2. Loans granted by central government 3. Subsidies (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

136. The Trade facilitation agreement (TFA) of the WTO says that farm subsidies cannot be more than 10 percent of the (A) Gross Domestic Product of a country. (B) Value of agricultural production. (C) National income of a country. (D) Value of agricultural exports.

137. Who among the following was the chairman of Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC)? (A) Y H Malegam (B) Shivraj V patil (C) Debi Prasad Pal (D) B N Srikrishna

138. The term “Golden Revolution” is most closely related to which of the following missions? (A)National Solar Mission (B)National Horticulture Mission (C) National Mission on Clean Coal Technologies (D) National Bamboo Mission

139. At which of the following levels, Central Cooperative Banks are established in India? (A) District Level (B) State Level (C) Inter-state level (D) India Level

140. Twin deficit in an economy means (A) High current account deficit and high fiscal deficit. (B) High capital account deficit and high fiscal deficit (C) High current account deficit and high capital account deficit. (D) High budget deficit and high fiscal deficit.

141. Industrial Licensing was finally abolished in India in which of the following years? (A) 1990 (B) 1991 (C) 1992 (D) 1993

142. How many key infrastructure sectors are known as Core sector in Indian Economy, used for Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

143. In which year, the restructured Twenty Point Programme (TPP) became effective? (A) 2005 (B) 2006 (C) 2007 (D) 2008

144. Gross budgetary support means: (A) centre’s contribution to budget (B) Expenditure in budget on social schemes (C) Assistance provided by the Centre to five year plan. (D) None of the above

145. Which among the following decides the Oil Prices in India? (A) Government of India (B) Government of Respective States (C) Ministry of Petroleum (D) Oil Companies

146. Which among the following body regulates Mutual Funds in India? (A) RBI (B) SEBI (C) NABARD (D) AMFI

147. Under which among the following acts, Hawala transactions are banned in India? (A) FERA (B) FEMA (C) FRBMA (D) AFSPA

148. The Ad Valorem Tax is applied on which among the following? (A) The price of commodity (B) The unit of the commodity (C) The advertisement expenditure (D) The value added

149. ” Income generated from Tourism” can be placed in which among the following? (A) Invisible Import (B) Invisible Export (C) Visible Import (D) Visible Export

150. How much the secondary sector should contribute to the total produce value of an economy to be called as Industrial Economy (A) Only 50% (B) 50% or more (C) Less than 50% (D) None of these

151. Which year India’s trade balance become positive? (A) 2000-03 (B) 2003-06 (C) 2004-07 (D) 2012-2015

152. The ‘Slack Season’ in the Indian Economy is (A) March-April (B) September-December (C) January-June (D) February-April



A

153. The system of issuing and monitoring of money in the market is known as– (A) Proportional reserve rate (B) Fixed reserve ratio (C) Minimum reserve ratio (D) Floating reserve ratio

154. Antodaya programme was started first of all in the state of____ (A) Tamil nadu (B) Orissa (C) Rajasthan (D) West Bengal

155. The most important type of unemployment that exists in India is_____ (A) Frictional unemployment (B) Cyclical unemployment (C) Disguised unemployment (D) Structural unemployment

156. FEMA replaced FERA in the year_______ (A) 1999 (B) 2000 (C) 2002 (D) 2003

157. Infant mortality rate refers to (A) Number of children dying before reaching the school-going age (B) The number of children dying before reaching 3 years of age (C) The proportion of children dying within a years of age (D) None of the above

158. What is the most likely impact of decrease of population on the economy? (A) Increase in per capita income (B) Decrease in per capita income (C) Increase in consumption (D) Decrease in savings

159. The main factor responsible for the accelerated growth of population in India is (A) Low birth rate and low death rate (B) A high birth rate and a falling death rate (C) A rising birth rate and a rising death rate (D) A high birth rate and a high death rate

160. National Rural Employment programme (NREP) was launched in the (A) Third five year plan (B) Fourth five year plan (C) Fifth five year plan (D) Sixth five year plan

161. Which one of the following forms the largest share of deficit in government of India Budget? (A) Budgetary deficit (B) Fiscal deficit (C) Revenue deficit (D) Primary deficit

162. In order to reduce inequalities, the government should adopt (A) Proportional system of taxation (B) Progressive system of taxation (C) Regressive system of taxation (D) None of these

163. In the seventh five year plan ,there was a marked shift in favour of (A) Defence production (B) Consumer goods industries (C) Light capital goods industries (D) Heavy capital goods industries

164. The number of industries included in schedule A of the 1956 Industrial policy Resolution was_____ (A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 17

165. Industrial development in India has been retarded due to (A) Labour unrest (B) Power shortage (C) Capital deficiency (D) All of the above

166. The apex institution in the field of industrial finance is (A) RBI (B) IDBI (C) IFCI (D) ICICI

167. The maximum number of holdings in India are (A) Economic holdings (B) uneconomic holdings (C) Small holdings (D) fragmented holdings

168. Of the following crops, the largest part of the land sown in India is devoted to ___ (A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Sugarcane (D) oilseeds

169. The Reserve Bank of India provides_______ (A) Direct finance to agriculture (B) Refinance to agriculture (C) Direct short-term finance to agriculture (D) Direct long-term finance to agriculture

170. Bonded Labour System(Abolition) Act was passed in the year (A) 1946 (B) 1956 (C) 1969 (D) 1976

171. Which amidst the following taxes collected by the Union is NOT mandated to be assigned to the States? (A) Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air (B) Taxes on railway fares and freights (C) Taxes on consignment of goods (D) Service Tax



A

172. Which among the following country is India’s top trading partner? (A) UAE (B) USA (C) Japan (D) China

173. At end of October 2017, the number of ‘Maharatna’ public sector enterprises stands at— (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

174. What is the base year in India for Consumer Price Index? (A) 1999-2000 (B) 2004-05 (C) 2011-12 (D) 2013-14

175. ‘Digital India’ programme was launched in (A) April 2015 (B) July 2015 (C) October 2015 (D) January 2016

176. RBI replaced PLR system with? (A) CRR (B) SLR (C) MCLR (D) NCLR

177. ‘Dear Money’ means (A) Low rate of interest (B) high rate of interest (C) Depression (D) inflation

178. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called? (A) FDI (B) Portfolio Investment (C) NRI Investment (D) Foreign Indirect Investment

179. Who said ‘Supply creates its own demand’? (A) Adam Smith (B) J. B. Say (C) Marshall (D) Ricardo

180. Which of the following is “Plastic Money”? (A) Only debit card (B) Only credit card (C) Both credit and debit card (D) None of the above

181. The Imperial Bank of India, after its nationalization came to be known as (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) United Bank of India (D) Indian Overseas Bank

182. Which State of India has youngest population? (A) Bihar (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Punjab

183. Which of the following is not the function of the Reserve Bank of India? (A) Acting as banker to the Government (B) Keeping of Foreign Exchange Reserve (C) Issuing of one rupee notes and coins (D) Regulating credit in the country

184. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in? (A) Geneva (B) Paris (C) Vienna (D) Washington

185. Which one of the following items is not included in the current account of India’s Balance of Payments? (A) Short-term commercial borrowings (B) Non-monetary gold movements (C) Investment income (D) Transfer payments

186. Which one of the following organization released “Ease of Doing business report” every year? (A) WTO (B) IMF (C) WORLD BANK (D) UNCTAD

187. What are the main components of basic social infrastructure of an economy? (A) Education, Industry and Agriculture (B) Education, Health and Civil Amenities (C) Transport, Health and Banks (D) Industry, Trade and Transport

188. What is the salary of President as per Union Budget 2018? (A) Rs 5 lakh (B) Rs 4 lakh (C) Rs 3 lakh (D) Rs 2 lakh

189. Which of the following decide Minimum support price? (A) NABARD (B) Ministry of agriculture (C) Ministry of commerce and industry (D) Commission for Agricultural Cost and Price

190. Who was the first Finance minister of independent India? (A) John Mathai (B) C. D Deshmukhi (C) Liaquat Ali Khan (D) Shanmukhan Chetty

191. Which of the following Schemes has Objective to skill 1 crore youth in the next 3 years? (A) Startup, Standup (B) MNREGA (C) PM Kaushal Vikas Yojna (D)Deen Dayal Upadhyaay Grameen Kaushalaya Yojna



A

192. Indian agriculture is typically characterized as: (A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy (B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy (C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy (D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

193. Which of the given statement is correct? (A) Under Ujjwala scheme distribution of free LPG connections will be given to 8 crore women. (B) Under Saubahagya Yojana 4 crore poor households are being provided with electricity connection (C) More than one crore houses will be built by 2019 in rural areas, to fulfil target of housing for all by 2022 (D) 6 crore toilets will be constructed under Swachh Bharat Mission till March 2019

194. Which of the following tax is abolished by the Goods and Services Tax? (A) Property tax (B) Corporation tax (C) VAT (D) All of the above

195. According to the 2018-19 budget speech of Arun Jaitley, India is at third rank on the basis of what? (A) Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) (B) Gross domestic product (GDP) (C) Agricultural Production (D) Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

196. India has highest foreign debt in the form of........... (A) Non Resident Indian deposits (B) Commercial borrowing (C) Loans taken from International Monetary Fund (D) None of the above

197. As per Budget 2018, which three firms will be merged and then listed? (A) UTI, Oriental Insurance and National Insurance (B) LIC, Bharti AXA and United Insurance (C) General Insurance, Max Bupa and UTI (D) None of the above

198. If 'SI Classes' imports a product from abroad, then which tax will be levied on it? (A) VAT (B) Custom duty (C) Income tax (D) Corporation tax

199. According to budget 2017-18, which is the correct decreasing order of the government tax revenue? (A) Income Tax> Corporation Tax> Service Tax. (B) Income tax> Corporate tax> product tax (C) Corporate tax> income tax> product tax (D) Corporate tax> product tax> income tax

200. 100 people went for a job in a company. The company told them that while there is a vacancy, none of them possess the skill required for the job. What kind of unemployment would this be called? (A) Disguised unemployment (B) Structural unemployment (C) Cyclical unemployment (D) None



A

1. Pointing to towards a person in the photograph, Hayat said, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother.” How is the person related to Hayat? (A) Father (B) Maternal Uncle (C) Cousin (D) None of these

2. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are the names of two rivers, three canals and two valleys. B, G and D are not canals. E and F are not rivers. C is a canal but A is a valley. B, F and G are not valleys. Which are the two rivers? (A) A and D (B) B and D (C) B and G (D) A and G

3. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ESRO using each letter only once in each word? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

4. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations If 6 * 5 = 91 8 * 7 = 169 10 * 7 = 211 Then 11 * 10 =? (A) 331 (B) 993 (C) 678 (D) 845

5. What comes in the place of (?) in the given series? 4, 24, 6, ?, 8, 80, 10 (A) 40 (B) 60 (C) 48 (D) 66

6. Find the missing term: 4, 8, 28, 80, 244, ? (A) 278 (B) 428 (C) 648 (D) 728

7. Horse : Jockey :: Car : ? (A) Chauffeur (B) Steering (C) Mechanic (D) Brake

8. Anthropology : Man :: Anthology : ? (A) Nature (B) Poems (C) Trees (D) Apes

9. ‘Secretly’ is to ‘Openly’ as silently is to (A) Quietly (B) Scarcely (C) Impolitely (D) Noisily

10. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. which one does not belong to that group? (A) Tooth (B) Nose (C) Ear (D) Eye

11. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. which one does not belong to that group? (A) Lollipop (B) Marshmallow (C) Oreo (D) iOS

12. If in a certain code language ‘NAME’ is written as ‘OYPA’, then how will ‘TEAM’ be coded in that language? (A) UCDI (B) UCID (C) UICD (D) UDCI

13. If P is taller than Q, R is shorter than P, S is taller than T but shorter than Q, then who among them is the tallest? (A) P (B) Q (C) S (D) T

14. If ‘DOG’ is called ‘CAT’, ‘CAT’ is called ‘TIGER’, ‘TIGER’ is called ‘COW’, ‘COW’ is called ‘LION’, then Which of the following is India’s National Animal? (A) TIGER (B) CAT (C) COW (D) LION

15. Which of the following Venn-diagram correctly illustrates the relationship among the classes? Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (Q.16 – 17): read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are six children playing football, namely P, Q, R, S, T and U. P and T are brothers, U is the sister of T. R is the only son of P’s uncle. Q and S are the daughters of the only brother of R’s father.

16. How R is related to U? (A) Cousin (B) Brother (C) Son (D) Uncle

17. How many male players are there? (A) One (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five

18. Avishek started positioning his back towards the sun. After sometime, he turned left then turned right and then towards the left again. In which direction is he going now? (A) North or South (B) East or West (C) North or West (D) South or West


WBCS (EXE.) ETC. Examination (Mains), 2018 PAPER VI

Full Marks: 200 Test Code: M1806 Date:27/05/2018 Time: 3 hours

Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3rd

marks will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

Test Booklet Series

A



A

19. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F, E is in the opposite of D, and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. Who is opposite to B? (A) C (B) D (C) F (D) None of these

20. What number comes inside the circle?

(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 2 (D) 6

21. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost ₹77 but three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost ₹73. What are the fares for cities B and C from A? (A) ₹4, ₹23 (B) ₹13, ₹17 (C) ₹15, ₹14 (D) ₹17, ₹13

22. What comes next in the series? 2, 2, 5, 13, 28, ? (A) 49 (B) 50 (C) 51 (D) 52

23. A number of bacteria are placed in a glass. One second later each bacterium divides into two, the next second each of the resulting bacteria divides in two again, etc. After one minute the glass become half-full. When will the glass become full after that particular time? (A) after 1 minute (B) after 2 minutes (C) after 1 minute and 1 second (D) after 1 second

24. Which of the following is not a leap year? (A) 1900 (B) 2000 (C) 2016 (D) None of these

25. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder, which starts slipping between a vertical wall and the floor of a room. The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder, is (A) a straight line (B) an elliptical path (C) a circular path (D) a parabolic path

26. The missing number in the following series: - 6, 5, 11, 16, 27,?, 70, 113 (A) 41 (B) 42 (C) 43 (D) 53

27. If 'eraser' is called 'box', 'box' is called 'pencil', 'pencil' is called 'sharpener', and 'sharpener' is called 'bag', what will a child write with? (A) Eraser (B) Bag (C) Pencil (D) Sharpener

28. Pradip goes on a picnic trip and meets a boy B. B is the son of C and C is the sister of Pradip. How is Pradip related to B? (A) uncle (B) nephew (C) brother (D) maternal uncle

29. Which of the following pairs is not similar to others? (A) Water : Thirst (B) Talent : Education (C) Food : Hunger (D) Air : Suffocation

30. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT will be equal to (A) 39 (B) 41 (C) 44 (D) 46

Directions (Q.31 – 33): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below.

- B and E are good in Dramatics and Computer Science.

- A and B are good in Computer Science and Physics. - A, D and C are good in Physics and History. - C and A are good in Physics and Mathematics. - D and E are good in History and Dramatics.

31. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics but not in Computer Science? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

32. Who is good in Computer Science, History and Dramatics? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E

33. Who among the following is good in most of the subjects? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E

34. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and find the one that comes 3rd from the end? (A) Plane (B) Plain (C) Plenty (D) Player

35. If A + B = 2C and C + D = 2A, then (A) A + C = B + D (B) A + C = 2D (C) A + D = B + C (D) A + C = 2B

36. Find the missing term in the series: 4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294, 448 (A) 48 (B) 50 (C) 58 (D) 60

37. Rubber is related to Tree in the same way as Silk is related to ______ (A) Cloth (B) Insects (C) Fabric (D) Weave

38. Find the wrong term: 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150 (A) 72 (B) 90 (C) 110 (D) 150

39. Eye : Myopia :: Teeth : ? (A) Cataract (B) Trachoma (C) Eczema (D) Pyorrhoea



A

40. Find the missing term in the series: 1, 2, 3, 10, ?, 9802 (A) 99 (B) 199 (C) 299 (D) 999

41. Consider the following pictures of dice:

What is the number opposite to 3? (A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) Data inadequate

42. Ramesh ranks 13th in the class of 33 students. There are 5 students below Suresh rank wise. How many students are there between Ramesh and Suresh? (A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 16

43. The 7th term in the following series: - ab2+bc2+cd2+…. (A) de2 (B) fg2 (C) ef2 (D) gh2

44. In a town of 500 people, 285 read Hindu and 212 read Indian Express and 127 read Times of India, 20 read Hindu and Times of India and 29 read Hindu and Indian Express and 35 read Times of India and Indian express. 50 read no newspaper. Then how many read only one paper? (A) 123 (B) 231 (C) 312 (D) 321

45. In a certain coding language, if GO = 32 & SHE = 49 then SOME will be equal to? (A) 56 (B) 58 (C) 62 (D) 64

46. If DIAMOND is coded as VQYMKLV, how is FEMALE coded? (A) TVNYNV (B) UVNZOV (C) TUMZOU (D) TUMYNU

47. A man coming out of the backdoor of his house which is facing East, walked for one kilometre, turned to his right and walked for another kilometre. Then he turned to his right and walked a kilometre again. Where was he from his house as the end? (A) 1 kilometre away in North (B) 1 kilometre away in South (C) 1 kilometre away in East (D) I kilometre away in West

48. Avijit put his watch on the table in such a way that at 6 PM hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 PM? (A) South-East (B) South (C) North (D) West

Directionss (Q.49 – 51): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below. There are six students Apurba, Basir, Kashib, Nur, Anis and Qutub. Basir and Qutub belong to Haji Palace and the rest belong to Gazi Palace. Anis and Kashib are tall while other students are short. Qutub, Anis and Apurba are identified wearing jeans while others are wearing caps.

49. Which students are not wearing jeans and are short? (A) Apurba and Nur (B) Basir and Nur (C) Qutub and Nur (D) Basir and Kashib

50. Which short student of Gazi Palace is wearing a cap? (A) Kashib (B) Anis (C) Apurba (D) Nur

51. Which tall student of Gazi Palace is wearing jeans? (A) Kashib (B) Qutub (C) Apurba (D) Anis

52. A fires 5 shots to B's 3 but A kills only once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2 shots. When B has missed 27 times, A has killed: (A) 30 birds (B) 60 birds (C) 72 birds (D)90 birds

53. In a certain code '13' means 'stop smoking' and '59' means 'injurious habit'. What is the meaning of '9' and '5' respectively in that code? I. '157' means 'stop bad habit'. II. '839' means 'smoking is injurious'. (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient answer the question (C) If the data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question (D) If the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question

54. College : Dean : : Museum : ? (A) Supervisor (B) Curator (C) Custodian (D) Warden

55. Cattle : Herd : : Sheep : ? (A) Folk (B) Swarm (C) Mob (D) Bunch

56. Yard is to inch as quart is to (A) gallon (B) ounce (C) milk (D) liquid

57. Rohit walked 25 m towards south. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 m. He then turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right and walked 15 m. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction? (A) 5 m West (B) 35 m East (C) 20 m North (D) 5 m East

58. Find the odd one out: (A) Mango (B) Orange (C) Cashew (D) Grapes



A

59. A person starts towards South direction. Which of the following orders of directions will lead him to East? (A) Right, Right, Right (B) Left, Left, Left (C) Left, Right, Right (D) Right, Left, Right

60. Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, ? (A) 47U15 (B) 47V14 (C) 45U15 (D) 27U24

61. 240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2 (A) 180 (B) 240 (C) 220 (D) 200

62. U32, V29, ?, X23, Y20 (A) W25 (B) W26 (B) X24 (D) Y27

63. In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, the square represents sports persons and the circle represents coaches. The portion in the figure which represents girls who are sports persons but not coaches is the one labelled as

(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E

64. If Q means 'add to', J means 'multiply by', T means 'subtract from' and K means 'divide by' then 30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 = ? (A) 18 (B) 28 (C) 31 (D) 103

Directions (Q.65 – 66): read the following and answer the question below:

In a certain code language, ‘pit na som’ means ‘bring me water’ ‘na jo tod’ means ‘water is life’ ‘tub od pit’ means 'give me toy’ ‘jo lin kot’ means ‘life and death’

65. How can ‘water and toy’ probably be written? (A) ‘som na tub’ (B) ‘na jo tod’ (C) ‘lin jo pit’ (D) ‘tub na kot’

66. Which of the following represents 'is' in that language? (A) jo (B) na (C) tod (D) lin

67. Amit said to Mohan, “That boy in red shirt is younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife.” How is the boy in red shirt related to Amit? (A) Father (B) Uncle (C) Brother (D) Nephew

68. 5, 16, 51, 158, ? (A) 1452 (B) 483 (C) 481 (D) 1454

69. 3, 9, 6, 36, 30, ? (A) 90 (B) 270 (C) 600 (D) 900

70. What will come in place of the question mark(?)? EJO, TYD, INS, XCH, ? (A) NRW (B) NSX (C) MRW (D) MSX

71. 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, ? (A) 76 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 50

72. Seismography : Earthquake :: Taseometer : ? (A) Landslides (B) Strains (C) Resistances (D) Volcanoes

73. ‘Save’ is related to ‘Rescue’ in the same way as ‘Severe’ is related to – (A) Endure (B) Stem (C) Sever (D) Uneasy

74. ‘Nail’ is related to ‘Nail cutter’ in the same way as ‘Hair’ is related to – (A) Oil (B) Comb (C) Scissors (D) Haircut

75. Roaster : Duty : : Inventory : ? (A) Furnace (B) Exports (C) Goods (D) Produce

76. Find the odd one out: (A) Ginger (B) Garlic (C) Onion (D) Coriander

77. Which word does NOT belong with the others? (A) Cornea (B) Retina (C) Pupil (D) Vision

78. P, Q, R, Sand T reside in a five-storeyed (Ground + 4) building, and each of them resides on a separate floor. Further: 1. T does not reside on the topmost floor. 2. Q does not reside on the ground floor. 3. S resides on one storey above that of P and one storey below that of R. To know as the which one of the five persons resides on the ground floor which of the above statements are sufficient/ insufficient? (A) 1 and 3 are sufficient (B) 2 and 3 are sufficient (C) 1, 2 and 3 are sufficient (D) 1, 2 and 3 are insufficient

79. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. C and D are standing close to each other alongside E. B is standing beside A only. A is fourth from F. Who are standing on the extremes? (A) A and F (B) B and D (C) B and F (D) None of the above



A

80. In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English while 3 of them read none of these two. How many of them read French and English both? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

81. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet (X) is folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

82. Y is in the East of X which is the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction is Y of P? (A) North (B) North-East (C) South-East (D) South-West

83. One morning after sunrise, Priyanka and Aahana were standing in a lawn with their backs towards each other. Priyanka’s shadow felt exactly towards left hand side. Which direction was Aahana facing? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

84. In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code language? (A) MFEDJJOE (B) EOJDEJFM (C) MFEJDJOE (D) EOJDJEFM

85. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code? (A) DEQJQM (B) DCQHQK (C) EDRIRL (D) ESJFME

86. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become? (A) North-East (B) North-West (C) South-East (D) South-West

87. A girl facing North. She turns 180o in anti-clockwise direction and then 225o in the clock-wise direction. Which direction is she facing now? (A) West (B) North-East (C) South-West (D) North-West

88. Find the odd word among the following – (A) Sweetness (B) Elegant (C) Bright (D) Beautiful

89. Find the odd one out: (A) Brass (B) Gun metal (C) Bronze (D) Germanium

90. Which of the following does not belongs to the group? (A) Green (B) Indigo (C) Pink (D) Violet

91. Identify the pairs which is dissimilar to other pairs – (A) Ice cube : Cold (B) Iron : Hard (C) Marble : Smooth (D) Purse : Money

92. If A, B, C are distinct digits and A B C + B C A + C A B A B B C Then the value of A + B + C is (A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19

93. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A? (A) Brother (B) Sister (C) Nephew (D) Cannot be determined

94. Identify the diagram that best expresses the relationship among the classes given below Tea, Coffee, Drink

(A) (B) (C) (D)

95. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu’s sister is Reema. Reema’s husband is Rajan. Raghu’s mother is Lakshmi. Lakshmi’s husband is Rajesh. How is Rajesh related to Rajan? (A) Son-in-law (B) Uncle (C) Cousin (D) Father-in-law

96. If in a certain code language ‘THREAT’ is written as ‘RHTTAE’, then how will ‘PEARLY’ be written in that code? (A) YLRAEP (B) YLRPAE (C) AEPYLR (D) AEPRYL

97. If MEKLF is coded as 91782 and LLLJK as 88867, then how can IGHED be coded? (A) 97854 (B) 64521 (C) 53410 (D) 75632

98. Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.

Conclusions: I. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future. II. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life. (A) Only conclusion I follows (B) Only conclusion II follows (C) Neither I nor II follows (D) Both I and II follow



A

99. Statements: All the pencils are pens. All the pens are inks. Conclusions: I. All the pencils are inks. II. Some inks are pencils. (A) Only (I) conclusion follows (B) Only (II) conclusion follows (C) Neither (I) nor (II) follows (D) Both (I) and (II) follow

100. Statement: Some kings are queens. All the queens are beautiful. Conclusion: I. All the kings are beautiful II. All the queens are kings. (A) Only I follows (B) Only II follows (C) Neither I or II follows (D) Both I and II follows.

101. If the unit digit in (549 × 56 × 28D × 684) be 8, then what will be there in place of ‘D’? (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

102. (12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + 52 – 62 + … + 92 – 102)= ? (A) 45 (B) – 45 (C) – 54 (D) – 55

103. The sum of first five prime number is – (A) 11 (B) 18 (C) 26 (D) 28

104. With a two-digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with digits reserved. How many such numbers are possible? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 1

105. A merchant has three different types of milk: 435 litres, 493 litres and 551 litres. Find the least number of casks of equal size required to store all the milk without mixing. (A) 51 (B) 61 (C) 47 (D) 45

106. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is: (A) 50 km (B) 56 km (C) 70 km (D) 80 km

107. Sum of a few number is 450 and their mean is 50. If another number 100 is included, the mean would become (A) 55 (B) 60 (C) 75 (D) 150

108. A man had ₹8400. He lent a part of it at 8% SI and

the remaining at 6 2

3 % SI. His total annual income was

₹588. Find the sum he lent at 8% SI. (A) 4200 (B) 2100

(C) 6300 (D) 3200

109. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their LCM is 2400. Their HCF is – (A) 40 (B) 80 (C) 120 (D) 200

110. H.C.F of 3240, 3600 and the third number is 36 and their L.C.M Is (24 × 35 × 52 × 72). The third number is: (A) 25 × 52 × 72 (B) 23 × 35 × 72 (C) 22× 35 × 72 (D) 22 × 53 × 72

111. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If B does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will complete the work? (A) 17 days (B) 18 days (C) 15 days (D) 16 days

112. X can do ¼ of a work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first? (A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) Data inadequate

113. A businessman allows a discount of 10% on the written price. How much above the cost price must he marked his goods to make a profit of 17% ? (A) 30% (B) 20% (C) 27% (D) 18%

114. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is: (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 25

115. A clock takes 10 seconds to strike at 6 O’clock. How much time will it take to strike at 12 O’clock? (A) 20 seconds (B) 22 seconds (C) 23 seconds (D) 24 seconds

116. The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a sum of ₹4000 for 2 years at 5% per annum payable yearly is – (A) ₹ 20 (B) ₹10 (C) ₹ 40 (D) ₹60

117. A is 9 years older than B who is six times as old as C. The total of the ages of A, B and C is 139 years. What is the product of A and B ages? (A) 1440 (B) 4340 (C) 4140 (D) 4542

118. If a - b = 3 and a2 + b2 = 29, find the value of ab. (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 18

119. (225)2.5 ÷ (225)? = 225 (A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 1.05 (D) none of these

120. If 𝑃

𝑄 =7, then

𝑃 + 𝑄

𝑃 − 𝑄 = ?

(A) 7

8 (B)

1

3



A

(C) 2

3 (D)

4

3

121. Some students planned a picnic. The budget for food was ₹500. But 5 of them failed to go and thus the cost of food for each member increased by ₹5. How many students attended the picnic? (A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30

122. √248 + √52 + √144 = ?

(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 16.6 (D) 18.8

123. The smallest number of 4 digits, which is a perfect square, is – (A) 1000 (B) 1016 (C) 1024 (D) 1036

124. In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against the stream. The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is: (A) 3 km/hr (B) 5 km/hr (C) 8 km/hr (D) 9 km/h

125. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream that upstream. What is the ration between rate in still water and rate of current? (A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3

126. A person borrows ₹5000 for 2 years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately lends it to another

person at 6 1

4 p.a. for 2 years. Find his gain in the

transaction per year. (A) ₹225 (B) ₹112.50 (C) ₹125 (D) ₹150

127. Kalyan took a loan of ₹1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid ₹432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest? (A) 6% (B) 7% (C) 5% (D) 8%

128. It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the following numbers is definitely divisible by the same number? (A) (216 + 1) (B) (216 - 1) (C) (7 x 223) (D) (296 + 1)

129. If the Republic Day of India in 1980 falls on Saturday, X was born on March 3, 1980 and Y is older to X by four days, then Y’s birthday fell on (A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Wednesday (D) None of these

130. The difference between the squares of two consecutive even integers is always divisible by – (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7

131. {(49)15 – 1} is exactly divisible by – (A) 8 (B) 14

(C) 50 (D) 51

132. How many numbers between 200 and 600 are divisible by 4, 5 and 6? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

133. How many terms are there in 2, 4, 8, 16, ...., 1024? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

134. 99998

99X99 is equal to

(A) 99899 (B) 99989 (C) 99999 (D) 98999

135. A constable is 114 m behind a thief. The constable runs 41 m and the thief runs 35 m in a minute. In what time will the constable catch the thief? (A) 16 minutes (B) 17 minutes (C) 18 minutes (D) 19 minutes

136. A batsman makes a score of 58 runs in the 6th innings and thus increases his average by 3 runs. What is the average after 6th innings? (A) 16 (B) 40 (C) 43 (D) 46

137. In an examination full marks is 1000. A gets 20% more than B and B gets 25% more marks than C. If C gets 500 marks, percentage of marks that A gets is (A) 75% (B) 60% (C) 50% (D) 45%

138. If the ratio of principal and amount after 5 years be 4:5, rate of interest per annum will be (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

139. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is: (A) 70 km/hr (B) 75 km/hr (C) 84 km/hr (D) 87.5 km/hr

140. Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run at the speed of 60 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time (in seconds) which they take to cross each other, is: (A) 9 (B) 9.6 (C) 10 (D) 10.8

141. 20 men complete one-third of a piece of work in 20 days. How many more men should be employed to finish the rest of the work in 25 more days? (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20

142. In what proportion must water be added to spirit to gain 20% by selling it at the cost price? (A) 2:5 (B) 1:5 (C) 1:2 (D) 4:5

143. The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 6 and their LCM is 480, then their HCF is – (A) 20 (B) 16



A

(C) 6 (D) 5

144. In what ratio must a grocer mix tea worth ₹60 a kg and ₹65 a kg so that by selling the mixture at ₹68.20 a kg, he may gain 10%? (A) 3:2 (B) 3:4 (C) 3:5 (D) 4:5

145. A sold a watch to B at 20% gain and B sold it to C at a loss of 10%. If C bought the watch for ₹216, at what price did A sold it? (A) 200 (B) 216 (C) 250 (D) 240

146. If a * B = ab + b – a, what is the value of c such that c * (2 * 5) = 97? (A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) 91

147. If 5 women or 8 girls can do a work in 84 days. In how many days can 10 women and 5 girls can do the same work? (A) 32 days (B) 48 days (C) 52 days (D) 38 days

148. A can do a piece of work in 25 days and B can finish it in 20 days. They work together for 5 days and then A leaves. In how many days will B finish the remaining work? (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11

149. If the sum of two number is 10 and the sum of their

reciprocals is 5

12, the numbers would be –

(A) (8, 2) (B) (6, 4) (C) (7, 3) (D) (9, 1)

150. Find the third proportional to 9 and 12. (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 21

151. A train moves past a post and a platform 264-meter-long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds respectively. What is the speed of the train? (A) 74km/h (B) 64 km/h (C) 79.2 km/h (D) 69km/h

152. In a 60-litre mixture, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is: (A) 20 litres (B) 30 litres (C) 40 litres (D) 60 litres

153. A shopkeeper offers his customers 10% discount and still makes a profit of 26%. What is the actual cost of an article for him, marked ₹280? (A) ₹175 (B) ₹200 (C) ₹215 (D) ₹225

154. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit? (A) 30% (B) 70%

(C) 100% (D) 250%

155. The last day of a century cannot be (A) Monday (B) Wednesday (C) Tuesday (D) Friday

156. The largest number which divides 77, 147 and 252 to leave the same reminder in each case (A) 9 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 35

157. The boys of a school can be arranged in 15, 18 or 24 equal rows and also into a perfect square. The least number of boys in the school is (A) 900 (B) 1600 (C) 2500 (D) 3600

158. In covering a distance of 30 km, A takes 2 hours more than B. If A doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than B. A's speed is: (A) 5 kmph (B) 6 kmph (C) 6.25 kmph (D) 7.5 kmph

159. It takes 8 hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is: (A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3

160. If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 4, then 𝐴

𝐵 :

𝐵

𝐶 :

𝐶

𝐴 =?

(A) 8 : 9: 16 (B) 8 : 9 : 12 (C) 8 : 9 : 24 (D) 4 : 9 : 16

161. If a : b = b : c, then (a4 : b4)=? (A) b2 : ac (B) c2 : a2

(C) a2 : c2 (D) ac : b2

162. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is: (A) 2 : 5 (B) 3 : 5 (C) 4 : 5 (D) 6 : 7

163. Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is: (A) 75 (B) 81 (C) 85 (D) 89

164. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then sum of the number is: (A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 64

165. 10 cats caught 10 rats in 10 seconds. How many cats are required to catch 100 rats in 100 seconds (A) 100 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 50

166. 465 coins consists of 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. Their values are in the ratio 5:3:1. The number of each type of coins is – (A) 155, 186, 124 (B) 154, 187, 124 (C) 154, 185, 126 (D) 150, 140, 175



A

167. A car covers 4 successive 3km stretches at speed of 10kmph, 20kmph, 30kmph & 60kmph resp. Its average speed is (A) 20 km/h (B) 25 km/h (C) 30 km/h (D) 35 km/h

168. A, B, C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. If A is assisted by B and C on every third day, the work will be finished in (A) 10 days (B) 15 days (C) 18 days (D) 20 day

169. There are eight mango trees in a straight line. The distance between each mango tree with other is 3 metres. What is the distance between first tree and eighth tree? (A) 24 m (B) 27 m (C) 30 m (D) 21 m

170. A shepherd had 27 sheep. All but 10 died. How many he left with? (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 17 (D) 27

171. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. Both pipes being opened, time when the first pipe must be turned off so that cistern may be filled in 10 minutes more will be (A) 8 minutes (B) 9 minutes (C) 10 minutes (D) 12 minutes

172. 40 men takes 8 days to earn ₹2000. How many men will earn ₹200 in 2 days? (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 16

173. A boy and a girl together fill a cistern with water. The Boy pours 3L of water in every 4 minutes and the girl pours 4L of water in every 3 minutes. How much time will they take to fill the whole cistern of capacity 100L? (A) 17 minutes (B) 24 minutes (C) 48 minutes (D) 60 minutes

174. Express a speed of 36 km/h in meters per second: (A) 10 m/s (B) 12 m/s (C) 14 m/s (D) 17 m/s

175. A trader has a weighing balance that shows 1200 gm for a kilogram. He further marks up his cost price by 10%. The total gain percentage of the trader is – (A) 30% (B) 32% (C) 31.75% (D) 23.5%

176. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely? (A) 3 hrs 15 min (B) 3 hrs 45 min (C) 4 hrs (D) 4 hrs 15 min

177. By selling a table for ₹350 instead of ₹400, loss percent increases by 5%. The cost price of the table is – (A) ₹435 (B) ₹417.50

(C) ₹1000 (D) ₹1050

178. Every time a man hits the target he gets one rupee and every time he misses the target he has to pay the rupee. He is allowed to try 100 times and gets an amount of ₹30. How many times did he hit the target? (A) 30 (B) 65 (C) 70 (D) 75

179. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards North-East. In which direction does its hour hand points at 10:30 PM? (A) South (B) South-West (C) North (D) North-West

180. (256)0.16 × (16)0.18 =? (A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 64 (D) 256.25

181. A man divides ₹75,000 among 4 sons and 3 daughters. So that son got as much as three daughters together got. Each daughter got – (A) ₹15,000 (B) ₹10,000 (C) ₹7,500 (D) ₹5,000

182. In a division sum, the remainder is 0. As student mistook the divisor by 12 instead of 21 and obtained 35 as quotient. What is the correct quotient? (A) 0 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 20

183. The least square number which is completely divided by 8, 12 and 18 is - (A) 100 (B) 121 (C) 64 (D) 144

184. The sum of 5+6+7+8……19 is

(A) 150 (B)170

(C) 180 (D) 190

185. A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a work in 12 days independently, the number of days in which A and B can together finish the work is (A) 4 days (B) 3 days (C) 6 days (D) 5 days

186. A tap can empty a tank in one hour, a second tap can empty it in 30mins. If both the taps operate simultaneously, how much time is needed to empty the tank? (A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 44

187. A fruit seller buys lemon at 2 for a rupee and sells them at 5 for 3 rupees. His gain percent is – (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 25%

188. Two persons starting from the same place walk at a rate of 5kmph and 5.5kmph respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5km apart, if they walk in the same direction? (A) 17 hrs (B) 22 hrs (C) 25 hrs (D) 12 hrs



A

189. Out of 11 numbers, average of first 6 numbers is 8.5 and the average of last six numbers is 6.5. If the average of 11 numbers is 8, the sixth number is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

190. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. The profit percent is – (A) 66.67% (B) 100% (C) 105.33% (D) 120%

191. Find the largest natural number which exactly

divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural

numbers

(A) 36 (B) 24

(C) 48 (D) 32

192. √20 + √20 + √20 + ⋯ .=?

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C)-4 (D) 5

193. The price of petrol is increased by 25%, By how much percentage a car owner should reduce his consumption of petrol so that the expenditure on petrol would not be increased? (A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 20% (D) 30%

194. A number is first increased by 10% and then reduced by 10%. The number – (A) does not change (B) decrease by 1% (C) increase by 1% (D) none of the above

195. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is: (A) 250 (B) 276 (C) 280 (D) 285

196. A train 150 m long passes a km stone in 15 seconds and another train of the same length travelling in opposite direction in 8 seconds. The speed of the second train is (A) 96 km/h (B) 97 km/h (C) 98 km/h (D) 99 km/h

197. A man completes a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km. (A) 220 km (B) 224 km (C) 230 km (D) 234 km

198. 666 ÷ 6 ÷ 3 =? (A) 37 (B) 333 (C) 111 (D) 84

199. A and B take 15 and 20 days respectively. They worked for 4 days, and then the fraction of work left was

(A) 8

15 (B)

7

15

(C) 6

15 (D)

11

15

200. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially? (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 25

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