model test paper 39 do not open this booklet until you … · 2018-04-28 · 8. one can infer from...

Model Test Paper 39

General Study Paper II

For Detailed Solution Please Visit:

www.PrelimsModelTests.com/order.html

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES

Paper-II

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THE

TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO,

GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test

Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate place

in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the

Box provided alongside . DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You

will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is

more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose

ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,

you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your

Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take

away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong Answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE

QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong

answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be

deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that

question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

C

Model Test Paper 39




Fictional stories about people who have extraordinary abilities have always attracted people's attention. One of them is the story of Vera Petrova, who is able to perceive things with different parts of her skin, and through solid walls. One day she comes into his father's office and puts her hands on the door of a locked safe. Suddenly she asks her father why he keeps so many old newspapers locked away there. Vera's curious talent is brought to the notice of a scientific research institute and she is given a series of tests by a special commission. During these tests she manages to read a newspaper through an opaque screen and then she describes the figures and colors of a picture hidden under a carpet. During all these tests Vera is blindfold; and, indeed, except when blindfold she lacks the ability to perceive things with her skin. It was also found that although she could perceive things with her fingers this ability ceased the moment her hands were wet. 1. As we understand from the reading, Vera Petrova (a) can only perceive things with her fingers (b) is a curious child (c) is not the only fictional character who has extraordinary abilities (d) fails most of the tests administered by a special commission 2. It is pointed out in the reading that Vera Petrova loses the ability to perceive objects with her fingers (a) when her father first notices this ability (b) when she is asked to read a newspaper through an opaque screen (c) after she is given a series of tests (d) as soon as her hands get wet 3. According to the reading, (a) Vera Petrova's father asks her why she keeps the old newspapers in the locked safe (b) the scientific research institute is not interested in Vera Petrova's talent (c) Vera can't perceive objects with her skin unless she is blindfold (d) there are several scientific research institutes which examine people like Vera

The Bermuda Triangle occupies a disturbing and almost unbelievable place in the world's catalog of unexplained mysteries. More than a hundred planes and ships have vanished in this area into the air since 1945, and more than a thousand lives have been lost, without a single body or even a piece wreckage from the vanishing planes or ships having been found. Many of the planes concerned have vanished while in normal radio contact with their base until the very moment of their disappearance, while others have radioed the most extraordinary messages, implying that they could not get their instruments to function, that their compasses were spinning, that the sky had turned yellow and hazy on a clear day, and the ocean, which was calm nearby, didn't look right without further clarification of what was wrong. 4. One can infer from the reading that (a) the wreckages of some ships and planes have been found in the Bermuda Triangle (b) the number of incidents involving lost ships is no larger than that of any other heavily traveled region of the world (c) the ships. and the planes couldn't contact with their base due to the lack of equipments (d) the first mention of disappearances in the area was made in 1945 5. It is pointed out in the passage that (a) thousands of people lost their lives in the Bermuda Triangle in 1945 (b) all of the disappearances happened during the day time (c) the Bermuda Triangle mystery was solved in 1945 (d) the ocean floor near Bermuda, highly unexplored, is host to many strange phenomena 6. The reading mainly deals with (a) why so many ships and planes disappear in the Bermuda Triangle (b) the mysterious disappearances of ships and planes in the Bermuda Triangle (c) the location of the Bermuda Triangle (d) the frequency of the disappearances in the Bermuda Triangle

Model Test Paper 39




When the air is clear, the sunset will appear yellow, because the light from the sun has passed a long distance through air and the blue light has been scattered away. If the air is polluted with small particles, natural or otherwise, the sunset will be more red. Sunsets over the sea may also be orange, due to salt particles in the air. The sky around the sun is seen reddened, as well as the light coming directly from the sun. This is because all light is scattered relatively well through small angles, but blue light is then more likely to be scattered twice over the greater distances, leaving the yellow, red and orange colors. 7. As it is pointed out in the passage, the color of the sunset (a) may be lighter than expected due to salt particles in the air (b) is red if the sky is clear (c) owes its blueness to the distance between the sun and the earth (d) depends on the weather conditions and the location where it takes place 8. One can infer from the passage that the sunset looks yellow because (a) scattering does not play an appreciable role in determining the color of the transmitted light (b) the blue light is scattered on the long way through the air at that time (c) the light coming directly from the sun is blue (d) the air is polluted to such a degree that the Earth's climate is actually changing 9. As it is pointed out in the passage, (a) our eyes are more sensitive to light with blue frequencies (b) the red light passes easily through the air without scattering at all (c) when the sun sets, only the blue light is left (d) the sunset is likely to look orange when small particles, such as salt from sea spray, are in the air An ultralight airplane is very different from a conventional airplane. It looks like a lawn chair with wings, weighs no more than 254 pounds, flies up to

60 miles an hour, and carries about 5 gallons of fuel. Most ultralights are sold as kits and take about 40 hours to assemble. Flying an ultralight is so easy that a pilot with no experience can fly one. Accidents are rarely fatal or even serious because the ultralight lands so slowly and gently and carries so little fuel. Some models now have parachutes attached, while others have parachute packs which pilots can wear. 10. According to the passage, pilots (a) prefer to fly with ultralights rather than with regular aircraft (b) can weigh up to 250 pounds, depending on the model of the ultralight airplane (c) don't think that their ultralight airplanes are simple to use (d) don't need a special training to fly an ultralight airplane 11. We learn from the passage that an ultralight airplane (a) provides the only opportunity to fly affordably (b) doesn't fly very well if it weighs less than 254 pounds (c) is inexpensive but difficult to fly (d) can be put together in a short time 12. It is pointed out in the reading that (a) there is more risk involved in flying ultralight aeroplanes than in flying general aviation aircraft (b) ultralight airplanes can remain airborne for more than an hour (c) the risk of injury to a passenger in an ultralight airplane is very low (d) the gear an ultralight airplane carries can be more fragile than traditional equipment Modern scientific and technological developments in the practice of medicine and public health have drawn nursing into new and wider fields of activity, and its functions have been expanded accordingly. Therefore, nursing is no longer limited mainly to activities within the hospital, or to what is called curative nursing. It has become also a community service in which preventive and rehabilitative functions are a vital part of its program.

Model Test Paper 39




The modern concept of nursing considers the hospital, however central, as only one of many health agencies in the community. 13. As we understand from the reading, today (a) the only reason people go to hospitals is for nursing care (b) most of the nursing practice now takes place in people's homes (c) hospitals are not the only setting where people receive care or support (d) scientific and technological developments can't improve the quality of care that is delivered in hospitals 14. One can infer from the passage that (a) nurses were treating more people in the patient's own home in the past (b) hospitals are the only places where nursing care is crucial (c) nurses don't see the hospital and clinic as important units in the community health program (d) hospitals are still the most important component of the healthcare sector 15. According to the passage, the nurse's function has been expanded because of (a) the nurse's activities in the hospital (b) hospitals, which are the most common work environments for nurses (c) the reluctance of nurses to work in the hospital (d) the progress in science and technology in related fields Much of the blood on the street flows essentially from uncivil behavior of drivers who refuse to respect the legal and moral rights of others. So the massacre on the road may be regarded as a social problem. Safety standards for vehicle have been raised both at the point of manufacture and through periodic road-worthiness inspections. In addition, speed limits have been lowered. Due to these measures, the accident rate has decreased. But the accident experts still worry because there has been little or no improvement in the way drivers behave.

16. According to the passage, traffic accidents may be regarded as a social problem since (a) the motor vehicle is a very dangerous invention (b) the accidents have more to do with hazardous conditions than hazardous drivers (c) most of the accidents are caused by drivers who don't pay attention to the traffic rules (d) the irresponsibility that accounts for much of the problem is not confined to drivers 17. According to the passage, the number of accidents has fallen because (a) significant advances have been made towards safer driving (b) many people now know that driving is a skilled task requiring constant care and concentration (c) drivers are warned to take extra care on the roads (d) drivers have finally learned how to behave 18. It is pointed out in the passage that those who violate traffic regulations (a) are the most inexperienced drivers that we have on the roads (b) always blame the road conditions (c) don't have prior traffic violations or crashes on their records (d) are the biggest threat to those with whom they share the road Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector clerical workers, most of whom are women, were somewhat limited. The factors favoring unionization drives seem to have been either the presence of large numbers of workers, as in New York City, to make it worth the effort, or the concentration of small numbers in one or two locations, such as a hospital, to make it relatively easy. Receptivity to unionization on the workers’ part was also a consideration, but when there were large numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multi-occupational unions would often try to organize them regardless of the workers’ initial receptivity.

Model Test Paper 39




The strategic reasoning was based, first, on the concern that politicians and administrators might play off unionized against non-unionized workers, and, second, on the conviction that a fully unionized public work force meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the legislature. In localities where clerical workers were few in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and expressed no interest in being organized, unions more often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period. But since the mid-1970’s, a different strategy has emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical workers were represented by a labor organization, compared with 46 percent of government professionals, 44 percent of government blue-collar workers, and 41 percent of government service workers. Since then, however, the biggest increases in public-sector unionization have been among clerical workers. Between 1977 and 1980, the number of unionized government workers in blue-collar and service occupations increased only about 1.5 percent, while in the white-collar occupations the increase was 20 percent and among clerical workers in particular, the increase was 22 percent. What accounts for this upsurge in unionization among clerical workers? First, more women have entered the work force in the past few years, and more of them plan to remain working until retirement age. Consequently, they are probably more concerned than their predecessors were about job security and economic benefits. Also, the women’s movement has succeeded in legitimizing the economic and political activism of women on their own behalf, thereby producing a more positive attitude toward unions. The absence of any comparable increase in unionization among private-sector clerical workers, however, identifies the primary catalyst—the structural change in the multi-occupational public-sector unions themselves. Over the past twenty years, the occupational distribution in these unions has been steadily shifting from predominantly blue-collar to predominantly white-collar. Because there are far more women in white-collar jobs, an increase in the proportion of female members has accompanied the occupational shift and has altered union policy-making in favor of organizing women and addressing women’s issues.

19.

What is a name for the potential solution to climate change? (a) Iron nourishment (b) Algal boom (c) Iron seeding (d) Ocean seeding 20.

What are Bio-fuels not referred to as? (a) Sustainable (b) Alternative (c) Renewable (d) Ecological 21.

Which statement is not definitely true? (a) Pay day loans are a $2 billion dollar industry (b) Pay day loans often reach or exceed 4000% APR

Model Test Paper 39




(c) Pay day loans can lead to a debt spiralling effect (d) Pay day loans can lead to bankruptcy 22.

What is the suggested reason for China's slow growth? (a) The Eurozone debt crisis (b) Increase in wages (c) The late 2000 economic crisis (d) Competition with America 23.

What does egalitarianism not definitely oppose? (a) Class straification (b) Capitalism (c) Caste systems (d) Elitism

24.

Which of the following may not be a cause of the drop in number of home repossessions? (a) Lower interest rates (b) Help for unemployed borrowers (c) Financial regulation (d) Collaboration between relevant parties 25.

What country did the identifier of the Pareto principle first identified this phenomenon? (a) Italy (b) USA (c) UK (d) France 26.

Which countries tend to contain hybrid regimes? (a) South America and Latin America countries (b) Asian and eastern European countries (c) North African and middle eastern (d) West African and sub-Sahara

Model Test Paper 39




27.

How deep can the emperor penguin submerge while hunting? (a) 1775ft (b) 1775m (c) 535ft (d) 535m Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth’s orbit around the Sun. For sometime this theory was considered untestable, largely because there was no sufficiently precise chronology of the ice ages with which the orbital variations could be matched. To establish such a chronology it is necessary to determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed at various times in the Earth’s past. A recent discovery makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sediments. Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins, the continental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left behind when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces, the remaining ocean water becomes progressively enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the period, because these sediments are composed of calcium carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the surrounding ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice there was when the sediment was laid down.

As an indicator of shifts in the Earth’s climate, the isotope record has two advantages. First, it is a global record: there is remarkably little variation in isotope ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different continental locations. Second, it is a more continuous record than that taken from rocks on land. Because of these advantages, sedimentary evidence can be dated with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods to establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated isotope record shows that the fluctuations in global ice volume over the past several hundred thousand years have a pattern: an ice age occurs roughly once every 100,000 years. These data have established a strong connection between variations in the Earth’s orbit and the periodicity of the ice ages. However, it is important to note that other factors, such as volcanic particulates or variations in the amount of sunlight received by the Earth, could potentially have affected the climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch theory is that it is testable: changes in the Earth’s orbit can be calculated and dated by applying Newton’s laws of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of information about other possible factors affecting global climate does not make them unimportant. 28. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in (a) suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method (b) introducing a new research method that calls an accepted theory into question (c) emphasizing the instability of data gathered from the application of a new scientific method (d) presenting a theory and describing a new method to test that theory 29. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the Milankovitch theory? (a) It is the only possible explanation for the ice ages (b) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation for the ice ages, despite recent research findings (c) It cannot be tested and confirmed until further research on volcanic activity is done (d) It is one plausible explanation, though not the only one, for the ice ages

Model Test Paper 39




30. It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope record taken from ocean sediments would be less useful to researchers if which of the following were true? (a) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen predominated at certain times (b) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the record taken from rocks on land (c) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur every 100,000 years (d) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 in ocean water were not consistent with those found in fresh water 31. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean sediments? (a) They indicate that sediments found during an ice age contain more calcium carbonate than sediments formed at other times (b) They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks on land in determining the volume of land ice (c) They can be used to deduce the relative volume of land ice that was present when the sediment was laid down (d) They are more unpredictable during an ice age than in other climatic conditions. 32. It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation formed from evaporated ocean water has (a) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water (b) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water (c) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in continental ice sheets (d) a different isotopic composition than has precipitation formed from water on land 33. According to the passage, which of the following is (are) true of the ice ages? I. The last ice age occurred about 25,000 years ago II. Ice ages have lasted about 10,000 years for at least the last several hundred thousand years III. Ice ages have occurred about every 100,000 years for at least the last several hundred thousand years

(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and only 34. It can be inferred from the passage that calcium carbonate shells (a) are not as susceptible to deterioration as rocks (b) are less common in sediments formed during an ice age (c) are found only in areas that were once covered by land ice (d) reflect the isotopic composition of the water at the time the shells were formed 35. The purpose of the last paragraph of the passage is to (a) offer a note of caution (b) introduce new evidence (c) present two recent discoveries (d) summarize material in the preceding paragraphs 36. According to the passage, one advantage of studying the isotope record of ocean sediments is that it (a) corresponds with the record of ice volume taken from rocks on land (b) shows little variation in isotope ratios when samples are taken from different continental locations (c) corresponds with predictions already made by climatologists and experts in other fields (d) provides data that can be used to substantiate records concerning variations in the amount of sunlight received by the Earth

Model Test Paper 39




37. How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters of the word, 'DELHI' using all the letters of the word 'DELHI' using each letter exactly once? (a) 10 (b) 25 (c) 60 (d) 120 38. Find the present worth of Rs. 930 due 3 years hence at 8% per annum. Also find the discount? (a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.625 (c) Rs. 750 (d) Rs. 800 39. 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work. How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 40. A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr. The average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is (a) 35.55 km/hr (b) 36 km/hr (c) 71.11 km/hr (d) 71 km/hr 41. A man invested Rs. 1552 in a stock at 97 to obtain an income of Rs. 128. The dividend from the stock is (a) 7.5 % (b) 8%

(c) 9.7% (d) 10% 42. How many bricks, each measuring 25 cm x 11.25 cm x 6 cm, will be needed to build a wall of 8 m x 6 m x 22.5 cm? (a) 5600 (b) 6000 (c) 6400 (d) 7200 43. BF, CH, ?, HO, LT (a) DN (b) EL (c) EK (d) EM 44. AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL (a) FMI (b) GMJ (c) HLK (d) GLJ 45. C4X, F9U, 116R, ? (a) K25P (b) Y44B (c) Y88B (d) Z88B 46. cccbb _ aa _ cc _ bbbaa _ c (a) aebe (b) baca (c) baba (d) acba

Model Test Paper 39




47. Find the odd one out (a) Ball (b) Specter (c) Globe (d) Sphere 48. A told B that C is his father's nephew. D is A's cousin but not the brother of C. What relationship is there between D and C ? (a) Father (b) Sisters (c) Aunt (d) Mother 49. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. Q is the son of R but R is not mother of Q. P and R are a married couple. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P. Z is the brother of P. Who is the father of Q ? (a) P (b) R (c) X (d) Z 50. Johhny has fifteen pennies. He gives Bob four pennies. Bob now has three times more pennies as Johhny has left. How many pennies did Bob have at the beginning? (a) 26 (b) 29 (c) 33 (d) 31 51. The following paragraph is made of sentences which are jumbled. Unscramble this paragraph and sort the sentences in their proper order. A: And if you are in an English-speaking country, B: Chances are they will have an Indian accent. C: Your phone rings - someone's trying to sell you financial services. D: The person you are speaking to is likely to be sitting in a massive room with hundreds of otherr people.

(a) D,C,A,B (b) C,A,B,D (c) C,B,A,D (d) C,D,A,B 52.

(a) 14,500,000 (b) 33,000,000 (c) 13,000,000 (d) 29,000,000

Model Test Paper 39




53.

(a) 20% (b) 24% (c) 29% (d) 26% 54.

(a) 1:3 (b) 1:1 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:4

55. James, Ray, Eric and Charles are playing a gambling game. James and Ray have a secret agreement for immediately splitting both wins and losses between themselves. Eric owes Charles some money, which immediately entitles Charles for any Pound eric makes above his initial amount. They all begin with £100 and place a bet of £25 each round. There is one winner in each round. Which of the following must be true, If after four rounds Charles has £150, and James has £100?explanation (a) Ray won at least one round (b) Charles won one round at most (c) Eric won the third round (d) Charles won exactly two rounds 56. Morning shifts are 7 hours long and after-noon shifts are 8 hours long. Stella works morning as well as after-noon shifts. Jane never works morning shifts. Jane is a saleswoman. Stella called in sick this morning. Which statement must be true? (a) Salespersons never work seven-hour long shifts (b) Stella sometimes works in the morning, but not Jane (c) Stella sometimes works in the morning, but not Jane (d) Stella is a saleswoman 57. Staff members of the Foreign Relations unit work nights once a week. Jessica used to work nights once every week. Abby works for the Foreign Relations unit. Which statement must be true? (a) The Foreign Relations unit works 24/7 (b) Jessica used to work in the Foreign Relations unit (c) Jessica and Abby used to be co-workers (d) Abby works nights once every week

Model Test Paper 39




58. Fiona, Georgia, Heather, Ian, John, Kilgore and Lumina are forming a line, trying to get tickets to a concert. Fiona is standing in front of Ian. John is standing in front of Heather. If John is not first in line, Lumina is standing somewhere in front of him. Ian is standing immediately in front of or immediately behind Kilgore. If Heather is standing third in line, which one of the following lists all of those that can stand last in line? (a) Georgia or Ian (b) Georgia, Ian or Kilgore (c) Georgia, Ian or Lumina (d) Georgia, Ian or Lumina 59. Thomas and Sam work every other day (Monday through Saturday). Thomas and Sam never work together. Uma, Victor and Winona work twice a week (Monday through Saturday), but never together. Thomas and Victor cannot both work on the same day. Winona never works on Mondays or Fridays. If Thomas works on Mondays, which of the following is a possible weekly work schedule for Uma, Victor and Winona (Monday through Saturday, left to right)? (a) Uma, Victor, Winona, Uma, Victor, Winona (b) Uma, Winona, Uma, Victor, Winona, Victor (c) Uma, Winona, Winona, Victor, Uma, Victor (d) Uma, Winona, Victor, Winona, Uma, Victor 60. A chef has to pick four fruits out of the following seven to make a fruit salad: figs, guavas, honeydews, kiwis, mangos, nectarines and papayas. Papaya can be selected only if kiwi is selected. Fig can be selected only if nectarine is selected. Either mango or nectarine must be selected, but never both. Either papaya or honeydew must be selected but never both. If the salad contains either mango or papaya, but not both, then all of the following must be true, EXCEPT: (a) If the salad contains guava and mango, it also contains kiwi

(b) If the salad contains nectarine, it must contain fig or guava (c) If the salad contains honeydew and mango, it also contains guava (d) If the salad contains honeydew and mango, it also contains guava 61. Review the facts below. • Jimmy has a cat. • Brian has a dog. • Cats do not make a mess. • All pets can become aggressive, unless they are dogs. Based on the information above, which of the following MUST be true? (a) Jimmy's pet is messy (b) Brian's pet is messy (c) Cats are always aggressive (d) Brian's pet is never aggressive 62.

What comes next in the sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Model Test Paper 39




63.

What comes next in the sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d) 64.

(a) 25,184.79 (b) 26,458.21 (c) 27,655.36 (d) 28,658.32 65.

(a) 5.5 (b) 6.0 (c) 6.5 (d) 7.5 66.

(a) 3,647 megabytes (b) 3,734 megabytes (c) 3,812 megabytes (d) 3,949 megabytes 67.

(a) 5.80 (b) 6.90 (c) 8.00 (d) 9.10

Model Test Paper 39




68.

(a) 36 minutes (b) 40 minutes (c) 43 minutes (d) 48 minutes 69. Find the missing number: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?, 19 (a) 18 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 16 70. Find the missing number: 16, 24, ?, 54, 81 (a) 42 (b) 38 (c) 32 (d) 36

71.

(a) 60.75 (b) 64.25 (c) 20.25 (d) 19 72.

(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 3 (d) 22 73. Fiona took a loan of $10,000 at a yearly interest of 10%. What is the full amount of the loan, including interest years, presuming that the loan has not been reduced at any time? (a) $13,310 (b) $12,790 (c) $12,000 (d) $13,000

Model Test Paper 39




74.

What comes next in the sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d) 75.

What comes next in the sequence? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it Most of us need blood but very few wish to donate. The reason is 'fear paychosis'. Most people believe that donation means loss of strength, workdays and prolonged listlessness. Whether it is an accident case, a heart bypasss surgery, a hysterectomy or congenital anaemia like Thalassaemia, the family of the patient has to run from pillar to post for arranging blood. If the patient has compassionate and healthy family members and friends, it may not be difficult. But, in the event of 'unfit' or 'unwilling' donors, the patient's treatment invariably suffers. However large our requirement, it is estimated that if only one or two percent of the population starts donating blood voluntarily, the crisis can be overcome. Unfortunately, India has not been able to achieve this target. The fact is that our country doesn't have the culture of voluntary blood donation. Hence the perennial shortage. 76. The 'fear psychosis' behind donation is due to (a) belief in loss of strength, workdays, listlessness (b) psychology of fear (c) not having wish to donate (d) not having good health 77. To run from pillar to post means (a) to go to the post office (b) to go to several places (c) to post (d) to run fast 78. According to the passage, how does a patient's treatment suffer? (a) There are no good doctors (b) Patients don't go to doctors (c) There are no good hospitals (d) There are 'unfit' or 'unwilling' donors of blood

Model Test Paper 39




79. The percentage of blood donors in India is (a) more than 2% (b) 2% (c) only one to two percent (d) None of the above 80. There is shortage of blood because (a) we don't have the culture of voluntary blood donation (b) there are health problems (c) there are poor people (d) None of the above

Model Test Paper 39




Answer Sheet

model test paper 39 do not open this booklet until you … · 2018-04-28 · 8. one can infer from...

Documents