m.phil/ph.d. (commerce) entrance test, 2018

M Phil/Ph.D. COM No. of Printed Pages : 36

M.Phil/Ph.D. (COMMERCE)

Entrance Test, 2018

Time : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 100

Note :

(i) Each question carries four alternative answers. The candidate is required to write the

correct option.

(ii) Each question carries 1 mark.

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M.Phil/Ph.D. COM

1. Research helps in explaining the with which something operates.

(1) Velocity (2) Momentum

(3) Frequency (4) Gravity

2. Research method is a part of

(1) A problem

(3) Research Techniques

(2) An experiment

(4) Research Methodology

3. Population census is an example of research.

(1) Survey

(2) Empirical

(3) Clinical

(4) Diagnostic

4. Research through experiment and observation is called

(1) Clinical research

(2) Experimental research

(3) Laboratory research

(4) Empirical research

5. Facts or Informations are analyzed and critical evaluation is made in

(1) Survey (2) Action research

(3) Analytical research

(4) Pilot study

6. Fundamental Research is otherwise called

(1) Action research (2) Survey

(3) Pilot study (4) Pure research

7. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process ?

(1) Searching sources of information to locate the problem

(2) Survey of related literature

(3) Identification of the problem

(4) Searching for solutions to the problem

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 2

1. AtT ri r kvisi4 'Mt ?

(1) (2)

(3) alTOW (4) T>ca

2. ArrIt4 -PAPHotgo -44%airtt?

(1) TrITFIT

(2) Mel 4 1

(3) *4 kicr, cr, (4) 74tT limn a ti

3. \11-1k1t.90-11 \11.1 1 1u1-11 T 1 34Wul t

(1) TOW

(2) 'Itzfrii-Trd

(3) f*ri4wa-

(4) -ftF:1131

4. Ne11 1 1 atT ar4A.W4* 1:1TitzfiT alyixTR "0 ;EIT ct.)1 \An ?

(1) rerW4cn1 al-gitTR

(2) mitAct) 3901TR

(3) argitiR

(4) 413144W 317i1.17

5. PHRiRgd 4 .4 14..ki4 Africtokl iscRqui cbtu t 3 34.-4k=1:r- szench4

1cbell 411c1I ?

(1) Taw (2) `c1- I.1 74tT

(3) kc)quiloict) (4) 7710Z aTurzfq

6. 1:11rO*-T atIT 4aTT ?

(1) 11.41-i 711x1 (2) RAPT

(3) trTzFOZ 3117444 (4) 1.,5*4

7. P4-i ad 4 -4 Vlq-TIT T Ami mta 4 TroT crAH ?

(1) TP:R:ziT * Afrietal * old 1:074T

(2) *ad' TW4T 'W1- TRW

(3) VITFIT*t Tr4- 19-

(4) TM:M*1:11MR tsi) ,31

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 3

8. Action research means

(1) A longitudinal research

(2) An applied research

(3) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem

(4) A research with socio-economic objective .

9. Which of the following is not a way of assessing the trustworthiness of qualitative research ?

(1) Dependability

(2) Accessibility

(3) Transferability

(4) Credibility

10. Which of the following should you think about when preparing your sample size ?

(1) The sample frame and sampling strategy

(2) The ethical issues that might arise

(3) Access to the set sample

(4) The universe, sample frame, sampling . strategy and budget

11. Which of the following is not something a researcher will have to consider when thinking about their sample size ?

(1) Time and cost

(2) Non-response

(3) Length of questionnaire

(4) Heterogeneity of population

12. A document which presents the research problem, its significance and an apparently credible way to address the same is called

(1) Research question

(2) Statement of the research problem

(3) Research objectives

(4) Research proposal

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 4

8. 741,1—WE

(1) 34 31-011-rq

(2) T 395rIT aTgitiR

(3) 1 cit-ctai T>c glta i T 7W AIT

(4) tiiiigict-ae dkt.1

9. .1 1-•1 (sia 4A- 47-11-1 ijuiloict) 74'il*IWIEr*t 31i 11 cbt cm Ti

(1) 14KaT

(2)*4M

(3) 7:241-licikui4FreffT

(4) akciti-fltidi

10. 3ltr4 Plz11 34T-*7 1Ill cht TriT4 alltf4'141R 4 A 4.,1-1:1T 1 It 11R ?

(1) .1 1.010T 3k "SA-ciem WrIA

(2) 4rd- dctN is

(3) AZ -140' tItq

(4) w.i1 , -1401%1:1, mrcpiem WA% Gov.

11. -14.0 alWR 4.)k Tri:P4 -14-1 4 A Atr*--di vErr-4 4 aei

7r1tR? (1) P1 atIK gym

(2) tr(--9

(3) 51111(41

(4) 31T4T-“f

12. C31tff ardEFER TFIFFT 717 chttll -4 MIT T4 TU cilt4 cRati #.4

t,

(1) 31-011-F 31T4

(2) argiUR TRIzrt cif f~gt~ l

(3) arOUR 3-04

(4) argilTR

M.Phil/Ph.D. COM 5

13. The reasoning procedure in research which is essentially moving from the abstract and general to the particular and concrete is called

(1) Deduction

(2) Induction

(3) Inductive reasoning

(4) Scientific research method

14. Which of the following logical processes is/are used in empirical research ?

(1) Deduction

(2) Induction

(3) Either induction or deduction

(4) Both induction and deduction

15. In which of the following sampling methods would the scope for investigation bias be the highest ?

(1) Simple random sampling

(2) Cluster sampling

(3) Systematic sampling

(4) Judgement sampling

16. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Broader the objectives of the study, the larger the sample

(2) Higher the heterogeneity of population, the larger the sample size

(3) The lesser error desired, lesser the sample size

(4) The greater the confidence level desired, the greater the sample size

17. In which of the following sampling methods do the respondents themselves play a major role in the selection of sample ?

(1) Snowball sampling

(2) Convenience sampling


(4) Purposive sampling

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM

13. al-0*TR 31Wri Vtr4 at{ Nlet A-q Tet W"Fei

(1) PAIH-1

(2) aTTP:r

(3) aTTP:RIT

(4) A4TiW 3rOUT4

14. (go 4 4 Pt* /PH d kiiii si tii(4) ma l41

14)0-ii/6 tit ?

(1) 414-1-1

(2) arTgr

(3) 71T to 7fT

(4) 31TP:1 atIK

1 argi%Trq

15. AH1 .1 1.01 tredzil 4 4 1-*-u4, i w qv-RI kiaima .1411 ?

(1) etc zfrlf="" mrcratm

(2) *iv T'af

(3) W4r(:2Tff Nrcratm

(4) 'Pula 'f daai

16. P1(cIRV1 4 4 a) 417 •*-2R ?MN' ?

(1) aTufziq *1T rAcH ear-ia) aTTWR .31-11 -01 A-4T I

(2) Aititsai it 31T*7( rActii 4 -4T .1411 alt*Tt .scHI r Alin

(3) *1:1 ft At -11.01 aTr+-7 4 ii I

(4) 51 daai TalWR TIT24--d-r r Tr-{ 3c1-11 w4-r 1 , 11

17. VR-.1:11 fetTz4 4 4, .irRcidi d a*WzR" 4 sua Ittwr fil-Tr4 t? (1) 1*-o-ia m cva44-1

(2) tktIT mftaam

(3) W1RK ciaai

(4) Az1"1-4R m -atm

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 7

18. When the population is very heterogeneous, which of the following sampling methods would relatively be more appropriate ?

(1) Purposive sampling

(2) Stratified random sampling


(4) Incidental sampling

19. The scope for investigator's bias is more in case of

(1) Questionnaire

(2) Schedule

(3) Interview

(4) Observation

20. Which of the following is an example of a discrete variable ?

(1) Number of workers in a factory

(2) Height of students in a class

(3) Weight of students in a class

(4) All of the above

21. A moderately large sized sample chosen at random will show on an average the same characteristics as the universe. This is called

(1) Law of inertia of large numbers

(2) Reasonable accuracy

(3) Law of statistical regularity

(4) Statistical error

22. Which of the following measures is least affected by extreme items ?

(1) Mean deviation (2) Range

(3) Standard deviation (4) Quartile deviation

23. A graph of frequency distribution depicting cumulative frequencies is

(1) Ogive distribution

(2) Histogram

(3) Frequency polygon

(4) Frequency curve

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 8

18. Wirtz Iv 14414 t, c -141:4 tr-edzil 04.14T 3144.1TF 311W d Iv!

(1) 3R4-4-4 . 1ifmNi

(2) Ilttzt7 ttcNH

(3). Wr-RK 5A-a04-1

(4) 31f

19. 31vF itaiggit PH (o 4 -4 -%1:14 -4T VriTTdt ?

(1) 51k11141.

(2) argit

(3) 14T411- 7

(4)

20. ci I -11- 04-TiT ssqwui t ?

(1) chltNI 4 &RA

(2) k-TT 4 s.9Q i Maly

(3) k.-TT 4 c.9Q com

(4) 3tRI Tit

1:1( 1:11:ER 21. zitqf 14 iiR 31T WK T -1401 atqa . t

t

(1) 60 *its441 •WII W. -NH

(2) df- io tiaztIcti

(3) tiiiiie'4cnei -14-zrgrdT Pem

(4) 5 e

22. Pi-ifZiRgci 4 A- cf;)-1-Trr .3HN WIT -ffig-4-wr311-1TRffaldI t ?

(1) AM' 1-4-4F4

(2)

(3)

(4) WOINT N-4M

23. aTriW -*-d1 aTr-1 i 4z.q TT cwin t

(1) 14-dm

(2) t.e. 9IH

(3) 371% A-0-4

(4) 31T-1%-

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 9

24. The difference between upper limit and lower limit of a class interval is referred to as

(1) Class limits

(2) Data array

(3) Frequency

(4) None of the above

25. Scope for non-response by respondents would be higher in case of a/an

(1) Schedule (2) Interview

(3) Questionnaire (4) Observation

26. When ranks are assigned to objects based on their properties or characteristics, then the level of measurement is described as

(1) Interval measurement

(2) Nominal measurement

(3) Ordinal measurement

(4) Scientific measurement

27. "F" test and "T" test are used in which level of measurement ?

(1) Ordinal

(2) Nominal

(3) Interval

(4) Ratio

28. Which of these statements is true ?

(1) A measuring instrument that is valid need not be reliable.

(2) A measuring instrument that is valid is always reliable.

(3) A measuring instrument that is reliable is also valid.

(4) Reliability and validity of a measuring instrument is inter-dependent.

29. Name the two types of statistical techniques that are applicable in ordinal measurement.

(1) Geometric mean and Coefficient of variation

(2) Median and Coefficient of rank order correlation

(3) Mean and Standard deviation

(4) Random sampling probability and Parametric tests

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 10

24. ataro- 4). *IT14-44t atd-Ki ct)

25.

26.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4 f ki4

izt

aTrifW

3tRIT 4 ml R-ef

aritciai3 TU fTf zw ,mlictoLl

argrAl (2)

-4-4T

TrIATTWK

RR* Tfft

(1)

(3)

WA'

wilaril (4) 7

3TRIR trt trli Adi 'WU .3.1 ttuil 7fT fo*Er-draff t,

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

a 4) 4 afaii RAI IIdI

atara -mg

1qTtf

st.. crOTP:1

toT14.

27. "71:F" t 3 "a" 'WF .3441 14)ki 'RR* rrq ?

(1) stoicilt (2)

(3) ai-duF (4) ardEFTff

28. -4-44 4 '1T WiF 1:1M ?

(1) ems -TITIT d'ichtul t 31T47W •Teif -1'47-4w41-4 .1 , 11 I

(2) ITIEf 4,-icntui Atz t

(3) TIN d'ichtul idqcui4104 t, -4-4 ift t I

(4) 17,:i a4mtui fqat-1-11ticii *Awl- TER:ETTAI-Rt I

29. t kilfienti ocfrfict: ITT Gicw RR # (1) q"41 Arnel 1:frezi 3T i fd.atui

(2) TIT 744'11

(3) 'Mut AK +ipict) f4waq

(4) 'zirlf* 31T1r4TardT

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 11

30. Non-parametric tests usually assume data. (1) Interval (2) Not-normal

(3) Quantitative (4) Hypothetical

31. In , each population element has a known and equal chance of being included.

(1) Purposive sampling (2) Quota sampling

(3) Stratified sampling (4) Simple random sampling

32. The numerical descriptors that describe samples may be expected to differ from those that describe populations because of random fluctuations inherent in the sampling process. This is called

(1) Sampling design

(2) Non-probability sampling

(3) Sampling error

(4) Probability sampling

33. Preliminary data collection is a part of

(1) Descriptive research

(2) Exploratory research

(3) Applied research

(4) Explanatory research

34. The theoretical framework discusses the inter-relationships among the

(1) Variables (2) Hypothesis

(3) Concept

(4) Theory

35. Good marketing is no accident, but a result of careful planning and

(1) Selling (2) Execution

(3) Strategies (4) Research

36. The most commonly used statistical average is

(1) Arithmetic average

(2) Geometric mean

(3) Harmonic mean

(4) Standard deviation

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 12

30. t- Rct) mar 4 aTigf 11K 1t iHrortla aft-4 IC-R III # ?

(1) I cl (2) aTEMTFT

(3) iiiiictict) (4) chIc'4 f lay

31. 4 -srA- Tri:m *cTtd cif Zrq Tff *

(1) 3t J1 (2) 4;le.csrPd-449.

(3) Rftfa (4) k1k1 ATC--5- 511 t*1

32. '4ufq crA clit,1- atui arerf t4 . q-r Twett q). 511lem

m6tii Aro chltul 3TKit ct)t4 # Izrg

(1) 111 -clem ft7T44

(2) t:5414Tardf m

(3) 5A -cmi

(4) 311411TRraT 51 atm

33. miiNch 34-4 PH (I ci 4 *1 RAI ?

(1) aukoict) argitiR

(2) 41411 3rgillT4

(3)

(4) oeutseliciict) argitzR

34. 4-4-ird vrkur * 41-q. of *r aaf cbtai

(1) -q.K (2) chc-4-11

(3) tict,c-4-11 (4) ki.gici

35. aTw f a4u1.i 4;14 Tef t, TrrovrATL-4- 3T1K triturPT t

(1) Wt (2) 1411.41q-i

(3) tui-ntii (4) - 11U

36. 1,1414 .$44 , 1 4 31 awn ill atm-

(1) awifard . atm

(2) ,3-041Mq Trraf

(3) TI:1114-1:fraf

(4) 111"M

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 13

37. The value of Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation can be

(1) ± 1 (2) ± 2

(3) 0 (4) ± 0.5

38. Laspeyres' Index is based on

(1) Base year quantities

(2) Current year quantities

(3) Average of current and base year quantities


39. Sample value is called

(1) Parameter

(2) Core value

(3) Statistic

(4) Variable

40. Sampling which provides for a known non-zero chance of selection is

(1) Probability sampling

(2) Non-probability sampling

(3) Multiple choice

(4) Analysis

41. An example of non-personal method of data collection is

(1) Interview

(2) Group Interview

(3) Schedule

(4) Telephone Interview

42. The facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as a basis for a study is called

(1) Sample

(2) Method

(3) Data

(4) Theory

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 14

37.

38.

+ 2

± 0.5

?

cnicii fcREI:N*Tre,NV !lunch

(1) ± 1 (2)

(3) 0 (4)

-al:kz11 TT tochich Pi-i111go 4 41 ki ut aTreta .

(1) alTilTK 44 Turaff

(2) -a ITFITA R

(3) ci Aim at am( Alf Trrxraff * atm TR

(4) '371ffi 4 4 ct>li Tef

39. -iv t

(1) tr(gra

(2) "'IT

(3) Trife

(4) 'lilt:14-Ni

40. Amitm WR*1 Wa" *AL-Ai Tiv-497 crAcii

(1) 3011Tardt 11°41

(2) t-304TrarIT -cm

(3) T+11.4.-

(4) fqc.tiul

41. di *446 *I t-Alt trZftSFr dqWul

(1) TrAIWIT

(2) WV 'IT 1k

(3) aTgIV1

(4) t4tEaq

42. Tall, ait-*-t 3k arGERR * aTTUTK 4 WIT WA' cii(41 alwr Ri 4 4'0 (11 41 4 el .

MUT t

(1) -14.0

(2) 'WIT

(3) ZTZT

(4)

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 15

43. In , the main purpose is to formulate a problem for more precise investigation.

(1) Exploratory or formulative study

(2) Descriptive study

(3) Diagnostic study


44. The final stage in a survey is

(1) Reporting (2) Fieldwork

(3) Assignment

(4) Calculation

45. In testing a hypothesis, the common error is/are

(1) Type I

(2) Type I and II

(3) Type II


46. The first variable is a/an

(1) Abstract

(3) Independent

variable.

(2) Dependent

(4) Separate

47. Hypothesis, which explains the relationship between two variables is

(1) Casual (2) Relational

(3) Descriptive (4) Tentative

48. The formulated problem should have

(1) Originality

(3) Coherence

49. Objectives in problem formulation means

(1) Questions to be answered

(2) Methods

(3) Techniques

(4) Methodology

(2) Values

(4) Facts

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 16

43. 4 (.90-4 304 aTIIM cr) 3T- TifuT 6"R •cT" 1,11TFIT ' I

(1) 1k4Ept 3Tigrzi4

(2) au alizrzfq

(3)94T alszizR

(4) 31:FIT 4 14 ci;14

44. ITakiuT aft •uT

(1) ftErWri (2) *lc-sa

(3) aTEITPAZ (4) TITITRT

45. 41Alui A, alM M

(1) dl§ti I

(2) LIT-I I atT II

(3) dIV-I II

(4) 317S 4 A. ct, Ter

46. "TOT I

(1) TIR (2) alTfkff

(3) t-cicii (4) aTFTT

47. t 4t9- •Q' oeutsii a,ta (4141

(1) cbitui (2) Ii411tR-

(3) au -110-14) (4) aiffFOT

48. AlT f4fifff :11:R:EIT "1 d IT .1I ?

(1) 4-1 ocncii (2) 1.0

(3) TiTA (4) Mar

49. TPTFIT ui A jr4 TR ztFil t

(1) Trar0*3ffK -ftR 7r4

(2) ci(1

(3) debcf.)

(4) q,I451ull rfl

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 17

50. "Doubt is often better than

(1) Belief

(2) Value

(3) Confidence

(4) Over-confidence

51. Which of the following does not contribute to fiscal deficit ?

(1) Subsidy to fertilizers

(2) Capital assistance to public sector enterprises

(3) Low rates of direct taxes

(4) Excessive Government borrowings

52. Which of the following is not compatible with high economic growth ?

(1) Skilled human resource

(2) Technological development

(3) High interest rates

(4) Political stability

53. The most important aspect of the Exim Policy 2015 — 2020 is

(1) Establishment of Special Economic Zones

(2) Boost "Make in India"

(3) Establishment of Technological Parks

(4) To enhance technological strength and efficiency of Indian agriculture

54. Which of the following is not covered under FEMA 1999 ?

(1) It also applies to Indian citizens residing outside India.

(2) It is consistent with full current account convertibility.

(3) It specifies the areas which require permissions of the Reserve Bank and the Government of India on acquisition/holding of foreign exchange.

(4) It gives full freedom to a resident in India who was earlier a resident outside India to hold/own/transfer any foreign security/immovable property outside India acquired during his residency there.

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 18

50. "Q4 3T4TR I"

(1) ITT

(2) 1:ff

(3) cReliti

(4) AzTic-Ift-dRi

51. 11-i 4 t4 cnitui vrzT i qq.di ?

(1) 3-4K-4* f iL, aic fl*ft tiveidi

(2) kiiciAPcb Att5i-ii ' 7T4 awn aTTIU grU

(3) 3Trkt 1*'t -141:4 TT1

(4) titcta'grKT 3TMRM 4•*'gRT

52. ZW aTTlik clr.g*TFT2T Ai-ifZiRgi 4 f ticni 4 ?

(1) NPIRTa' -grr4a *MR

(2) misi")fl4 fct)iki

(3) 3W ediFil

(4) &IA ch 'Pitch W'

53. 2015 — 2020 ci-3TT4M Alt ticiiiiict) 1:14W:kui TIAT

(1) fdlti alTift t4-11411

(2) "ITEW Piiiui"

(3) 1 frl4 f k-2114-11

(4) IT11414 Tfir *441.A Triirai c TrI il -). .sival

54. Pi-ANI AR'JIT cars 1T 1999* 3T— Tfas aTidT ?

(1) zM IITTff * Trrit4 * '

(2) 'zrg mintsi; *TO trit-41* 3I I

(3) zT EW-Al -Nfo ebtil r,314 f4t4ft *r 3-Er-dRv3lftpro tg

tw414 tk.bit 34344 A.-41 3lT4FF0 I

(4) 31TR414 f4cAtil q) . titsTTR ITR-ff * ** -w tt Tuf

taT * k aTftd 14A41 341 1Q411 -srkiftara-a 1174

km. Sk1 wr4i aTam. 4kict>1 km);

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 19

55. Which of the following was not included in GATT ?

(1) Non-discrimination

(2) Reduction of tariffs

(3) Prohibition of quantitative restrictions

(4) Consultation among member nations

56. USA recently withdrew from

(1) WTO

(2) Paris Agreement

(3) World Economic Forum

(4) Australia — United States Free Trade Agreement

57. India does not have a bilateral trade agreement with

(1) The Carribean Community

(2) The Gulf Co-operation Council

(3) Sri Lanka

(4) ASEAN

58. Which of the following has not been the effect of globalisation on the world economy ?

(1) Integration of global economy

(2) Growth in the volume of world trade has been faster than the volume of world output

(3) Increasing the barriers to the free flow of goods and services

(4) More foreign competition

59. Which of the following Multilateral Environmental Agreements states that every

country has the sovereign right to ban the import of hazardous wastes or other wastes, and as a consequence no State should allow any transborder movement of hazardous or other wastes to a state which has prohibited their import :

(1) The Montreal Protocol

(2) The Basel Convention

(3) The London Guidelines

(4) The CITES Convention

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 20

55. Aq-TIT GATTA. TOW"eff T 211 ?

(1) 3T-f4c

(2) 411-11-/Ic-4, --3#

(3) Hiliclict) -51NiEll -PAU

(4) Tr<Fli *Trat emit- 4-R

56. tiv) aTrIftw 4 r'9 TrIPT 3 3.1111W. 3T-Or1 5 zit!! ?

(1) 'N`44 ee-114It 41 1•61

(2) 4141 ITITOM

(3) -R74 3.1i

(4) 31K/f07IT —*iv) 3T4fiW i (Delimit 1,11:1-$NT

57. %TRW— W. PH Cl I 14.*4 TIM fatfklizi 00-1141t 1:11:1"fhT ?

(1) 4s(lkei-i tt`

(2) 4.114117411 4Rre

(3) aft zicbi

(4) 3TTRMT9'

58. 4 A. Aq-13-r 1 c1 aTiRraRen .1qcilcbtui errrffra 7 ?

(1) 3T— disflq 344-ar-41:EiT

(2) clqc1 a114it "RR viii 4 chi' aTIITW 7 *I -41"

(3) 3 3T i toTall siciW 4t--4 alca 3rdt)111 4 cA

(4) f4-Ort 4 cA

9. (4)ti nikfivt tvileitunti RITZ mc- ct) t4T iTrTff if4chiter, wen 3T 1Esl* 37:11-ff TIT -51R411 rvh4 IT vi4 lifkull‘R-cittN4 fkfft 1T- r 414414It

lAchltch ATZI1 aT2T41 al-A1 371 Tmt 4 tfliirct tivoi argrft Tef 374Tff IR 3 t WIT ,cbi ?

(1) 1:111M m el cart

(2) kir' 4%4TR•

(3) rig-i R411A kl

(4) tilv.ki

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 21

60. In which of the following forms of Regional Economic Groupings do the member

countries follow common policies in respect of all economic matters ?

(1) Economic Community

(2) Common Market

(3) Customs Union

(4) Free Trade Area

61. If a firm sets a very low price for its products with the intention of driving its

competitors out of business, it is termed as

(1) Market skimming pricing

(2) Economic pricing

(3) Psychological pricing

(4) Penetration pricing

62. Which company is the pioneer in direct marketing in India ?

(1) Cipla (2) Avon Cosmetics

(3) Johnson & Johnson (4) Eureka Forbes

63. If the product passes through a longer channel of distribution, the marketer will have to give more importance to

(1) Advertising

(2) Personal selling

(3) Direct selling


64. A good catchy phrase used and repeated often in an advertisement is termed as

(1) Idea

(2) Brand Name

(3) Trade Mark

(4) Slogan

65. Which of the following is not an element of promotion mix ?

(1) Advertisement

(2) Branding

(3) Personal selling

(4) Sales promotion

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 22

60. r+-irCirtsid 4 A 14)(-1 Uchlt *Ir a *itgict,tul 4 14-q:al t4-1. kr4i- aTrlik .50 *144

VI:171 r 335-ER-ur cnt ?

(1) al-rfik Tr5-4-rzr

(2) qi \Alt

(3) chi Lei *I'

(4) *cls)

61. zrit Th-4 ANAR 61W ct)t * aitr* -1*-Eft Wg -1:r Tin infra

(1)

qAc11- t, cr.)

cihTlit 42TR AtTilut

(2) IZcioiell it-e4 A/47W

(3) H-i)aoli4ch veif4111P71

(4) 43 itc.-04 AtTiKur

62. ITR-ff 4 3r-mT -fttrurq 4 aTguft ? 4 A cr) at-4

(1) Iti4MI (2) 1.1

(3) •311•1(1-1 vus (4) icbi ThWg

63. ti q WdIuT oTf 34e1) 4 1 gul-lchl *) 4-1 vi

tqf -rfR

(1) farcrq

(2) 0046 , 10 1. 511e4

(3) 3r-mi. f471.

(4) 7cri -141

64. i 3 f 3Tr*-4 -ft-JP-4 4 t- Trzir 7r-d-r t,

(1) f,;Nit

(2) T TIT

(3) 1:14

(4) RT

65. PHRiRgi 4 A cb1i-Ta14-4.4q ftwur 31-4-44 Re' ?

(1) f4--rcr-t

(2) *rirf

(3) ui ThAid stm

(4) -k-Wzr 44'44

M.Phil/Ph.D. COM 23

66. The strategy of choosing one attribute to excel, to create competitive advantage is

known as

(1) Positioning

(2) Unique Selling Proposition

(3) Branding


67. White Revolution refers to

(1) Aquaculture (2) Milk

(3) Poultry (4) Rice

68. A smaller company tying up with a leading company to distribute through its network

is known as

(1) Syndicated distribution (2) Selective distribution

(3) Exclusive distribution (4) Intensive distribution

69. Going Rate Pricing is a

(1) Competitive based pricing

(2) Value based pricing

(3) Cost based pricing

(4) Demand based pricing

70. The appropriate strategy for the distribution of bread would be

(1) Intensive distribution

(2) Exclusive distribution

(3) Selective distribution

(4) Direct marketing

71. The Preamble to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, lays down the object of the RBI

(1) To regulate the issue of bank notes.

(2) To regulate the issue of bank notes and the keeping of reserve.

(3) To regulate the activities of commercial banks.

(4) To regulate the activities of non-banking subsidiaries/joint ventures.

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 24

66. 31rdlxrili cb4 3-0-4 -1%1:11 T* 7/T cR W3-ffIsz CHI *1. 411 cb0

(2)

(4) Mari

68. 1 *tt cro-L1.4) 3P-A cbi-4 * 4Z4 3T:A -gra * facer c-R Tir4 tip

ch( TEF Gm"!

(1) Pirs4)e.14-dkur (2) 'zir4"ff fd-auT

(3) MitZ fdTkliT (4) Tip 1. cikui

69. lic-k7 Atiftvr

(1) Trr-dtxruf amTritff AtikErr

(2) irei aTTUTitd cnild f(%1 Ur

(3) cipli aTTITTitff 41-ic1 AtThuT

(4) *TT 3TT cic if-117T

70. is *f4T(14* 1-1 14 cr) fir Ilrft1W WIT ?

(1) cikui

(2) f49T6Z frdKur

(3) wzr--4a—ka-Tur

(4)M-T Lium

71. Werzi ft-44 3Tite443:1, 1934*r "SR-cha-ii 'Mc& ik\Aci -4-** Ai-irriR ci qti AtTifta . f+7 : (1) 9-1-z * ATign- fe4-zrftra-

(2) 9-1z1 4i i.i 4A4 311-( 4;11 -Nr404-d- m(4* I

(3) -rfbTf c 1*r rciPeAct ctA

(4) t-ftri tWeict) 31TWIRI*1. cht4*

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 25

72. Shared Payment Network System (SPNS) offer the following service(s) :

(1) Cash transaction

(2) Extended hours of service

(3) Balance enquiry


73. The first step in sending money through an electronic mode is that the remittee has to fill

(1) Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT)

(2) Open Market Operation (OMO)

(3) Host Interface Service (HIS)


74. An account operated by a banker where it is possible for a customer to deposit foreign

currency is known as

(1) Current Account (2) Saving Account

(3) Resident Foreign Currency Account (4) Foreign Currency Account

75. A banker can dishonour a customer's cheque due to

(1) Insufficiency of funds

(2) Death of the principal drawer

(3) Insolvency of the principal drawer


76. Appeal to the Appellate Tribunal is filed on a prescribed form, which is

(1) Form 36

(2) Form 35

(3) Form 31


77. Who can be an individual assessee ?

(1) NGO

(2) Partner of a partnership firm

(3) Shareholder in a company


M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 26

72. TIWF -4-C4fir (SPNS) ticiR 340eti c,tl, :

(1) .1.4)4

(2) ii3.11* at-oi *E11:1

(3) *If of I TOM0

(4) Ttzlffi

73. c‘)etv NI s *1:FTW:f err 474 3r2PTr A airk ITKRT

(1) (,).t0.P.t.) 1:6-z -rlicitui

(2) tgr) tivoi

(3) 4k-e. teKkg ThdT

(4) ZER1- a;li Rtf

74. ;cr)t 7k7 (4,411-Cid :aid 1 6 Niet) *Oft -gr 711-r ct)

( 1 ) aIrosi Icii

(2) tsilil

(3) 4114. W4`41t r .taint (4) 1• 11 71. (sin

75. 4cbt wcil* "14) f*7 3.Tizitt7 ?

(1) s Al 40-(1

(2) TO i1W4-)

(3) TO liwt, r R.:111C.W \11-11

(4) 3tIliT

76. 3TEFAZ itaffa -0 aTiftF Atifitff tfri 41 t,

(1) 36

(2) 'TM 35

(3) TO*4 31

(4) Ztrzl A X1.4, -1

77. r rr, rtro A A-4-Tn. eel Th qmi kichtit ?

(1) wiT .to-A amt (3 t1 4, 1,6-1) (NGO)

(2) lirkt 1:51:i 1:1*TK

(3) 7" cro41-11 A t

(4) 3TRIT Tr*

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 27

78. What is the rate of additional tax paid by a domestic company on dividend distributed ?

(1) 10%

(2) 15%

(3) 20%

(4) 25%

79. Under which Section of the following, is an HUF not entitled to deduction from its Gross Total Income ?

(1) 80 C

(2) 80 G

(3) 80 D

(4) 80 P

80. The maximum rate of interest admissible on partners capital is

(1) 10%

(2) 12%

(3) 15%

(4) 20%

81. A planning spreadsheet may be used to generate among other things,

(1) Proforma sales

(2) Cost projections

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Either (1) or (2)

82. The dual-focused approach includes

(1) Knowing how

(2) Knowing that

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Either (1) or (2)

83. Replacement sales offer a useful chance of future cash flow to the marketers of

(1) Durable goods

(2) Perishable goods

(3) FMCG (Fast Moving Consumer Goods)


M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 28

78. 1=kcro-4-11 TKT *MT N' "Naitff"IlTi`Z f ti ?

(1) 10% (2) 15%

(3) 20% (4) 25%

79. 141-1rAlci 4 0q-141tWT t -f-c31f41fiNff tffr4R alrft kicno Sri 3TT4 4 .4

-gm Fir ' tjcncii ?

(1) 80 C

(2) 80 G

(3) 80 D

(4) 80 P

80. TrrkTip' AR aTfir+--dgr gildwr :1 t

(1) 10%

(2) 12%

(3) 15%

(4) 20%

81. #4 ,441 * aTffr-o-r 31T 41A1 * .54441 i 1 n

?

(1) 51 .414-1

(2) civic! 3rdrfT4

(3) q (1) 3i (2)

(4) 711* t (1) 3riT4T (2)

82. TM Vtd" fi`-*-1.13T 4 wf(i

(1) *4 AH4* R-R

(2) 71-4 AA

(3) ell (1) at (2)

(4) 71T t (1) 3T2T4T (2)

83. 'Mgt WA, dt %Tit ichdl mai4 4 iztraTlift Th-r MgII choi

(1) 'rd-*-M

(2) RPreri

(3) 75 71'1411i" ORR it Ai ctwtit "t ti)

(4) Z7z1- 4 ehli Rtf

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 29

84. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an

international market before making a major commitment ?

(1) Merger (2) Minority interest

(3) Joint venture (4) Majority interest

85. A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for his/her company which entails

setting up a new distinct business unit and board of Clirectors can be regarded as

(1) Ecopreneur

(2) Technopreneur

(3) Intrapreneur

(4) Social entrepreneur

86. The term Functional Management takes into consideration the following :

(1) A system of business organisation that is based on an individual having a wide range of skills needed to administer a business

(2) A type of management that is based more on personality

(3) A system that groups together various jobs and is organised by departments, sections or functions

(4) A system that supports a flat form of command chain

87. Most management teams use appraisal but what exactly does this term signify ?

(1) A system used to improve the performance of personnel

(2) The main way in which an employee's wages are determined

(3) A system of reward points offered by retailers to attract customer loyalty

(4) The evaluation of an individual employee's performance over a given period of time

88. Which of the following will influence the style of management used by a company ?

(1) The desire by the owner to have the workforce treat him in a fatherly way

(2) The need to focus discussions on policy as a joint process between employees and employer/manager

(3) The culture of the company, the nature of its work and the preferences of the individual managers

(4) The use of distinct penalties for poor performance

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 30

84. rrlr d 4 err 7 61§9slfda cli cm! A• al-d641-4 eilltit 4 3Tgita

-m-R4F crA 1 1 ell WM ?

(1) -P4- 44 (2) 3TetT4Ce4W ii i

(3) k1 5xt) ZEP:f (4) aTiir-+-iw i1,31

85. 4311, altqf cm-1-141 * WO- cntd t, RWT MITZ

14-44-Er 0fae. 3*'31-ft:F Slellett4 clA At,to .1c11 cr>1 q-raT

(1)

(2) cm

(3) *•1 1 • 1

(4) i 1ct) df..1

86. cnie4c4ict)3r4t.7 41 ,K PH z1 (VI 4 A WI 1-10(1 61 ?

(1) 0e-it:Rile.' *T '5FuTT-41Q- fi ftlft cellthel*TZTEF* aiT4TATW -4Rrr7

-1 crairl «46 alNiftff t I

(2) T mcnit TAT7itr4 i ceirmcel 3T1 alItTlital

(3) err- 1 Trre WIIA TRW afr(141P-11, a 7TT cniti

oeiaPid eheil t

(4) cmilS stgiFf TAZ 1 Trx:Niq cr-A awn fir

87. 31-11*-4-r 74%7 till- dklel 1 1 cht cAf r ar-Awwapit?

(i) cr-)14eil * mq41 viR eht 3 (-1e1 1 1 chell 7T4 1101 ft r

(2) ciL14) A crolv(1 di t

(3) ;iwt) EFf<rket alTWRiff rota * tgqi 1:14---d-rall -gm 1.4) 71:€5R AI. •cr--

(4) %t it afekT 4 -1*-Eft eel 4 10 ch Ill *7-09' i +bralcfri

88. 1-44-114g0 4 A VIR ---ffr 414-4-11 dLlel I ct) qT4 alrl3fitT9' Azfl 31144ff cr) +II ?

(1) TETA -gru *-rA91416 q -Rf--4-e 74.7w firm * RR-er t

(2) croliiiikeil * *451/514W * tq" 45rn AWIT * tft *211-4

ctA 3Tr-474-*--dT t

(3) 40-1-frn (-ii-cpf, 3r13rT oglitom 31444-4*)- -511244-0

(4) 1 M 41 *%7 aTFTT

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 31

89. Authoritarian leadership is a term which indicates

(1) A style of leadership where the leader keeps a very tight control on all information and decision-making processes

(2) A system of leadership that allows maximum participation by all employees

(3) A chain of command that is flat and allows considerable personal freedom to make decisions

(4) The selling of debts to an agency who takes responsibility for their collection

90. Which one of the following is not one of Drucker's five guiding principles of management ?

(1) Making people's strengths effective and their weaknesses irrelevant

(2) Enhancing the ability of people to contribute

(3) To operate the organisation's status system

(4) Integrating people in a common venture by thinking through setting and exemplifying the organisational objectives, values and goals

91. The difference between actual cost and standard cost is known as

(1) Profit (2) Variance

(3) Sunk cost (4) Revenue

92. Standard costing involves determining

(1) Standard costs (2) Actual costs

(3) Estimated costs (4) Sunk costs

93. In Cost-Volume-Profit analysis, profit is determined by

(1) Sales revenue x P/V ratio — Fixed cost

(2) Sales unit x Contribution per unit — Fixed costs

(3) Total contribution — Fixed cost


94. Semi-variable costs are segregated into fixed and variable costs with the help of

(1) Scatter diagram

(2) Method of least squares

(3) High and low points method


M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 32

89.

(1) aTrfiTwril-- (Ica &moist

\ile 4-d-r Tit to-113113 Pulq 44. *r 3rWrra4 IR qi*r Az•FTIT

kt.gii I

(2) 4-IM 41. i 3rErrit t Tit 404100-4-1 TKT aTRT--*--dg N-F11-4-Ret*r t

(3) chHis /UM

ter t 1 (-141e. at{ Puier A-4* IZ-R crA cArRbili argrN

(4) 7w 744t war -41- -WA q)- 3Tcr4 t

90. d 4 V19.--wr 14,(*314*R*1:1%4-wig4ict) Rital 4 ger ?

(1) cilia At clicho "Wit -443 341 =Oft I (2) trr<TR" 74" * klirdT 4 1. 125 (3) ti'lc5-1*r "Prft AETIT4t * (4) .i41,::10-iiciict) 304i, urR 4 t(si l 7, P-TTrcra. cht *T.-4 TrITFA

3TR Tall. 4 g‘tt--a- alt-11

91. aft-ci .11 , 1c1 warr cb (11111

(1) . TIT

(3) 444-1

92. Hlich 0Pici tsilch-i * 3 i Auflta-

(1) Hlict,

(3) alyTTAW 0IJI •

(2) 1 -t1tul

(4) 31

(2) cm-ci act) 0141

(4) f-ilia-1 0141 ••

93. 0Ilic-1-7fkl:FluT-W4 reRqui .FIT Pchi0 t

(1) rast)ei aTrzr x -ffrq tritmur 31 IIopi •

(2) rel9bei x 3iT4TqF Nrcl r*4 - -PR 01, 1 •

(3) To *74 —PR Multi

(4) 31:ItT

94. aTErft-44 011I -PR trfcdt zwid . 4 1-*1:rir ti erdi ally t ?

(1) WM 34.11U (Scatter diagram) 4

(2) 61:f trz%

(3) AR i• -s -Wit

(4) ztrzl-- Trift

M.Phil/Ph.D. COM 33

95. When fixed cost increases, the break-even point

(1) Increases (2) Decreases

(3) No effect (4) Cannot say

96. Profit-volume ratio is improve by reducing

(1) Variable costs (2) Fixed costs

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither of the two

97. In case of Closing Stock appearing in Trial Balance, it is shown in the

(1) Trading Account (2) Manufacturing Account

(3) Profit and Loss Account (4) Balance Sheet

98. Cash discount allowed to a debtor should be debited to

(1) Customer's Account (2) Cash Account

(3) Allowance Account (4) Discount Allowed Account

99. Debit balance in the Cash Book means

(1) Overdraft

(2) Favourable balance

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Neither of the two

100. While making an adjustment entry in respect of closing stock, we debit the

(1) Closing Stock Account (2) Trading Account

(3) Purchases Account (4) Cash Account

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 34

95. 74 tAk CiliId1 4 1. 4 *, tiHra-ack refrs

(1) civil t (2) tic

(3) 311IT1 ff (4) 3A9

96.11T-Tritiltur airra 4 T1R ell war t

(1)

(3)

Zft

trit441 01 , 10

-")" ITZT4 (1) Warr (2)

OCILId 4 alirr uRrr Am' t, c

(1) «mach 4

(3) ' 11T-IP NI;

tsii 4 az A ,311.11

(1) Niet .) ATM

(3) ITIT131MT

t ct) Nd 3T21

(1) 31147ircg

(3) (1) Wail' (2) 3.11

97.

98.

99.

(2) 'PT( (-Imo

(4) 3-11 4 A- -141.

A- i ti NIl 4fuur \swil ?

(2) raPHiul NI; 4

(4) go-M

? (2) .1clIcrt

(4) *2\e. wt.!'

(2) ard-t-

(4) 311 > 14 ml -ter

100. 3444 t-act)*TriAN -- 4 tiiiier 311-4fit ci,(; TR -4 v:ricr*r t511 r4Z chk ? (1) alfil• *tict) NI; Q. (2) oeir-riken

(3) Wzr NI; Q (4) -ict4 NI; Q

M.PhiI/Ph.D. COM 35

m.phil/ph.d. (commerce) entrance test, 2018

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