no. of printed pages : 32 bli-224

31
No. of Printed Pages : 32 BLI-224 BACHELOR'S DEGREE IN LIBRARY AND INFORMATION SCIENCE (BLIS) Term End Examination, June, 2020 BLI-224 : ICT FUNDAMENTALS Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 70 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries 1 mark. 2. No cell phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, notebooks or written notes, etc. will be allowed inside the examination hall. 3. You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilator at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be disqualified. 4. Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified. 5. The Question Paper and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you by the Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does not return the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her. 6. All rough work is to be done on the question paper itself and not on any other paper. Scrap paper is not permitted. For arriving at answers you may work in the margins, make some markings or underline in the test booklet itself. 7. The University reserves the right to cancel the result of any candidate who impersonates or uses/adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The University may also follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine, the University may cancel your result. BLI-224 ( 1 ) P. T. 0.

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No. of Printed Pages : 32 BLI-224

BACHELOR'S DEGREE IN LIBRARY AND INFORMATION SCIENCE

(BLIS) Term End Examination,

June, 2020 BLI-224 : ICT FUNDAMENTALS

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 1. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries 1 mark.

2. No cell phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, notebooks or written notes, etc. will be allowed inside the examination hall.

3. You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilator at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be disqualified.

4. Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified.

5. The Question Paper and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you by the Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does not return the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her.

6. All rough work is to be done on the question paper itself and not on any other paper. Scrap paper is not permitted. For arriving at answers you may work in the margins, make some markings or underline in the test booklet itself.

7. The University reserves the right to cancel the result of any candidate who impersonates or uses/adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The University may also follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine, the University may cancel your result.

BLI-224 ( 1 ) P. T. 0.

How to fill up the information on the OMR Response Sheet

(Examination Answer Sheet)

1. Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the

enrolment number indicated by you on the OMR Response Sheet. Also write your

correct name, address with pin code in the space provided. Put your signatures on

the OMR Response Sheet with date. Ensure that the Invigilator in your

examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR Response Sheet at

the space provided.

2. On the OMR Response Sheet student's particulars are to be filled in by blue/black

ball pen also. Use blue/black ball pen for writing the Enrolment No. and

Examination Centre Code as well as for blackening the circle bearing the correct

answer number against the serial number of the question.

3. Do not make any stray remarks on this sheet.

4. Write correct information in numerical digits in Enrolment No. and Examination

Centre Code Columns. The corresponding circle should be dark enough and should

be filled in completely.

5. Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered (1), (2), (3)

and (4). You should select and show only one answer to each question considered by

you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate

answer. Then by using blue/black ball pen, blacken the circle bearing the correct

answer number against the serial number of the question. If you find that answer

to any question is none of the four alternatives given under the question, you

should darken the circle with '0'.

6. No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore,

you should select the most appropriate answer.

7. You should not spend too much time on one question. If you find any particular

question difficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering

all the questions, you may go back to the unanswered question.

8. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

BLI-224 ( 2 )

1. Most of today's computers are based on concepts developed by

(1) Charles Babbage (2) Alan Turing

(3) John Von Neumann (4) None of these

2. Any hardware device connected to a computer and any part of the computer outside

the CPU and working memory is known as

3.

(1) Tower (2) Peripherals

(3) USB (4) None of these

Charge Coupled Device readers also called as scanner.

(1) LED (2) Optical

(3) Barcode (4) None of these

4. A enables a computer to transmit data over telephone or cable lines.

(1) switch (2) router

(3) modem (4) None of these

5. The typically contains the processor (or CPU), BIOS (basic input/output

system), memory, mass storage interfaces, serial and parallel ports, expansion

slots, and all the controllers required to communicate with standard peripheral

devices.

(1) ALU

(2) motherboard

(3) circuit board

(4) None of these

BL1-224

( 3 ) P. T. O.

6. are chips that allow data to be written to, however unlike hard disks,

the data is short term and is only used for the duration the PC is switched

on.

(1) RAM (2) ROM

(3) CPU (4) None of these

7. provides a user the choice to boot one of multiple operating systems

installed on a computer or select a specific kernel configuration available on a

particular operating system's partitions.

(1) BOOT (2) Grub

(3) Login screen (4) Root directory

8. Voice signals, Radio and TV broadcasting signals, Electricity signals,

Sunlight or other lights signals, all are nothing but examples of

signal.

(1) Digital (2) Communication

(3) Analog (4) None of these

9. Computers are machines because at their most basic level they can

distinguish between just two values, 0 and 1.

(1) digital (2) electronic

(3) analog (4) None of these

BLI-224 ( 4 )

10. is another alternative mechanism for data transmission, which combines

the approaches of asynchronous and synchronous communications.

(1) Semi-synchronous (2) Isochronous

(3) Duo-synchronous (4) None of these

11. A walky-talky is an example of communication.

(1) simplex (2) full duplex

(3) half duplex (4) None of these

12. A cable consists of a stiff copper wire as the core, surrounded by an

insulating material.

(1) twisted pair

(2) coaxial

(3) optical fibre

(4) None of these

13. is a device which is used to create an internetworking in our WANs and

LANs.

(1) Router (2) Modem

(3) Switches (4) Bridges

14. A is a computer network used for communication among computer

devices close to one person.

(1) WAN (2) PAN

(3) LAN (4) MAN

BLI-224 ( 5. ) P. T. 0.

15. is usually characterised by very high-speed connections using fibre optic

cable or other digital media.

(1) WAN (2) LAN

(3) MAN (4) PAN

16. Peer-to-peer networks are more commonly implemented where less than

computers are involved and where strict security is not

necessary.

(1) ten (2) twenty

(3) fifty (4) hundred

17. In topology, devices are connected with many redundant interconnections

between network nodes.

(1) Ring (2) Bus

(3) Mesh (4) Tree

18 is a secure specification that allows users to access infoimation instantly

via handheld wireless devices such as mobile phones, pagers, two-way radios,

smartphones and communicators.

(1) Wi- Fi (2) TCP/ IP

(3) WiMAX (4) WAP

BLI-224 ( 6 )

19. is a wireless networking technology that uses short-wave radio

frequencies to interconnect cell phones, portable computers, and other wireless

electronic devices.

(1) WiFi (2) Bluetooth

(3) WiMAX (4) WAP

20. The process of establishing a dedicated connection between two end points via a

network is known as : •

21.

(1) Circuit Switching (2) Bridges

(3) Packet Switching (4) None of these

Services that are broadcast or multicast in nature are known as

(1) Digital Services (2) Distributed Services

(3) Broadband Services (4) On-demand Services

22. is an equipment set up to use computers from remote places.

(1) RJE Terminal (2) Router

(3) Switches (4) Bridges

23. The status bar in Writer is located at the of the workspace.

(1) top right

(2) top left

(3) bottom

(4) top

BLI-224

( 7 ) P. T. O.

24. The main Impress window has parts.

(1) three (2) four

(3) five (4) six

25. view is for setting up the layout of a slide for a printed handout.

(1) Print (2) Handout

(3) Notes (4) None of these

26. The Formula Bar is located at the of the sheet in the Calc workspace

(1) top (2) bottom

(3) left (4) right

27. is a collection of programs that enables a user to create, store, modify

and extract information from a database.

(1) Database (2) Application software

(3) DBMS (4) None of these

28. A DSL is a combination of languages.

(1) three (2) four

(3) five (4) two

29. A database is a database designed around a single table.

(1) hierarchical (2) flat file

(3) relational (4) None of these

BLI-224 ( 8 )

30. In databases, the application can manipulate both transient and

persisted data.

(1) traditional (2) hierarchical

(3) relational (4) object

31. Bit-mapped graphics is also known as images.

(1) pixel (2) vector

(3) raster (4) None of these

32. is a computer-generated artificial reality that projects a persoii into a

sensation of three-dimensional space.

(1) Simulation (2)

(3) Virtual reality (4)

3D animation

None of these

33. Jpeg images use bit colour.

(1) 16 (2) 24

(3) 8 (4) None of these

34. Way, midi, mp3 are formats.

(1) Image (2) Video

(3) Audio (4) Text

35. is an image format.

(1) RTF (2) TXT

(3) PNG (4) HTML

BLI.224 ( 9 )

P. T. O.

36. A is sometimes loosely called a concentrator as it connects to all

computers of a network in star configuration.

(1) Switch (2) hub

(3) Ethernet (4) None of these

37 and token ring are two media access control (MAC) protocols.

(1) Subnet (2) Ethernet

(3) Bridge (4) None of these

38. topology is a network topology comprising two or more dissimilar

network segments.

(1) Hybrid (2) Star

(3) Ring (4) BUS

39. is a passive device that amplifies the signal level.

(1) Repeater (2) Router

(3) Switch (4) None of these

40. provides connectionless service at the user level.

(1) TCP (2) MPLS

(3) UDP (4) None of these

BLI-224 ( 10 )

41. IPv4 uses 32-bit address and IPv6 bit.

(1) 256 (2) 64

(3) 128 (4) None of these

42. Routers use to report any abnormal event on the network.

(1) TCP (2) ICMP

(3) TCP/ IP (4) IMAP

43. switching is the most recent one evolved during mid 1990s used in new

telecommunication infrastructure.

(1) Packet (2) Cell

(3) Circuit (4) None of these

44. Cell switching and asynchronous transfer mode are chosen as the basic ,transport

mechanism for

(1) BISDN (2) ISDN

(3) Bluetooth (4) None of these

45. is used for routing information between autonomous systems connected

to the Internet.

(1) BGP (2) ATM

(3) IDN (4) None of these

BU-224 ( 11 ) P. T. O.

46. has been developed as the common format for image scanners and DTP

software.

(1) JPEG (2) GIF

(3) TIFF (4) None of these

47. Submission of a message by UA to MTA is via protocol.

(1) POP3

(2) IMAP

(3) SMTP (4) None of these

48. CMIP, TMN and SNMP concentrated mainly on management tools.

(1) LAN

(2) WAN

(3) RMON

(4) SNMP

49. A high-speed network capable of transmitting and distributing high quality video

inforination is called :

(1) RMON (2) Videonet

(3) ITV

(4) None of these

50. security is predominantly concerned with access to

information resources residing on a server connected to a network or on a stand-

alone computer.

(1) AAA (2) ACL

(3) Web (4) None of these

BLI-224 ( 12 )

51. servers are computer systems that perform firewall functions at the

application level.

(1) Proxy (2) Trusted

(3) SPF (4) DPF

52. are malicious programs that spread from system to system via network

connections.

(1) Bacteria (2) Viruses

(3) Worms (4) None of these

53. is a type of deception to steal valuable personal data, such as credit card

number, bank account number, e-mail ID, passwords, etc.

(1) Spyware (2) Spam

(3) Phishing (4) Cookies

54 protocol provides a simple, standardised way for users to access their

mailboxes and download messages on their computers using e-mail clients.

(1) POP3 (2) SMTP

(3) HTTP (4) IMAP

55. is computer software used by the Mail Transfer Agent to deliver email to

a particular user's mailbox.

(1) MDA (2) MTA

(3) SMTP (4) None of these

BLI-224 ( 13 ) P. T. 0.

56. is a copy of an e-mail message sent to recipients but his email address

does not appear in the message.

(1) CC (2) BCC

(3) MIME (4) None of these

57. translates domain names into IP addresses.

(1) MIME (2) DNS

(3) Proxy Server (4) None of these

58. In the first web browser was released.

(1) 1981 (2) 1985

(3) 1991 (4) 1989

59. Web utilises protocols to identify a web object based on names and addresses

known as :

(1) URI (2) URL

(3) HTTP (4) HTML

60. Charles Goldfarb, Ed Mosher and Ray Lorie designed the first markup language

known as

(1) SGML (2) GML

(3) HTML (4) XML

BLI-224 ( 14 )

61. XML is a subset of

(1) HTML

(2) SGML

(3) GML

(4) None of these

62. One of the important features of Web 2.0 is services.

(1) Open Source (2) Free

(3) Collaborative (4) None of these

63. Search engines are automated tools for searching information from a collection

using stored in the database of search engine.

(1) index (2) metadata

(3) keywords (4) class number

64. Dogpile is a metasearch engine and gets its results from Google, Yahoo, MSN

Search, Ask, About, MIVA, LookSmart, and more.

(1) metasearch engine (2) web directory

(3) crawler (4) indexer

65. Logical AND, OR and NOT are known as

(1) Keyword filter (2) Boolean operators

(3) Proximity searcher (4) None of these

66. means concatenation of words.

(1) Truncation (2) Proximity

(3) Fuzzy search (4) None of these

BLI-224 ( 15 )

P. T. O.

67. brings out results based on approximations.

(1) Fuzzy search (2) Truncation

(3) Proximity search (4) Stop words

68. A is a locally stored Uniform Resource Identifier (URI).

(1) bookmark (2) index

(3) directory (4) None of these

69 is a standard for formatting non-ASCII messages so that they can be

communicated over the Internet.

(1) HTML (2) MIME

(3) XML (4) PDF

70. A web-enabled broadcasting of information to the users is known as

(1) streaming (2) video on demand

(3) webcasting (4) None of these

BLI-224 ( 16 )

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