ntse sat 2015 sample paper

8/10/2019 NTSE SAT 2015 Sample Paper

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Time : 1 Hr. Date : 30-09-2012 Max. Marks : 90

GENER L INSTRUCTIONS

1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.

2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of

HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

3. Paper carries 90 questions each of 1 (one) mark.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any

form is not allowed.

5. Write your Name& Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.

6. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.

7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.

8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

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ALL INDIA NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST SERIES

OPEN TEST

CLASS -X

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
mailto:[email protected]://www.pccp.resonance.ac.in/


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Space For Rough Work

SAT_NTSE OPEN TEST_PAGE # 1

1. Which of the following is smallest :

(A) 4 5 (B) 5 4 (C) 4 (D) 3

2. The value of

!"

!#$

!%

!&'

(((

()

)22()22(

1

)22(

1is :

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 22 (D) None of these

3. If u, v and w are the digits of decimal system, then the rational number represented by 0.uwuvuvuvuv.........is

(A) (100 uw + 99 uv)/99 (B) (99uw + uv)/980 (C) (99uw + uv)/9900 (D) (9uw + 99uv)/900

4. Three wheels can complete respectively 60, 36, 24 revolutions per minute. There is red spot on eachwheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time all the sport will simultaneously touchthe ground again ?

(A) 5 seconds (B) 6 seconds (C)2

5seconds (D)

3

5seconds

5. 64636261 4444 ((( is divisible by :

(A) 3 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 13

6. In a bangle shop, the shopkeeper displays the bangles in the from of a square then he is left with 38bangles with him. If the wanted to increase the size of square, by increasing one unit, each side of thesquare he found that 25 bangles fall short of in completing the square. The actual number of bangleswhich he had with him in the shop was :(A) 1690 (B) 999 (C) 538 (D) can not be determine

7. If ab, cd, ba and dc are two digit numbers then the maximum value of (abcd)(ba dc) is , where a, b, c,

d are distinct non-zero integers :(A) 7938 (B) 7128 (C) 6930 (D) None of these

8. If 2a = b, the pair of equations ax + by = 2a2 3b2, x + 2y = 2a 6b possess :(A) no solution (B) only one solution(C) only two solutions (D) an infinite number of solutions

9. The value of 'm' so that x4+ 6x3+ 13x2+ mx + 4 is completely divisible by x2+ 3x + 2 is :

(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 0

10. If the zeros of the polynomial f (x) = x312x2+ 39x + k are in A.P., then find the value of k.

(A) 28 (B) 28 (C) 14 (D) 14

S T P PER


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11. The equation 01x1x *)(( has :

(A) one real solution (B) two real solutions(C) No solution (D) None of these

12. In the given figure, if +A = +CED, then the value of x is :

C

B

E

2

10D

8

A

X

9

7

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5

13. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle and AD be the altitude through A. Then

(A) AD2= 3BD2 (B) AD2= 5BD2 (C) AB2+ AC2= BC2 (D) AD2= 2BD2

14. In the adjoining figure, chord ED is parallel to the diameter AC of the circle with centre O. If

+CBE = 65 then the measured of +DEC is equal to.

(A) 35 (B) 55 (C) 37.5 (D) 25

15. If two chords of lenghts 2a each, of a circle of radius R, intersect each other at right angles then the

distance of their point of intersection from the centre of the circle is

(A) 2 22 aR ) (B) )aR(222 ) (C) )aR(4 22 ) (D) 2(R2a2)

16. If (3, 4) and (6, 5) are the extremities of the diagonal of a parallelogram and (2, 1) is its third vertex,then its fourth vertex is -

(A) (

1, 0) (B) (0,

1) (C) (

1, 1) (D) None of these.


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17. If 0 < ,< 90 and,(

,(

,)

,

cos1

sin

cos1

sin= 4, then the value of ,is

(A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) none

18. The shadow of a tower is 30 metres when the suns altitude is 30. When the suns altitude is 60, then

the length of shadow will be

(A) 60 m (B) 15 m (C) 10 m (D) 5m

19. If the radius of a right circular cylinder is increased by 50% and height is decreased by 20% then

the percentage change in volume of cylinder is

(A) 40% (B) 50% (C) 60% (D) 80%

20. The mean and mode of a frequency distribution are 28 and 16 respectively. The median is

(A) 22 (B) 23.5 (C) 24 (D) 24.5

21. The colour of an object is determined by the colour of the light

(A) reflected by it. (B) absorbed by it.

(C) incident on it only. (D) transmitted by it.

22. Maximum variation of power of eye lens is :

(A) 4 D (B) 40 D (C) 44 D (D) 400 D

23. The induced current is highest when

(A) Direction of motion of coil is at 90 to the magnetic field.

(B) Direction of motion of coil is at 30 to the magnetic field.

(C) Direction of motion of coil is at 60 to the magnetic field.

(D) Direction of motion of coil is at 180 to the magnetic field.

24. In the figure shown :

(A) current will flow from A to B (B) current may flow from B to A

(C) current will flow from B to A (D) the direction of current will depend on r.

25. The radiations responsible for skin cancer are

(A) ultra violet rays. (B) infra red rays.

(C) gamma rays. (D) X-rays.


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26. Velocity of a moving object is changing uniformly and the kinetic energy changes accordingly. Which ofthe following graph depicts the correct relationship.

(A)

Velocity

Kinetic energy

(B)

Velocity

Kinetic energy

(C)

Velocity

Kinetic energy

(D)

Velocity

Kinetic energy

27. A wagon weighing 1000 kg is moving with a velocity 50 km/h on smooth horizontal rails. A mass of 250 kgis dropped on it. The velocity with which it moves now is(A) 12.5 km/h. (B) 20 km/h. (C) 40 km/h. (D) 50 km/h.

28. At a given place where acceleration due to gravity is g m/sec2, a sphere of lead of density d kg/m 3isgently released in a column of non-viscous liquid of density r kg/m3. If d>r then the acceleration of thesphere is:

(A) g (B) zero (C)d

)rd(g

)(D)

d

g

29. A boy claps his hands in front of a staircase and hears a musical echo. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, andif each step is 33 cm deep, then the pitch of the echo is(A) 1000 Hz (B) 500 Hz (C) 250 Hz (D) 10 Hz

30. A motorboat is travelling with a speed of 3 m/s. When the force on boat due to water flow is 500 N, the

power of the boat is :(A) 15 kW. (B) 150 kW. (C) 150 W. (D) 1.5 kW.

31. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. This is an example of :(A) uniformly accelerated motion (B) non-uniformly accelerated motion(C) uniform motion (D) none of these

32. Consider a satellite going around the earth in a circular orbit. Then,(A) it will move with constant acceleration.(B) it will not move with constant velocity.(C) it does not move with a constant speed.(D) its angular momentum does not remain constant.


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33. During the electrolysis of fused NaCl, the reaction that occurs at the anode is -

(A) Chloride ions are oxidised (B) Chloride ions are reduced

(C) Sodium ions are oxidised (D) Sodium ions are reduced.

34. The aqueous solution of copper sulphate has the following nature -

(A) Acidic (B) Alkaline (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric

35. Aluminium appears like gold when it is mixed with -(A) 90 % Cu (B) 50% Ni (C) 90 % Sn (D) 50 %Co

36. When sodium acetate is heated with soda - lime it gives-

(A) ethane (B) methane (C) butane (D) propane

37. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula (CH3)

3CCH = CH

2is -

(A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-propane (B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene

(C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene (D) 1,1Dimethyl -3-butene

38. Which of the following are isoelectronic species ?

(i) CH3+ (ii) H

3O+

(iii) CH3 (iv) NH

3

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii),(iii) and (iv)

39. The highest ionisation energy is exhibited by -

(A) halogens (B) alkaline earth metals

(C) transition metals (D) noble gases

40. Atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5. It has two isotopes of atomic weight 35 & 37 respectively. What is the

percentage of the heavier isotope in the sample ?

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 25 (D) 20

41. Two nuclides X and Y are isotonic to each other with mass numbers 70 and 72 respectively. If the atomic

number of X is 34, then that of Y would be -

(A) 32 (B) 34 (C) 36 (D) 38

42. At 80C, pure distilled water has H3O+concentration equal to 1 10 6mol L 1. The value of K

w(ionic

product of water) at this temperature will be -

(A) 1 10 8 (B) 1 10 12 (C) 1 10 14 (D) 1 10 6

43. 4.4 g of CO2and 2.24 litre of H

2at STP are mixed in a container. The total number of molecules present

in the container will be -

(A) 6.022 1023 (B) 1.2044 1023 (C) 2 mole (D) 6.023 1024


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44. In which of the following, dispersed phase is a liquid and dispersion medium is a gas ?

(A) Cloud (B) Smoke (C) Gel (D) Soap bubble

45. Which of the following equation sums up photosynthetic reaction most accurately :

(A) CO + H2O - CH

2O + O

2(B) 6CO

2+ 6H

2O - C

6H

12O

6+ 6O

2

(C) 6CO2+ 12H

2O - C

6H

12O

6+ 6O

2+ H

2O (D) 6CO

2+ 12H

2O lChlorophyl

Light.. -. C

6H

12O

6+ 6O

2+ 6H

2O

46. Chlorophyll is present :

(A) In the grana of chloroplast (B) On the surface of chloroplast

(C) In the stroma (D) Dispersed throughout the chloroplast

47. Total number of canines in permanent dental set of human is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 12

48. Epiglottis is

(A) a cartilagenous flap that guards the opening of larynx.

(B) a membranous structure present in pharynx.

(C) a muscle that guards the opening of nasal cavity

(D) A cartilagenous flap that guards opening of pharynx

49. The exchange of gases in alveoli of lungs takes place by-

(A) passive transport (B) simple diffusion (C) osmosis (D) active transport

50. One haemoglobin carries how many molecules of O2

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 8

51. Pace maker of heart is -

(A) AV node (B) Bundle of His (C) SA node (D) Purkinje fibre

52. RBCs in mammals have no nucleus because

(A) it degenerate during development (B) they do not have nucleus since early

(C) it is harmful for RBCs (D) nucleus increases surface area.

53. Skin also serve as organ of excretion as:

(A) It is richly supplied with blood vessels (B) Skin possess sweat glands

(C) It keeps our body temperature in control (D) All the above are correct


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54. Which of the following has least urea ?

(A) Renal artery (B) Renal vein (C) Aorta (D) Afferent arteriole

55. Reflex arc is formed by

(A) receptor brain muscles (B) muscles spinal cord receptor

(C) receptor spinal cord muscles (D) muscle brain receptor

56. Gandhi called off the Rowlatt Satyagraha, following the incident of(A) Ahmedabad Satyagraha.(B) Champaran peasant struggle.

(C) Kheda Satyagraha.

(D) Jallianwalla Bagh massacre.

57. Political symbols like broken chains, the Sceptre and bundles of rods were used during the French

Revolution because French peasants were

(A) socially adaptable. (B) politically inclined. (C) educated. (D) illiterate.

58. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha movement in Ahmedabad to support the

(A) construction labourers. (B) cotton mill workers.

(C) peasants. (D) students.

59. In Rajasthan Coal mines are situated at -(A) Palana (B) Bheelwara (C) Dausa (D) JhunJhunu

60. Call for industrial action by the Assembly of Russian workers was taken at the

(A) Moscow public works (B) Putilov Iron Works.

(C) Margerta Steel Factory (D) Russian mill works.

61. Some events are named below. The ascending order of the events according to their occurence period is

(i) Non co-operation movement

(ii) Jallianawala Bag Massacre

(iii) Civil Disobedience movement

(iv) Dandi March

Select the carrect option

(A) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

(C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (D) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

62. Match the following

(a) Chauri Chaura (i) 1930

(b) Civil Disobedience Movement (ii) 1922

(c) Non Cooperation Movement (iii) 1920

(d) Quit India Movement (iv) 1942

(A) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iii), (d) (iv) (B) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (ii)

(C) (a)

(i), (b)

(ii), (c)

(iii), (d)

(iv) (D) (a)

(iv), (b)

(i), (c)

(iii), (d)

(ii)


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63. Which of the following statements are true ?

(i) The Indian Independence Act of 1947 permitted the Princely States to remain independent.

(ii) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel appealed to the Princes to accept the accession to the Indian Union

(iii) Junagarh, Hyderabad and Kashmir did not sign the Instrument of Accession

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and(iii) (C) (i) and(iii) (D) (i), (ii) and(iii)

64. The names of some dynasties and their founders are given below. Match them and select the correct

option

(a) Pratihar vansh (i) Chandra Dev

(b) Gadhaval Vansh (ii) Raja Bhoj

(c) Chandel Vansh (iii) Nag Bhatt First

(d) Parmar Vansh (iv) Yashovarman

(A) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iv) (B) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i)

(C) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (iv), (d) (ii) (D) (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii)

65. The two main centres of Rajasthan in the Revolt of 1857 were

(A) Kota-Jaipur (B) Naseerabad - Neemach

(C) Tonk Alwar (D) Bharatpur - Bhilwara


Region Characterstics

a. Bhabar (i) The newer, younger deposits of the flood plains, are renewed almost every

year and so are fertile, ideal for intensive agriculture.

b. Terai (ii) Deposition of pebbles in a narrow belt of 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to

the slopes of Shiwaliks.

c. Bhangar (iii) Wet, swampy and marshy region. A thickly forested region full of wildlife.

d. Khadar (iv) They lie above the fold plains of the rivers and present a terrace like feature.

(A) a. (iv), b. (ii), c. (i), d. (iii) (B) a. (iv), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (ii)

(C) a. (ii), b. (iii), c. (iv), d. (i) (D) a. (ii), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (iv)

67. Which of the following statements are correct

(i) Narmada rises in the Satpura ranges of the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) Godavari rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.

(iii) Tungabhadra, Koyana, Ghatprabha, Musi and the Bhima are the tributaries of Krishna.

(iv) Brahmani, Baitarni and Subarn rekha are the tributaries of Krishna.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) all are correct


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Soil Characterstics

a. Alluvial (i) The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar

because of the increasing calcium content downwards.

b. Black (ii) Found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly

areas of Orissa and Assam.

c. Red and Yellow (iii) Also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of theMahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.

d. Laterite soil (iv) Found on the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya

Pradesh and Chattisgarh and extend in the south East direction along the

Godavari and the Krishna valleys.

e. Arid Soil (v) Found in parts of Orissa, Chattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga

plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.

(A) a. (iii), b. (iv), c. (v), d. (ii), e. (i) (B) a. (iii), b. (i), c. (v), d. (ii), e. (iv)

(C) a. (ii), b. (iv), c. (v), d. (iii), e. (i) (D) a. (iii), b. (iv), c. (i), d. (ii), e. (v)

72. Which one of the following is not a way by which communities have conserved and protected forests andwildlife in India ?(A) Establishment of Bhairodev Dakav Sanctuaryby the inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district ofRajasthan.(B) Establishment of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.(C) Chipko Movement in the Himalayas(D) Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya.

73. Multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition for a variety of

reasons. Which one of the following is not an appropriate reasons

(A) Resistance of these projects has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement of local

communities.

(B) Has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and

commercial crops.

(C) Have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir, have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling

floods at the time of excessive rainfall.

(D) Dams have been built not only just for irrigation but for electricity generation.


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74. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Kharif crops

(A) Grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-

October.

(B) Important crops are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.

(C) Rice growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil

Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

(D) Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the

success of these crops.

75. Which of the following is termed as the basic industry since all other industries heavy, medium and

light, depend on it for their machinery ?

(A) Iron and Steel Industry (B) Cement Industry

(C) Aluminium Smelting (D) Chemical Industries

76. Used to be a British colony named Gold Coast. It became independent in 1957. It was among the first

countries in Africa to gain independence. It inspired other African Countries to struggle for independence.In

the above lines which country is talked about

(A) Zimbabwe (B) Chile (C) Namibia (D) Ghana

77. Democracy is a form of government in which

(i) Rulers elected by the people take all the major decisions ;

(ii) Elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers;

(iii) Choice and opportunity is available to all people on an equal basis;

(iv) Exercise of this choice leads to a government which is not limited by basic rules of the constitution

and citizens rights.

(A) Only (i) & (ii) are correct (B) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct

(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) are correct (D) All are correct

78. Elections to the Constituent Assembly which made the Indian Constitution were held in

(A) July 1946 (B) December 1946

(C) November 1949 (D) January 1950

79. According to our election law, no party or candidate can :

(i) Bribe or threaten voters;

(ii) Appeal to them in the name of caste or religion;

(iii) use government resources for election campaign; and

(iv) Spend more then Rs. 25 lakh in a constituency for a Lok Sabha election or Rs. 10 lakh in a constituency

in an Assembly election.




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Term Definition

(a) Judiciary (i) A set of procedures for regulating the conduct of government and

political life in the country.

(b) Legislature (ii) A body of persons having authority to initiate major policies,

make decisions and implement them on the basis of the Constitution

and laws of the country.

(c) Political Institution (iii) An assembly of peoples representatives with the power to enact laws for a country.

(d) Reservations (iv) An institution empowered to administer justice and provide a

Mechanism for the resolution of legal disputes.

(e) Executive (v) A policy that declares some positions in government employment

And educational institutions reservedfor people and communities

Who have been discriminated against, are disadvantaged & backward.

(A) a. (iv), b. (i), c. (iii), d. (v), e. (ii) (B) a. (iv), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (v), e. (ii)

(C) a. (v), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (iv), e. (ii) (D) a. (iv), b. (iii), c. (ii), d. (v), e. (i)

81. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen ?

(A) Freedom to criticise the government.(B) Freedom to participate in armed revolution.

(C) Freedom to start a movement to change the government.

(D) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution.

82. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka.

(i) In Belgium, the Dutch speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority

French speaking community..

(ii) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhale speaking

Majority.

(iii) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their culture,

Language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.(iv) The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible

Division of the country on linguistic lines.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?



83. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is :

(A) National government gives some powers to the provincial government.

(B) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary.

(C) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.

(D) Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.


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84. Arrange the following statements in a logical sequence and select the right answers by using the codegiven below.(i) But all political expression of social divisions need not be always dangerous.(ii) Social divisions of one kind or the other exist in most countries.(iii) Parties try to win political support by appealing to social divisions.(iv) Some social differences may result in social divisions.(A) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) (B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (C) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

85. Which among the following statements about Indias Constitution is wrong ? It(A) Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.(B) Gives official status to one religion.(C) Provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion.(D) Ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.

86. Drawbacks of Unemployment are (i) There is s feeling of hopelessness and despair among the youth.(ii) Inability of educated people who are willing to work to find gainful employment implies a great socialwaste.(iii) It increases overload, the quality of life of an individual as well as of society is adversely affected.(iv) Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy. It also wastes the resource, which

could have been gainfully employed.(A) Only (i) & (ii) are correct (B) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) are correct (D) All are correct

87. Match the following Programme Characterstics

a.National Rural Employment (i) launched in 1999, aims at bringing theGuarantee Act-2005 assisted poor families above the poverty

line by organizing them into self helpgroups. (SGSY)

b. National Food for Work (ii) launched in 1995, aims to create self-Programme employment opportunities in rural areas

and small towns. (REGP)c.Prime Minister Gramodaya Yozana (iii) launched in 2000, additional centralassistance is given to states for basicservices. (PMGY)

d. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar (iv) Passed in September 2005, provides 100Yojana days assured employment every year to

every household in 200 districts. (NAR)e.Rural Employment Generation (v) launched in 2004 in 150 most backwardProgramme districts of the country, open to all rural

poor who are in need of wageemployment and desire do manualunskilled work.

(A) a. (iv), b. (v), c. (iii), d. (i), e. (ii) (B) a. (v), b. (iv), c. (iii), d. (i), e. (ii)

(C) a. (iv), b. (v), c. (i), d. (iii), e. (ii) (D) a. (iv), b. (v), c. (ii), d. (i), e. (iii)


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88. Which one of the following is not a characterstic of Seasonal hunger ?

(A) Related to food growing and harvesting.

(B) Prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas

because of the casual labour.

(C) Consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality.

(D) Exists when a person is unable to get work for the entire year.

89. Which of the following is not a criteria for counting the rank of any country under the Human Development

Report published by UNDP ?

(A) Life expectancy at birth.

(B) Gross enrolment ratio for three levels.

(C) Literacy rate for 15+ years population

(D) Infant Mortality rate per 1000

90. Why is the tertiary sector becoming so important in India ?

(i) Government taking responsibility for the provision of basic services.

(ii) The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services.

(iii) As income level rises, certain sections of people start demanding many more services.(iv) Certain new services such as those based on information and communication technology have become

important and essential.



ntse sat 2015 sample paper

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