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A complete Coaching for Preparation of all Nursing Courses – AIIMS – NCLEX

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Nursing Officer

MCI Institute

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STAFF NURSE CUM TUTOR

(NCLEX/AIIMS/PGI/ESIC/RRB/DSSSB/PGIMERE/SIC/NRHM/

NUHM/ NHM/CRPF/UPSC/SSC/ SSSC/ NSG/ LIC/BCCL/RRC)

FEE: 16000 (Including 1000 Reg. Fee)

(30 TEST: 25 MINOR + 5 MAJOR)



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NURSING OFFICER

BATCH DURATION: 6 MONTH CLASS+ LIFETIME WEB Id


(30 TEST: 25 MINOR + 5 MAJOR)

Academic Batches

M.Sc. Nursing (ALL year/ ALL Subject)

Fees 7,000/subject

Duration: 4 month

P.B.Sc. Nursing (ALL year/ ALL Subject)

Fees: 5,000/subject

Duration: 3 month

B.Sc. Nursing (ALL year/ ALL Subject)

Fees: 3,000/subject

Duration: 3 month

GNM (ALL year/ ALL Subject)

Duration: 3 month

Fees: 3,000/subject

NURSING OFFICER

FEE STRUCTURE AND SHEDULE

FREE DEMO: 15-20 MAY

BATCH DURATION: 6 MONTH CLASS+ LIFETIME WEB Id


Timings: 4-8pm (Summer) & 2-7pm (Winter)

1. An insulin drip is initiated for a patient with 40 u of insulin in 100

ml of normal saline solution. The I.V. is being infused via an

infusion pump and the pumps is currently set at 20ml/hour. How

many units of insulin is infused each hour?

(A) 4 U (B) 8U

(C) 0.4 U (D) 0.8 U



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MCI KOTA ONLY AN INSTITUTE FOR 100% STUDY SATISFACTION



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MINOR TEST (UNIT WISE)



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1. ENTRANCE

2. OBG UNIT- I + MS, A/P-CELL + CHN

3. OBG UNIT – I + MS,A/P-TISSUE + CHN

4. OBG UNIT – I + MS,A/P-BLOOD + CHN

5. OBG UNIT-II + MS,A/P – CV + CHN

6. OBG UNIT – II + MS,A/P -CV + CHN

7. OBG UNIT – III + MS,A/P -CV + CHN

8. OBG UNIT – IV + MS,A/P -ENDOCRINE + CHN

9. OBG UNIT – IV + MS,A/P -ENDOCRINE + CHN

10. OBG UNIT – V + MS,A/P -INTEGUMENTRY + FUNDAMENTAL

11. OBG UNIT – V + MS,A/P -ENT + FUNDAMENTAL

12. OBG UNIT – V + MS,A/P -ENT + FUNDAMENTAL

13. OBG UNIT – V + MS,A/P -NERVOUS + FUNDAMENTAL

14. OBG UNIT – VI + MS,A/P -NERVOUS + FUNDAMENTAL

15. OBG UNIT – VI + MS-URINARY + FUNDAMENTAL

16. OBG UNIT – VI + MS,A/P -RESPIRATORY + FUNDAMENTAL

17. OBG UNIT – VII + MS,A/P -RESPIRATORY + FUNDAMENTAL

18. OBG UNIT – VII + MS-GI + MICROBIOLOGY

19. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P -GI+ PHARMACOLOGY + MICROBIOLOGY

20. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P -GI+ PHARMACOLOGY + NUTRITION

21. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P –MUSCLES,BONES + PHARMACOLOGY +

NUTRITION

22. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P -ONCOLOGY+ PSYCHO-PSYCHIATRIC +

NUTRITION

23. PAEDIATRIC + PSYCHO-PSYCHIATRIC + BIOCHEMISTRY

24. PAEDIATRIC + PSYCHO-PSYCHIATRIC + BIOCHEMISTRY

25. NURSING MANAGEMENT, RESEARCH & EDUCATION

MAJOR TEST (COMPLETE SYLLABUS)

1. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-I

2. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-II

3. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-III

4. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-IV

5. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-V

Join us our Advance Latest Exam based test series for AIIMS-NCLEX

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DID YOU KNOW?

Some Important Honours

Father of (Modern) Medicine: Hippocrates Father of Indian Medicine: Charaka Hindu God of Medicine: Dhanvantari Father of (Modern) Surgery: Ambroise Pare Father of Indian Surgery: Sushruta Father of Epidemiology/Modern Epidemiology: John Snow Father of Bacteriology: Louis Pasteur Father of Biology: Aristotle Father of Genetics: Gregor Mendel Father of (Modern) Anatomy: Vesalius Father of Physiology: Claude Bernard



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FEVERS

Fever Causative Organism

Sandfly fever — Arbovirus Lassa fever — Arena Virus Glandular fever — Ebstein Barr Virus Bartonneuse fever — Rickettsiae Conori Oroya fever — Bartonella Pretibial fever — Leptospirosis Canicola fever — Leptospirosis Swamp fever — Leptospirosis Seven day fever — Leptospirosis Haverhill fever — Streptobacillus Moniliformis Scarlet fever — Streptococci Pontiac fever — Legionella

SIGNS OF PREGNANCY

Chadwicks sign: congestion of pelvis causes bluish/purplish hue of vagina/cervix

Leucorrhea: non fern pattern of cervical mucus Goodells sign: cyanosis and softening of cervix Ladins sign: softening of uterus in anterior midline Hegars sign: compressibility of isthmus on bimanual

examination Mc Donalds sign: uterus becomes flexible at utero

cervical junction. Von Frendwals sign: irregular softening of fundus at site

of implantation. Piskaceks sign: softening of cervix with lateral

implantation Osianders sign: pulsations in lateral vaginal fornix Palmers sign: rythmic contractions of uterus Weinberg sign: abdominal pregnancy

IMPORTANT DAYS IN SPM

7th April World Health day 31st May No tobacco day 1st July Doctors day 9th October World sight day 1st December World AIDS day 24th March Anti TB day 30th January Anti Leprosy day

IMPORTANT SYNDROMES ASKED IN EXAMINATIONS

Lowes syndrome: Hypophosphatemic

rickets+aminoaciduria+CNS and eye defects Potters syndrome: Pulmonary hypoplasia+renal

hypoplasia+ear deformities. Cat eye syndrome: Partial trisomy 22 Floppy baby syndrome: Due to clostridium botulinium.



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Dandy walker syndrome: Due to obstruction of Foramen of Magiende and Lushcka.

Mc Leod syndrome: Unilateral pseudoemphysema

occurring in child hood. Williams Syndrome: Infantile hypercalcemia. Caudal regression syndrome: Seen in diabetics

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Read notice and Click on the Main Exam?

Select the Category,

subcategory and Subject for

Exam and then click on search

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Check for available Exams and click on

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For any queries: Visit: www.mcinursing.com

E-mail: [email protected] Call @ 8947879143

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mailto:[email protected]



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You know that nothing is a guarantee, yet I know success is

guaranteed with faith, hard work, persistence, flexibility,

determination and courage. God luck in your journey to the

future.

2. Clinical manifestation of hypokalemia include

(A) Spiky T wave

(B) Prolonged PR interval

(C) Positive Chvostek’s sign

(D) Muscle weakness

3. Core body temp can be obtained from

(A) Rectum

(B) Tympanic membrane

(C) Right atrium

(D) All of the above

4. Best position for a client in hypovolemic shock is

(A) Knee chest (B) Trendleberg

(C) Fowlers (D) Lateral position

5. Best position given to an unconscious client while performing oral care is-

(A) Supine (B) Sitting

(C) Side lying (D) fowlers

6. Tapping over facial nerves cause twisting if the facial muscles. It is known as-

(A) Chvostek’s sign (B) Trosses sign

(C) Trousseaus sign (D) Homan sign

7. Elevated specific gravity can be seen

(A) DI (B) Dehydration

(C) Hypervolemia (D) Hypokalemia

SAMPLE TEST BY MCI Kota

Syllabus COVERED:- Nervous system, Fundamental, OBG



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8. Cleaning of thermometer needs to be done in ……….. Direction after taking temperature.

(A) Bulb to stem

(B) Stem to bulb

(C) Midway b/w stem & bulb to stem

(D) Midway b/w stem bulb to bulb

9. Which one is the most abundant anion in extracellular fluid?

(A) Sodium (B) Potassium

(C) Bicarbonate (D) Chloride

10. Following blood transfusion a patient is developed chills fever and dyspnea what should be the first action by the nurse?

(A) Call the physician immediately

(B) Provide one dose of antihistamine

(C) Slowly and increase water intake

(D) Stop the blood transfusion

11. Low blood pressure that happens when a person stands up from sitting or lying down is known as-

(A) Postural hypotension

(B) Orthostatic Hypotension

(C) Supine hypotension

(D) Both A & B

12. What is the systolic BP fall occur in postural hypotension

(A) 5 mmHg (B) 10 mmHg

(C) 15 mmHg (D) 20 mmHg

13. Twick yellow drainage from the wound is known as?

(A) Sanguineous (B) Sero-sanguineous

(C) Serous (D) Purulent

14. Anti-coagulant of choice for estimating blood glucose is

(A) EDTA (B) Sodium

(C) Sodium citrate (D) Heparin

15. The sound heard during BP measuring is?

(A) Resonance sound



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(B) Doll sound

(C) Korotkoff sound

(D) Normal sound

16. Coagulation of blood can be prevents except?

(A) Removing calcium

(B) Activating thrombin an thromboplastic

(C) All of the above

(D) None of them

17. Minimum erythrocyte hemolysis occur in the following solution-

(A) 0.92 – 0.94 % Nacl

(B) 0.94 – 0.96 % Nacl

(C) 0.90 – 0.92 % Nacl

(D) 0.96 – 0.98 % Nacl

(E) None of them

18. Which of the following provides immune responses?

(A) Platelet (B) Eosinophil’s

(C) Lymphocyte (D) Basophils

(E) Macrophages

19. A cell would tend to gain water if it were moves from.

(A) An isotonic solution to a hypotonic solution

(B) A hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution

(C) A hypertonic solution to an isotonic solution.

(D) A hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution.

(E) More than one of above

20. The scale used for the assessment of pressure ulcer is-

(A) Braden scale

(B) Norton scale

(C) Wong – Baken scale

(D) Glasgow coma scale



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(E) A & B both

21. Movement of a body part towards the body’s midline is termed as?

(A) Abduction (B) Adduction

(C) Extension (D) Pronation

22. To avoid pulling the urinary catheter, nurse should tape the catheter on patients

(A) Lower thigh (B) Upper thigh

(C) Hind leg (D) Foot

23. On application of hot compress to a client heat is transmitted through?

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Evaporation (D) Radiation

24. Excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body will leads to?

(A) Respiratory acidosis

(B) Respiratory Alkalosis

(C) Metabolic Acidosis

(D) Metabolic Alkalosis

25. To provide fowlers position, the heat of client should be elevated to?

(A) 15o Angle (B) 35o Angle

(C) 45o Angle (D) 60o Angle

26. Which among the following solution is hypotonic

(A) 0.95 % NS (B) 0.45 % NS

(C) 3 % NS (D) 5 % D

27. A nursing incharge analyze the client ABG reports and find that pH 7.35, PCo2 51 mmHg and Hco3 is 32 mEq/L. the condition is?

(A) Metabolic Alkalosis


(C) Compensated metabolic acidosis

(D) Compensated Respiratory acidosis

28. Antidote of heparin is -



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(A) Vitamin K

(B) EDTA

(C) Protamine Sulphate

(D) Amniodarone

29. Burn, injury, DKA etc will leads to -

(A) Respiratory acidosis


(C) Metabolic acidosis

(D) Metabolic Alkalosis

30. The nurse is inserting an intravenous line into a client’s vein, after the initial stick, the nurse would continue to advance the catheter in which situation?

(A) The catheter advances easily

(B) The vein is distended under the needle

(C) The client does not complain of discomfort

(D) Blood return shows in the backlash chamber of catheter

31. A nurse should want to discontinue IV line, she should obtain which item from inventory for applying pressure to the site after removing the IV catheter.

(A) Betadine swab

(B) Elastin wrap

(C) Adhesive bandage

(D) Sterile 2 x 2 gauze

32. EQUIVOCAL CSI indicates

(A) Satisfactory results

(B) Unsatisfactory results

(C) Suspicious results

(D) Normal results

33. Which of these is a slide test to determine the leakage of amniotic fluid.

(A) Fern test



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(B) Phenapthazine test

(C) NST

(D) CST

34. CARDIF formula related to

(A) FHR

(B) Fetal kick count

(C) Fetal presentation

(D) Fetal lie.

35. PAP SMEAR is done to find out

(A) Uterine fibroid

(B) Cervical Neoplasia

(C) Cervical polyp

(D) Eclampsia

36. Which investigation is done to confirm the GA?

(A) AFI

(B) USG

(C) Urine test

(D) Blood test

37. MSAFP refers to-

(A) Maternal sample of alpha feto protein

(B) Maternal serum alpha feto protein

(C) Maternal serum advanced feto protein

(D) Maternal status of alpha feto protein

38. If normal female energy requirement is 2500 kcal now pregnant women require?

(A) 2800 Kcal (B) 300 Kcal

(C) 3500 Kcal (D) 400 Kcal

39. Rubella is-

(A) Mumps (B) Measles

(C) German measles (D) None

40. No. of ante – natal visits as per WHO -



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(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2

41. Eating nonnutritive substance such as dirt, clay etc indicate-

(A) TICA (B) MICA

(C) PICA (D) JICA

42. What amount of extra – calorie requirement of a lactating mother?

(A) 300 Kcal (B) 400 Kcal

(C) 500 Kcal (D) 900 Kcal

43. Backache during pregnancy is caused by

(A) Due to increased weight

(B) Due to skin changes

(C) Due to hormonal change

(D) Due to ex-aggregated lumbosacral curve

44. Enlarge, twisted, superficial vein in lower limb

(A) Hemorrhoids (B) Varicose vein

(C) Aneurysm (D) Constipation

45. FHR can be observed through Doppler at

(A) 10 – 12 week

(B) 20 – 25 week

(C) 18 – 20 week

(D) 34 – 36 week

46. Total weight gain during pregnancy about

(A) 25 lb (B) 38 lb (C) 34 lb (D) 21 lb

47. During pregnancy sebaceous gland in areola become hypertrophied is known as

(A) Montogomerys tubercle

(B) Primary areola

(C) Linea nigra

(D) Chlosma gravidum

48. Normal duration of pregnancy is-

(A) 270 da (B) 280 day



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(C) 290 day (D) 310 day

49. Regular and rhythmic uterine contraction elicited during binanual examination indicate

(A) Hegar sign (B) McDonald sign

(C) Palmer sign (D) Chadwicks sign

50. The mask of pregnancy refers to-

(A) Chloasma gravidarum

(B) Striae gravidarum

(C) Linear nigra

(D) None of these

51. Percutaneous umblical blood sampling is

(A) Amniocentesis

(B) Cordocentesis

(C) Doppler blood flow analysis

(D) Triple test

52. Triple test is the combination of-

(A) MSAFP + urine test + Progesterone

(B) MSAFP + HCG + Progesterone

(C) MSAFP + HCG + UE3

(D) HCG + UE3 + Progesterone

53. Treatment of hemorrhoid include in pyrosis

(A) Warm sitz bath

(B) Cold sitz bath

(C) Cold sponge bath

(D) None of these

54. Life style modification included in pyrosis

(A) Kegals exercise

(B) Tailor sitting exercise

(C) Pelvic tilt exercise

(D) Walking

55. Perineal muscles exercise for pregnant women



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(A) Kegals exercise

(B) Tailor sitting exercise

(C) Pelvic tilt exercise

(D) Walking

56. Which vitamin is essential for increasing absorption of iron

(A) Vit- A (B) Vit- B

(C) Vit C (D) Vit D

57. Which anaemia is caused by PICA

(A) Megaloblastic anaemia

(B) Iron deficiency

(C) Pernicious anaemia

(D) Aplastic anaemia

58. The nurse is teaching the patient with multiple sclerosis. When teaching the patient how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the patient to

(A) Take a hot bath

(B) Rest in an air-conditioned room

(C) Increase the dose of his muscle relaxant.

(D) Avoid naps during the day.

.

59. The nurse is teaching a patient and his family about dietary practices related to Parkinson’s disease A priority for the nurse to address is risk of:

(A) fluid overload and drooling

(B) Aspiration and anorexia.

(C) Choking and diarrhea.

(D) Dysphagia and constipation.

60. An elderly patient has just suffered a stroke that has left him with amnesia. Amnesia is a symptom associated with damage to which vessel?

(A) Carotid artery



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(B) Anterior cerebral arteries

(C) Vertebrobasilar artery

(D) Middle cerebral artery

61. Which condition places a patient at risk for an embolic stroke?

(A) Atrial fibrillation

(B) Bradycardia

(C) Deep vein thrombosis

(D) A history of MI

62. After a patient experiences a brain stem infarction, the nurse should observe for which condition?

(A) Aphasia

(B) Bradypnea

(C) Contralateral hemiplegia

(D) Numbness and tingling to the face or arm

63. The nurse is aware that Bell’s palsy affects which cranial nerve?

(A) 2nd CN (Optic)

(B) 3rd CN (Occulomotor)

(C) 4th CN (Trochlear)

(D) 7th CN (Facial)

64. Where are the cerebrums hemispheres divided?

(A) Down the lateral sulcus

(B) Down the longitudinal fissure

(C) Down the central sulcus

65. A male client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which assessment finding is the most significant?

(A) Even, unlabored respirations

(B) Soft, non-distended abdomen

(C) Urine output of 50 ml/hr

(D) Warm skin

66. A male client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar



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ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

A. (A) pH, 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg

(B) pH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg

(C) pH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg

(D) pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg

67. The diagnostic work-up of a client hospitalized with complaints of progressive weakness and fatigue confirms a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The medication used to treat myasthenia gravis is:

(A) Prostigmine (neostigmine)

(B) Atropine (atropine sulfate)

(C) Didronel (etidronate)

(D) Tensilon (edrophonium)

68. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

(A) Graves’ disease

(B) Myasthenia gravis

(C) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

(D) Cardio vascular accident (CVA)

69. SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson’s Disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment. The patient was prescribed with levodopa. What is the action of this drug?

(A) Increase dopamine availability

(B) Activates dopaminergic receptors in the basal ganglia

(C) Decrease acetylcholine availability

(D) Release dopamine and other catecholamine from neurological

storage sites

70. Wernickes area for sensory and speech found in

(A) Temporal lobe (B) Parietal lobe

(C) Frontal lobe (D) Occipital lobe

71. Cell division is absent in nerve cell because-

(A) Nerve cell lacks mitochondria



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(B) Nerve cell lacks Nissls granules

(C) Nerve cell lacks Lysosome

(D) Nerve cell lacks Centrosome

72. Collection of nerve fibers in peripheral nervous system called-

(A) Ganglia (B) Nerves

(C) Tract (D) Nuclei

73. A client with myasthenia gravis ask the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is

(A) A genetic in the production acetylcholine

(B) A reduced amount of neurotransmitter acetylcholine

(C) A decreased number of functioning acetylcholine

receptor sites

(D) An inhibition of the enzyme ACHE leaving the end plates

folded

74. A shuffling gait is typically associated with the patient who has:

(A) Parkinson’s disease

(B) Multiple sclerosis

(C) Raynaud’s disease

(D) Myasthenia gravis

75. All Cranial nerves are motor in functioning except

(A) Trochlear

(B) Abducence

(C) Hypoglossal

(D) Glossopharyngeal

76. Horse tail like terminal end of spinal cord known as-

(A) Basal ganglia (B) Squoda equina

(C) Filum terminal (D) Cauda equina

77. Patient with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for diagnostic make up. Myasthenia gravis can confirmed by:

(A) Kernigs sign



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(B) Brudzinski’s sign

(C) A positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test

(D) Both A & B

78. Wrist drop causes by injury to which nerve-

(A) Radial

(B) Sciatic

(C) Ulnar

(D) Median

79. A patient admitted in stroke ward with closed eyes, in between assessment he is open his eyes to pricking with tongue depressor at left leg, and move back his leg, but when physician ask him where you are he is unable to give reply verbally. His Glasgow coma scoring will be-

(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 11

80. Which is known as the Largest nerve in the body from given following options-

(A) Vagus Nerve

(B) Trigeminal nerve

(C) Trochlear nerve

(D) Sciatic nerve

81. SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson’s Disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment. Which of the following is a characteristic of a patient with advanced Parkinson’s disease?

(A) Disturbed vision

(B) Forgetfulness

(C) Mask like facial expression

(D) Muscle atrophy

82. Sphincter in gastro intestinal tract are constricted and relaxed by

(A) Autonomic nervous system

(B) Sympathetic nervous system

(C) Parasympathetic nervous system

(D) None of these



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83. Myasthenia gravis is due to ____ receptors being blocked and destroyed by antibodies.

(A) Epinephrine

(B) Dopamine

(C) Acetylcholine

(D) GABA

84. Normal ICP in supine position

(A) 12 – 21 mmHg

(B) 7 – 15 mmHg

(C) 50 – 175 mmHg

(D) 10 – 20 mmHg

85. Cheyne stroke refers-

(A) Irregular respiration in rhythm and depth

(B) Rhythmic respiration with periods of apnea

(C) Irregular respiration with pause at the end of inspiration and

expiration

(D) Regular, rapid and deep sustained respiration

86. All statements are correct except -

(A) Loss of blink reflex called corneal reflex indicate dysfunction of

cranial nerve V

(B) Loss of gag reflex indicate dysfunction of cranial nerve

VII & X

(C) Dorsiflexion of the big toe with extension called Babinski

reflex

(D) Involuntary flexion of the hip and knee when the neck is

passively flexed called brundziski sign

87. Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord?

(A) Multiple sclerosis

(B) Parkinson’s disease



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(C) Huntington’s disease

(D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease

88. What is the following score indicate coma in an adult patient?

(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 12

89. Find the incorrect match

(A) Agnosia- loss of sensory comprehension

(B) Homonymous hemianopsis- blindness in half visual fiel

(C) Apraxia – loss of ability to carry out skilled gesture or

movements

(D) Agnosia – inability to recognize familiar objects

90. To ensure the cerebral perfusion in case of stroke nurse should maintain which of the following-

(A) Urine output 50 mL/hour

(B) Blood pressure 150/100 mmHg

(C) Body temp.98.6oF

(D) Perform passive range of motion

91. Uncoordinated movement of the extremities in a patient with a traumatic brain injury is termed as-

(A) Ataxia

(B) Apraxia

(C) Dystonia

(D) Dyskinesia

92. Which of the following activity is increased in sympathetic nervous system?

(A) Heart rate

(B) Secretion of digestive juice

(C) Secretion of saliva



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(D) All of these

93. A 40 year old male client is to undergo lumber puncture which of the following is the least important information about lumber puncture

(A) It may use to withdraw CSF for diagnostic purpose

(B) Specimen obtained to be labeled in their proper sequence.

(C) Force fluid before and after the procedure

(D) Assess movement and sensation in the lower extremities

after the procedure.

94. A nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority which needs immediate intervention?

(A) High risk for injury related to muscle weakness

(B) Ineffective coping related to illness

(C) Ineffective airway clearance related to muscle weakness

(D) Pain related to muscle weakness.

95. The cranial nerve which regulate heart rate

(A) VII (B) VIII (C) IX (D) X

96. Which of the following is the earliest sign of Parkinson disease.

(A) Diplopia (B) Tremor

(C) Forgetfulness (D) Muscle atrophy

97. SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson ’s disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment. You are discussing with the dietician what food to avoid with patients taking levodopa?

(A) Vitamin C rich food

(B) Vitamin E rich food

(C) Thiamine rich food

(D) Vitamin B6 rich food

98. Respiratory centers located in-

(A) Mid brain

(B) Medulla oblongata



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(C) Pons

(D) Cerebellum

99. Which part of brain called as seat of intelligence?

(A) Cerebral cortex

(B) Cerebrum

(C) Cerebellum

(D) Medulla

100. Volume of C.S.F.

(A) 100 ml (B) 200 ml

(C) 150 ml (D) 70 ml

101. Which of the following condition is an early symptom of myasthenia gravis?

(A) Dysphagia

(B) Ptosis

(C) Fatigue

(D) Respiratory distress

Did you know:-

Brain receives blood from the basilar artery and internal

carotid artery. Branches of these arteries form circle of

Willis. Venous drainage is by sinuses, which open into

internal jugular vein.

Normally, brain receives 750 to 800 mL of blood per minute.

It is about 15% to 16% of total cardiac output and about 50 to

55 mL/100 g of brain tissue per minute.



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Cushing reflex is a protective reflex that helps save the brain

tissues from ischemic effects during the periods of reduced

cerebral blood flow. It is also called Cushing reaction

Did you know about blood capillaries:-

Total number of capillaries 10 billion

Surface area of all capillaries 500 to 700 sq m

Average length 0.5 to 1 mm

Average diameter 8 µ

Pressure at arterial end 30 to 32 mm Hg

Pressure at venous end 14 to 16 mm Hg

Velocity of blood flow 0.05 cm/second

SCOPE IN YOUR HAND

• Are you a Nursing Student?

• Are you looking for Staff Nurse Recruitment sectors?

• Did you complete your minimum Educational

Qualification in Nursing such as Diploma Nursing or ANM

Vacancy or GNM or B.SC Nursing, M.Sc Nursing or any

other Nursing Courses?

• Here, we are providing you the Nursing Govt

Recruitment areas in our Website.

• Every Day, Lakes of Job Opportunities are emerging

The Nursing Candidates such as:

Registered Nurses, Male Nurses, Female Nurses,

Nursing Practitioners, Contract Basis Nurses, OT Staff

Nurses, Nursing Staff and many other



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nursing candidates have a Good Career Opportunities in

many Top Organizations, Central Government Nursing

Jobs, Health Care Centers such as ESIC, NRHM, NUHM,

NHM, AIIMS, CRPF, UPSC, SSC, SSSC, NSG, LIC,

DSSSB, BCCL, Govt Nursing Schools, Indian Army,

Indian Navy, Indian Air Force, Military Hospital, Railway

Hospitals, Indian Railways RRB, RRC, Railway

Hospitals, and State Government Jobs or Public Service

Commissions such as Kerala PSC, APPSC, TSPSC,

KPSC, HPPSC, TNPSC, RPSC, etc.., We will also prepare

you for the Railway Jobs in various States such as AP, Goa,

UP, MP, Delhi, Kerala, Bangalore, Chennai, Tamil Nadu,

Karnataka, Rajasthan, Bhopal and various other places.

• There are lot of fields for the B.Sc Nursing, M.Sc

Nursing, ANM, GNM, Diploma Nursing, and all other

Nursing Courses in India.

The Various Staff Nurse Govt. Job scopes are, OT Staff Nurse

Vacancy, Nursing Vacancy, ISRO Vacancy, Govt Jobs for B.Sc

Nursing, Nurses play a prominent role in the field of Medical Care

and Health Care. Nursing has become a Profession which has a

large number of Job Opportunities in today’s job market. Although

there are lot of private hospitals in and around our country, the

nursing candidates and nursing professionals prefer Govt

Hospitals. They are interested to work in the government hospitals,

health care organizations, Medical Institutions due to various

reasons. There are many vacancies for the Posts of Staff Nurses in

the Government Organizations like Govt Hospitals, Nursing homes,

Clinics. The Requirement for the Staff Nurses has been increasing

every day. Hence, there are many recruitment and vacancy for

nursing posts. Many Government Organizations provide Jobs

for Nursing Staff in India. Most of the nursing candidates do

not know the job opportunities for nurses , Nursing

Practitioners, Nursing Staff, Registered Nurses, Pediatric

Nurses, Contract Basis Nurses, and various other nursing

candidates in India. Without knowing this, the nursing



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60

candidates are going aboard such as USA, UK, Singapore,

UAE, Europe, Saudi Arabia, Canada, Dubai and various other

countries to work there. Nurses will have a Good Career

MODI CAREER

INSTITUTE H.N. 65 ARAVALI VIHAR, BORKHERA KOTA

ADMISSION FORM 20 ----- 20 ----

Date of Application ……………………… Ad. No. …………………………………… (To be filled by office) Class in which admission is sought ………………………………………… Subject: 1)…………………….2)…………………….3)…………………4)………………….. 5)……………………………………..

1. Name of the Student ………………………………………………………………………...

2. Date of Birth ……………………….. 3. Blood Group ……………………………………..

4. Details of major illness (If any) …………………………………………………………… 5. Permanent Address: ……………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

Tel. /Mob.………………………. 6. Caste …………….. Religion………………………...

Whether Belongs to S.C/S.T/O.B.C ………………………. 7. School/(Pre–School last

attended)………………………………………………………… 8. Father’s Name………………………………… Mother’s

Name …………………………… 9. Academic Qualification

…………………………………………………………………………. Occupation

……………………………………………………………………………………………

Letest Passport

Colour

Photograph



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Nursing Officer

DECLARATION BY THE PARENTS I hereby certify that above information provide by me is correct to the best of my knowledge. I have gone through, the prospectus, rules & regulations of the institution.

Date: …………………..

Signature of parent/Guardian

DECLARATION BY THE STUDENT I hereby declare that if I violate the rules and regulations of the Institute, Authorities will have the right to cancel my admission.

Date: ……………….

Signature of the Student

Note: Attach mark sheet (photocopy) of previous year.

FOR OFFICE USE ONLY

Name ……………………………. Father’s Name ……………………………… has been admitted in class ………………..on ………………….Admission No. …………….Amount donated at the time of admission Rs. …………………………..Receipt No. …………………Date ………………..

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

FOR STUDENTS.

1. The candidates must reach the INST/Centre on time Every day. 2. Maintain the discipline and don’t talk with other students during

lectures. 3. Should maintain daily study plan at home regularly and learn daily

given notes accordingly 4. Solve all questions daily given by institution as DPP 5. Must attend all Test for central / state Exams conducted on Monday 6. Don’t criticize any student. Give respect and take respect



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7. Students will note bring their mobile phones with them in class 8. Pay special attention to regularity, reading, question solving and

hard work. 9. Your behavior in institute must be well mannered (Acc. To inst.

Rules) 10. You should always aware about your selection in any coming

Competitive Exams. 11. Be update about coming vacancies and fill all Exam forms and don’t

ignore any Exam due to no of post, distance and time. 12. Think that you are a MCI Student, “is a leading institute for Nursing” 13. Discuss problems with higher faculty member in any query and

difficulty.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION

FOR FACULTY

1. Don’t criticize any student and co-operative. Give respect and

take respect. 2. Every teacher should talk about only moral stories in class 3. Pay special attention to regularity, absentees, new and weak

students. 4. Submit questions regularly which are asked in current exams

and solve them in class. 5. Motivate students about their selection. 6. Give directions how to learn in less time and for more time. 7. Update your teaching skills regularly 8. Prepare daily questionnaire. 9. Solve all test papers in class 10. Give information about latest vacancies. (central/ state)



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