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FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, # 47-7-47, 4th lane, Dwarakanagar, Visakhapatnam. Ph:0891-2555501,02 Fax:0891-2555503

FIITJEEFIITJEEFIITJEEFIITJEE Solutions to

NTSE-Stage-1

Paper – 1 MAT

Time : 90 Minutes Max marks: 90

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question. Answers are to be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer sheet given, with HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR 2 sheet carefully before answering the questions.

1. Please write your Centre Code No. & Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the OMR sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even Zeros appearing in the Centre Code No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR sheet as shown in the example given in the OMR sheet. For all the subsequent purpose your Centre CodeNo. and Roll No. shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.

2. The test is in TWO Parts. Part-1 consists of 90 questions and Part-II also consists of 90 questions.

3. All questions in Part-I and Part-II carry one mark each. 4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper

before beginning to answer it. 5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish both the

Parts. 6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to

next one. If time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.

7. Since the time allotted to the two Parts of this question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any question.

8. A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part. 9. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET

PROVIDED. 10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the

correct alternative in OMR sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.

11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions. 12. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR sheet to the Invigilator of the room. 13. The candidate need not return this Question paper booklet and can take it after completion of

the examination. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the end of the examination.

NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}

NTSE _Stage 1_2012 - 13 PAGE 2 OF 15

FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, # 47-7-47, 4th lane, Dwarakanagar, Visakhapatnam. Ph:0891-2555501,02 Fax:0891-2555503 2

Directions: Questions (l to 10): In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the Instructions". 1. 2, 7, 17, 32, ………

(1) 42 (2) 52 (3) 47 (4) 27 (5) 62

1. (2)

2, 7, 17, 32, 52

+ 5 + 10 + 15 + 20

2. 72, 63, 54, 45, ……….

(1) 36 (2) 81 (3) 27 (4) 90 (5) 18

2. (1)

72, 63, 54, 45, 36

- 9 - 9 - 9 - 9

3. . 3, 8, 18, …..., 78

(1) 38 (2) 50 (3) 28 (4) 48 (5) 58

3. (1)

3, 8, 18, 38 78

x2 +2 x2 +2 x2 +2 x2 +2

4. 3, 7, 14, 24, ……

(1) 34 (2) 28 (3) 38 (4) 40 (5) 37

4. (5)

3, 7, 14, 24, 37

+ 4 + 7 + 10 + 13

5. 12, 15, 19, 24, ……

(1) 29 (2) 32 (3) 30 (4) 34 (5) 31

5. (3)

12, 15, 19, 24, 30

+ 3 + 4 + 5 + 6

6. 150, 140, 125, 105, ……….

(1) 90 (2) 80 (3) 85 (4) 75 (5) 95

6. (2)

150, 140, 125, 105, 80

- 10 - 15 - 20 - 25 NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



7. 231, 342,453, 564, …..

(1) 576 (2) 475 (3) 675 (4) 567 (5)676

7. (3)

231, 342, 453, 564, 675

+ 111 +111 +111 +111

8. 796, 675, 554, 433, ……

(1)512 (2) 231 (3) 213 (4) 312 (5) 321

8. (4)

796, 675, 554, 433, 312

- 121 - 121 - 121 - 121

9. 243, 81, …….9, 3

(1) 28 (2) 27 (3) 23 (4) 29 (5) 45

9. (2)

243, 81 27 9 3

3÷ 3÷ 3÷ 3÷

10. 1, 5, 13, 29, ……. (1) 60 (2) 61 (3) 59 (4) 42 (5) 45

10. (2)

1, 5, 13, 29, 61

+ 4 + 8 +16 + 32

Directions: Questions (11 to 18) are based upon letter analogy. There are two pairs of letter combinations in each question. The first (Left hand side) pair has some relationship between its members. In the second pair one member is missing. Find this out from answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), such that this pair has similar relationship as the first pair. Indicate your answers as per the "Instructions". 11. ABCD: WXYZ :: EFGH :?

(1) STVU (2)STOU (3) STUE (4) TSUV (5) STUV 11. (5) 1 2 3 4 23 24 25 26 A B C D : W X Y Z In the same way 5 6 7 8 19 20 21 22 E F G H : S T U V 12. BCD : CEG : : LMN : ? (1) MOQ (2) MNP (3) NOP 4)NPQ (5) OPQ 12. (1) 2 3 4 3 5 7 B C D : C E G

+1

+2

+3




In the same way 12 13 14 13 15 17 L M N : M O Q 13. BAC : DEF:: …….. : NOP

(1) MKL (2) SRT (3) LKM (4) HIJ (5) KLM 13. (3) 2 1 3 4 5 6 B A C : D E F In the same way 12 11 13 14 15 16 L K M : N O P 14. CBD : FEG :: SRT : ?

(1) UVW (2) WVU (3) VUW (4) VUX (5) UVX 14. (3) 3 2 4 6 5 7 C B D : F E G In the same way 19 18 20 22 21 23 S R T : V U W 15. CDBE : EFDG :: NOMP : ?

(1) PQRO (2) POQR '(3) OPQR (4) NPQO (5) PQOR 15. (5) 3 4 2 5 5 6 4 7 C D B E : E F D G In the same way 14 15 13 16 16 17 15 18 N O M P : P Q O R 16. XYZ: CBA :: UVW :?

(1) DEF (2) EFD (3) DFE (4) FED (5) EDF 16. (4) 24 25 26 3 2 1 X Y Z : C B A In the same way 21 22 23 6 5 4 U V W : F E D 17. VST : URS :: NKL :?

(l) KLM (2)MJK (3) KJM (4)JKM (5) JKL 17. (2) 22 19 20 21 18 19 V S T : U R S In the same way 14 11 12 13 10 11 N K L : M J K

+2

+4

+3

+3

+3

+3

-1

-1

-1

+2

+2

+2

+2




18. JAK : KCL :: MBN:?

(1) NDO (2) MDO (3) NDL (4) NEL (5) NEO 18. (1) 10 1 11 11 3 12 J A K : K C L In the same way 13 2 14 14 4 15 M B N : N D O

Directions: Questions (19 to 26) : In the following questions, Letters/ Letter groups, are arranged in a particular order with, some, underlying criterion. Study the order and choose the answer from the alternatives to fill the gaps. 19. ABY, CDW, EFU, GHS, ……..

(1) IQJ (2) IJS (3) IJR (4) QJI (5) IJQ 19. (5)

A C E G I

+ 2 + 2 +2 + 2

B D F H J

+ 2 + 2 +2 + 2

Y W U S Q

- 2 - 2 - 2 - 2

First Alphabet

Second Alphabet

Third Alphabet

20. ABC, ZYX, DEF, WVU, ……

(1) GIJ (2) HIG (3) GHI (4) HIJ (5) EFG 20. (3)

First Alphabet

Second Alphabet

Third Alphabet

A D G

+3 +3

Z W

-3

B E H

+3 +3

Y V

-3

C F I

+3 +3

X U

-3

+1

+2

+1




21. QON, MKJ, IGF, …… 1) ECB (2) EBC (3) BCE (4) CDE (5) ECD

21. (1)

- 4 - 4 - 4

N J F B

First Alphabet

Second Alphabet

Third Alphabet

Q M I E

O K G C

- 4 - 4 - 4

- 4 - 4 - 4

22. XCD, ……, VEF, UFG (1) WED (2) DEW (3) WDE (4) XDE (5) XED

22. (3)

- 1 - 1 - 1

D E F G

First Alphabet

Second Alphabet

Third Alphabet

X W V U

C D E F

+1 +1 +1

+1 +1 +1

23. AIS, CKU,….., GOY (1) DMX (2) DMW (3) EMV (4) EMW (5) EMX

23. (4)

+2

S U W Y

First Alphabet

Second Alphabet

Third Alphabet

A C E G

I K M O

+2 +2

+2 +2 +2

+2 +2 +2

24. TGS, RIQ, ……., NMM (1) POK (2) PKO (3) PQR (4) POR (5) PKR

24. (2)

-2

S Q O M

First Alphabet

Second Alphabet

Third Alphabet

T R P N

G I K M

-2 -2

+2 +2 +2

-2 -2 -2




25. EFFG, HIIJ, KLLM, NOOP, ……. (l) RSST (2) QRRS (3) QRST (4) QSST (5) PQQR

25. (2)

F I L O R

First Alphabet

Second Alphabet

Third Alphabet

E H K N Q

F I L O R

+2 +2 +2 +2

G J M P S

+2 +2 +2 +2

+2 +2 +2 +2

+2 +2 +2 +2

Fourth Alphabet

26. ABCD, BCDA,CDAB, ……..

(1) DABC (2) CBDA (3) DCBA (4) CABD (5) CDBA 26. (1) Directions: Questions (27 to 30) : In each of the following questions, five words are given. If they are arranged in alphabetical order as in a Dictionary, find out which word comes first. Indicate your answer as per the "Instructions.” 27. (1) Summer (2) Sample (3) Skate (4) Serum (5) Sage 27. (5) Arranging the words in alphabetical order. We have sage, sample, serum, skate, summer 28. (1) Concern (2) Carrot (3) Cook (4) Camel (5) Cow 28. (4) Arranging the words in alphabetical order. We have Camel, Carrot, Concern, Cook, Cow 29. (1) Dirt (2) Discount (3) Drug (4) Dummy (5) Dozen 29. (1) Arranging the words in alphabetical order. We have Dirt, Discount, Dozen, Drug, Dummy 30. (1) Vase (2) Vessel (3) Urn (4) Union (5) Wage 30. (4) Arranging the words in alphabetical order. We have Union, urn, vase, vessel, wage Directions : Questions (31 to 40): In each of the following questions, five words are given. Four of them are alike in some way. One is different from them. Identify it and indicate as per “Instructions”. 31. (1) Hands (2) Legs (3) Fingers (4) Toes (5) Abdomen 31. (5) Except (5) all are limbs 32. (1) Bharat (2) Bihar (3) Bengal (4) Karnataka (5) Kerala 32. (1) Except (1) all are states 33. (1) Lawyer (2) Lecturer (3) Doctor (4) Judge (5) Preacher 33. (5) Except (5) all are professions 34. (1) Russia (2) Sweden (3) Ethiopia (4) Spain (5) Finland 34. (3) Except (3) all are European countries 35. (1) Lion (2) Tiger (3) Elephant (4) Jackal (5) Leopard 35. (3) Except (3) all are flesh eating animals 36. (1) Orange (2) Honey (3) Apple (4) Lemon (5) Melon 36. (2) Except (2) all are fruits 37. (1) Heart (2) Liver (3) Lungs (4) Eyes (5) Kidney 37. (4) Except (4) all are inner organs NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



38. (1) Chair (2) Pen (3) Pencil (4) Paper (5) File 38. (1) Except (1) all are stationary objects 39. (1) Kho-Kho (2) Football (3) Volleyball (4) Hockey (5) Tennis 39. (1)

Except (1) all are uses balls 40. (1) Earth (2) Jupiter (3) Sun (4) Saturn (5) Venus 40. (3)

Except (3) all are planets Directions: Questions (41 to 45) In these questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side of ::, the other word is to be found out from the given five alternatives so that the relationship is the same as for the other pair. Identify correct answer and indicate it as per the "Instructions." 41. BengaIuru : Karnataka :: Kohima :? (1) Manipur (2) Meghalaya (3) Mizoram (4) Sikkim (5) Nagaland 41. (5) Bengaluru is the capital of Karnataka. Similarly Kohima is the capital of Nagaland. 42. London : UK :: Bangkok: ?

(1) South Korea (2) North Korea (3) Thailand (4) Malaysia (5) Laos 42. (3) London is the capital of UK, similarly Bangkok is the capital of Thailand 43. Hockey : Stick :: Tennis : ?

(l) Bat (2) Racket (3) Ball (4) Court (5) Player 43. (2)

In hockey, ball is hit with a stick, similarly in Tennis ball is hit with a Racket 44. Oxygen : Heart :: Fuel :?

(1)Car (2) Engine (3) Truck (4)Bike (5) Plane 44. (2) Oxygen is processed by the heart, similarly fuel is processed by engine 45. Orange : Fruit :: Spinach: ?

(l) Vegetable (2)Root (3)Bush (4)Flower (5)Branch 45. (1) Orange is fruit while spinach is vegetable

Directions: Questions (46 to 51) are based on the following diagrams. Study them carefully and indicate correct answers as per the "Instructions".

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

46. Young people, Elderly people, Artists. 46. (5)

47. Writers, Guitarists, Musicians. 47. (1)

48. Flies, Locusts, Insects. 48. (3)

Young people Elderly people

Artists

Musicians Writers

Guitarists

Locusts Flies

Insects




49. People, Professors, Oranges. 49. (2)

50. District, Mandal, Panchayat. 50. (4)

51. Fruits, Oranges, Millets 51. (2)

Directions: Questions (52 to 56) : With the help of the given diagram, answer the following questions making the right choice from the given alternatives. Indicate the answer as per the "Instructions"

52. Qualified and experienced doctors working in villages are represented by the letter ..... (1) a (2) f (3) e (4) d (5) g 52. (3) 53. Qualified and experienced doctors working outside of villages are represented by .....

(1) d (2) e (3) f (4) c (5)b 53. (3) 54. Experienced but not qualified doctors working in villages are represented by .....

(1) g (2) c (3) b (4) d (5) f 54. (1) 55. Doctors who are neither qualified nor experienced but working in villages are represented by (1) c (2) g (3) d (4) e (5) b 55. (1) 56. Qualified but not experienced doctors working outside of villages are represented by

(1) f (2) e (3) d (4)b (5) a 56. (5)

Directions: Questions (57 to 61) : If in a language (say English), A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2 and so on, how are the following letters groups are coded in that language? 57. FHCI (1) 6389 (2) 8369 (3) 6893 (4) 8936 (5) 6839 57. (5) 58. GADBH (1) 71248 (2) 81248 (3) 71428 (4) 81428 (5) 82419 58. (3) 59. HBDFE (1) 82654 (2) 84265 (3) 82465 (4) 86426 (5) 84626 59. (3) 60. GCEAI (1) 72519 (2) 73519 (3) 73591 (4) 75391 (5) 71539 60. (2)

Professors People

Oranges

Oranges Fruits

Millets

Mandal Panchayat

District




61. IHGFED (1) 987651 (2) 978562 (3) 897654 (4) 897645 (5) 987654

61. (5) Directions: Questions (62 to 66) : If in a language, RIDGE is coded as 43567 and NAME is coded as 8217, how are the following words coded ? Indicate the answer as per "Instructions". 62. DANGER

(1) 528764 (2) 528746 (3) 527846 (4) 526874 (5) 528674 62. (5)

R I D G E is coded as 4 3 5 6 7 N A M E is coded as 8 2 1 7 i.e R – 5, I – 3, D – 5, G – 6, E – 7; N – 8, A – 2, M – 1, E – 7 63. MANNER

(1) 127884 (2) 127784 (3) 128784 (4) 128874 (5) 218874 63. (4) 64. RANGER

(1) 428674 (2) 428764 (3) 428874 (4) 448672 (5) 426874 64. (1) 65. IMAGE

(1) 32167 (2) 31267 (3) 32176 (4)32267 (5) 31266 65. (2) 66. DAMAGE

(1) 522167 (2) 521267 (3) 521276 (4) 512267 (5) 512276 66. (2)

Directions: Questions (67 to 75) are based on simple arithmatic principles, Find the right answer from among the alternatives and indicate it as per the "Instructions" . 67. (250 x 7) - 36 = ?

(1) 1718 (2) 1736 (3) 1714 (4) 1750 (5) 1724 67. (3) 68. 24 x - 20 = 105 – x ; x = ?

(1)2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3 (5) 5 68. (5) 69. 85 ÷ …… = 8,500

1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 0.01 (4) 0.001 (5) 5 69. (3) 70. 40% 80 – 80% 40 = ? (1) 0.0 (2) 4.0 (3) 8.0 (4) 30.0 (5) 32.0 70. (1) 71. 50.9 - 7.5 + 1.6 =

(1) 40.0 (2) 35.0 (3) 36.0 (4) 45.0 (5) 44.5 71. (4) 72. (44 ÷ 1000) + 0.006 = ?

(1) 0.44 (2) 0.05 (3) 0.005 (4) 0.045 (5) 0.046 72. (2) 73. (7)

3 - 33 = ?

(1) 300 (2) 305 (3) 320 (4) 330 (5) 310 73. (5)

74. 26 14

?4 3

+ =

(1) 11.0 (2) 1106

(3) 1116

(4) 1125

(5) 2113

74. (3) 75. 5678 + 4321 = ?

(1) 9999 (2) 9899 (3) 9900 (4) 9990 (5) 9099 75. (1)




Directions: Questions (76 to 80) : Each question has four problem figures 'a', 'b', 'c' and "d'. Figure 'd' has only a question mark '?'. Figure 'b' bears certain relationship to 'a'. Similarly one of the answer figures bears similar relationship to 'c'. Find this out and indicate it as per the "Instructions". 76. (3) 77. (4)

78. (2)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)




79. (5)

80. (3)

Directions:

Questions (81 to 85) : In these questions,' there are five figures. Four them are similar with

some common characteristic underlying them. Find out the figure that does not belong to the

group. Indicate your answer as per the "Instructions". 81. (1) Except (1) all others are algebraic operators.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)




82. (4) Except (4) in all other figures arrow either showing left or right. 83. (2) 84. (5) Except (5) all other figures having only squares. 85. (3)

85. (3) Except (3) all other circles having line passing through the centre.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)




Directions:

Questions (86 to 90) : In these questions, there are four problem figures 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'.

One of them is, however, missing. You have to select one figure from the five answer figures,

(1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) such that the series is completed. Indicate your answer as per the

"Instructions".

86. (2)

87. (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)




88. (1)

89. (3)

90. (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)


FIITJEE VIZAG Centre, # 47-7-47, 4th lane, Dwarakanagar, Visakhapatnam. Ph:0891-2555501,02 Fax:0891-2555503

FIITJEEFIITJEEFIITJEEFIITJEE Solutions to

NTSE-Stage-{1}

Paper–2 SAT

Time : 90 Minutes Max marks: 90

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question. Answers are to be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer sheet given, with HB pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR 2 sheet carefully before answering the questions.

(i) Subjects Questions SI. No. and Marks allotted:-

(1) Physics 91 to 102 Questions 12 Marks

(2 Chemistry 103 to 113 Questions 11 Marks

(3) Biology 114 to 125 Questions 12 Marks

(4) Mathematics 126 to 145 Questions 20 Marks

(5) History 146 to 155 Questions 10 Marks

(6) Geography 56 to 165 Questions 10 Marks

(7) Political Science 166 to 175 Questions 10 Marks

(8) Economics 176 to 180 Questions 05 Marks

(ii) SHADE the circle having the correct alternative in the OMR sheet provided, from among

the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question Paper Booklet. For

shading the circles, use HE pencil.


NTSE _X_stage 1_2012 - 13 PAGE 2 OF 22


PHYSICS

91. One Newton is the force which produces an acceleration of

(1) 1 m. 2s− on a body of mass 1 gm (2) 1 cm. 2s− on a body of mass 1 kg

(3) 1cm. 2s− on a body of mass 1 gm (4) 1m. 2s− on a body of mass 1 kg

Sol. 4

F = ma

where F = unbalanced force applied

m = mass of the body

a = acceleration of the body

When m = 1 kg and F = 1N

then

1 N = 1 kg x a

a = 1

1

N

kg

1N = 1 kg ms-2

1kga∴ =

2

1

ms

kg

−

21a ms−∴ =

92. Two objects of mass ratio 1 : 4 are dropped from the same height. The ratio between

their velocities when they strike the ground is

(1) Both objects will have the same velocity

(2) The velocity of the first object is twice that of the second one

(3) The velocity of the 2nd

object is one fourth of that of the 1st object

(4) The velocity of the 2nd

object is 4 times that of the 1st one

Sol. 1

Let the masses of the two objects be 1 2,m m .

Let 1 2,u u be their initial velocities respectively. Let h be the height from where the

objects are dropped.

Let 1 2,v v be the their final velocities respectively.

Let 1 2,t t be the time taken to strike the ground

1 2 0u u= = , 1 2h h h= =

2

1

1

2h gt= ----(1)

2

2

1

2h gt= ----(2)

1 2

2ht t t

g

∴ = = = ----(3)

now 1 1 2 2v gt v gt= =

From equation (3)

1 2v v gt= =

1

2

1

1

v

v

∴ =




93. The electromagnetic radiations used for taking photographs of objects in dark

(1) X-rays (2) Infra-red rays (3) γ − rays (4) UV rays

Sol. 2

Infrared radiations find applications in physio – therapy and are used to take

photographs of objects in darkenss.

94. The work done by a force on a body will be positive if the body

(1) moves perpendicular to the direction of applied force

(2) does not move

(3) moves along the direction of applied force

(4) moves opposite to the direction of applied force

Sol. 3

Work done by a force on a body = cosFs θ

where F = Force acting on the body

s = Displacement due to the force applied

θ = Angle between F and s

Work done will be positive if cosθ is positive i.e. 0 90θ≤ < °

When the body moves along the direction of applied force 0θ = °

cos0 1∴ ° =

Work done = Fs

∴ Work done here is positive.

95. Identify the energy changes in the following two cases -

A : A car moving up a hill

B : Photographic film is exposed to sun-light

(1) In ‘A’ mechanical energy in moving car is converted to potential energy and in

‘B’ potential energy is converted to chemical energy

(2) In ‘A’ potential energy in moving car is converted to kinetic energy and in ‘B’

chemical energy is converted to light energy

(3) In ‘A’ kinetic energy in moving car is converted to potential energy and in ‘B’

potential energy is converted to light energy

(4) In ‘A’ kinetic energy in moving car is converted to potential energy and in ‘B’

light energy is converted to chemical energy

Sol. 4

A : A car moving up a hill

Moving car has kinetic energy, kinetic energy gets converted to potential energy

B : Photographic film is exposed to sun – light

When photographic film is exposed to sun the silver bromide present in it decomposes

such that the film cannot be developed.

∴ Light energy gets converted to chemical energy.

96. The instrument that is based on the principle that when an object is placed between

first principal focus and the optic centre of convex lens, an upright, virtual and

enlarged image on the same side of the object is formed, is

(1) Telescope (2) Projector

(3) Camera (4) Simple microscope




Sol. 4

In astronomical telescope 2 convex lens called eyepiece & objective lens are used and

object is placed before eyepiece lens, such that final image inverted, a camera and eye

also form inverted image on the screen. Whereas simple microscope gives an erect,

virtual and enlarged image of the object placed between first principal focus and the

optic nerve of the convex lens.

B

O

G

I

Eye

In a projector, the image formed is real, inverted magnified on the other side of the

lens. This inverted image is again inverted by the film.

97. A charge of 1000 C flows through a conductor for 3 minutes and 20 seconds. Find

the magnitude of current flowing through the conductor

(1) 5A (2) 2A (3) 0.5 A (4) 10 A

Sol. 1

Current flowing through a conductor is Q

I

t

=

Where Q = net charge flowing, t = time taken for net charge to flow, Q = 1000 C

t = 3 min 20 sec, 200 sec, ∴ 1000

200sec

C

I∴ = = 5A

98. Three resistances A, B, C are connected as shown in the figure. Their resultant

resistance is

ii

AB

C6Ω

3Ω

2Ω (1) 11Ω (2) 7.2Ω (3) 6Ω (4) 5Ω

Sol. 2

Resistors B and C are in parallel connection

∴ Effective Resistance of B & C is

1 1 1 1 1

3 2R B C= + = +

Ω Ω

3 2 6

3 2 5

B C

R

B C

× ×= = = Ω

+ +

Resistor A is in series connection with B & C

∴ Total effective resistance = A + R, = 6

65

Ω + Ω , = 36

5Ω , = 7.2Ω

99. The particle with mass equal to 319.1 10−× kg and charge equal to 191.6 10−− × C is…

(1) β (2) α (3) γ (4) X




Sol. 1

α − particle is a doubly ionized helium atom ( )4

2 He

Its mass is 4 times mass of proton = 276.68 10−× kg

Its charge is 2 times the charge of proton = 193.2 10−× C

β − particles are electrons originating in the nucleus

Mass of an electron = 319.1 10−× kg

Charge of an electron = 191.6 10−− × C

γ − rays are not particles but radiations

X – rays are not particles but EM radiation

100. The error and the correction to be made when the zeroth division of the head scale in

a Screw gauge is above index line of the pitch scale respectively are

(1) positive, negative (2) negative, negative

(3) negative, positive (4) positive, negative

Sol. 3

In screw gauge

Negative zero error – If the zeroth division of the head scale is above the index line

the error is said to be negative and the correction has to be positive.

Positive zero error – If the zeroth division of the head scale is below the index line of

the pitch scale, the error is said to be positive and the correction is negative.

101. The isotopes that emit these radiations are used as radioactive tracers in medical

science

(1) β − radiations (2) γ − radiations (3) α − radiations (4) All the three

Sol. 2

γ − radiation emitted by radio isotopes are used as radioactive tracers in medical

sciences.

γ − being EM radiations has more penetrating power than α and β particles and are

unaffected by electric and magnetic fields.

102. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through

1 C° is …

(1) Calorie (2) Thermal capacity (3) Specific heat (4) Kilo calorie

Sol. 4

Calorie – The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1g of water

through 1 C° at a pressure of 1 atm.

Thermal capacity – The amount of heat energy required to produce a unit change of

temperature in a unit mass of a substance.

Specific heat – The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of unit

mass of a body through 1 C°

Kilo calorie – The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of

water through 1 C° at 1 atm.




CHEMISTRY

103. Which of the following is Aromatic Hydrocarbon?

(1) C2H2 (2) C3H8 (3) C5H12 (4) C6H6

Sol. 4

The general formula for aromatic hydro carbons having benzene rings is 2 6n n yC H −

(where y: no. of benzene rings, 6n ≥ )

If n = 6, y = 1 then 2 6n n yC H − become C6H6

So C6H6 is an aromatic hydrocarbon

∵ C2H6 belongs to alkynes having general formula CnH2n – 2

C3H8 belongs to alkanes having general formula CnH2n + 2

C5H12 belongs to alkanes having general formula CnH2n + 2

104. In the Periodic Table, the Ionisation potential in a group …. from top to bottom.

(1) increases (2) decreases (3) does not change (4) can not be predicted

Sol. 2

Ionisation potential is inversely proportional to atomic size

1

.I Patomic size

∝

In the periodic table atomic size in a group increases from top to bottom.

∴ Ionisation potential in a group decreases from top to bottom.

105. The electronic configuration of Potassium is ………

(l) 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

3 4s

2 3d

2 (2) 1s

22s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

5 4s

2

(3) 1s22s

2 2p

63s

2 3p

63d

1 (4) 1s

22s

2 2p

63s

2 3p

6 4s

1

Sol. 4

According to Aufbau principle, “orbitals are filled in order of their increasing

energies”. So orbital with lower (n + l) value is filled up first.

The order of filling of various orbitals is as follow

1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p, 6s, 4f ………..

Where (n + l) for 3d is 3 + 2 = 5

(n + l) for 4s is 4 + 0 = 4

So electronic configuration for potassium (K) whose atomic number 19 is

1s22s

2 2p

63s

2 3p

6 4s

1

106. Most Electronegative element is

(1) F (2) Cs (3) He (4) I

Sol. 1 NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



Noble gases (He, Ne, Ar & Kr) have zero “electronegativities”. In the periodic table

‘electronegativity’ in periods increases left to right and in groups decreases top to

bottom.

So halogens (F, Cl, Br, I) have high electronegativity in respective periods. Among

them ‘F’ is most electronegative.

107. The amount of NaOH in 750 ml of 0.2 M solution (Molecular weight = 40) is –

(1) 2 gm (2) 4 gm (3) 6gm (4) 8 gm

Sol. 3

Molarity of a solution ( )1000mass of solute

M

molar mass of solute volume of solution in mL

= ×

Given molarity of NaOH solution = 0.2 M

Volume of NaOH solution = 750 mL

So weight of NaOH = 1000

molar mass of solute molarity volume of solution in mL× ×

40 0.2 750

1000

× ×=

= 6g

108. Structure of Paracetamol is

(1)

COOH

O C

O

CH3

(2)

OH

HN C

O

CH3

(3)

O C

O

CH3

(4)

HN C

O

CH3

Sol. 2

Paracetamol is “Para acetamido phenol”

OH

HN C

O

CH3

109. Molecule with double bond

(1) H2 (2) F2 (3) Cl2 (4) O2

Sol. 4

1) The electronic configuration of hydrogen is 1s1

Diatomic molecule of hydrogen (H2) is formed by s – s overlap leads to one

σ-bond.




2) The electronic configuration of fluorine is 1s2 2s

2 2p

5

Diatomic molecule of fluorine (F2) is formed by p – p overlap leads to one

σ-bond.

3) The electronic configuration of Chlorine is 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

5

Diatomic molecule of chlorine (Cl2) is formed by p – p overlap leads to one

σ-bond.

4) The electronic configuration of oxygen is 1s2 2s

2 2p

4

Diatomic molecule of oxygen (O2) is formed by one pz – pz overlap leads to one

σ-bond and side on overlap of py – py leads to π-bond.

So O2 contains a double bond.

110. Shaving soap contains excess of .... to slow lather drying

(1) builders (2) Stearic acid (3) perfume (4) Glycerol

Sol. 2

Shaving soaps contain excess of stearic acid giving slow drying lather soap.

111. Acidity in the Sugarcane juice is removed by adding:

(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) CO2 (3) SO2 (4) H2O

Sol. 1

The juice obtained from sugar cane is slightly acidic & contain some impurities.

Ca(OH)2 is added to precipitate the impurities as well as to neutralise the juice

112. The chemical formula of Dolomite is …….

(1) Be3Al2(SiO3)6 (2) MgCI2.KCl.6H2O (3) CaCO3,MgCO3 (4) MgSO4.7H2O

Sol. 3

Dolomite is a double salt of calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate i.e

CaCO3,MgCO3

113. If the pH of, a solution is 8, .its [H+] is ...

(1) log 10-8

(2) 108 (3) 10

-8 (4) 8

Sol. 3

Given pH of solution is 8

pH = 10log 8H+ − =

10log 8H+ = −

810 /H mol L+ − =




BIOLOGY

114. The process which helps in perpetuation of a race

(1) Nutrition (2) Photosynthesis (3) Excretion (4) Reproduction

Sol. 4

Reproduction is a life process, it maintains continuity of the species and a constant

population number.

115. The product of Photosynthesis is transported from source of production to the storage

organs through

(1) Palisade tissue (2) Phloem tissue (3) Spongy tissue (4) Xylem tissue

Sol. 2

The end product of photosynthesis is glucose [ ]6 12 6C H O synthesized in leaves and

transported to the storage organs such as Fruits, seeds and tubers through phloem

tissue.

116. The cell organelle pertaining to energy release process is

(1) Lysosome (2) Chloroplast

(3) Mitochondria (4) Endoplasmic reticulum

Sol. 3

In the Aerobic respiration the complete oxidation of glucose takes place in

mitochondria and energy stored in the form of ATP

117. The circulatory system in Cockroach consists of …..

(1) heart, sinuses and alary muscles (2) Cardiac muscle, heart, blood vessels

(3) blood vessels, heart, atrium (4) Veins, heart and atrium

Sol. 1

Open circulatory system is seen cockroach in which blood flows through 13

chambered heart and sinuses (Body cavities). Alary muscles helps in contraction and

relaxation of sinuses as well as heart chambers.

118. The major natural Auxin is ….

(1) IBA (2) 2, 4D (3) IAA (4) NAA

Sol. 3

IAA is a kind of Natural Auxin, 4-chloro IAA, and PAA are some other Natural

Auxins. IBA, 2,4-D and NAA are the Synthetic Auxins commonly used in

Horticulture industry.

119. The seat of intelligence, thinking and judgment in human brain is ----

(1) Cerebrum (2) Medulla oblongata

(3) Cerebellum (4) Mid brain

Sol. 1

Cerebrum controls several functions of the body. In cerebral cortex there are centers

to receive and Analyse information. Ex :- Visual (sight) Auditory (hearing) and

olfactory (smell)

120. Ramu collected epiphyllous buds from a plant. The plant from which he has collected

these buds could be ….

(1) Murraya (2) Bryophyllum (3) Neem (4) Hibuscus




Sol. 2

Vegetative propagation done through various vegetative parts (stem, roots and leaf) of

the plant body. The leaf margins of Bryophyllum contains “Epiphyllous buds”.

Which can develop in to new plant under favourable conditions.

121. Identify the correct statement from below

(1) The Zygote develops into embryo-sac

(2) Synergids are situated near the chalazal end of embryosac

(3) Mature embryo-sac has eight cells

(4) Secondary nucleus in a mature embryo-sac is diploid

Sol. 4

Embryosac in Angiosperms is commonly 7 celled and 8 nucleated condition. Two

Haploid nuclei in central cell (or) polar cell together form Diploid Secondary nucleus.

In mature embryosac. This will fuse with second male gamete to form triploid

endosperm nucleus.

122. One of the following is a wrong combination

(1) Paramoecium - Exconjugats (2) Clitellum – Earthworm

(3) Flies – Internal fertilization (4) Ampluxory pads – female frog

Sol. 4

In male Frogs vocal sacs and Ampluxory pads are part of the reproduction. Vocal

sacs are responsible for the croaking sounds in the breeding season to attract females.

Ampluxory pads present on the index fingers of the fore limbs to push female frog

Abdominal cavity during copulation.

123. An example for essential fatty acids is

(1) Glutamic acid (2) Aspartic acid (3) Linoleic acid (4) Tartaric acid

Sol. 3

The major two essential fatty acids are linolic acid and linolenic acid. Which are not

synthesized in our body, commonly taken through our diet.

124. The cell-division which is also known as reduction cell-division is ….

(1) Fission (2) Meiosis (3) Mitosis (4) Amitosis

Sol. 2

Meiosis (or) Reduction division commonly takes place in reproductive cells.

Daughter cells produce by this division are called gametes, commonly Haploid in

condition.

125. In humans, disorders of nervous system are caused due to the deficiency of vitamin

(1) Pyridoxine (2) Retinol

(3) Phylloquinone (4) Ascorbic acid

Sol. 1

Vitamin 6B also known as Pyridoxine used in the metabolism of Amino Acids.

Deficiency of 6B results in Hypertension, Anaemia, Nausea and vomiting. In

children pyridoxine deficiency causes convulsions.




MATHEMATICS

126. In the adjacent figure, if 110 ,AOC∠ = ° then the value of D∠ and B∠ respectively

i

A

B

C

O

D

(1) 55 ,125° ° (2) 55 ,110° ° (3) 110 , 25° ° (4) 125 , 55° °

Sol. 1

Given 110AOC = °

2AOC ADC=

55ADC⇒ = °

180B D+ = °

125B⇒ = °

127. If 9 6

; ,11 2 3 3

a b= =

−

then the relation between a and b is ….

(1) a b< (2) a b> (3) 1a b+ > (4) a b≤

Sol. 2

9 11 211 2

11 2 11 2a

+= × = +

− +

2 2 3

33b = =

clearly a > b

128. In a ,XYZ∆ if the internal bisector of X∠ meets YZ at ‘P’, then ….

X Y

P

Z

(1) XY XZ YZ

XZ PZ

+= (2)

XY XZ

PZ YP

= (3) XY PZ

XZ YP

= (4) XZ YP

XY YZ

=

Sol. 1

The internal bisector of X meets YZ at P

XY YP

XZ PZ

=

1 1XY YP

XZ PZ

⇒ + = +

XY XZ YP PZ YZ

XZ PZ PZ

+ +⇒ = =




129. Two poles of height 6 m and 11 m stand vertically upright on a plane ground. If the

distance between their feet is 12m, the distance between their tops is …….

(1) 12 m (2) 14 m (3) 13 m (4) 11 m

Sol. 3

Let AB and CD be two poles such that AB = 6m, CD = 11m

Given AC = 12 m

ABEC is a rectangle, CE = 6m, ED = 5m and BE = 12m

B

A C

E

D

5

6

12

6

12 11

BED∆ is a right angle triangle, 2 2 2BD BE ED= +

2 2 212 5BD = +

13BD m=

130. If ‘r’ and ‘s’ are the roots of the equation 2 0,ax bx c+ + = then the value of 2 2

1 1

r s

+

is….

(1) 2 4b ac− (2) 2 4

2

b ac

a

− (3)

2

2

4b ac

c

− (4)

2

2

2b ac

c

−

Sol. 4

r and s are the roots of equation 2 0ax bx c+ + =

b

r s

a

−+ = ,

c

rs

a

=

Now, ( )

2 2

22 2

1 1 s r

r s rs

++ =

( )

( )

2

2

2s r rs

rs

+ −

=

2

22

2 2

2

22

b c

b aca a

c c

a

−−

= =

131. When the sum of the first ten terms of an A.P. is four times the sum of the first five

terms. Then the k term is …..

(1) ( )2 1a k + (2) ( )2 1a k − (3) 2 1k + (4) 2 3k +

Sol. 2

Let ‘a’ be the first term and ‘d’ be the common difference of an A.P.

Sum of first ten terms = 4 × sum of first five terms

( )10

2 10 12

a d + − = ( )5

4 2 5 12

a d× + −

2 9 4 8a d a d+ = +

2a d= ….(1)

kth

term of an A.P. is ( )1a k d+ −

( )1 2a k a+ − (by (1))

( )2 2 1ak a a k− = −




132. The value of 4 4

3 69 96 3a a

is ….

(1) 16a (2) 12a (3) 8a (4) 4a

Sol. 4 4 4

9 93 66 3a a

4 49 91 1

6 3 3 6a a

⋅ ⋅

2 2 4a a a⋅ =

133. If the ratio of the legs of a right-angled triangle is 1:2, then the ratio of the

corresponding segments of the hypotenuse made by a perpendicular upon it from the

vertex will be

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1: 2 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 5

Sol. 1

Given 1

2

AB

BC

=

, 2AB x BC x= =

ABC∆ right angle, 5AC x= and ,BD AC⊥

Let ,CD a AD b= = and BD h=

5a b x+ = ….(1)

A

B C

x

a

D

b 5x

2x

BDC∆ is right angle, 2 2 24h x a= −

BDA∆ is right angle, 2 2 2h x b= −

2 2 23x a b⇒ = − +

( )( )23x b a b a⇒ = − +

( )23 5x b a x⇒ = − (by (1))

3

5x b a= − ….(2)

from (1) & (2), 4 1

,45 5

x x a

b a

b

= = ⇒ =

134. The sum of three numbers is 98. The ratio of the first to the second term is 2

3 and the

ratio of the second to the third is 5

8. Then the second number is

(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 32

Sol. 3

Let a, b, c be three numbers

Given 98a b c+ + = ….(1) NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



and 2 5

,3 8

a b

b c

= =

2 8

,3 5

b b

a c= =

by (1), 2 8

983 5

b b

b+ + =

10 15 2498

15

b b b+ +=

49 98 15b = ×

30b =

135. A cylindrical pencil of diameter 1.2 cm has one of its ends sharpened into a conical

shape of height 1.4 cm. The volume of the material removed is (in cub. cms) ….

(1) 4.224 (2) 1.056 (3) 10.56 (4) 42.24

Sol. 2

Given : 1.4, 0.6h r= =

A B

CDP

Volume of the material removed = Volume of cylinder ABCD – volume of cone

APB

2 21

3r h r hπ π= −

22

3

h

rπ

=

2

6 2 141.056

10 3 10π

= × =

136. If : ; :f R R g R R→ → are functions defined by ( ) ( )3 1; 6,f x x g x x= − + then the

value of ( ) ( )1 2009gof − is

(1) 26 (2) 29 (3) 16 (4) 15

Sol. 1

Given ( ) ( )3 1, 6f x x g x x= − = +

Let ( )y f x=

3 1y x= −

( )1 1

3

y

f y x−

+⇒ = =

( )1 1

3

x

f x−

+⇒ = and ( ) 6g x x= +

( ) ( ) ( )( )1 12009 2009gof g f− −=

2009 1

3g

+ =

2010

3g

=

2010 2028

6 263 3

= + = =




137. In the diagram, a squared ABCD has a side with a length of 6 cm. Circular arcs of

radius 6 cm are drawn with centres B and D. What is the area of the shaded region in

sq. cm. ?

A B

D C

(1) 18π (2) 36π (3) 18 24π − (4) 18 36π −

Sol. 4

area of sector BAC = 9π

area of sector DAC = 9π

required area = sum of area of two sectors – area of square

= ( )9 9 36π π+ − = 18 36π −

138. How many numbers between 3000 and 4000 can be formed from the digits 3, 4, 5, 6,

7 and 8; no digits being repeated in any number

(1) 20 Nos. (2) 15 Nos. (3) 60 Nos. (4) 120 Nos.

Sol. 3

3

The first place filled with 3 - 1 way

Second place - 5 ways

Third place - 4 ways

Fourth place - 3 ways

Total numbers = 1 5 4 3 60× × × =

139. If 10

log 2 0.3010,= then the number of digits in 50256 is

(1) 120 (2) 121 (3) 256 (4) 50

Sol. 2

Let 50256x =

10

log 50 log 256x =

810log 50log 2x =

210400log=

( )400 0.3010= ×

log 120.4x =

number of digits in 50256 is 120 1 121+ = .

140. If sin A, cos A and tan A are in Geometric Progression, then 6 2cot cotA A− is

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1

Sol. 4

Given sin A, cos A and tan A are in G.P. 2cos sin tanA A A= ⋅

3 2cos sinA A⇒ = 3cot cosecA A⇒ =

squaring on both sides 6 2cot cosecA A= 6 2cot 1 cotA A= + 6 2cot cot 1A A− = NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



141. A chess-board contains 64 equal squares and the area of each square is 6.25 cm2. An

inside border round the board is 2 cm. wide. The length of the chess-board is ….

(1) 8 cm (2) 24 cm (3) 12 cm (d) 16 cm

Sol. 2

Area of each square is 6.25 cm2

Let ‘x’ be the side of each square , 2625

100x =

5

2x =

Length of the chess board = 2 × border round wide + 8 × each square length

5

2 2 82

= × + × cm

4 20= + cm

= 24 cm

142. The value of 2

log 2 2 2 2 2⋅ is….

(1) 31

32 (2)

31

4 (3)

31

8 (4) None

Sol. 3

11

2times 2n

n

−

2 2 2...... =

3111 5

322

1 14 4

2 2 2

22 2

31log log 4log

32

−

= = ×

31

8=

143. Equation of the line passing through ( )1,2− and perpendicular to 2 0x y− + = is ….

(1) 1x y+ = (2) 1x y− = (3) 2x y+ = (4) 1 0x y− + =

Sol. 1

Slope of given line 2 0x y− + = is 1

Slope of required line is 1−

The equation of line passing through ( )1,2− having slope 1− is ( )2 1 1y x− = − +

1x y+ =




144. If 2 1

1 2A

− =

− and 2 4 0,A A nI− − = then ‘n’ is equal to….

(1) 3 (2) 3− (3) 1

3 (4)

1

3

−

Sol. 2

2A A A= ⋅

2 1 2 1

1 2 1 2

− − =

− −

=5 4

4 5

− −

25 4 2 1

4 44 4 1 2

A A

− − − = −

− −

5 4 8 4

4 5 4 8

− − = −

− −

3 0

0 3

− =

−

3I= −

2 4 3 0 3A A I n− + = ⇒ = −

145. If ( )2,5A − and ( )3,2B are the two points on a straight line. If AB is extended to ‘C’

such that AC = 2BC, then the co-ordinates of ‘C’ are ….

(1) 1 3

,2 2

(2) 7 1

,2 2

(3) ( )8, 1− (4) ( )1,8−

Sol. 3

Given 2

1

AC

BC

= where ( )2,5A − and ( )3,2B

* * *A B C

‘C’ divides the line AB externally in the ratio 2 : 1

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )2 3 1 2 2 2 1 5,

2 1 2 1C

− − −

− −

( )8, 1C −




HISTORY

146. He was known as the father of history writing

(1) Thucidydes (2) Plutarch (3) Herodotus (4) Democritis

Sol. 3

Herodotus was known as the father of history and the other options are incorrect.

147. “Crusader”, means

(1) A procedure adopted to propagate religion

(2) Priests

(3) Local Governors during Roman’s period

(4) Religious wars fought between Christians and Muslims

Sol. 4

These are the religious wars fought between Christians and Muslims and other options

are incorrect. These wars happened in medieval period.

148. The picture given below relates to

(1) Humayuns tomb (2) Akbar’s tomb

(3) Panch Mahal (4) Diwan-a-Khas

Sol. 3

The given picture is Panch Mahal built during Akbar period.

149. In western countries the influence of Renaissance took place between

(1) 500 – 1500 A.D. (2) 500 – 1800 A.D.

(3) 1300 – 1500 A.D. (4) 1300 – 1800 A.D.

Sol. 1

Renaissance took place in western countries between 500 – 1500 AD and eastern

countries between 500 – 1800 AD

150. “Boston tea party” means

(1) A party unloading a ship containing tea at Boston

(2) The event where the ship containing tea was unloaded on the orders of Governor

of Boston duly throwing the crates of tea in sea

(3) A tea party arranged by a group of people dressed as Red Indians at Boston

(4) A tea party arranged by the Governor of Boston in honour of Red Indians.

Sol. 2

It was an event held just before the American war of independence, infact its not a

party, historians described it since the tea chests were thrown in sea.

151. This was not the guiding principle of Congress of Vienna

(1) Restoration and legitimacy (2) Balance of power and compensation

(3) Rewards and punishments (4) Principles and feelings of Nationality

Sol. 4

Principles & feelings of Nationality was not the principle it should be compensation. NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



152. He entered Prussian civil service, but returned out with the remark, “deficiency in

regularity and discipline”

(1) Napoleon (2) Karl Marx (3) Bismarck (4) Louis Blanc

Sol. 3

Bismarck was only the right option, the rest people were not form Prussia.

153. This was not one of the factors in the rise of Imperialism

(1) Political unrest (2) Search for Raw material

(3) Search for markets (4) National pride

Sol. 1

Political unrest was not the factor, it must be political factor.

154. The immediate cause for the First World War

(1) Aggressive Nationalism (2) Imperialism

(3) Secret alliance

(4) Murder of the crown prince of Austria

Sol. 4

Since the asked question is was immediate cause so it must be 4th

option, other

options are other causes of world war I.

155. Europeans were attracted to Indonesia for this reason

(1) It is a small country (2) It has rich spice products

(3) Majority of the population are muslims (4) It has a large number of ethnic groups

Sol. 2

Since the Europeans required spice products, they were available in plenty in

Indonesia.

GEOGRAPHY

156. The ‘Monsoons’ provide the best example for

(1) The trade winds (2) The westerlies

(3) The seasonal winds (4) The local winds

Sol. 3

Monsoon are seasonal winds, the word monsoon is derived from Arabic which means

season

157. The conventional symbol used in weather reports for Thunderstorm

(1)

Sol. 1

R It is correct, others are incorrect

158. The largest producer of Sulphur in the World

(1) Indonesia (2) Mexico (3) Malaysia (4) Brazil

Sol. 2

Mexico – Sulphur, Indonesia – Rubber, Malaysia – Tin, Brazil - Coffee

159. The primitive tribe that is found in hot deserts

(1) The Semang (2) The Pygmies (3) The Sakai (4) The Bushmen

Sol. 4

Bushmen in Kalahari and the rest are in equatorial region NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



160. The grasslands of Eurasia are called as

(1) Veldts (2) Pampas (3) Downs (4) Steppes

Sol. 4

Steppes – Eurasia, Veldts – South Africa, Downs – Australia, Pampas – South

America

161. In Indo-Gangetic plains, the older alluvium of flood plain is called as ……

(1) Bhanger (2) Khadar (3) Terai (4) Babar

Sol. 1

Older flood plain – Bhangar

Newer flood plain – Kadar Jerai – Marshy track.

162. The soil that has very poor fertility status

(1) Alluvial soils (2) Black cotton or regular soils

(3) Laterite soils (4) Red soils

Sol. 3

The rest soils are good in fertility

163. The multipurpose project that is administered by Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

(1) Damodar valley project (2) Chambal project

(3) Kosi project (4) Hirakund project

Sol. 2

Chambar project – MP, Rajasthan Damodar – WB

Kosi – Bihar Hiracud - Orissa

164. The non-metallic mineral among the following

(1) Graphite (2) Chromite (3) Bauxite (4) Tungston

Sol. 1

The other options are metallic

165. This is the single largest item of import

(1) Fertilisers (2) Newsprint

(3) Petroleum (4) Machinery equipment

Sol. 3

The other options are small items of import

POLITICAL SCIENCE

166. The example for the subject included in the concurrent list

(1) Health (2) Forests (3) Education (4) Protection of

life

Sol. 3

The rest are added in state list.

167. This was added in the preamble to the constitution through 42nd

constitutional

amendment

(1) Socialist (2) Democratic (3) Sovereign (4) Republic

Sol. 1

The rest ideals were in constitution from its force i.e. 26 Jan 1950.




168. The names of States and allocation of seats to each state are given below in a jumbled

manner

State Lok Sabha seats

(i) Andhra Pradesh (a) 48

(ii) Bihar (b) 39

(iii) Tamil Nadu (c) 40

(iv) Maharashtra (d) 42

Identify the correct match

(1) (iii) – (b) (2) (iv) – (c) (3) (ii) – (d) (4) (i) – (a)

Sol. 1

AP – 42, TN – 39, Maharashtra – 48, Bihar – 40

169. Among the nine signals used to regulate flow of traffic, the picture given below

relates to

(1) Second signal (2) First signal (3) Fourth signal (4) Third signal

Sol. 4

It is used to stop the vehicles coming from front & behind (third no.)

170. The population of a village is between 500 to 1500. The number of members to be

elected to the gram panchayat

(1) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 11

Sol. 3

As per electoral division, it is correct

171. Rule of laws means

(1) Law spelt out in terms of rules and regulation

(2) Equal law related to the whole country

(3) Law related to judiciary

(4) Law that does not recognized any special privilege based on birth or wealth

Sol. 4

All are equal no special previlige based birth & wealth, all are equal

172. In India, the first general elections were held in this year

(1) 1951 (2) 1952 (3) 1950 (4) 1947

Sol. 2

Based on the UAF, in 1952 held

173. The term ‘Third World’ represents

(1) A large number of newly independent and developing nations

(2) A large number of developed nations

(3) A large number of socialist countries

(4) A large number of western group of nations

Sol. 1

The other options are 1st & 2

nd world countries.

174. The international court of Justice is located in this place

(1) New York (2) Paris (3) Hague (4) Yugoslavia

Sol. 3

It is located in the Hague in Netherland NTSE-Stage-{I} Sample paper-{7}



175. This was not the reason for Indo-China war in 1962

(1) Border dispute between two countries

(2) Chineese regarded India as their main rival in Asia

(3) Growing friendship between India and former Soviet Union

(4) Growing friendship between India and U.S.A.

Sol. 4

It is not a reason at all

ECONOMICS

176. Micro Economics is also known as

(1) Income theory (2) Price theory (3) Expenditure theory (4) Savings

theory

Sol. 2

Micro Eco – price theory, Macro – Income theory

177. This is not a social and demographic indicator under Economic development

(1) Literacy rate (2) Urbanisation

(3) Increase in employment (4) Life expectancy

Sol. 3

It is economic indicator

178. This is an example for direct taxation

(1) Customs - Imports (2) Wealth – Profits

(3) Excise – Manufacturing (4) Turn-over - Sale

Sol. 2

The rest are indirect taxes

179. This economist termed continuous exploitation of economic resources as “Economic

drain”

(1) Kautilya (2) Amartya Sen (3) Dadabhai Naoroji (4) D.R.Gadgil

Sol. 4

Dadabhai – Plunder of economic wealth.

180. Under this system, the land belonged to a small group of family who are usually

powerful in the region

(1) Mahalwari (2) Rayatwari (3) Zamindari (4) Kouldari

Sol. 1

The rest are incorrect because under Zamindari – Landlord, under Rayatwari, directly

by the peasant.


NTSE Andhra Pradesh MAT SOLUTION STAGE-1 - 2012.pdfNTSE Andhra Pradesh SAT SOLUTION STAGE-1 - 2012.pdfAndhraPradeshKey.pdf

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