PAPER - IIPART XI

1. Diamond is a:(a) Metal (b) Non-metal (c) Glass (d) Composite2. Number of atoms in a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal are:(a) Ten (b) Seventeen (c) Nine (d) Fourteen3. Type of bond formed in a material by sharing of electrons in different atoms is:(a) Ionic Bond (b) Covalent Bond(c) Metallic Bond (d) Electrostatic bond4. A crack in a metal due to corrosive atmosphere and static tensile stress is known as:(a) Bauschinger‟s effect (b) Work hardening (c) Season cracking (d) Strain aging5. A metal part or structure fails under repetitive or fluctuating loading or stress is called:(a) Fatigue fracture (b) Ductile fracture (c) Creep fracture (d) Brittle fracture6. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as(2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct7. Property of a material to resist indentation is known as:(a) Toughness (b) Hardness (c) Brittleness (d) Strength8. Conductivity and Expansion are physical terms which are related to:(a) Electricity (b) Heat (c) Cooling (d) None of these9. Addition of carbon to the surface of steel to make it hard, is known as:(a) Case hardening (b) Carburizing (c) Quenching (d) None of these10. Permanent deformation of metal caused by applied load is called:(a) Stress (b) Elastic deformation (c) Plastic deformation (d) None of these11. The point at which marked increase in deformation occurs without increasing the load during tensile testing of a material, is:(a) Yield point (b) Yield strength (c) Proof strength (d) Tensile strength12. For tensile testing, the extensometer must be calibrated to:(a) 0.0001 inch (b) 0.0002 inch (c) 0.0003 inch (d) 0.0004 inch13. Yield strength of a metal can be determined by:(a) Divider method (b) Drop of beam method(c) Set method (d) None of these14. In Brinell Hardness Testing, hard metal will have:(a) Large Brinell number (b) Small Brinell number(c) No effect by hardness (d) None of these15. In Vicker‟s Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals of diamond pyramid is:(a) 1260 (b) 1360 (c) 1460 (d) 156016. Size of specimen taken for reverse bending test is:(a) 5 inches (b) 10 inches (c) 15 inches (d) 20 inches17. In reverse bending test, number of bends require for small wires(a) 50 bends (b) 7 bends (c) 10 bends (d) 90 bends18. Torsion test is carried out on(a) Aircraft tubes (b) Wires (c) Sheets & strips (d) Bars & rods19. In radiography inspection, the wave length of x-rays are in order of(a) 10-6 (b) 10-10 (c) 10-11 (d) 10-6 – 10-920. Circular magnetization detects the defect approximately:(a) In line with flux (b) Parallel to the line of flux(c) Parallel to the axis of the part (d) None of these

21. Type of bond formed in a material by Electrons cloud is:(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Mettalic bond (d) Electrostatic22. For tensile testing, it is permitted to taper the gauge length of the specimen towards center, maximum by:(a) 0.001 inch (b) 0.002 inch (c) 0.002 inch (d) 0.004 inch23. For elastic limit determination, the extensometer reading is taken from:(a) 5% load of expected elastic limit (b) 10% load of expected elastic limit(c) 15% load of expected elastic limit (d) 20% load of expected elastic limit24. While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from edges should be there to avoid:(a) Buldging at opposite side (b) Deflection while testing(c) Ridge scales (d) Scratches25. (1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to ½ inches, where as(2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg.(a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false(c) Both are true (d) Both are false26. Brinell Hardness Number is obtained by:a) Size of ball divided by area of depressionb) Area of depression divided by size of ballc) Load applied divided by area of depressiond) None of these27. Maximum size of ball for Rockwell hardness test is:(a) 5mm (b) 10mm (c) ½ mm (d) 1 ½ mm28. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of the B scale is:(a) B0 – B150 (b) B0 – B100 (c) B0 – B20 (d) None of these29. In Rockwell hardness test, „B‟ scale is a combination of:(a) Diamond cone, 150kg load and Red dial(b) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Black dial(c) Diamond cone, 100kg load and Black dial(d) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Red dial30. Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell hardness test is:(a) 0.027 inch (b) 0.27 inch (c) 0.0027 inch (d) None of these31. Load applied in Shore Scleroscope hardness test is:(a) 30 kg (b) 50 kg (c) 10 kg (d) None of these32. For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is:(a) 1 to 1 ½ inch wide with suitable length(b) 1 by ½ in cross section(c) Full section(d) None of these33. In reverse bending test, the specimen is bent through an angle of:(a) 600 (b) 900 (c) 1200 (d) 180034. In Izod impact test, the specimen is :(a) Supported on two supports (b) Clamped in heavy jaws(c) Attached with pendulum (d) None of these35. In Hydrostatic test, welded exhaust tubing are subjected to an internal pressure sufficient to put the welded seam under a tensile stress of:(a) 1000 PSI (b) 10000 PSI (c) 100000 PSI (d) 1000000 PSI36. In torsion testing of wires, speed of revolution should not be more than:(a) 80 revolution/min (b) 70 revolution/min (c) 60 revolution/min (d) 50 revolution/min37. In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of material will not occur is known as:

(a) Plastic limit (b) Elastic limit (c) Proof stress (d) Endurance limit38. Gamma rays used for inspecting aircraft material for internal cracks / defects are having wave length of:(a) 10-3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-1139. (1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel(2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel(a) Both are true (b) Both are false(c) (1) is true (2) is false (d) (1) is false and (2) is true40. High carbon steel is used for:(a) Great hardness and low ductility (b) Great ductility and strength(c) Great hardness and machinability (c) All of these41. Which of the following is more useful for taking backups?(a) Floppy disk (b) Hard Disk (c) Optical Disk (d) Cartridge42. One Megabyte is _____________ bytes.(a) 1048576 (b) 1000 (c) 102756 (d) 1043. The material used as heat sink in semiconductors is(a) Silicon (b) Germanium (c) Carbon (d) Selenium44. When the conduction-band orbit of one atom may intersect the hole orbit of another atom merging of a free electron and a hole takes place. This merging of electron and hole is known as(a) Current flow (b) Minority current flow(c) Combination (d) Recombination45. The barrier potential at 25˚C in respect of silicon and germanium is(a) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.3V (b) Si-0.3V and Ge-0.7V(c) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.7V (d) Si-0.3V and Ge-0.3V46. Once the breakdown voltage is reached, the diode can conduct(a) Heavily (b) Very flow (c) Moderately (d) None of these47. An electronic device which converts alternating current into d.c. is called(a) Detector (b) Rectifier (c) Oscillator (d) None of these48. Mark the incorrect statement about a bimetallic strip(a) It consists of two metals joined together at their interface to form a single strip.(b) One of the metal is invar, a form of steel with a 26% nickel content and a negligible coefficient of linear expansion.(c) The other metal may be brass or steel both of which have high linear expansion coefficient.(d) None of these.49. Many of the instruments depend for their operation on sensitive electrical circuits which are protected against adverse effects of atmospheric temperature, pressure and humidity by(a) filling the cases with nitrogen (b) filling the cases with helium(c) filling the cases with argon (d) either (a) or (b)50. Instruments displaying information which is to be read accurately and at frequent intervals have scale about _____________ in length fitting into standard ____________ in cases.(a) 6 in & 3 ¼” (b) 7 in & 3½” (c) 7 in & 3¼” (d) none of these51. The rolled section having dimension of 6”x 6” or larger & approximately square is called(a) bloom (b) billet (c) slab (d) none of these52. To identify ferrous metal(a) hardness test is used (b) spark test is used(c) heat treatment is carried out (d) grinding stone is used

53. Solution heat treated & artificially edged is indicated by(a) T5 (b) T7 (c) T6 (d) T854. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by(a) cold work (b) hot rolling (c) heat treatment (d) all the above55. The heat range for salt bath furnances are(a) depending upon composition of bath.(b) as in (a) & normally 650˚F to 1700˚F.(c) as in (a) & normally 325˚F to 2450˚F.(d) none of these.56. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken by(a) frame (b) stringer (c) longerons (d) bulk hand57. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is carried by(a) spar (b) rib (c) wing joints (d) bracing struts58. In main plane at the inboard end of the wing near the attachment point to the fuselage heavily stressed rib is called(a) butt rib (b) bulk head rip (c) compression rib (d) all of them59. Aircraft requiring extra wing area to aid lift often are(a) split flap (b) plain flap (c) fowler flap (d) all of them60. On multiengine aircraft Nacelles or pods are located(a) above the m/p (b) below the m/p(c) at the leading edge of the m/p (d) all the above61. An amplifying, comparative gage is an instrument that amplifies the variation in the size of two similar parts by(a) 2 times (b) 5 times (c) 10 times (d) 20 times62. Johansson precision gage blocks, the second series of gage blocks contains(a) 19 blocks (b) 49 blocks (c) 81 blocks (d) none of these63. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is(a) dead centre (b) point (c) margin (d) lip64. The angle between a lip and axis of a drill bit is known as ___________ and mostly 59˚.(a) heel angle (b) lip angle (c) lip clearance (d) none of these65. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled is known as(a) point (b) cutting lips (c) margin (d) flutes66. A capacitor consists of two(a) conductors separated by an insulator called the di-electric.(b) insulators separated by a conductor.(c) insulators separated by air medium.(d) conductors separated by air medium.67. In a capacitor electric charge is stored in(a) metal plates (b) di-electric (c) both (a) & (b) (d) none of these68. Unit of m.m.f. is(a) weber (b) gilbert (c) maxwell (d) henry69. Joule/coloumb is the unit of(a) electric field potential (b) potential (c) charge (d) none of these70. In a lead-acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to(a) idleness of battery for a long time (b) low level of electrolyte(c) persistent under charging (d) all of them71. Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is(a) dust particle (b) iron (c) lead crystals (d) sodium chloride72. Overcharging of lead-acid battery will cause(a) excessive gassing (b) loss of active material

(c) increase in temperature resulting in buckling (d) all of them73. Total horse power developed by piston engine is(a) IHP (b) BHP (c) FHP (d) Actual horse power74. Factor affecting volumetric efficiency is(a) improper fuel injection (b) cylinder bore(c) low engine power (d) improper valve timing75. In the formula indicatedHP= PLANK , where N stands for33000(a) number of power stroke per minute (b) number of cylinder per engine(c) number of RDM per power stroke (d) none of these76. White arc on ASI dial indicates airspeed range(a) normal operating range (b) maximum & minimum limits(c) aircraft landing flaps may be extended (d) none of these77. Mark the correct statement aboutA field effect LCD(a) It incorporates additional plates called polarizers on the front & back glass plates of the assembly.(b) It contains a specially prepared inside glass surface which causes liquid crystal.(c) The molecular configuration causes the plane of polarization to be reflected by 90˚ as it passes through LCD.(d) All the above.78. A quality of precision gage have the accuracy of(a) 0.000008 inch (b) 0.000004 inch (c) 0.000002 inch (d) 0.000004 inch79. The convenient gages which are designed to inspect the thickness of paper, plastic, steel metal, leather and so on with great accuracy are(a) indicating depth gage (b) indicating thickness gage(c) amplifying comparative gage (d) indicating gage80. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity)(a) end C of P (Pressure) together (b) rear of C of P( c) front of C of P (d) along aerodynamic C of PPAPER - IIPART XIANSWERS:1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A6. D 7. B 8. B 9.A 10. C11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. C21. C 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. B26. C 27. C 28. B 29. D 30.A31. D 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. B36. C 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. A41. A 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A46. A 47. B 48. B 49. D 50. C51. A 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. C56. C 57. D 58. D 59. C 60. D61. C 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. B66. A 67. B 68. B 69. A 70. D71. A 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. A76. C 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. C

PAPER - II PART XPAPER - II

PART X1. Chain (thick line of 0.7mm) indicates

a. Visible outlines and edgesb. Hidden outlines and edgesc. Surface which have to meet special requirements.d. Cutting planes.2. Raised countersunk heads bolt nominal length is measured froma. Under the head to the tipb. Total length of the boltc. Threaded lengthd. Distance from upper surface of the head (excluding the raised portion) to the extreme end of shank3. Bolt head is ofa Steel b. Corrosion resistant steel c. Al. Alloy d. Brass4. Bolt head is ofa. Steel b. Al. Alloyc. C.R.S. close tolerance d. Al. Alloy close tolerance5. AN 935 isa. Plain washer b. Lock spring washerc. Shake proof washer d. None of above6. AN 936 isa. Shake proof washer b. Lock spring washerc. Plain washer d. None of above7. Measuring capacity of Vernier Caliper isa. Full graduated length of main scaleb. Full graduated length of main scale minus the length of the vernier scale.c. Full graduated length plus vernier scaled. All above8. Vernier caliper is checked for accuracy with the help ofa. Slip gauge b. Micrometer c. Straight edge d. both a) and b)9. Calliper Micrometer is used for measurement ofa. Small internal diameterb. Big internal diameterc. External diameterd. All above10. For measurement of cutting a lapping dimension of Drills, Taps and Reamers instrument used ina. External micrometerb. Internal micrometerc. Vee-block micrometerd. All above11. When metal is in contact with plastics, glass wool (non-conducting material) the corrosion form is known asa. Fretting b. Pitting c. Crevice corrosion d. None of above12. Argon cylinders should not be used if the pressure is less thana. 20 lbf/in b. 30 lbf/in c. 10 lbf/in d. None13. Grub screws are used for

a. Locking the bolt b. Locking the nutc. Locking two threaded components d. To stop end movement of piston14. Taper pin are manufactured with taper ofa. 1 in 48 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 50 d. 1 in 6015. Main constituents of Inconel area. Nickel and Iron b. Nickel and Chromiumd. Nickel and Copper d. Copper and Manganese16. Aircraft wheels, brake pedals, control columns are made out ofa. Nickel alloy b. Magnesium alloysc. Magnesium alloy castings d. Wrought Magnesium alloy17. Anti-corrosive treatment given to copper and its alloys in order to reduce electric potential between these parts and its adjacent steel or aluminium parts isa. Galvanizing b. Parkerizingc. Metal spraying d. Cadmium plating18. In order to increase elasticity and strength and reduce tackiness in rubber, the process is known asa. Vulcanizing b. Calendering c. Hardening d. None19. Aircraft rivets are identified bya. Head styleb. Alloyc. Length & diameterd. All20. For accurate location of particular area on an aircraft, which of the following is necessary?a. Water lineb. Butt linec. As in a) and b) in conjunction with station lined. None21. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?a. Pittingb. Galvanicc. Inter crystallined. Fretting22. For spot welding, in stainless steel, which is most suitablea. Low-voltageb. High-amperagec. Low-voltage and High-amperaged. High-voltage and Low-amperage23. Heat generated in spot welding is measured bya. Resistance x (Current)2 x Timeb. Resistance x Time / (Current)2c. (Current)2 / Resistance x Timed. Resistance x Current24. Which of the following is Non-Magnetic?a. Inconelb. K-Monelc. Moneld. All25. SAE 13XX representsa. Magnesium Steelb. Manganese Steelc. Silicon Steeld. Chromium Steel26. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in lengtha. Upsettingb. Down settingc. Swagingd. Rolling27. Rivets are designed

a. Stronger in shearb. Stronger in tensionc. Should not be subjected to excessive tension loadd. Both a) and c)28. Zero fuel weight meansa. AUW minus weight of fuelb. Weight of cargo, passenger and crewc. Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b)d. All of these29. I-beam is produced bya. Rolling b. Castingc. Forging d. None30. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producinga. Passive oxidationb. Improved corrosion resistancec. Corrosiond. None31. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger ofa. Forming passive oxideb. Entrapping corrosive materialc. Corrosion by embedded iron oxided. All of the above32. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result ofa. A tendency for them to return their natural stateb. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metalc. Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode aread. All of the above33. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occura. Presence of electrolyteb. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic areac. Presence of passive oxide filmd. None of these34. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy parta. May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery depositb. Appears as thread like filamentc. Cannot always be detected by surface indicationd. All of the above35. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated jaws for gripping round pipes?a. Warnok typeb. Stillson typec. Super wrench toold. Williams type36. Vise grip pliers is also known asa. Heavy pliersb. Lever jaw wrenchc. Monkey pliersd. None37. Punch holders are used to holda. Punchesb. Chiselsc. Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correctd. As in „a‟, when a hard blow is required38. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation?a. Safety wire pliersb. Diagonals & duck bill pliersc. Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correctd. As in „a‟ & diagonals39. Diagonals are used for

a. Cutting steel wires & rodsb. Cutting bolt headsc. Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correctd. None40. The shape of long nose pliers isa. Roundb. Half-roundc. Squared. None41. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking bya. A small lever at each handleb. A compound lever at both handlesc. A small lever at one of the handlesd. None42. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction?a. Acmeb. Squarec. Wormd. Buttress43. In interlocking-joint pliers,a. There are a number of holes at the hinge pointb. There are two holes at the hinge pointc. There are several curved grooves at the hinge pointd. None44. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or roda. Self-locking nutb. Jamb nutc. Stainless steel nut with cotter pind. None of these45. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked bya. Weight and pressure gaugeb. Marking on neckc. By operating the extinguisherd. All of the above46. Choose incorrect statementa. Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strengthb. Proper tension in rope allows „1‟ movementc. Manila rope requires extra slak due to shrinksd. The rope from tail should pull away at about 450 to each side of tail47. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction checka. Single base jackb. Bottle neck jackc. Screw jackd. Tripod jack48. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster worka. Vernier micrometerb. Vernier calliperc. Micrometer calliperd. None of these49. Which is incorrect statementa. If corrosion is present in control cable should be replacedb. Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketonec. For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of layd. Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating50. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed bya. Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutesb. Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in waterc. Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3d. Vacuum blasting

51. A gusset isa. A bracing between longeronsb. A type of connecting bracketc. Used for fail safe constructiond. Like a butt plate52. In computer terminology, MICR meansa. Magnetic Ink Character Recognitionb. Magnetic Ink Computer Recognitionc. Monitor Indicating Computer Relayd. Mass Information Computer Record53. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given bya. 00b. 900c. 450d. 135054. One micro farad is equal toa. 0.001 milli faradb. 100 milli faradc. 1000 milli faradd. 10 milli farad55. To smoothen the DC in rectifier, we employa. LPF b. HPFb. BPF d. None56. The Voltage / Current across the short circuita. V = max I = 0b. V = 0 I = maxc. V = 0 I = 0d. V = max I = max57. The vacuum tube hasa. Directly heated anodeb. Indirectly heated cathodec. Directly heated cathoded. Indirectly heated anode58. The name “Superhet” is used fora. AM receiverb. FM receiverc. AM transmitterd. FM transmitter59. Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel across a supply, giving 27 ampere, then current through 15 ohm will bea. 27 ampb. 12 ampc. 15 ampd. 1 amp60. Most effective method of removing rust from ferrous metal isa. Steel wire brushb. Sand paperc. By abrasive blastingd. Washing with hot shop solution61. A) Rivet smaller than 3/32” diameter are never used on stressed structureB) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117T riveta. Both are correctb. Both are incorrectc. Only A) is correctd. Only B) is correct62. Regarding permanent ballasta. Lead bar or plate is usedb. Painted red and placarded

c. Bolted as near as possible to CGd. Both A and B63. Transverse pitch isa. Twice the rivet diameterb. 70% of rivet pitchc. 75% of rivet pitchd. 6-8 diameter64. Rivet pitch isa. Distance between center of rivet in a rowb. Distance between edge to center of rivetc. Four times the rivet diameterd. Both a) and c) are correct65. Edge distance (minimum) isa. 4Db. 2Dc. 6-8Dd. Any of the above66. The amount of rivet length used for shop head isa. 11/2” x diameter of rivetb. 4 x diameter of rivetc. 3 x diameter of rivetd. All of the above67. Which plating process provide excellent base for painta. Cd – Platingb. Zn – Platingc. Granodizingd. All of the above68. Which treatment give excellent base for painta. CR – Platingb. Parkerizingc. Metal sprayingd. Zn – plating69. The process use zinc as a medium for platinga. Parkerizingb. Sheradizingc. Galvonizingd. Both b) and c)70. In Electrically driven attitude indicators, the gyro rotates approx., ata. 20000 rpmb. 21000 rpmc. 21500 rpmd. None of the above71. During functional test of direction indicator, the drift should be checked which should not exceeda. 2 degree in 15 minutesb. 3 degree in 15 minutesc. 2 degree in 30 minutesd. 3 degree in 30 minutes72. Performance test of instruments should be carried outa. Before installationb. At times when indication and operation are suspectedc. At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manuald. All of the above73. Worm threads have a thread angle ofa. 45 degrees and is similar to ACME threadsb. 29 degrees and is similar to ACME threadsc. 29 degrees and depth of threads are deeper than ACME threadsd. 29 degrees and ACME threads are deeper than worm threads74. The figure shown here is of

a. A simple gear train and the gear „D‟ moves at half speed of gear „A‟b. As in „a‟ & the gear „D‟ moves in the same direction of the gear „A‟c. A compound gear train & the gear „D‟ moves in the opposite direction of the gear „A‟d. A simple gear train and the gear „D‟ moves in the opposite direction at a double speed of gear „A‟100T 30 30 50TA B C D75. Which of the following memories has got equal access time for all locations of the memory limit?a. Read Only Memory (ROM)b. Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM)c. Random Access Memory (RAM)d. Erasable ROM76. To get a basic D.C. generator from A.C. generator which of the following arrangement is made?a. By replacing the slip rings of the A.C. generator with commutatorb. By the addition of extra slip ringsc. By connecting a rectifierd. None of the above77. The rotating part of a DC generator is calleda. Field coil b. Yoke c. Armature d. None of these78. Variations of D.C. voltage generated by D.C. generator is calleda. Ripple b. R.M.S. c. Average d. Crest79. The brushes in generator are generally made up ofa. High grade carbonb. High grade siliconc. High grade seleniumd. High grade zinc80. The term 10-5 farads meana. 1 mili-farad b. 10 micro-faradc. 10 nano-farad d. NonePAPER - IIPART X1.C 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.B6.A 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.C11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B16,.C 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. C21.C 22. C 23. A 24.B 25. B26. A 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. C31. B 32. A 33.C 34.C 35.B36. B 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B41. C 42.D 43.C 44.B 45.A46. A 47. D 48.B 49.C 50.C51.B 52.A 53.A 54.A 55.A56.B 57.B 58.A 59.B 60.C61.C 62.C 63.C 64.D 65.B66.A 67.C 68.B 69.D 70.B71.B 72.D 73.C 74.D 75.C76.A 77.A 78.A 79.A 80.B

PAPER - II PART IXPAPER - IIPART IX

1. In electromagnetic method of fast erection, the output of secondary winding of transformer is:

a. 115V AC b. 20 V AC c. 28V DC d. 185V AC2. For compensation of pendulosity error, the amount of inclination is governed by value of:a. 0.50 b. 1.750 c. Either a) or b) d. None3. In turn & ship indicator, the precession of gyro is equal toa) Angular momentum of gyro b) Rate or turnc) Product of a) & b) d) None4. In TSI, in practice, the gimbal ring deflection is generally not more thana) 50 b) 120 c) 80 d) 605. Under banked turn in TSI meansa) Skid out of turn b) Slip into turn c) None6. Crank case of a piston engine is made up of:a) One piece construction b) Two piece constructionc) Multiple piece construction d) All of the above7. Crank case providesa) Attachment of the cylinder b) Attachment of propellerc) Tight enclosure for lubricating oil & a) d) All of the above8. In radial engine, impeller & blower are found ina) Power section b) Nose sectionc) Super charger section d)Accessory section9. Crank shafta) Converts heat energy in propulsive forceb) Converts heat energy in mechanical workc) Transform reciprocating motion of piston in to rotary motiond) As in c) & to rotating propeller shaft10. Double throw crankshaft, also known asa) 3600 crank shaft b) 600 crank shaftc) 800 crank shaft d) 1800 crank shaft11. Maximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional fabrica) Warp b) Weft c) Biased d) Fill12. Which of the following is the unidirectional fabric style?a) Mats b) Tapes c) Kevlar c)Fiber glass13. Which of the following can use as leak testera) Ultrasound method (Water immersion method b) Dye-penetrant methodc) Magnetic particle inspection d) None of these

14. Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known asa) Shear wave b) Compression wavec) Surface wave d) Tension wave15. Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected bya) X-Ray b) Ultrasonic methodc) Eddy current d) None of these16. By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion easilya) Ultrasonic method b) Eddy currentc) Magnetic particle d) X-Ray17. Grinding cracks on small radius bends is appeared as __________ in magnetic particle inspectiona) Irregular lines over affected area b) Short parallel linesc) Dotted patch d) Scattered small lines18. Permeability of material is the function ofa) Magnetising force b) Flux densityc) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of these19. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness?a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometerc) Profilometer d) Hilsegmetometer20. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked bya) Weight and pressure gauge b) Marking on neckc) By operating the extinguisher d) All of these21. Which is incorrect statement?a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replacedb) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketonec) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of layd) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating22. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed bya) Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutesb) Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in waterc) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3d) Vacuum blasting23. A gusset isa) A bracing between longerons b) A type of connecting bracketc) Used for fail safe construction d) Like a butt plate24. Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are not parallela) Phillips screwdriver b) Reed & prince screwdriverc) Both are correct d) None25. The hallow magnetized shafts of interchangeable screwdrivers hold hex bits ofa) 1/2 inch size b) 3/4 inch sizec) 3/8 inch size d) 1/4 inch size26. The shape of which screwdriver permits the use of a wrench to assist in tightening?a) Stubby screwdriver b) Phillips screwdriverc) Heavy duty screwdriver c) Double ended screwdriver27. Prick punch has an included angle ofa) 150 b) 450 c)650 d) 90028. While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch should bea) Larger than the size of the pin b) Smaller than the size of pinc) Same size of the pin d) Can be of any size29. Which hammers are used for riveting & stretching of metalsa) Ball peen hammer b) Straight peen hammerc) Soft faced hammer d) Both „a‟ and „b‟ are correct30. Soft hammers are made of1) Babbitt 2) Brass 3) Carbon steel 4) Wood 5) Tool steela) 1,2 & 3 are correct b) Only „1‟ is correctc) 1,2 & 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 & 4 are correct31. In N-type semiconductors, the concentration of minority carriers mainly depends upona) Doping technique b) Number of donor atoms

c) Temperature of material d) quality of intrinsic material32. Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV) across the non-conducting diode (Reverse biased) in center tape full wave rectifier is equal toa) Vm b) 2/Vm c) Vm/2 d) 2Vm33. Zinor Breakdown in a diode is due toa) High electric field causes covalent bonds to breakb) Due to the increased velocities of minority carriersc) Due to heating of junction due to heavy currentd) None of the above34. Two switches are connected ___________ to obtain AND gate functiona) In series b) In parallel c) Either parallel or series d) None of above35. Which gate is known as universal gatea) OR gate b) NOR gate c) AND gate d) XOR gate36. To identify Ferrous metala) hardness test is used b) Spark test is usedc) Heat treatment is carried out d) Grinding stone is used37. Solution heat treatment & artificially eged is indicated bya) T5 b) T7 c) T6 d)T838. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened bya) Cold work b) Hot rolling c) Heat treatment d) All the above39. The heat range for salt bath Furnaces area) Depending upon composition of bathb) As in a) & normally 6500 F to 17000Fc) As in a) & normally 3250F to 24500Fd) None of these40. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken bya) Frame b) Stringer c) Longerons d) Bulk head41. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is carried bya) Spar b) Rib c) Wing joints d) Bracing struts42. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill isa) Dead centre b) Point c) Margin d) Lip43. The angle between a lip and axis of the drill bit is known as ______ and mostly 590a) Heel angle b) Lip angle c) Lip clearance d) None of these44. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled is known asa) Point b) cutting lips c) Margin d) Flutes45. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity)a) And C of P (Pressure) together b) Rear of C of Pc) Front of C of P d) Along Aerodynamic C of P46. The point on the chord line at which the total lift of a section at an aerofoil is considered to act is known asa) Centre of Gravity b) Centre of Pressurec) Lift d) None of the above47. The difference between the angles of incidence between the main plane and tailplane is known asa) Diheddral b) Anhedral c) Longitudinal Dihedral d) None of above48. The type of drag which is produced by non lifting surfaces is known asa) Parasite drag b) Wing drag c) Skin friction d) Induced drag49. The stability which is due to features incorporated in the design of the aircraft is calleda) Inherent stability b) Neutral stability c) Static stability d) Dynamic stability50. The angle of attack of an aerofoil such as wing is the angle between thea) Chord of the wing and the longitudinal axisb) Chord of the wing and the relative airflowc) Chord of the wing and horizontal axisd) Angle of incidence and stall angle51. Crazing appears on the plastic surface in forms ofa) Straight line crack b) Zigzag crack

c) A network of crack running in all direction d) Not visible52. If plastic is stored horizontally, the height should not be more thana) 6” b) 24” c) 12” d) 18”53. In a fail safe spar, the top section consist ofa) Cap and upper web plate riveted together b) Single extrusionc) Splice plates and cap d) All of these54. Hydraulic fluid leak is avoided in between the body and the piston of the break assembly by means ofa) Gasket b) O-ring packing c) Seal d) All above55. In cantilever wing designa) No external support is required b) Bracing is requiredc) Drag wire is fitted d) None of these56. The principal structured member of the wing isa) Rib b) Spar c) Stringer d) Formers57. In multiple disk break assembly stators area) Key to the bearing career b) Not key to the bearing careerc) It rotates d) None above58. Pressure identification or false brinnelling appears in which type of corrosiona) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Inter granular corrosion d) Stress corrosion59. Al and its alloys are covered with pure aluminium to corrosion resistance is calleda) Sherardizing b) Anodizing c) Cladding d) Chromating60. Magnesium parts are protected for temporary storage witha) Cladding b) Anodizing c) Plating d) Chrome pickle treatment61. The multiple disk break assembly consist ofa) 3 stators b) 4 rotators c) 1 bearing career d) All above62. In anodizing of Al alloys a thin layer of film on the surface is formed ofa) Al oxide b) Sodium oxide c) Potassium oxide d) Calcium oxide63. Dichromate treatment is given toa) Al parts b) Steel parts c) Magnesium parts d) Copper parts64. Al. Alloy bell cranks employing pressed in taper pins are suspected toa) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Stress corrosion d) None of these65. Rigid fuel tanks are tested for leak with the air pressure ofa) 2.5 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2 PSI d) 3 PSI66. Flexible fuel tanks are tested for fuel leak with the air pressure ofa) 0.25 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2.5 PSI d) 0.5 PSI67. Fuel leak of the tank is checked for the seepage for the period ofa) 15 min c) 30 min c) 45 min d) 60 min68. The bladder type of fuel cell is made to size in the cavity when it sita) Larger b) Smaller c) Equal d) All of these69. During symmetry checks of Aircraft a spring scale is used with the steel tape. Generally a pull of force is applied to obtain equal tension during reading it.a) 8 lbs b) 15 lbs c) 5 lbs d) 10 lbs70. To check the rudder hinge alignment the instrument used isa) Scale b) Plum bob c) straight edge d) Steel tape71. Taper on a shaft is indicated along thea) Centre line b) Base line c) Dimension line72. Set squares can be used for drawinga) Vertical line b) Inclined line c) Parallel line d) All of the above73. Splined shafts are used toa) Transmit larger power than keyed shaft b) Obtain axial movementc) Obtain rotary movement d) All of these74. Flange couplings area) Flexible coupling b). Rigid couplingc) Compression coupling d) Clamp coupling75. The type of key used in muff coupling isa) Wood roof key b) Gib-head key c) Round key d) Any of these76. Gear sector givesa) Continuous motion b) Intermittent motionc) Reciprocating motion d) None of these

77. Helical gears area) More quiet than spur gear b) Having more number of teeth in contactc) Smooth in operation d) All of these78. Addendum + Duodenum =a) Working depth b) Whole depth c) Tooth space d) Backlash79. The basic difference in datum line and phantom line isa) Thickness of lines b) Length of linesc) No. of lines d) None of these80. A straight line parallel to a vertical plane hasa) A line of same length in front view and point in top viewb) A line of same length in both viewsc) A line of same length in top view and point in front viewd) None of thesePAPER - IIPART IX1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A6. D 7.C 8. C 9. D 10. D11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. A16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20.A21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D26. C 27.B 28.A 29. A 30. C31. C 32. D 33. A 34.A 35.B36. B 37. C 38. C 39. C 40. C41. D 42. B 43. B 44. B 45 C46. B 47. C 48 A 49. B 50. B51.C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55 A56. B 57. A 58.B 59.C 60. D61. D 62. A 63. C 64. C 65. B66. A 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. B71. A 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. D76. B 77. D 78. B 79. A 80. A

PAPER - II PART VIIIPAPER - IIPART VIII

1. Which of these is indicator of elasticity & plasticity both?

a) Rockwell hardness test b) Brinell hardness testc) Shore Scleroscope d) Vicker‟s hardness test2. Flattening test isa) Bending test b) Only for copper wires c) For tube testing d) Both a) & c)3. Max rate of bending per minute in reverse bend test isa) 50 b) 60 c) 10 d) 404. Izod test measuresa) Toughness b) Height of upswing c) Energy in breaking d) Hardness5. Fatigue test is for determininga) Stress in material b) Strain in rodc) Stress limit for material d) Elongation of wire6. Torsion test is essential fora) Wires b) Tube c) Rods d) Sheet7. Bending test indicatesa) Ductility b) Brittleness c) Hardness d) Density8. 250 HB 10 indicates

a) Strength only b) Hardness only c) Both a) & b) d) Toughness9. Unit of tension isa) N b) N/m c) KN/m2 d) Kg/cm210. First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast furnace isa) Pig Iron b) Wrought Ironc) Cast Iron d) Steel11. Siderite isa) Oxide ore of Iron b) Carbonate ore of Ironc) Sulphide ore of Iron d) Flux used in furnace12. Coke used in blast furnace isa) Fuel b) Fluxc) Reducing agent d) Both fuel & reducing agent13. In upper reduction zone, we geta) Iron b) Carbon dioxidec) Carbon monoxide d) Both Fe & CO214. Steel is alloyed to improvea) Hardenability b) Toughnessc) Fatigue strength d) All of the above15. Cast Iron sparks area) Red b) Whitec) Straw coloured d) First Red then Straw coloured16. Corrosion resistant steel used in Aircraft construction isa) 18 – 8 steel b) Medium carbon steelc) 18 – 6 steel d) Silicon steel. Major alloying elements of stainless steel are ( in order of % composition)a) Ni – Cr b) Ni – Vc) W – Ni d) Cr – Ni18. Forging steel isa) Low Carbon steel b) Medium Carbon steelc) High Carbon steel d) Either a) or c)19. Exhaust collector is made up ofa) Silicon steel b) Titanium steelc) Chromium steel d) Ni – Cr steel20. Which element is responsible for „Red hardness‟ property?a) Ti b) Ta c) Mo d) W21. Which elements are responsible for „Penetration hardness‟?a) Mn, S b) Mn, P c) Mn, Cr d) Cr, C22. „Stainless steel‟ isa) Ni – Cr steel b) Cr – Mo steel c) Ni – W steel d) Cr – Va steel23. Silicon in steel acts asa) Oxidiser b) Deoxidiser c) Impurity d) Both b) & c)24. Mark the correct statementa) SAE 2330 is chromium steelb) SAE 3250 is used in making axle shafts because of high strengthc) SAE 3115 is used for making piston pins, cam rings25. Steel is preheated before welding toa) Include strength b) Enhance its creep resistancec) Enhance its creep resistance26. Steel used for wing-hinge fittings & flying wire trunnions isa) SAE 4140 b) SAE 6150 c) SAE 101527. Steel used commercially for automatic machine production isa) SAE 4135 b) SAE 4615 c) SAE 611528. Steel used as an alternate for SAE 4130 steel isa) SAE 8620 b) SAE 8630 c) SAE 926029. Pyrometer is used toa) Measure the temperature b) Protect the furnacec) Give protective atmosphere30. The fastest rate of cooling is given bya) Brine b) Oil c) Water

31. The tip of the rivet is upset to form a second head and that is known asa) Round head b) Shop head c) Flat head d) Brazier head32. O ring packings are used for preventinga) Internal leak b) External leak c) One direction leakd) Both a) & b)33. Gaskets are made ofa) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of these34. While bending tubing, a small flattening is allowed but the small diameter of the bend should not be less than _______ of the outside diametera) 90% b) 25% c) 75% d) 80%35. Deep permanent impression in the hose produced by the pressure of hose clamp is known asa) Hot flow b) Deep flow c) Cold flow d) None of these36. In hex bolt, the length is measureda) Under the head to the end of the bolt b) Plain portion of the shankc) Total length d) Threaded length37. Aircraft bolts are made ofa) Mild steel b) Stainless steel c) Aluminum alloyd) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy38. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems area) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these39. Vegetable based fluid is normallya) Pink b) Yellow c) Almost colourless d) None of these40. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system isa) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All of these41. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time isa) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these42. When no services are operated in open centre system, the pressure value in the system isa) At low value b) At high valuec) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir d) Both a) & c)43. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted witha) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoirb) To maintain the normal built up pressurec) Both a) & b) d) None of these44. Thermal relief value fitted in the hydraulic system operates at a pressurea) Slightly higher than normal system pressureb) Relieve only a small quantity of fluidc) At lower than the system pressured) Both a) & b)45. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is fora) To maintain the normal system pressureb) To safe guard the operation of the important servicesc) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of servicesd) Both b) & c)46. Restrictor valve fitted in the hydraulic system fora) Allowing free flow of fluid in one direction b) Limited flow in other directionc) To control the pressure d) Both a) & b)47. Packing is made ofa) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber d) Felt48. Running seals area) Packing b) Gasket c) Wiper d) None of these49. Washer (gasket) used for spark plug isa) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of these50. Gasket used on uneven or varying space is made ofa) Asbestos b) Cork c) Copper d) All of these51. Seals used for cleaning and lubricating is calleda) Wiper b) Gasket c) Packing d) None of these

52. Fuel used for turbo jet engine isa) Gasoline b) Aviation kerosene c) Petrol d) None of these53. Aviation gasoline is having relative density ofa) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.554. Relative density of AVTUR fuel isa) 0.80 b) Shop headd) Both a) & b)d) All of thesec) 75%c) Cold flowa) Under the head to the end of the boltd) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloyd) All of thesec) Almost colourlessb) Vegetablea) One onlyc) Pump output passes directly to the reservoirc) Both a) & b)d) Both a) & b)d) Both b) & c)d) Bothc) Synthetic or natural rubbera) Packingb) Copperb) Corka) Wiperb) Aviation keroseneb) 0.72b) 0.75 c) 0.70 d) 0.7255. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter ofa) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns56. The source of pressurised air in piston engine aircraft isa) Compressor b) Supercharger c) Turbo charger d) Both b) & c)57. Component fitted in pressurisation system to limit any possible negative differentiate pressure to a sage value isa) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller58. To maintain a free flow of ventilation air within the aircraft when parked the component is filled toa) Safety value b) Ground automatic relief value c) outflow value d) Both a) & c)59. Roots type blower pressurised and send air to cabin duct by takinga) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d) None of these60. Engine driven cabin compressor which is used on turbo prop aircraft, its output pressure is controlleda) Automatically b) Manually c) Not controlled d) Both a) & b)61. The working fluid used in reciprocating engine isa) Solid fuel b) Oxidizer & Fuel c) Fuel / Air Mixture d) All of these62. Mark the correct statementa) Turbo prop engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity changeb) As in a) & Piston Engine also accelerate large mass of air through small velocity changec) Turbo Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity changed) Pulse Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change63. To compress the engine working fluid, Piston Engine usesa) Turbine driven compressor b) Pressure rise due to combustionc) Positive displacement, piston type compressor d) Both a) & c) are correct64. Piston engine classified according toa) Thrust b) No. of strokec) Cylinder arrangement with respect to crank shaft d) Both b) & c)65. Radial engine classified as

a) Upright, inverted b) According to no. of rowsc) Cylinder arranged on cam shaft d) Both a) & c)66. The emitter resistor RE in a transistor amplifier is bypassed by a capacitora) To reduce the voltage gain b) To increase the voltage gainc) Causes thermal runaway d) Stabilises the Q point67. A transistor is operating in the active region. Under this conditiona) Both the junctions are forward-biasedb) Both the junctions are reverse-biasedc) Emitter-base junction is reverse-biased, and collector-base junction is forward-biasedd) Emitter-base junction is forward-biased, and collector-base junction is reverse-biased68. The potential-divider method of biasing is used in amplifier toa) Limit the input ac signal going to the base b) Make the operating point almost independent of βc) Reduce the dc base current d) Reduce the cost of the circuit69. For generating 1 KHz note, the most suitable circuit isa) Hartley Oscillator b) Colpits Oscillatorc) Tuned-collector Oscillator d) Wein-bridge Oscillator70.To generate a 1 MHz signal the most suitable circuit isa) Wein-bridge Oscillator b) Phase shift Oscillatorc) Colpits Oscillator d) Hartley Oscillator71. Weather radar works ona) Echo system b) LOS system c) VHF system d) HF system72. Antenna size for DME isa) 1λ b) ½ λ c) λ/4 d) λ/873. EDAS meansa) Electrical and digital Aircraft systemb) Electronics / digital Aircraft systemc) Electronics digital and avionics systemd) None of these74. The purpose of EDAS isa) Modernise the various Aircraft system and their display systemb) To reduce the work load of the pilotc) To reduce the space in the Aircraftd) All of these75. The satellites are placed in geo-synchronous orbit for sat com system and they provide coverage betweena) Longitude 750 b) Between latitude 750 North and Southc) Both a) & b) above d) None of these76. In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear from gyro rotor shaft, the speed of holder being__________a) 25 rpm b) 20 rpm c) 30 rpm d) 35 rpm77. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the supply fed to the centre electrode isa) 25V AC b) 20V AC c) 12V AC d) 15V AC78. Fast Erection system is supplied witha) 28V DC b) 115V AC c) 25V AC d) None79. Erection rate of normal erection system isa) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec80. Erection rate of fast erection system isa) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/secPAPER - IIPART VIII1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. D16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B26. A 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A31. B 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. C

36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B41. A 42. C 43. C 44. D 45. D46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. B51. A 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. A56. D 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. A61. C 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. B66. D 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C71. A 72. C 73. B 74. D 75. B76. A 77. B 78. B 79. B 80. D

PAPER - II PART VIIPAPER - IIPART VII

1. Duckbill plier

a) Is a flat nose plier b) Is used for twisting safety wiresc) Have serrations on their jaws d) All are correct2. Needle nose pliers are used fora) Extracting thin/sharp components b) Extracting nailsc) Gripping small electronic components d) All are correct3. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itselfii) A die is a cutting toola) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct4. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle ofa) 30 degrees b) 70 degreesc) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees5. Various types of cut of a file area) Single cut b) Smooth cutc) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct6. Bearing strength of a material refers toa) Direct tensile load it can bearb) Resistance to tear at the point of applied loadc) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied loadd) Resistance to shear7. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire isa) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness8. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permitsa) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheetsc) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity9. Aluminium alloy 1100 impliesa) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copperc) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy10. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They area) Lighter than other aluminium alloysb) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloysc) Easily heat treatabled) Less susceptible to corrosion11. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage ofa) 0.1 – 0.3 b) 0.3 – 0.5c) 0.5 – 1.0 d) 1.0 – 2.012. Which of the statement is correct?a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardenedb) Strain hardening is same as cold working

c) Strength & hardness increases during cold workingd) All are correct13. Find out the wrong statement regarding titaniuma) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperaturesc) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic14. Pitot static system have heating elements toa) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formationc) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct15. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because ita) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orificesc) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct16. i. In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the workii. In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the worka) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct17. A cross cut saw hasa) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inchc) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch18. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be usedii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cuta) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct19. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood area) Generally 7-10 inches long b) ¼ - one inch in diameterc) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct20. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is calleda) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driverc) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above21. Air driven power screw driver should be useda) For large diameter screwb) For removing screw that are jammedc) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted backd) When removing screws from harder material22. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statementa) These are made from chrome vanadium steelb) These are generally die castc) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizesd) These are plated to improve their appearance23. Box end wrenches are useda) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally lightb) Where there is restricted spacec) For nuts that are bigger than one inch sized) When open end wrench is not available24. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be useda) Open end wrench b) Box end wrenchc) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct25. SAE 2340 isa) Chromium steel with 3% chromiumb) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbonc) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbond) Carbon (0.4%) steel26. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it isa) Monel metal b) Carbon steelc) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel27. Weldability is poorest in case ofa) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steelc) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron28. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence ofa) Silicon b) Cobalt

c) Chromium d) Manganese29. L shaped channels are produced bya) Forging b) Extrusionc) Machining d) Casting30. Creep in metals isa) Elongation due to temperatureb) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stressesc) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operationd) All are correct31. Angular momentum isa) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocityc) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)32. Mark the incorrect statementa) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force.b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor.c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor.d) None of the above33. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriateb) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latituded) All of these34. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed asa) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift35. Grip length of the bolt isa) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the boltc) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these36. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in isa) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammerc) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer37. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used wherea) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head downc) It can be used any where d) None of these38. Rasp file is used fora) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leatherc) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather39. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle ofa) 730 b) 530 c) 600 d) 93040. Snaps are used toa) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during rivetingc) Both a) & b) d) None of these41. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion ofa) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 142. Bending stress is the combination ofa) Compression and shear b) Shear and tensionc) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear43. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken bya) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons44. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carriesa) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load d) Half of the load45. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent ona) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselagec) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these46. Direction of rotation of external gears area) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above47. Al clad is generally ofa) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S & 62 S48. Natural rubber is a polymer ofa) Isoprene b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of these

49. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-Sa) White b) Black c) Red d) Green50. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d) Fretting51. SAE 13XX representsa) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steelc) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel52. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in lengtha) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d) Rolling53. The factors limiting the aspect ratio area) Structural consideration b) Drag considerationc) Lift consideration d) Both a) & b)54. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro isa) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure.b) Weight due to pipelinesc) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.d) All of these55. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate.a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm d) None56. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected fora) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of these57. The truss type fuselage is covered bya) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric d) All of these58. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other whena) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degreesb) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same directionc) Both a) & b)d) None of these59. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will bea) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E60. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat treatmenta) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 110061. When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit, the true power isa) More than the apparent power b) Less than the apparent powerc) As in b) in reactive circuit and as in a) in inductive circuit d) None of these62. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit isa) In series with the unit b) Between the source voltage and the loadc) In parallel with the unit63. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the add of electrical connectionsa) is called induction b) is called air gap transferc) Will cause excessive arching and heat, and as a result is impractical64. Diodes are used in electrical power circuit primarily asa) Switches b) Rectifiers c) Relays d) Contactors65. If three resistors of 3, 5 and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28V circuit, how much current will flow through the 3 ohms resistor?a) 9.3 amps b) 1.05 amps c) 0.93 amps d) 10.05 amps66. What is the value of a resistance if given colour codes as brown, black, brown, black and brown.a) 1010 ohms b) 1000 ohms c) 101 ohms d) 10.1 K ohms67. What is the value of a capacitor if given colour codes are orange, orange, blue and white.a) 33nF b) 33μF c) 33pF d) 3300μF68. The output of a astable multi-vibrator isa) Triangular wave b) Saw tooth wave c) Sinusoidal wave d) Square wave69. In an oscilloscope by varying intensity control, what actually varied internally?a) Cathode voltage b) Anode voltage c) Grid voltage d) Cathode current70. The output of NOT gate is alwaysa) High b) Low c) Same as inputd) Complementary of input71. Oxy acetylene welding process is suitable for joining metal sheets and plates having thickness ofa) 1 to 30mm b) 2 to 50 mm c) 2 to 40mm d) All of these

72. In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod is required as a filter metal when welding is carried out abovea) 15mm b) 10mm c) 40mm d) 5mm73. In oxyacetylene welding, neutral flame produces a maximum temperature ofa) 30000F b) 32000F c) 32000C d) 30000C74. Standard colour for oxygen hose isa) Black b) Red c) Green d) None of these75. In magnet steel, the alloying elements area) Nickel, Cobalt b) Silicon, Nickelc) Molybdenum, Copper d) Tungsten, Cobalt76. Maximum distance between support for fluid tubing of 1/8” size of steel isa) 12” b) 14” c) 9.5” d) 11.5”77. MS 20004 is aa) Internal wrenching bolt b) Close tolerance boltc) Clevis bolt d) None of these78. Mark the incorrect statement, regarding K monel metala) It is ferrous alloy b) It is used for gears and chainc) It is non ferrous alloy d) It is corrosion resistant79. The symbol is fora) Wood b) Cast ironc) Steel d) Rubber80. Ballast is used on a/ca) To attain the desired c.g. b) To increase the weightc) For making nose heavy d) None of thesePAPER - IIPART VII1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D11. B 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. D16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. C26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. C31. C 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. B36. C 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. B41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D46. A 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C51. B 52. A 53. D 54. D 55. B56. D 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. A61. B 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. C66. C 67. B 68. D 69. C 70. D71. B 72. A 73. C 74. C 75. D76. D 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. A

1. Choose the correct sets of angles of set square of one piece

a) 450 x 300 b) 300 x 900 c) 450 x 600d) 600 x 6002. Phantom line is used for indicating the _________ position of parta) Actual b) Hidden c) Relative d) None of these3. Mark the correct statementa) The arrow head length is equal to double of its widthb) The arrow head length is equal to triple of its widthc) The arrow head length is equal to its widthd) None of these4. Top view false on thea) Horizontal plane b) Vertical plane

c) Half in horizontal and half in Vertical plane d) All above cases may be possible5. Direction of rotation of external gears area) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above6. “S” in Al-alloy designation indicatesa) Cast alloy b) Wrought alloy c) As in b) and used for a/c structure d) None7. Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant?a) 2 S b) 3 S c) 17 S d) 52 S8. Al clad is generally ofa) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S & 62 S9. Inter-crystalline corrosion is generally occurred ina) Al-alloy containing copper composition b) 17 S c) 24 S d) All of these10. Which of the following material is used for spot welding?a) Clad alloys b) 52 S Al-alloy c) Both a) & b) d) None of these11. Natural rubber is a polymer ofa) Isoprene b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of these12. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural rubber?a) Sulpher b) Phosphorus c) Sodium d) Carbon13. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-Sa) White b) Black c) Red d) Green14. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands fora) Butadiene b) Acrylonitrile c) Monovinyl d) Nitrile15. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is standsa) Monovinyl b) Chloroprene c) Acrylonitrile d) Styrene16. GR-I designated for which type of rubbera) Neoprene b) BUNA-S c) BUNA-N d) Butyl17. Which type of properties is introduced in rubber after vulcanising process?a) Elasticity b) Strong ness c) Reduce the tackiness d) All of these18. A/C rivets are identified bya) Head Style b) Alloy c) Length & Diameter d) All of these19. For accurate location of particular area on an a/c, which of the following is necessary?a) Water line b) Butt line c) As in a) & b) in conjunction with station line d) None20. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d) Fretting21. Which is most suitable for spot welding, in stainless steel?a) Low-voltage b) High-amperagec) Low-voltage and High-amperage d) High-voltage and Low-amperage22. Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic?a) Inconel b) K-Monel c) Monel d) All of these23. SAE 13XX representsa) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel24. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in lengtha) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d) Rolling25. Which of the following have greatest tensile strength?a) Fibreglass b) Aramid c) Carbon d) Ceramic26. For flight equilibrium, designer tries to fix the CGa) and C of P together b) At rear of C of Pc) In front of most forward position of CP d) Along aerodynamic C of P27. Flight calculations are based on the magnitude and direction ofa) Lift & drag b) Weight & thrust c) Lift & thrust d) Both a) & b)28. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are

a) Structural consideration b) Drag considerationc) Lift consideration d) Both a) & b)29. What is required to reduce the landing speed?a) A low minimum drag coefficient b) A small movement of C of Pc) A high max CL d) A high value of CL3/2/CD30. With increase in altitude pressure & temperaturea) Drops b) Will risec) Pressure drops, temperature increases d) Temperature drops, pressure increases31. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro isa) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure.b) Weight due to pipelinesc) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.d) All of these32. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate.a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm d) None33. Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative position ofa) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol)c) Both a) & b) d) None of these34. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in gyro horizon is ______ respectivelya) 3600 and 900 b) 3600 and 800 c) 3600 and 850 d) None35. The reason for restricting pitch movement of gyro horizon is to preventa) Gimbal error b) Gimbal lock c) Transport wander d) None36. In single disk break, break linings are known asa) Pucks b) Three are fix c) Three are movable d) All above37. When break pressure is released piston moves back to position with thea) Return spring force b) Hydraulic pressure c) Adjusting pin d) None38. To check the angle of the main structural component in relation to the longitudinal and lateral axis is known asa) Incidence check b) Dihedral check c) Structural alignment check d) Verticality check39. On copper and copper alloy corrosion forms on the surface asa) White powder b) Greenish film c) Blue d) Black40. Corrosion on the metal is due toa) Chemical attack b) Electro chemical attack c) Both a) & b) d) None41. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected fora) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of these42. The truss type fuselage is covered bya) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric d) All of these43. Thermoplastic material is originallya) Hard b) Soft and pliable when exposed to heatc) It retains the moulded shape when cooled d) All of these44. Remoulding and reshaping cannot be done ona) Thermosetting plastic b) Thermoplastic c) Both a) & b) d) None of these45. Plastic should be stored in bins which are tilted ata) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 25046. The operating frequency of ADF isa) 90Hz b) 90KHz c) 150Hz d) 90KHz to 1800KHz47. The ADF operates on

a) LF Band b) MF Band c) LF & MF Band d) VHF Band48. In ADF antenna system at a point signal fades out this is calleda) Null position b) Figure of eight c) Cardiod d) None of these49. ADF receiver essentially isa) TRF receiver b) Superhetrodyne receiver c) Double superhetrodyne receiverd) Suppressed carrier receiver50. Types of antenna / antennas used for ADF receivera) Half wave b) Full wave c) Sense aeriald) As in c) and loop aerial51. If a D flip-flop is to switch from 0 to 1, then input is to be kept high for at least time T wherea) T= t setup + t hold b) T= t setup + t hold + t propagation delayc) T= t setup + t hold - t propagation delay d) T= clock period52. JK Flip flop is dividing the input frequency by 2, then its condition isa) J=0, K=0 b) J=0, K=1 c) J=1, K=0 d) J=1, K=153. In decimal to BCD decodera) 1 input, 10 output b) 10 input, 4 outputc) 4 input, 10 output d) 10 input, 1 output54. If SUB pin is high in a Adder-subtractor circuit, then circuit is;a) Adding Two bytes b) Subtracting input byte from outputc) Subtracting output byte from input d) Adding 2‟s complement byte to the other byte55. One of the effect of negative feed back in amplifiers is toa) Increase the noise b) Increase the harmonic distortionc) Decrease the bandwidth d) Decrease the harmonic distortion56. The relationship between back emf and applied voltage in case of a dc motor is given bya) Eb = V + Ia Ra b) Eb = V – Ia Ra c) Eb = V d) None of these57. The direction of rotation of dc motor can be determined bya) Fleming‟s right hand rule b) Fleming‟s left hand rulec) Lenz‟s law d) Ampere‟s law58. An engine driven 50 Hz alternator has a speed of 750 rpm. How many poles it has?a) 6 poles b) 4 poles c) 2 poles d) 8 poles59. The frequency of emf generated by a generator depends upon itsa) Speed b) No. of ploles c) Machine rating d) Both a) & b)60. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other whena) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degreesb) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same directionc) Both a) & b)d) None of these61. Capacity of a capacitor depends upona) Separation between the plates b) Area of platesc) Di-electric material d) All of these62. The device used to measure very high insulation resistance of electric cable isa) High resistance voltmeter b) Megger / Insulation resistance testerc) Iron vane meter d) Ammeter of high range63. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will bea) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E64. Special test equipment comprising a meter and two cables each of specific

length, is required for checking the resistance of bonding. A meter widely used , consists of an ohm-meter operating ona) Principle of current ratio b) Principle of voltage ratio c) None of these65. Cell phone is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery froma) Shorting between plates b) Thermal runawayc) Avoid leakage of electrolyte d) All of these66. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheeta) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel67. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat treatmenta) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 110068. „Ice-Box‟ rivets area) 2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) Both a) & c)69. The specification for universal head riveta) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 d) All of these70. Part No – AN 470 B 3-8, indicatesa) Shank dia is 3/16” b) Rivet length is 8/32”c) Material is 5056-Al alloy d) All of the above71. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems area) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these72. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system isa) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All of these73. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time isa) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these74. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted witha) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoirb) To maintain the normal built up pressurec) Both a) & b)d) None of these75. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is fora) To maintain the normal system pressureb) To safe guard the operation of the important servicesc) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of servicesd) Both b) & c)76. Packing is made ofa) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber d) Felt77. Aviation gasoline is having relative density ofa) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.578. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter ofa) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns79. Component fitted in pressurization system to limit any possible negative differentiate pressure to a sage value isa) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller.80. Roots type blower pressurized and send air to cabin duct by takinga) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d)None of thesePAPER - IIPART VI1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A6. C 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C11. A 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A16. D 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C

21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. B26. C 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. A31. D 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C41. D 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. B46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. D51. A 52. D 53. B 54. D 55. D56. B 57. B 58. D 59. D 60. C61. D 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. B66. A 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C71. D 72. B 73. A 74. C 75. D76. C 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. A

PAPER - II PART VPAPER - II

PART V1. Angular momentum is

a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)2. Mark the incorrect statementa) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force.b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor.c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor.d) None of the above3. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriateb) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latituded) All of these4. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed asa) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift5. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at right angles to each other is termed asa) Gimbal Lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent Drift6. The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope which is regulated by a relief value ata) 3.5 in Hg b) 4.5 in Hg c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg d) None7. Grip length of the bolt isa) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the boltc) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these8. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in isa) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammerc) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer9. AN 4 - 7 bolt showsa) 7/8” dia b) 1/4" length c) 4” length d) 1/4" dia10. Bolt of class 4 fit isa) Loose fit b) Free fit c) Close fit d) Tight fit11. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used wherea) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head downc) It can be used any where d) None of these

12. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used isa) AN 936 b) AN 935 c) AN 970 d) AN 96013. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used isa) Plain nut b) Castle nut c) Castellated shear nut d) Self locking nut14. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the center of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet)a) 2d to 4d b) 8d c) 6d d) 75% of the pitch15. Rasp file is used fora) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leatherc) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather16. Pinning is related toa) Chisels b) Punches c) Screw drivers d) None of these17. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle ofa) 730 b) 530 c) 600 d) 93018. Snaps are used toa) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during rivetingc) Both a) & b) d) None of these19. Punch used for making a series of light pops along scribed line, which will be machined or filed awaya) Pin punch b) Stout punch c) Light centre punch d) Parallel pin punch20. Hand file is related to _______ of filea) Length of file b) Cut of file c) Grade of file d) Section of files21. Screw drivers are classified bya) Type and length of blade b) Type, grade, cut and sectionc) Length and type d) Overall length of screw driver22. Steel drifts should be useda) On soft materials b) For driving ball or roller bearingc) Hardened steel d) None of these23. Ring spanners are used fora) Fitting the nut all around b) Fitting the nut from opened jawsc) Fitting the splined nut d) None of these24. Hard hammers are made ofa) High carbon steel b) Carbon steel and forged to shape and sizec) Tool steel d) Mild steel25. Flux used for commutator wires and electrical connectionsa) Zinc chloride b) Zinc chloride by diluting with 50% alcoholc) Alcoholic solution of rosin d) Rosin26. Slotting hacksaw blade is usually ofa) 18” long 3/4" wide b) 8” long 1/2" widec) 12” long 3/4" wide d) None of these27. Hacksaw is used bya) Putting same pressure for forward and backward strokeb) Putting pressure for forward stroke and release the pressure in backward strokec) Putting less pressure in forward stroke and more pressure in backward stroked) Any of these28. Which hammers have large, smooth faces and are lightweight?a) Ball peen hammers b) Body hammersc) Cross peen hammers d) Sledge hammers29. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion ofa) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 130. The stresses to which Aircraft are subjected area) Tension b) Torsion c) Bending d) All of these31. The internal force of a substance which opposes the deformation is calleda) Strain b) Stress c) Tension d) Torsion32. The twisting load on the structure is calleda) Torsion b) Tension c) Strain d) Compression33. Bending stress is the combination ofa) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension

c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear34. Permanent deformation of structure is calleda) Stress b) Strain c) Tension d) Bend35. In monocoque fuselage construction, main members area) Frame, bulk head, longerons b) Bulkhead, stringers, longeronsc) Formers, frame assembly and bulkhead d) Longerons, stringers and frames36. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken bya) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons37. A semi monocoque construction fuselage is made ofa) Bulkhead and frame b) Frame, longerons and stringerc) Bulkhead, frame, longerons & stringers d) Bulkhead, frame & formers38. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carriesa) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load d) Half of the load39. The cabin, flight compartment and baggage compartment are incorporated into a sealed unit to hold air pressurea) More than atmosphere pressure b) Less than atmosphere pressurec) Equal to atmosphere pressure d) None of these40. To check the cabin for air tightness is calleda) Cabin static pressure test b) Cabin dynamic pressure testc) Leak check d) All of these41. An object demonstrates positive dynamic stability if the amplitude of motiona) Decreases with time b) Increases with timec) Neither increases nor decreases d) None of these42. The angle between the chord of the tail plane and the chord of the main plane is known asa) Lateral dihedral b) Longitudinal dihedralc) Normal dihedral d) Vertical dihedral43. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent ona) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselagec) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these44. Mark the correct statement for horizontal stabilizera) It always produces nose up pitching momentb) It always produces nose down pitching momentc) Either a) or b) depending upon the designd) Provides no pitching moment45. Slip or side slipping refers to any motion of the Aircrafta) Towards upper wing b) To downwardc) Towards the lower wing d) All of these46. Rotating the control wheel clockwise will movea) The right aileron upward b) The right aileron downwardc) As in a) & flight spoiler on right wing up d) As in a) & flight spoiler on left wing up47. At high speed flight, to avoid excessively large rolling moments or unacceptable structural loading or wing twist, devices used area) Flaps b) Slots c) Outboard aileronsd) Inboard ailerons48. The principal surface contributing to the lateral stability of an Aircraft isa) Side surfaces b) The fuselage c) Tail plane d) None of these49. Dihedral angle on the main planes provide witha) Longitudinal stability b) Dynamic stabilityc) Lateral stability d) Horizontal stability50. Aft moment of the control stick will causea) Both elevators to move up b) Both elevators to move downc) Left elevator will move up and right will move down d) Movement of horizontal stabilizer51. Minimising the expressionY=A B C + A B C D + A B C D E + A B + A B C D E + A the output isa) Y=A b) Y=1 c) Y=A+ AB d) Y=AB52. Y= Σ (5, 15, 23, 29, 37, 47, 55, 61) + X (7, 13, 21, 31, 39, 45, 53, 63)a) Y=EF b) Y= AB c) Y=CD + EF d) Y=BD

53. In excess –3 codes, BCD 1001 will be written asa) 9 b) 1011 c) 1100 d) 100154. If active low output is required for checking odd parity we will usea) AND gate b) OR gate c) XOR gate d) XNOR gate55. Which series of IC‟s is used for military purpose?a) 7400 series b) 74H00 series c) 5400 series d) 74 L S 00 series56. If a demultiplexer is converted into decoder, to get output high on required output lines, we will tie date line toa) OV b) Ground c) Either a) or b) d) +VCC57. Which of the following relation is correct?a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vc/Vd] b) Vo=AcVc[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]c) Vo=AdVd[1+CMRR . Vc/Vd] a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]58. Due to which action, flip flop act as memory unita) Feedback action b) Amplifying actionc) Oscillating action d) All of these59. In RS flip flop R=O, S=1 then action of flip flop isa) Reset b) Set c) No change d) Forbidden60. In D flip flop, the input to S & R terminals will bea) S=R b) R=S c) Both of thesed) None of above61. Operating frequency of marker beacon isa) 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz b) 328.6 MHz to 335.4 MHzc) 100 MHz fixed d) 75 MHz fixed62. The facilities provided by a localiser isa) Give indication of correct descending angleb) Distance from touch down pointc) Indication of lateral deviation with respect to centre line of runwayd) None of these63. The correct descending angle is approximatelya) 1 degree b) 2 degrees c) 2.25 degrees d) 2.75 degrees64. The flag appears at the end of ILS indicator, indicatesa) Reading is correct b) Partially correctc) Incorrect & misleading d) None65. The middle marker carrier is modulated ona) 3000Hz b) 1300Hz c) 400Hz d) 4000Hz66. Typical airborne installation of GPS is carried out bya) ARINC 249 b) ARINC 429 c) ARINC 629 d) Both b) & c)67. How many GPS satellites are required to locate an aircraft?a) 1 b) 2 c) Minimum 3 d) Minimum 468. The control segment of GPS consists ofa) A ground station b) Various ground based monitoring stationsc) A master control station d) Both b) & c)69. Basically, GPS consists ofa) One independent segment b) Two independent segmentc) Three independent segment d) Four independent segment70. The purpose of weather radar isa) To enable the pilot to look ahead to see if dangerous weather existb) To inform pilot of pleasant weatherc) To inform about cloudsd) None of these71. The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx.a) 6 Psi b) 8 Psi c) 10 Psi d) 12 Psi72. A four pole generator will havea) 2 interpole b) 4 interpole c) 6 interpole d) 8 interpole73. In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the voltage induced isa) 90o apart b) 120o apart c) 60o apart d) 180o apart74. To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The method

used isa) Interpole Method b) Brush setting method c) both (a) & (b) d) None of these75. Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding toa) Increase he life of brushes b) Distortion of fieldc) Reduces radio interference d) All the above76. Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator toa) Minimise ripple voltage b) Maintain constant outputc) Minimise eddy Current loss d) None of these above four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency of77. A 3a) 100 c/s b) 200 c/s c) 300 c/s d) 400 c/s78. While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspecta) Ventilation system of a/c b) Cable for chaffingc) Quick disconnection mechanism d) All of these79. What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold 10% 5% d) 22000 5% c) 12000 10% b) 42000 a) 4200080. AC generator works on the principle ofa) Faraday‟s law of electro-magnetic induction b) Mutual inductionc) Self induction d) All of thesePAPER - IIPART V1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C26. B 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. D31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C36. A 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. B41. A 42. B 43. D 44. C 45. C46. C 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. A51. B 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. C56. D 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. C61. D 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B66. D 67. C 68. D 69. C 70. A71. A 72. B 73. B 74. C 75. D76. A 77. B 78. D 79. B 80. A

PAPER - II PART IVPAPER - IIPART IV

1. While pushing a small and light aircraft, generally

a) Rudder control should not be lockedb) It should be pushed backward rather than forwardc) Flats of the hands should only be usedd) All are correct2. While moving an aircraft from the runway after an emergencya) It should be towed away fastb) It should never be towed away with deflated tyresc) Brakes should never be appliedd) All are correct

3. For picketing a light aircrafta) Cable or any rope should be usedb) Sufficient slack should be given for all types of ropesc) Aircraft should be parked into the windd) Both a) & c) are correct4. Before jacking an aircrafta) Empty the fuel tanks b) Fit critical stress panelsc) Level aircraft laterally d) Remove all optional equipment5. It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why?a) To set the weighing scales to zerob) To stabilize the weighing scalesc) For first determining its empty weightd) For making aircraft level6. (i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work(ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the worka) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct7. A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called aa) Cross cut saw b) Rip sawc) Back saw d) Wood saw8. A cross cut saw hasa) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inchc) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch9. Find out the incorrect statement regarding back sawa) It is used for cutting precision partsb) It has 18-32 teeth per inchc) It is same as hacksawd) Cutting teeth has very little set10. Hacksaw blades area) Made from stainless steel b) 12 inches in lengthc) Held under tension in the frame d) Having 10-14 teeth per inch11. i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum steelii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade should be lifted for the return strokea) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct12. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be usedii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cuta) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct13. Length of hacksaw is measured froma) The outer edge b) toothed part of bladesc) Between the centre of fixing holes d) Both a) & b) are correct14. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood area) Generally 7-10 inches long b) ¼ - one inch in diameterc) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct15. A screw driver can be useda) For driving screws b) As a punchc) As a chisel d) All are correct16. Stubby screw driver hasa) A blunt edge b) Blade length of up to 2”c) Only wooden handle d) All are correct17. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is calleda) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driverc) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above18. Air driven power screw driver should be useda) For large diameter screwb) For removing screw that are jammed

c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted backd) When removing screws from harder material19. A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain width of the screw slot. It should cover at leasta) 50% b) 60%c) 75% d) 90%20. i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driverii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw drivera) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct21. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statementa) These are made from chrome vanadium steelb) These are generally die castc) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizesd) These are plated to improve their appearance22. Open end wrenchesa) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in restricted spaceb) Are available in British & Metric sizesc) Open a nut faster than box end wrenchesd) All are correct23. Box end wrenches are useda) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally lightb) Where there is restricted spacec) For nuts that are bigger than one inch sized) When open end wrench is not available24. Combination wrenches means, its two ends havea) Open and box end b) Open and cut box endc) Open and flare nut end d) All are correct25. i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end wrench is usedii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips the nut at many places compared to an open ended wrencha) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct26. i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrenchii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelinesa) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct27. Spanners are classified bya) Type b) Materialc) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits d) All are correct28. Set spanners are off set to an anglea) So that it can be used in restricted placesb) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner overc) For proper gripd) Both a) & b) are correct29. Ratchetsa) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movementb) Are available with long and short handlesc) Can easily fit into socketsd) All are correct30. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be useda) Open end wrench b) Box end wrenchc) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct31. Monel metal is an alloy ofa) Nickel & copper b) Nickel & chromiumc) Copper & chromium d) Copper, nickel & chromium32. i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings.ii) Brass is used for cartridge casesa) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct

c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct33. SAE 2340 isa) Chromium steel with 3% chromiumb) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbonc) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbond) Carbon (0.4%) steel34. Engine mounts are made up ofa) 18-8 corrosion resistance mild carbon steelb) Chrome molybdenum mild carbon steelc) Chrome molybdenum high carbon steeld) None of these35. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it isa) Monel metal b) Carbon steelc) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel36. Weldability is poorest in case ofa) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steelc) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron37. Carbon steel isa) Refined form of cast ironb) Extremely hardc) Made by adding carbon to steeld) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur & phosphorous38. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence ofa) Silicon b) Cobaltc) Chromium d) Manganese39. Manganese is added to low carbon steel toa) Make them tough & hard b) Raise their tensile strengthc) Improve machine ability d) Increase corrosion resistance40. Cold bending of an aluminium sheeta) Is not permittedb) Softens the material at the bendc) Strain hardens material at the bendd) Results in material failure irrespective of bend radius41. Titanium can be identified bya) Chemical test b) Spark testc) Moistening & scratching with pencil d) Both b) & c) are correct42. L shaped channels are produced bya) Forging b) Extrusionc) Machining d) Casting43. Muntz metal is used fora) Nuts & bolts b) Parts in contact with salt waterc) Fuel & oil lines d) Both a) & b) are correct44. All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel hasa) Two critical points b) Three critical pointsc) Four critical points d) Six critical points45. In steel, grain becomes coarser whena) It is heated to a temp just below critical pointb) It is heated above critical rangec) Depends upon carbon percentaged) It does not happen at all46. Creep in metals isa) Elongation due to temperatureb) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stressesc) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operationd) All are correct47. Magnesium alloys area) Magnetic b) Light in weightc) Cheap & easy to machine d) Highly prone to corrosion48. i) Bronze is superior to brass in corrosion resistance property

ii) Duralumin can be age hardeneda) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct49. i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high hydraulic pressureii) Clad metals mean forged non ferrous metalsa) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct50. Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment medium to quench tank within 10 seconds or so. A delay results ina) Retarded age hardening b) Reduced corrosion resistancec) Dull/Strained surface d) Hard/brittle surface51. Power and work are measured ina) Watt and force b) Watt and joulec) Ampere hour and joule d) Farad and joule52. One micron isa) 10-3 meter b) 10-6 meterc) 10-9 meter d) None of these53. The change in resistance depends upona) Temperature b) Material and lengthc) Cross sectional area d) Both b) and c) are correct54. Most extensively used material in aircraft electrical cables isa) Rubber and silk b) Nylon and cottonc) Teflon d) Both b) & c) are correct55. In a parallel circuita) Total resistance is less than smallest resistorb) Total resistance decreases when one of the resistance is removedc) Total voltage drop is same as total resistanced) All are correct56. If there are „n‟ numbers of calls, each having a voltage of „E‟ and resistance „R‟, then voltmeter connected across the electrolyte will indicatea) nE b) (n-1)Ec) n(n - ½)E d) None of these57. A 12V bulb is connected in series and draws 3 amperes current from a 12V battery. Its resistance and power will bea) 36 ohms, 4 W b) 4 ohms, 36 Wc) 1 ohm, 12 W d) None of these58. The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument panel is determined by thea) Size of the panel b) Type of the panelc) Weight of the complete panel unit d) Number of instruments to be installed59. Aircraft instrument panels are shock mounted toa) Absorb all vibrationsb) Absorb low frequency, high amplitude shocksc) Channel most airframe vibrations to the instrumentsd) Absorb high frequency, high amplitude shocks60. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends ona) Instrument manufacturer b) Design of the instrument casec) Design of the aircraft fuselage d) Design of the instrument panel61. How is a flange less instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?a) By four screws which extend through the instrument panelb) By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the instrument panelc) By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument paneld) By press fit into the instrument panel and held in place by friction62. Why are most electrical instruments mounted in iron or steel cases?a) To avoid damage to the instrument during maintenanceb) To facilitate removal or installationc) To prevent interference from outside magnetic fieldsd) To reduce heat build up in the instrument

63. When installing instruments in an aircraft who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked?a) An authorised inspector b) The aircraft ownerc) The instrument installer d) The instrument manufacturer64. i) Instrument panels absorb low frequency high amplitude shocks.ii) Shock absorbers of instrument panel permit instruments to operate under conditions of minor vibrations.a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct65. Assembler isa) An individual who assembles computer b) Languagec) Programme d) None of these66. Input unit of a computer communicates betweena) Operator & computer b) Memory with printerc) CPU with monitor d) Output & computer67. Primary memory of a computer area) RAM, ROM b) RAM, ROM, PROMc) RAM, ROM, CPU d) RAM, ROM, Hard Disc68. Hard disc & floppies area) For different purposeb) For same purpose but hard disc stores more informationc) For same purpose but hard disc stores less informationd) None of these69. The symbol for hexa-decimal isa) 2 b) 8 c) 10 d) 1670. Algorithm usesa) One input, one output b) One input, two outputc) One input, multiple output d) None of these71. To solve a fifteen step problem, a computer will work ina) Sequence b) Repetitionc) Selection d) Sequence and repetition72. Which of the following is a storage device?a) Mouse b) Monitorc) CPU d) Hard disk73. RAM stands fora) Read & access memory b) Random access memoryc) Record and maintain d) None of these74. Radio equipment is protected from vibration damage bya) Shock mounts b) Aluminium alloy jumpersc) Doubler plates around the mounting points d) All are correct75. To communicate with ground control from an aircraft, pilot usesa) VOR receiver b) VHF trans receiverc) HF transmitter d) ADF76. Addition of avionics equipment forward of CG limits will affecta) Maximum gross weight and datum b) CG limits and useful loadc) Empty weight and useful load d) Useful load only77. i) AC current passing through a conductor creates emf around the conductorii) Frequency of radio wave radiated equals the frequency of the applied currenta) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct78. Basic components of a communication system area) Receiver & transmitterb) As in a) plus receiver / transmitter antennasc) As in b) plus microphoned) As in c) plus loudspeaker79. Power output of large commercial aircraft VHF transmitter is of the order ofa) 1-15 watts b) 20-30 wattsc) 50-100 watts d) 150-200 watts80. An antenna is a special type of electrical circuit designed to transmit & receive

a) Audible signals b) Visual signalc) Electro magnetic energy d) All are correctPAPER - IIPART IV1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D21. B 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C26. C 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. D31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B41. D 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. B46. C 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B51. B 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. A56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. B61. B 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. C66. A 67. A 68. B 69. D 70. A71. D 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. B76. C 77. C 78. D 79. C 80.

PAPER - II PART III

PAPER - II PART III 1. During towing operations

a) Pilot must be in the cockpit to operate brakesb) A qualified person should be in the cockpit to operate brakesc) A person should be in the cockpit to look for obstructionsd) Persons should be stationed at the nose and each of the wing-tips2. Tail-wheel type aeroplanes have the greatest tendency to move side-ways during taxing when there is

a) Cross wind b) Tail wind c) Head wind d) None of these3. When parking a aircraft after towing, the nose wheel should be lefta) Pointed straight ahead b) As it was when towing stoppedc) Unlocked d) All are correct4. Before towing a large aircrafta) Ballast should be put in the cockpitb) Tow bar should be fitted with a strong boltc) Tow bar should be fitted with a shear boltd) None of these5. While towing a large aircraft, personnel required area) Two in cockpit b) As in a) plus one each on wing tipsc) As in b) plus one at the taild) As in c) plus one in overall control of operation6. The most commonly used driving tool by a mechanic isa) Ball peen hammer b) Cross peen hammerc) Claw hammer d) Sledge hammer7. (i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground(ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metala) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correctc) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct8. i) Mallets can be termed as soft hammersii) Plastic mallets are more useful than raw hide malletsa) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correctc) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

9. (i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out nails(ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handlea) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correctc) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct10. A punch is used toa) Mark a location b) Remove a damaged rivetc) Locate a drill properly d) All are correct11. i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet head has been chiselled offii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the rivet to be removeda) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct12. i) Location given by a prick punch should always be punched later with a centre punch.ii) Goggles must be used while using any type of punch.a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct13. i) A mushroom head on a punch is better than a crown head since chances of hammer slip are reducedii) A centre punch can be used for a variety of punching applicationsa) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct14. Most commonly used slip joint plier has a length ofa) 4 inches b) 6 inches c) 10 inches d) 12 inches15. Duckbill pliera) Is a flat nose plier b) Is used for twisting safety wiresc) Have serrations on their jaws d) All are correct16. Needle nose pliers are used fora) Extracting thin/sharp components b) Extracting nailsc) Gripping small electronic components d) All are correct17. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itselfii) A die is a cutting toola) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct18. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle ofa) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees19. Regarding a cutting chisel which statement is incorrect?a) It is made from high grade steelb) Its cutting edge is always wider than the shankc) Cutting edge is flat so that force is applied uniformly on the surfaced) Chisel body is either square or octagonal20. i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it has been drilled throughii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold chisela) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct21. Aviation snipa) Is same as Dutchman snip b) Has serrated cutting edgesc) Can easily cut thick sheet metals d) All are correct22. Files are classified with regard toa) Physical shape b) Lengthc) Type of cut d) All are correct23. Various types of cut of a file area) Single cut b) Smooth cutc) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct24. Vixen file havea) Curved teeth b) No taper either in width or thicknessc) A special file holder d) All are correct25. i) Wood rasp files have individual teeth cut on to their surfacesii) Wood rasps are used to remove wood from a surface where it is not practical to use a saw or a planea) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct

c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct26. i) Mill files have uniform thickness, but are tapered in widthii) Hand files have uniform thickness and widtha) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct27. i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and widthii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in widtha) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct28. For filing acute angles, one should usea) Knife files b) Round files c) Triangular files d) All are correct29. Most files used in aviation have a length ofa) 4-10 inches b) 6-12 inches c) 6-16 inches d) 10-20 inches30. The part of a file that fits into the handle is calleda) Heel b) Fitting end c) Tang d) Point31. i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edgesii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsawsa) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct32. Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set ata) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees b) 45 degrees and 45 degreesc) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees d) None of these33. There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the wrong onea) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest34. File should be kept clean bya) Tapping it against the bench b) Brushing it with a wire brushc) Lubricating it occasionally d) Both a) & b) are correct35. Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smootha) Vixen b) Wood rasp c) Knife d) Triangular36. Characteristics of steel are controlled bya) Removal of carbon from iron b) Types of alloying elements added to itc) Amount of alloying elements added to it d) All are correct37. Bearing strength of a material refers toa) Direct tensile load it can bearb) Resistance to tear at the point of applied loadc) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied loadd) Resistance to shear38. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire isa) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness39. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permitsa) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheetsc) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity40. Aluminium alloy 1100 impliesa) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copperc) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy41. Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit signifies something. In 2024, the first digit indicatesa) Copper is the major alloying elementb) Two alloying elements have been addedc) Total percentage of alloying elementsd) None of these42. Alclad is a metal consisting ofa) Aluminium alloy core with pure Al surfaceb) Pure aluminium core with Al alloy surfacec) Alternating layers of pure Al & Al alloysd) None of these43. Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged?a) 3003-F b) 5052-H c) 6061-O d) 7075-T644. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They area) Lighter than other aluminium alloys b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys

c) Easily heat treatable d) Less susceptible to corrosion45. Aircraft structural members made from sheet metal can normally bea) Repaired, except when subjected to compressible loadsb) Repaired, except when subjected to tensile loadsc) Repaired using approved methodd) Not repaired & need replacement only46. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage ofa) 0.1 – 0.3 b) 0.3 – 0.5 c) 0.5 – 1.0 d) 1.0 – 2.047. High carbon steel is generally used fora) Shock absorbers b) Landing gear strutsc) Engine mounting bolts d) Springs & files48. What material is used in the construction of firewall of aircraft engines?a) Aluminium alloy b) Stainless steelc) Chrome-molybdenum steel d) Tungsten steel49. Which of the statement is correct?a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardenedb) Strain hardening is same as cold workingc) Strength & hardness increases during cold workingd) All are correct50. Find out the wrong statement regarding titaniuma) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperaturesc) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic51. The balls used for ball bearings are made ofa) Cast iron b) Cast steel c) Wrought irond) Carbon chrome steel52. Files used in fitting shop are made froma) Cast iron b) High carbon steelc) Chrome steel d) Mild steel53. Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is called ductility. Most ductile material isa) Copper b) Gold c) Lead d) Tin54. i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivityii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the addition of iron & silvera) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct55. i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brassii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correctc) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct56. Potential difference between two conductors insulated from each other is measured ina) Ampere b) Coulomb c) Ohm d) Volt57. Correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit isa) In series with a unit b) In parallel with a unitc) Between source voltage and load d) Both b) & c) are correct58. Which term means .001 amperea) Micro ampere b) Milli amperec) Kilo ampere d) Nano ampere59. Unit used to express electrical power isa) Ampere b) Volt c) Watt d) Coulomb60. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connection isa) Induction b) Air gap transferc) Not possible d) Possible but will cause excessive arcing thus not practical61. Magnetic lines of force pass most readily througha) Aluminium b) Copper c) Iron d) Titanium62. In a straight conductor, the resistance is not affected bya) Length b) Temperature c) Shape of cross section d) Material63. Pitot pressure varies witha) Speed b) Air density c) Speed and Air densityd) None of these

64. Altimeter and rate of climb indicator utilizea) Static pressure b) Pitot pressure c) Either a) or b)d) Both a) and b)65. Pitot static system have heating elements toa) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formationc) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct66. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because ita) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orificesc) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct67. Leak test of pitot static system should be carried outa) After installation of a component / instrumentb) Whenever malfunctioning is suspectedc) At specified periods indicated in servicing schedulesd) All are correct68. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static system?a) Vertical speed indicator b) Altimeterc) Airspeed indicator d) All are correct69. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static pressure isa) Altimeter b) Pressure gauge c) Airspeed indicator d) Vertical speed indicator70. The unit where calculations are processed is calleda) Central processing unit (CPU) b) Control unitc) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) d) Computing unit71. Sequence of steps for computing a program is known asa) Flow chart b) Sequence processc) Algorithm d) None of these72. Basic function of a computer isa) Addition b) Multiplication c) Division d) All are correct73. EDP stands fora) Electrical data processing b) Electronic data processingc) Entry data processing d) Electronic discrete programme74. A computer basicallya) Processes data b) Stores data as per given instructionsc) Perform mathematical calculations d) All are correct75. Computer stores instructions ina) English language b) Decimal number systemc) Octal number system d) Binary76. In a straight and level flight of an aircrafta) Lift equals aircraft weight b) Lift is more than weightc) Lift is less than weight d) Depends upon size of aircraft and its loading77. Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag associated with it. This is calleda) Form drag b) Skin friction drag c) Induced drag d) Shape drag78. Lift generated by an airfoil is maximum at an angle of attack of abouta) 0 degrees b) 4 degrees c) 12 degrees d) Stalling value79. Lift generated by an aircraft depends upona) Density, forward velocity & aircraft areab) Density, square of forward velocity and aircraft areac) Density, square of forward velocity and wing aread) Density, forward velocity & wing area80. Lift on a winga) Acts through centre of gravity b) Acts vertically upwardsc) Is perpendicular to chord lined) Acts vertically upwards through centre of pressurePAPER - IIPART III1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. D16. C 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. C21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C26. A 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C

31. C 32. A 33. D 34. D 35. A36. D 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. A41. A 42. A 43. D 44. D 45. C46. B 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. D51. D 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. C56. D 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A61. C 62. C 63. C 64. A 65. B66. D 67. D 68. D 69. C 70. C71. C 72. A 73. B 74. D 75. D76. A 77. C 78. D 79. C 80. D

PAPER - II (PART 2)

a. To increase mechanical strength and tackinessb. To reduce mechanical strength and tackinessc. To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackinessd. To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of aircraft tubeless tyrea. Butyl rubber b. Neoprene rubber c. BUNA-N d. thiokol3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and wire insulationa. Silicon rubber b. Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d. BUNA-N4. „ Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property‟ – is the characteristic of which kind of synthetic rubber.a. GR – I b. GR – S c. GR – P d. GR – A5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be addeda. Sulfur b. Sulfur oxide c. Zinc d. Zinc oxide6. Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston seala. Styrene butadiene seal b. Nitrile rubberc. Flexon rubber d. Fluoro carbon rubber7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structure whena. It under goes at low temperature b. It is frozenc. It is heated to 1300C d. It undergoes continues stress at normal temperature8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structurea. Kevlar – 49 b. Kevlar – 149 c. Kevlar – 29 d. Kevlar – 1299. The composition for E – glass isa. Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass b. Lime-alumina borosilicate glassc. Soda borosilicate glass d. None of the above10. Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of fibera. S – glass b. Hollow fibre glass c. A – glass d. Carbon – glass11. Which composit material is difficult to cut or drilla. Glass fibre b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of above12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibrea. Is used to fabricate primary structure b. It has high strength and high rigidityc. It takes compressive load d. It is ductile in nature13. Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to aluminiuma. A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrieb. Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assemblyc. Both (a) and (b) will be applied togetherd. None of the above14. Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to high stress and vibrationa. Fibergalss b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of these15. Mark the correct statement

a. Carbon fiber are electrically non conductiveb. Carbon fibers have high thermal expansionc. Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance16. Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of materiala. Titanium b. Tin c. Tungsten d. All above17. Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stressesa. Ceramic fiber b. Boron fiber c. Fiber glass d. Graphite fiber18. Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientationa. Warp direction is designated at 900b. Weft is designated at 00c. Bias is at 450 angle of fill threadsd. None of the above19. For repairing of fabric, which weave to be useda. Plain weave b. Basket weave c. Satin weave d. All of these20. Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation field area. Kevlar with carbon / graphite b. Kevlar with fiber glassc. Carbon / graphite with fiber glass d. None of these21. In fiber science, which acts as a curing agenta. Resin b. Matrix c. Catalyst d. All of these22. Plexiglass isa. Thermoplastic b. Thermoset c. Laminated d. None of these23. Mark the correct answer:Apart from strongest adhesive characteristics of epoxy resin, it has other advantagesa. Useful at very high temperature b. It withstand bending stressc. Reasonable rigidity and flexibility d. All of these24. Mark the correct answer:The advantages of fillers to add to resins area. To control viscosity and weight b. To increase pot life and strengthc. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these25. Nomex is aa. Filler material b. Matrix c. Reinforced fiber d. Core material26. Tapered roller bearing supporta. Radial load b. Thrust load c. Both (a) and (b)27. Bearing used on high powered aircraft engine isa. Ball bearing b. Roller bearing c. Plain bearing d. Both (a) and (c)28. Plain bearings are used fora. Connecting rods b. Crank shaft c. Cam shaft d. All of these29. Bearings are used to takea. Thrust load b. Radial load c. Side load d. Both (a) and (b)30. Bearing used where high compressive pressure, is generally made ofa. Babitt b. Bronze c. Siliver bronze d. All of these31. Bearing which offer more friction is made ofa. Bronze b. Babitt c. Silicon d. None of these32. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional toa. Distance between the plate and inversely proportional to the plate areab. Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plate.c. Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plated. None of these33. The correct way to connect a test volt meter in a circuit isa. In series with a unit b. Between the source voltage and the loadc. In parallel with unit d. Both (a) and (c) are correct34. Typical application of Zener diode is asa. Full wave rectifiers b. Half wave rectifierc. Voltage regulator d. Amplifier35. The method used to rapidly charge a Nickel Cadmium battery utilizesa. Constant current and constant voltage b. constant current and varying voltagec. Constant voltage and varying currentd. Varying voltage and varying current36. What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight

a. Remove all items except those on aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluidsb. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weightc. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoird. All of these37. Useful load of an aircraft is thea. Difference between the maximum gross weight and empty weightb. Difference between the net weight and total weightc. Some of the empty weight and the max. gross weightd. Weight of the fuel38. Certain amount of slacks must be left in flexible hose during installation because when under pressure ita. Expand in length and diameterb. Expand in length and contracts in diameterc. Contracts in length and expands in diameterd. Contracts in length and diameter39. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion or contraction due to temperature change can best be avoided bya. Using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of aircraftb. Not projecting the aircraft to sudden change in temperaturec. Providing bends in the tubingd. None of the above40. Which heat treating process of metal produces a hard, wear resistance surface over strong, tough corea. Case hardening b. Annealing c. Tempering d. Hardening41. Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluidsa. Butyl b. Buna-N c. Neoprene d. Buna-S42. In a metal tubing installationa. Rigid straight line runs are preferableb. Tension is undesirable because pressurisation will cause is to expand and shiftc. A tube may be pulled in if the nut will start on the threaded couplingd. None of the above43. Magnetic particles inspection is used primarily to detecta. Distortion b. Deep surface flawc. Flaws on or near the surface d. Flaws in plastic material44. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effectsa. Unclad aluminium alloys in sheet formsb. 6061- T9 Stainless steelc. Clad aluminium alloyd. Carbon steel45. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine fire wallsa. Stainless steel b. Chromium Molybdenum alloy steelc. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel d. Wrought iron46. A fiber type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt isa. Under shear loading b. Under tension loadingc. Subject to rotation d. All of these47. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with aa. Class-I fit for the thread b. Class-II fit for the threadc. Class-III fit for the thread d. Class-IV fit for the thread48. Hose and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be takena. Re-weld the defective portionsb. Remove all the old weld and re-weld the jointc. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect and re-weld all gaps / holesd. Can be used in the same way49. Which condition indicate a part has cooled too quickly after being weldeda. Cracking adjacent to the weld

b. Discoloration of the base metalc. Gas pockets and porosityd. Slag inclusion50. Which tool is used to measure the clearance between the surface plates and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness.a. Depth gauge b. Thickness gauge c. Dial indicator d. Vernier Caliper51. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylinder worka. Combination set b. Dial indicator c. Micrometer caliper d. Set square52. What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracya. Gauge block b. Dial indicator c. Machinist scale d. None of these53. When approaching the front of an idling jet engine the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximatelya. 10 feet b. 15 feet c. 25 feet d. 35 feet54. Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake firea. Dry chemical b. A fine water mist c. Carbon dioxided. Form55. When approaching the rear of an idling turbo jet engine the hazard area extends aft of the engine approximatelya. 200 feet b. 100 feet c. 50 feet d. 25 feet56. When towing a large aircrafta. A person should be in the cockpit to watch the obstructionb. Person should be stationed at the nosec. Person should be positioned each wing tip and the empennaged. A person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes57. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may causea. Hard starting b. Detonation c. Vapor lock d. None of these58. The main difference between grades 100 and 100LL fuel area. Volatility and lead content b. Volatility, lead content and colourc. Lead content and colour d. All of these59. Tetra ethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline toa. Retard the formation of corrosiveb. Improve the gasoline performance in the enginec. Dissolve the moisture in the gasolined. None of these60. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is trippled, the volume willa. Tripleb. Reduced to one third its original volumec. Remains samed. Multiply by a fixed factor

Answers:1 c 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 d6 b 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 d11 b 12 d 13 c 14 b 15 c16 c 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 d21 c 22 a 23 d 24 c 25 c26 c 27 b 28 d 29 d 30 b31 a 32 c 33 c 34 c 35 c36 c 37 a 38 c 39 c 40 a41 a 42 b 43 c 44 c 45 a46 c 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 b51 a 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 b56 d 57 c 58 c 59 b 60 b

PAPER - II (PART 1)

PAPER - IIPART I

1. Which statement is correct?a) Al-alloy bolt smaller than ¼ mm diameter are not used in primary structureb) Al-alloy bolts and nuts are used where they will be repeatedly removed for purpose of maintenance and inspectionc) Both are correct d) None of these2. AN-73 drilled head bolt is similar to thea) Close tolerance bolt b) Special boltc) Standard hex-bolt d) All of these3. To-bolt is a trade name ofa) An internally treaded two piece rivetb) An externally treaded three piece rivet.c) An internally treaded three piece rivetd) An externally treaded two piece rivet4. During installation of To-bolta) The nut is turned while the bolt is heldb) The bolt is turned while the nut is held.c) Bolt are turned at the same time d) None of these5. The lock bolt combines the features of aa) High strength bolt and nut b) High strength bolt and rivitc) High strength bolt, rivet and nut d) None of these6. Blind type lock bolts area) Used where only one side of the work is accessibleb) As a) & they have exceptional strengthc) As b) & sheet pull together characteristicd) As c) & where it is difficult to drive a conventional rivet7. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal recurred?a) With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin.b) With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached.c) With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the forkd) None of these8. Which of the bolt head code marking shown identifies a internal hex head bolt?a) b) c)1) a 2) b 3) c 4) none9. Which statement is correct?a) Self-locking nuts are used on a/c to provide tight connections which will not shake loose under severe vibrationb) S.L.N are used where bolt or nut subject rotationc) Both a) & b)d) None of these10. Elastic stop nuts are not useda) Where temperature is lower than 250oF b) Higher than 250oFc) Between 250oF to 750oF d) None of these11. Special washers are useda) Where a bolt is installed at an angle to a surfaceb) Where perfect alignment with a surface is not requiredc) Both a) & b)d) None of these12. The marking found on the head of the studa) Body diameter, length & shank typeb) Body diameter, length & head typec) Only length d) None of these

13. Airloc pasteners consists of three partsa) Stud, grommet and receptacle b) Stud & grommetc) Stud, cross pin and receptacle d) None14. 7x19 cable is made upa) Seven strands of 7 wires b) Nineteen strands of seven wires eachc) Seven strands of nineteen wires eachd) 19 strands of 19 wires each15. The diameter range of 7x19 cables area) 1/8 to 3/8”b) 1/16 to 3/32”c) 1/8 to ¼”d) 1/8 to 1/16”16. Turnbuckle assembly is aa) Mechanical screwb) Making minor adjustment in cable length and adjusting cable tensionc) Consisting two threaded terminals and a threaded barreld) All the above17. Push-pull tubes are generally made in short lengths toa) Prevent vibration and bending under tension loadb) Prevent vibration and bending under compression loadc) Only prevent vibrationd) None18. Corrosion resistant steel cotter pin is used in locations wherea) Magnetic material is required b) Resistance to corrosion is desiredc) Both d) None19. Which is correct statementa) Pin rivet are used only in shear applicationb) They should never be used where the grip length is less than the shank diameterc) Bothd) None20. Pin rivetsa) Hi-shear rivetsb) Used where access to both side of the material is requiredc) They are approximately three times as strong as solid shank rivetsd) All21. 10 KB 105a) Flat head b) Flat head & countersunkc) Countersunk d) None22. 10 KB 107a) Closed end and a key b) Flat headc) As a and countersunk head d) None23. AN 10 DH5A where H indicatea) 5/8” diameter head drilled b) 5/8” diameter head and shank drilledc) 5/8” diameter & shank drilled d) None24. O-rings can be detected bya) 4 – power magnifying glassb) Small cracks, particles of foreign material or other irregularities are checked by rollingc) Slight stretching of the ring checked by doweld) All25. Clevis bolt are used fora) Tension load b) Tension & shear loadc) Shear load d) None26. Internal wrenching bolts are suitable for use ina) Shear load b) Tension & shear loadc) Tension d) None27. A cross inside triangle indicatesa) Close tolerance bolt b) Corrosion resistant steel boltc) Stainless steel bolt d) Screw28. A/C screw is generally manufactured with

a) Class-1 fit of thread b) Class-2 fit of threadc) Class-3 fit of thread d) Class-4 fit of thread29. Generally speaking, bolt grip length should bea) 1½ time the thicker material through which they extendb) Equal to thickness of material + one diameterc) Equal to thickness of material through which they extendd) Any length30. Stainless steel rivet heada) Raised double dash b) Raised dashc) Raised cross d) No marking on head31. A hole is corroded which cannot be removed, is repaired bya) Scrap out the partb) Helicoilc) Acres sleeved) Use special washer32. Tw=100; Te=? Extension=5, A=20 (Torque wrench)a) 150 in – lbs b) 125 in – lbsc) 175 in – lbs d) 200 in – lbs33. For shear jointa) Clevis pin b)Taper pin c) Roll pin d) Cotter pin34. Solid rivet of 1/8” diameter is replaced by (CAP)a) Two rivet of 1/16” diameterb) Three rivet of 1/16” diameterc) Four rivet of 1/16” diameterd) Cannot be replaced35. Colour code for o-ringsa) Red dot for hydraulic fluidb) Green dot for fuelc) Yellow dot for skydrol fluidd) d) None36. For safetying turnbuckles, locking wire is used ina) Single wrap b) Double wrapc) Double wrap spiral d) All are correct37. Dzus pastners consist of a stud, grommet and receptacle, stud length is measured ina) Tenth of an inch b) Sixteenth of an inchc) Hundredth of an inch d) Thousandth of an inch38. A grub screw is aa) Headless type set screwb) Cap screw with fine threadsc) Machine screw with flat countersunk headd) Cylindrical piece threaded at both ends and is plain in the middle39. Grip length of cherry lock rivet is measured in incrementsa) 1/8” b) 3/32” c) 1/16” d)1/32”40. Identifying marks on the head of Al-alloy rivet indicatea) Shank size b) Head treatment given by manufacturerc) Specific alloy and by manufacturer d) All are correct41. The solid shank rivet, which is used in interior of a/c, where maximum strength is needed –a) round head b) brazier headc) flat head d) as in c) & is AN-44242. The standard range for counter sunk head angle isa) 72˚ - 120˚ b) 78˚ - 112˚ c) 78˚ d) 100˚43. To repair or replacement of protuding head riveta) round head b) counter sunk head is neededc) universal head is used d) any rivet can be selected44. For riveting Mg alloy sheeta) 5056 rivet should be used. b) monel rivet should be usedc) mild steel should be used d) All of the above45. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet

a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel46. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received & need no further heat treatment.a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 110047. “Ice-Box” rivets area)2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) a) & c) are correct48. The specification for universal head rivet –a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 d) all49. The protective film of zinc chromate over rivet identified bya) its yellow colour b) pearl grayc) its white colour d) its silver gray colour50. Part No. – AN 470B 3 – 8 indicatesa) shank diameter is 3 ” b) rivet length is 8 ”16 32c) material is 5056 – Al alloy d) all of the above51. Mark the correct statement.a) Identification marking shall appear either on shank or head of rivet.b) The rivet length shall be taken in fraction of 32 of an inch.c) Group-A, Al-alloy can be used with Group-B Al-alloy keeping in view the dissimilar metal corrosion factor.d) Both a) & b) are correct.52. The material code for 2024 –T riveta) D b) AD c) DD d) B53. The absence of latter following the AN-standard number indicatea) material is Al-alloy b) material is steelc) material is mild steel d) any of the above54. The head marking „Raised triangle‟, indicate the rivet isa) 5056 b) 2219 c) 7075 d) Monel55. The head marking for 2024-T isa) raised dot b) raised double dashc) raised three dash d) recessed double dash56. The marking „recessed single dash‟ indicate the rivet isa) QQW – 423 b) QQS-633 c) 2117 d) QQ1-28157. The shank length used for making blind head in a „pull thru rivet‟ isa) ½” – 1” b) ¼” - ⅓” c) 3/64” – ¼”d) 3/64” – 1/8”58. Its proven fatigue strength make it the only blind rivet interchangeable structurally with solid rivet isa) wire draw cheeylock rivet b) dill lock rivetc) bulb cherrylock rivet d) deutsch rivet59. To joints requiring an excessive amount of „sheet take-up‟, you may selecta) pin rivet b) wire draw cherrylock rivetc) bulb cherry lock rivet d) all of the above60. Riv nut isa) hollow, blind rivet b) made of 6053-Al alloy & a)c) counter bored & thread inside d) all of the above61. In Part No. – 10 KB 106, KB indicatesa) close end & keyless b) close end & keyedc) open end & keyed d) open end & keyless62. Part No. – 10 - B -107 indicatesa) Riv nut having flat head b) Pin rivet having round headc) Riv nut having counter sunk head d) Deutsch rivet63. Pin rivet -a) not a blind typeb) have the same shear strength as bolt of equal diameter.c) as in b) & are about 40% weight of boltd) all of the above.64. Pin rivets are useda) in compression b) in tension

c) in shear d) all of the above & also carry bending load.65. The Part No. – NAS 177 – 14 – 17 indicatesa) flat head Jo-bolt b) flat head Avdelok fastenerc) flat head pin rivet d) counter sunk head, pin rivet66. The hardware pre-lubricated & must not be degreased before assembly is/are –a) Jo-bolt b) Avdelok Fastenerc) Both a) & b) are correct d) Huck mechanical lock rivet67. The AN-3 to AN-20 (hex head a/c bolt) isa) General purpose bolt b) Close tolerance boltc) Internal wrenching bolt d) Special purpose bolt68. Mark the correct statement.a) Steel bolt smaller than No.- 10-32 are not use in primary structure.b) The AN-3 & AN-73 series bolt are interchangeable for all practical purpose.c) b) is correct from the stand point of tension & shear strength.d) All are correct.69. Bolt can be identifieda) by material b) by method of securingc) a) & shape of head d) all of the above70. The head marking on bolt indicate –a) bolt materialb) name of manufacturerc) a), b) & whether bolt is a standard type or special purpose bolt.d) a) & b) are correct71. The marking for corrosion resistant steel bolt isa) raised dash b) asterisk c) single raised dash d) two raised dash72. For a bolt, part no. – AN3DD5A indicatesa) bolt is drilled for saftying b) material of bolt is 2017 Al-alloyc) diameter bolt is 5/16” d) length of bolt is 5/8”73. Eye bolt is useda) where internal tension load is applied.b) head is slotted to received common screw driver.c) used for external tension load.d) both b) & c) are correct.74. Mark the correct statement.a) where, there is not much clearance, stump type lock bolt is used.b) alloy steel lock bolt may be used to replace steel Hi-shear rivets.c) as in b) provided the diameter and head is similar.d) both a) & c) are correct.75. Bolt part no. – ALSF E 88 indicatesa) brazier head, stump type lock bolt b) flat head, stump type lock boltc) counter sunk, stump type lock bolt d) counter sunk, pull type lock bolt76. The specification AN 335 indicatesa) fine thread, light hex nut b) fine thread, plain hex nutc) coarse thread, check nut d) coarse thread, plain hex nut77. Castellated shear nut is useda) in tension application.b) in shear application only.c) as in a) & with drilled clevis bolt, taper pin etc.d) as in b) slotted for safety.78. Stainless steel self locking nuta) having locking shoulder & key.b) used in application where temperature exceed 250 ˚F.c) a) , b) & also called high temperature self locking nut.d) all are wrong.79. Material used for Tinnerman instrument mounting nut isa) Al-alloy b) Steel alloy c) Brass d) Monel80. Mark the correct statement.a) Elastic stop nut can be used many time.b) As in a) & when turn with fingers, replace it.

c) Every time the parts disassembled, replace the elastic stop nut.d) As in c) & used at place where temperature exceed 250˚F.

ANSWER:-1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B11. A 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. A16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D21. A 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C26. B 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. B31. C 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. C36. D 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. C41. D 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. A46. A 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. C51. A 52. C 53. C 54. B 55. B56. A 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. D61. B 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. D66. C 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C71. C 72. D 73. C 74. D 75. B76. D 77. D 78. C 79. C 80. B

DGCA PAPER II, (Feb Session 2013)

DGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices

(Feb Session 2013)

1 - EICAS stands for A - engine indicating and crew alerting system2 -kirchoffs current law is applicable to A - junctions network3 - the RMS value of a half rectified current is 10 amps. what is da value for full wave? A - 14.144 - MTCS when the current flowing thru two parallel conductors is in same and upward direction A - the field strength in b/w the conductors decrese and the conductors attract each oder5 - ATA chapter 27 A - flight controls6 - for removing damaged rivets the type of punch used is A - drive punch and tapered punch7 - to make ferrous metals vastly superior to to iron A - carbon is addded to approximatly 1%8 - the aluminium alloys are more susceptible to corrosion when percentage of ______ is used A - copper9 - when selecting a capacitor for a ckt which parameter has to be observed A - amount of voltage to wich it is subjected10 - MTCS regarding control cable A - cable linkage has some disadv as its tension has to be adjusted frequently11 - contents of general purpose solder are? A - tin lead antimony tin and lead tin lead silver12 - which type of h/t is used for aluminum A - ALL ( SHT PHT ANNEALING)13 - metal tubings are sized by A - OD measured fractionally in 1/16in14 - In NDT pulse echo method is used for detecting A - ALL ( weld flaws, surface cracks , internal flaws)15 - PMMC type instrumnts hav A - not much affected by stray magnetic field16 - wich type of frequency is used for point to point, line to point and audio broadcasting A - MF , HF , UHF , EHF17 - a step up transformer has a ratio of 1:2? what wld be the value of current? A - half

18 - additives are added to fuel to? A - prevent microbiol growth , detonation , to prevent freezing , both 1 and 319 - a current transforemer is A - step up20 - ASI Principle is ? A - pitot + static pr21 - when an aircraft is parked in a hangar A - the fuel tank shld be completly filled22 - type of hose that is compatible with phosphate ester base is A - butyl23 - corrosion in magnesium is removed by chemically treating it with A - 10% chromic acid plus 0.1 h2SO424 - flashes of lighting due to high static discharge is known as A - corona effect25 - MTCS regarding hardness testing A - brinel no is dia of impression rockwell testiin - lowewr the hardness no. softer the material rockwell testin - higher the hardness no. harder the material none of the above26 - in gas filled tubes the effect of deionisation is known as A - extinction27 - during wich stroke does the spark plug fire A - compression28 - what is precipitation h/t A - (2)29 - in an inductor the current A - lags the voltage by 90*30 - the included angle of acme threads are A - 29*31 servicing of oxygen systems A - never done during fueling32 - parts of an elementary generator are A - magnetic field and conductors33 - marshalling diagram A - left turn34 - to xtinguish class d fires A - dry powder35 - during tie down A - aircraft headed in direction of wind36 - position of signal man A - slightly ahead and in line wid a/c left wing tip and nose of the aircraft shld b on his left37 - the modulus of elsaticity is A - stress / strain within elastic limts38 - if triangle of diode is connected to negative wrt to bar den A - reverse biased40 - if 10 divisions of the verneer scale coincides with 9 divisions on the mainscale and the main scale is calibrated in cm. what is the LC A - 0.001cm , 0.001mm , 0.01cm41 - to convert a galvanometer to voltmeter A - connect a high resistance in series42 - MTCS regarding kevlar A - its tensile strength is 4 times more as compared to aluminum43 - spark test is done to identify which type of metal A - ferrous44 - MTCS regarding micrometer A - barell and anvil are fixed while spindle is movable45 - damaged rivets are removed by A - drive or tapered punches46 - wich is extra flexible cable A - 7x1947 - quick release fasteners are idntified by A factory trade name48 - rivnuts are A - hollow blind rivets49 -wich gear is used to transmit motion at parellel and non parallel direction A -helical gears50 - wich are high lift devices A - flaps , slats , boundry layer devices , all51 - what is used to control the aircraft around longitudinal axis a - ailerons52 - which has aerofoil shape A - wings stabilzers and prop blades53 - which flap increses wing camber and area A - fowler flap54 - how to decrese stress corosion A - by applyin compressive stress by sand blasting55 - muntz metal has A - 60% cu and 40% zinc56 - which metal shows non-magnet and reacts rapidly with nitric acid A - nickle steel57 - a knurl or groove on the barrel indicates A - left hand thread58 - damged internal thread can be repaired by A - acress sleeve, helicoils, replacement bushings , All59 - ESDS is dangerous above A - 100 volts60 - piezo elec crystals are made from A - quartz and freq depends on thickness61 - to provide a low reluctance path for magentic flux in a dc generator A - pole pieces and shoes are used to reduce the air gap62 - NDT methods used for composite structures A - coin tap test, laser holography , thermography , all63 - bonding during fuelin A - first bond aircraft then vehicle and both aircraft and vehicle shld be bonded together64 - MTCS regarding nicd batt A - electrolyt doesnt take part during discharge

65 - a fully serviced nicd batt , white diposits found on top of batt casing A - due to overcharge66 - band color on hose and piping equipment for 100ll fuel A - blue67 - a shorted capacitor when connected to a ohm meter will read A - ???68 - difference b/w shunt register as compared to series register in an operational amplifier A -69 - draw back of transistor when compared to vacuum tubes is A - they are heat dependant70 - power factor is A - true power/ aparent power and cos theeta71 - MTCS regarding themocouple A - heat is directly propotional to square of the current72 - wich capacitor has high capacity and long storage life A - tantalum73 - engine starter motor contains wht elements A - ??74 - elements required for corrosion A - electrodes and electrolyte75 - the charge on one electrode depends on A - the other electrode76 - wich is the least toxic xtinguisher A - 130177 - in oxyacetelyne welding its a good practice to turn off A - acetylene first then oxygen78 - tinnin is the process of A - the soldring bit should be tinned or coverd with solder bfore solderin79 - wich is an 8 bit register A - MDR80 - covert decimal 12 to excess 3 code A ??81 - diagram of or - not gate A - all82 - MTCS if all inputs are high then output is low A - positve or / negative and..... etc83 - during rigging of control surface no weight shld be added A - behind the hinge line84 - calculate the speed of gear A - 12085 - induction type measurin instrument A - all86 - thermocouple used in engines. what is the indication when at constant temp A ??87 - manifold pr gauge measures in A - mercury - hg88 - MTCS A - turbo jet is a combination of turbofan + turbo prop89 - collet jack A ??90 - towin of aircraft A - make sure brake is fully charged - if brake is faulty den person shld carry chokes incase of emrgency91 - MTCS A - little thrust , large volume of air92 - scratches or craks durin flight can lead to A - corrosion93 - color of o-rings used for hydrocarbons A – red

DGCA PAPER II, (October Session 2012)

DGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices

(October Session 2012)

Q1 Flap which increases wing area, camber & chord linea) Split flapb) Fowler flap*c) Zap flapd) Slotted flap

Q2. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable only toa) Closed loop in a networkb) Electronic circuitc) Electrical circuitd) Junction in a network*

Q3. Metal tubing is sized bya) Inside diameter measured by 1/8 inchb) Outside diameter measured by 1/32 inchc) Inside diameter measured by 1/32 inch

d) Outside diameter measured by 1/16 inch*

Q4. In UST the pulse echo system is used fora) Surface crackb) Subsurface Crackc) Weld flawsd) All*

Q5. The content of general purpose solder isa) Tin, lead, antimonyb) Tin & lead*c) Tin, lead, silverd) None

Q6. Color of 100LL Avgas hose stripe/band is painted witha) Redb) Blue*c) Yellowd) Grey

Q7. Color of O-ring for hydrocarbon fluid isa) Red *b) Bluec) Greend) Black

Q8. Large a/c have been jacked in opena) Headed into wind direction*b) Headed opposite to wind directionc) Headed at right angle to wind directiond) It will be placed inside the hanger only

Q9. Corrosion on magnesium is cleaned bya) Chromium 10% in distilled waterb) Sulphuric acid solution 0.1%c) 10% by weight of chromic acid + .1% of sulphuric acid *

Q10. What is the correct procedure to extinguish the flame of oxy acetylene flame?a) 1st close the oxygen & then the acetyleneb) Close both gas cylinders at the same timec) 1st close acetylene & then oxygen*d) All

Q11. EICAS isa) Engine indicating & crew alerting system *b) Engine indicating & crew announcing systemc) Electronic indicating & crew alerting systemd) Engine indicating & component alerting system

Q12. For removing damaged rivet which type of punch is useda) Prick punchb) Drive or Taper punch*a) Hollow punchb) Both (a) & (b)

Q13. For converting the galvanometer to the voltmeter connecta) High resistance in series with meter resistance*b) Low resistance in series with meter resistancec) High resistance in parallel with meter resistance

d) Low resistance in parallel with meter resistance

Q14. To make the ferrous vastly superiora) Carbon is added with iron by 1.25% to 1.5%b) Carbon is added approx 1%*c) Nickel & chromium added by 2.5 to 2.75%d) Copper added 0.5%

Q15. In an inductor circuit the currenta) Lags voltage by π/2*b) Leads voltage by π/2c) Lags voltage π/2 when current is less, but leads voltage π/2 when current is mored) Has no effect

Q16. The Al alloy is more susceptible to corrosion if small %age of______ is addeda) Mgb) Cu*c) Sid) Fe

Q17. R.MS value of half wave circuit current is 10 amps, what will its value for full wavea) 14.14 amps*b) 20 ampsc) 20/πd) 14.14/π

Q18. Electrostatic device service equipment’s can be destroyed by the min. voltage ofa) 50Vb) 100V*c) 3000Vd) 1000V*

Q19. What will happen when current flowing through two parallel conductors in upward & same directiona) The field strength b/w two conductors increasesb) The field strength b/w two conductors decreases & conductors attract towards each other*c) As in (a) & attracts each otherd) Will have no effect

Q20. ATA100 code 27 deals witha) Air conditionb) Autopilotc) Fire protectiond) Flight control*

Q21. For operating primary flight controls, the cable which i.e. extra flexible isa) 7×7b) 7×19*c) 19×7d) Only (a) is correct

Q22. In the turn buckle the end identified by a groove or knurl has which type of threada) Right hand threadb) Left hand thread*c) There are no thread, as it is push locked

Q23. While storing the aircraft in the hangera) The fuel tank should be kept empty

b) The fuel tank should be filled*c) The fuel tank should be filled to the half of its valued) The condition of filling oil will depend on the duration of storage

Q24. Depending on the grade it is suitable for use in temp. -65 to 300°F ,with phosphate ester, hydraulic fluid , ketonesa) Neopreneb) Butyl*c) Natural rubberd) Buna S

Q25. The riv-nut isa) Hollow blind rivet*b) Solid blind rivetc) Special solid rivet

Q26. The spark test is used for sorting out which type of metalsa) Non ferrousb) Ferrous metals *c) Both ferrous & non ferrousd) Nickel alloysQ27.The damaged threads are replaced by

a) The thread bushingb) The helical insertc) The Acres fastener sleevesd) All are correct*

Q28. Cables are havinga) High mechanical strength &high weightb) Cable linkage problem ,as its tension need to be adjusted frequently*c) It has low mechanical strengthd) All are correct

Q29. Scratches caused by careless handling and abrasion from grit or water striking a/c at high speeda) Provide starting for corrosion *b) Develop crack to the structurec) Filiform corrosiond) All are correct

Q30. Least count of vernier caliper having 10 division divided into 9 division of main scale in mm isa) 0.01 mmb) O.01 cmc) 0.10 cmd) 1.0 mm

Q31. Convert binary 12 excess-3 codea) 0101 1100b) 1000 1011c) 0100 0101*d) 0000 0011

Q32. Identify the gatea) OR & NOT gate*b) NOT & OR gatec) Bubbled AND gated) All

Q33. Regarding servicing of oxygen MTCSa) Oxygen should not be serviced while fuelling is in progress*b) While servicing with oxygen, must be carried inside the hangarc) MEDICAL OXYGEN must always be used for breathing in a/cd) ALL

Q34. What will be the speed of 3rd geara) 100rpmb) 120rpm*c) 50rpmd) 200rpm

Q35.identify the taxi signal (Fig. page no. 521)a) Left turn*b) Right turnc) Landingd) Start engine

Q36. Regarding thermocouple ammeter which one is true?a) It is based on Thomsan principalb) Pointer is attached to the hot junction of thermocouplec) Heat generated is proportional to square of current*d) All

Q37. For the statement “Output is low when all inputs are high” gates area) Positive OR/ Negative ANDb) Positive AND/ Negative ORc) Positive OR/ Negative NANDd) Positive NAND/ Negative NOR*

Q38. Engine starting motor draws high current in initial & at normal Rpm current is reduced, which fuse is useda) Slow Blow fuse*b) Glass cartridge fusec) Fd) Fuse that melts immediately

Q39. Which of the true about induction instrumenta) Large error in reading alternating current has a different frequency from calibration frequencyb) Power consumption is fairly highc) Variation in temperature may cause large errord) ALL

Q40. Capacitor is used in particular circuit is determined bya) Size of capacitorb) Type of capacitorc) Amount of Voltage it can withstand*d) Current Rating

Q41. An operational amplifier shunt regulator differ from the series regulator in the sense that its control element is connected ina) Series with line register*b) Parallel with line registerc) Parallel with load registerd) Parallel with input voltage

Q42. Magnetic circuit of DC gen. consists of

a) Yoke, pole core, armature core, air gap b/w pole & armature core*b) Pole core, pole coil, brushes and air gapc) Pole core , armature winding, commutator and air gap

Q43. Which composite material has problem of corrosiona) Carbon /graphite*b) Aramidc) Borond) Glass fibre

Q44. Which type of heat treatment is used for aluminium alloya) SHTb) PHTc) Annealingd) All*

Q45. The gear that transmits motion in the shaft that are parallel to each other & that are not parallel to each othera) Spur gearb) Worm gearc) Helical gear*d) Bevel gear

Q46. Internal Defects in the composites are checked bya) Coin tap testb) USTc) Laser holographyd) All*

Q47. The magnetic test of distinguish b/w annealed austenite indicating the non-magnetic & rapid action & greenish blue indication with nitric acid isa) Pure nickelb) Nickel steel*c) Moneld) 18-8 steel

Q48. The permanent magnet type instrument will havea) High power consumptionb) Low torque/weight ratio*c) Not much affected by stray magnetic fieldd) Large hysteresis loss

Q49. Piezoelectric effecta) Compression quartz And produce potential differenceb) As in (a), but frequency depends on thickness*

Q50. Spark plug fires in which stroke of piston enginea) Induction strokeb) Compression stroke*c) Power stroked) Exhaust stroke

Q51. In case of class-D fire, extinguisher used isa) Waterb) Carbon dioxidec) Foamd) Dry powder*

Q52. Which extinguisher is having least toxic rating

a) Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301)*b) Methylebromide (Halon 1001)c) Chlorobromomethane (Halon 1011)d) Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211)

Q53. Which drawing locate the component with respect to each other within systema) Schematic drawing*b) Installation drawingc) Diagramd) Drawing

Q54. Quick release fasteners are usually identified bya) ANb) NASc) MSd) Factory Trade name*

Q55. The anode to cathode potential of a gas filled tube at which gas deionises & stops conduction is called ______ potentiala) Extinction*b) Strikingc) Ionisingd) All

Q56. In a diode if, MTCSa) Arrowhead is positive with respect to bar, it is in reverse biasedb) Arrowhead is negative with respect to bar, it is in reverse biased*c) bar is negative with respect to arrowhead, it is in reverse biasedd) only (a) is correct

Q57. Capacitor which is used for high frequency application in very small capacitance value in small sizea) Chip Capacitorb) Tantalum Capacitorc) Aluminium capacitord) Ceramic capacitor*

Q58. When Pd is increased then a point is reached when a faint luminous spark of bluish color appears along the length of conductor, this effect is known asa) Spark dischargeb) Corona discharge*c) Voltage discharged) All

Q59. MTCS, Precipitation heat treatment is given toa) Al alloys heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of time*a) Al alloys heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of time at room temperatureb) Steels heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of timee) Ferrous & Iron heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of time

Q60. MTCS,a) Brinell hardness number indicates the dia. Of impressionb) Lesser the Rockwell no., softer the materialc) Greater the Rockwell no., softer the material

Q61. In Ni-Cd battery electrolyte used isa) KOHb) Dil. H2SO4c) KOH, but effectedd) KOH , but unaffected *

Q62. In the battery when excessive white crystals deposited on the cell indicatesa) Due to the battery overcharged*b) Due to battery unchargedc) State of charged) Does not effected by rate of charge

Q63. Current transformer isa) Step up transformer*b) Step down transformerc) It has only one secondary windingd) Connected in parallel

Q64. They spread out the flux in the air gap & also being of larger cross section reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path & support the exciting coilsa) Pole shoes*b) Armature corec) Armature core & pole coilsd) Brushes & bearings

Q65. In Step up transformer winding ratio is 1:2, and then output will bea) Current is doubledb) Current is half*c) Will have no effectd) Voltage will be half

Q66. Power factor defined asa) Effective/apparent powerb) Cosine angle of phase differencec) Both (a) & (b)*d) Apparent/effective & sine angle of phase difference

Q67. Which frequency is used in medium & long distance point to point transmission?a) MFb) HF*c) VHFd) UHF

Q68. Ventral fin are used fora) Aids in longitudinal stabilityb) Aids in lateral stabilityc) Aids in directional stability*d) Any of the above

Q69. 8 bit register that stores the memory o/p when a memory read operation is performeda) MARb) MDR*a) IRb) PC

Q70. Why additives are added in AVGASa) To reduce microbial growth in tankb) To increase the freeze point of fuel

c) To reduce detonationd) Both (a) & (b)*

Q71. Aerofoil shape found ina) Wing, stabilizer, propeller,etc.*b) Wing, fuselage, elevator, aileronc) Nose of fuselage, wing tip, stabilizers etc.d) All are correct

Q72. Muntz metal composed ofa) Brass containing 60% cu &40% zn*b) Bronze containing 60% cu& 40% tinc) Brass containing 60% zn & 40% cud) It is the cu alloy containing mg, ni, al etc.

Q73. Modulus of elasticity can be defined asa) Stress/ strain within yield pointb) Stress/strain within elastic limit*c) Stress/strain above elastic limitd) Strain/stress within yield point

Q74.which of the following allows to pass the current, when the circuit is reverse biased, by breakdowna) Zener diode*b) Pnp transistorc) Trioded) All are correct

Q75. To change a tyre of a wheel which jack is used?a) single wheel jack*b) tripod jackc) quaderal jackd) any of the above

Q76. In repair or control surfaces, weight should not be addeda) ahead of hinge lineb) surface will be painted to match with surroundingc) behind hinge line*d) mass should be added splice used for repair one size larger

Q77. Kevlar can be identified asa) white colourb) strength is 4 times of al alloy*c) both are correct

Q78. Basic generator consists ofa) Electric field and conductorb) magnetic field and conductor*c) magnetic field and inductor

Q79. To reduce the stress corrosion from the sheeta) increase tensile strengthb) relieving compressive stress by HTMTc) increase compressive stress by shot blasting*

Q80. Angle of acme threada) 90°b) 60°c) 45°

d) 29°*

Q81. Working principle or air speed indicatora) Differential pressure of static probesb) Difference in pressures around the probec) Differential pressure of static and pitot probe*d) Pressure difference b/w static and atmospheric Pressure

Q82.computer which receives data & do not transfer dataa) MAR & IR only*b) ALU & PCc) IR & ALU

Q83. Manifold pressure gage measuresa) Absolute pressure in inches of mercury*b) Relative pressure in inches of mercuryc) Absolute pressure in lb/ft sq.

Q84. MTCS regarding “meggar”a) It measures insulation in range of milliohmsb) Two coils are mounted at right angle to each other on a common axis free to rotate in magnetic field*c) Two coils are mounted linear to each other on a common axis free to rotate in magnetic fieldd) none

Q85. MTCSa) propeller produces small acceleration to large amount of air*b) turbojet produces small acceleration to large amount of airc) turbojet is the comprises b/w turbofan and turbopropd) all are correct

Q86. Movable Parts of micrometre area) Anvil and barrel are fixed and thimble is moving*b) Anvil is moving and thimble is fixedc) Spindle and anvil are fixedd) Barrel and thimble are moveable

Q87. Which drawing is used where exact location of part & more view are requireda) assembly drawingb) orthographic drawing*c) pictorial drawingd) installation drawing

Q88. Transistor is used over vaccum tube yet having drawbacksa) transistor have low power dissipationb) transistor have low input impedancec) Transistor is dependent on TEMP. variationd) all are correct*

Q89. What is tinning?a) The bit should be heated to a temp. sufficient to melt the solderb) The tip of the bit should be filed to remove dirt and rough edgesc) The bit should be coated with flux and rubbed against a stick of solder until a thin film of solder adheres to itd) All are correct*

Q90. When fuelling is done grounding should bea) First ground a/c then truck

b) Ground a/c & truck both togetherc) As in (a) & nozzle is bonded to truckd) Both (a) & (b)*Q91. The standard position of the taxi signalmen is(a) Slightly ahead of & in line with the a/c left wing tip(b) As the signalmen faces the a/c , the nose of the a/c is on his left(c) Slightly ahead of & in line with the a/c right wing tip(d) Both (a) & (b)*Q92. Operation of a/c with faulty brakes, must be towed(a) The a/c break system should be charged before each towing operation(b) The tow tractor must have the brakes in serviceable condition(c) In case of emergency ,One person stands with the chokes to apply(d) Both (a)& (b)*Q93. Which affect the longitudinal control?(a) Aileron(b) Elevator*(c) Tail plane(d) RudderQ94. In case of short circuit of capacitor(a) Ohm meter will read infinity(b) Needle of ohm meter can lie anywhere (Needle of ohm meter can move anywhere)(c) It will read zero then deflect(d) Reads zero & stays thereQ95. For starting an engine Starter generator requires(a) High resistance & short time(b) Low resistance & short time(c) Low resistance & more time(d) High resistance & more timeQ96. Conditions for corrosion to occura) Presence of positive electrode (Anode)b) Presence of Dissimilar metal (Cathode)c) Presence of electrolyted) Contact b/w anode & cathode(1) (a) & (b)(2) (a), (b) & (c) only*(3) (a), (b), (c) & (d)(4) NoneQ97. Regarding thermocouple ------ Reference value & actual valueQ98. High lifting device includesa) Slotb) Flapc) Boundary layer control deviced) All are correct*

Q99. MTCSa) Collet should be kept within two threads of the lift tube cylinder during raisingb) Collet should be kept more than two threads while raisingc) Screw down firmly to the cylinder after jacking is completed to prevent settlingd) Both( a) & (c)*Q100. Potential difference of an electrode in a cell is measured in the strength of one electrode in respect with(a) Other electrode*(b) Cu electrode(c) NI electrode(d) Zn electrode

DCGA. PAPER 2 [JUN SESSION 2012]

PAPER 2 [JUN 2012]1. General purpose solder area.Tin, lead and copperb.Tin, lead,copper and Bismuthc.Tin and leadd.Tin,lead and bismuth

2. Close 3 fit isa.Loose fitb.Free fitc.medium fitd.close fit

3. EICAS strands fora.Engine indicating and crew altering systemb.Engine indicating and aunciating systemc.Electronic instrument and crew aunciatingd.Electronic instrument and centralize audio system

4. Illustrate part catalog usea.detail drawingb.exploded view drawingc.pictorial drawingd.isometric drawing

5. A metal which can be hammered,rolled or pressed into various shapes without cracking,breaking or leaving some other detrimental effecta.ductilityb.malleabilityc.elasticityd.toughne

6. Product is vastly superior to iron alonea.when carbon added to iron in approx.12.5%b. when carbon added to iron in approx.5%c. when carbon added to iron in approx.1%d. when carbon added to iron in approx.10%

7. Corrosion resistance 18-8 steel containa.18%nickel and 8%chromiumb.18%vandium and 8%chromiumc.18%chromium and 8%nickeld.8%chromium and 18%molybdenum

8. Which type of aluminum used in aircraft construction for stringer,bulkheads,skin,rivets and extruded sectiona.cast aluminumb.wrought aluminumc.Sand cast aluminumd.both (a) & (b)

9. Convert octal code 3574 to binarya. 011 101 111 100b. 100 111 101 011

c. 111 101 011 111

10. Corrosion along grain boundaries is calleda. Intergranular corrosionb. Crevice corrosionc. Galvanic corrosiond. stress corrosion

11.Metal tubings are sized bya. Inside diameter in increment of 1/16 inchb. Inside diameter in increment of 1/32 inchc. Outside diameter in increment of 1/16 inchd. Outside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch

12. Yellow color on tubing indicatea. Hydraulicb. Lubricationc. Coolant

13.Kirchhoffis current law applicable toa.closed loop cktb.single loop cktc.junction ckt

14. .When selscting capacitor for ckt parameter should be considera.sizeb.shapec.maximum voltage can be applied

15 .In 3Φ star connectiona. Voltage of line is equal to voltage of phaseb. Line current = √3 phase currentc. Line current = phase current

16.Two input bubbled AND gate isa. OR gateb. AND gatec. NAND gated. NOR gate

17.Material use for making wrencha.chrome-nickel steelb.molybdenum steelc.chrome vanadium steeld.chromium steel

18.The half wave rectifier current is 10A then what is full wave rectifier currenta.14.14Ab.20Ac.20/πAd.40/Πa

19.Micrometer calibration checked bya.metal gaugeb.dial test indicatorc.surface gauge

20..Five layer semiconductor device whose forward and reverse characteristics are

identical to the forward characteristics of the SCRa.variacb.triacc.SCRd.UJT

21..Amplification of single stage CE depends ona.A.C resistanceb.Emitter resistancec.load resistance.

22. In four stroke engine spark plug fires ina. 4 revolutions of crank shaftb. 2 revolutions of crank shaftc. ½ revolutions of crank shaftd. 360 degree revolution of crank shaft

23.Frequencies used in ultrasonic are in the frequency range ofa. 100 KHz to 5 MHzb. 200 KHz to 5 MHzc. 500 KHz to 10 MHzd. 10MHZ to 1000 MHZ

23. Electro static is dangerous if abovea. 1000 Vb. 100 Vc. 200 Vd. 500 V

24. 240 on capacitor indicatesa. 240 microfb. 240 picofc. 240000 f

25. Demultiplexer isa. Output is same as multiplexerb. Output is opposite of multiplexerc. As in (B) ccu is used

26. cable of medium flexibility and is used for trim tab controls, engine controls, and indicator controls isa. 7 X 7b. 7 X 19c. Cable sizes ranges from 1/16 to 3/8

27. Convert C5F2 to binarya. 1100 0101 1111 0010b. 0010 1111 0101 1100c. 0010 1001 0111 1100

28. Data transfer in computer is bya. Series busb. Parallel busc. Data busd. ARINC 429 bus

29. 33xx indicates in wrought aluminum indicatesa. Copperb. Manganese

c. Magnesiumd. Silicon

30. Soft brazing temperature isa. 200˚c to 400˚cb. 400˚c to 600˚cc. 600˚c to 850˚c

31. Files used for filing internal angles, clearing out corners, and filing taps and cuttersa. Triangularb. Triangular and three squarec. Knifed.

32. Leveling of aircraft is carried out bya. Placing spirit level at the pilot seatb. Placing spirit level at…..c. Placing a plumb bob……..d.

33. If rf and af is present, af is desired it can be filtered usinga. LPFb. HPFc. Either 1 or 2d. Π filter

34. Highest tensile strength is of which compositea. Fiberglassb. Aramidc. Carbon/graphited. Boron

35. If the peak value is 100 volts then at an angle of 30˚ what is the instantaneous valuea. 50 Vb. 100 Vc. 150 Vd. 200 V

36. In a DC generator the bearings are cooled bya. By ring oilersb. By ring oilers and a separate line from oil reservoir supplies oilc.

37. Magnesium sheets are riveteda. 5056b. 2024c. 2117

38. A dimple in rivet head marking indicatesa. 1100b. 2117c. 2014d. 2024

39. Aluminium alloy of 2” thickness can be welded bya. Oxy acetyleneb. Electric arcc. Inert gasd. All

40. Lift producing device which has no mechanical propulsiona. Aerodyneb. Gliderc. Aeroship

41. Airspeed of aircraft 100 mph from A to B .and wind velocity from A to B is 20 mphSpeed of aircraft in ground isa. 100b. 120c. 20d. 80

42. Colour of hydraulic pipelinesa. Blue-yellowb. Red-yellowc. Blued. Red

43. Temperature at stratospherea. -57 C

44. Piezo quartz crystal producesa. Piezo electric effectb. As in (A) frequency depends upon thickness

45. Bolt used in shear type loada. Clevis boltb. Jo boltc. Eye bolt

46. Turnbucklesa. Made of brass and has right hand thread on a one side and left hand thread on other side

47. Occurance of events in piston enginea. Intake ,compression,ignition, power,exhaust

48. In spur geara. Pitch dia and diametrical pitch= no. of teethb. Pitch dia = diametrical pitchc. Addendum *pitch circle =no of teeth

49. Clippera. Uses a diode and resistorb. As in (A) dc supply is required to select the level

50. Radiography depends upona. Thicknessb. Density and sizec. Both

51. Why MOSFET has high input resistancea. Very less leakage currentb. Negative source and gatec. Because of depletion layerd. No channel

52. 8085 microprocessor the operand

a. Direct addressing

53. Gear rack meshed with geara. Rotatary motion to reciprocating motion

54. Lead acid batt compartment neutralizing agenta. Bicarbonate sodab. Boric acidc. Vinegard. All

55. Wattmeter error occursa. Connection differentb. Capacitance in voltage coilc. Both a and bd. Both are in correct

56. AN470-H-4-4 rivet . drill used isa. 10b. 20c. 30d. 40

57. Galvanometer to voltmetera. Low resistance in seriesb. High resistance in parallel

58. In pure inductive circuita. Current lags behind the voltage by pi/2

59. Which flap when extended both area and cambera. Plain flapb. Split flapc. Fowler flapd. Leading edge flap

60. While drilling MTCSa. Drill should be shrap and groundedb. point should be marked with center punchc. Drill jig prevent errord. all

61. Heat treatment for Mga. Solution heat treatedb. Precipitation heat treatmentc. Case hardening

62. Hybrid in composite meansa. Two or more different layer of reinforcing material

63. Identical insulated wire coils are hung from air so that they face each other and AC current is supplieda. Attractb. Repelc. Rotate in clockwised. Rotate in anticlockwise

64. While removing a control surfacea. Ensure no weight should be added ahead of hinge

b. Ensure no weight should be added behind the hinge

65. Diagram –extension bar

66. Diagram- NAS close tolerance bolt

67. Diagram – flute in drill

68. Diagram –one lug anchor nut

69. Diagram circuit breaker

70. Diagram bearinga.

71. If a rudder pedal is pushed to righta. Aircraft moves rightb. Rudder mover leftc. Aircraft rolls

72. The V-I characteristicsa. Diodeb. Transistorc. Varistor

73. Aluminium dope is used in aircrafta. Used to protect against UV ray’s from sunlightb. Good finish

74. Lead acid batt the temp increasea. Resistance increaseb. Capacitance increase

75. Ammeter used fora. Connect across battb. Connect across the generatorc. Show the charge and discharge batt

76. In SAE numbering system the 1st two digits indicatesa. Type of steelb. Major alloying elementc. Percentage of carbon

77. In transformer the magnetic flux is retained in primary core at no load fora. Copper lossb. Iron lossc. Retentivity

78. Which part is non movable in micrometera. Barrel and anvil are non moveable and thimble is movable

79. Two wire are parallel to each other and current given in same directiona. Field strength reduces and attract each other

80. The magnetic ckt in DC generator consist ofa. Magnetic filed and conductorb. Magnetic field and inductorc. Electrostatic field and conductor

81. Permanent magnet type used in instrumentsa. Less offered by stray currentb. Low torque/weight ratio

82. DC generator consist ofa. Yoke,pole core,air gapb. Pole core,armature winding,airgap,commutator

83. In identifying metals .metal shows non magnetic and shows rapid action,greenish bluea. Carbonb. Pure nickelc. Moneld. Nickel

84. Which of the following parts in basic computer ,receives data and do not do transfera. MAR and IRb. ALU and IRc. Programming counter and ALU

85. SCRa. Two junctionb. Three junctionc. Two junction are forward biased and two junction reverse biased

86. A well riveted joint should opposea. Shearb. Torsionc. Compression

87. Air spray gun sprayed a banana shape because ofa. High atomizedb. Low atomizedc. Full pressure and tip clogged

88. Mark correct statement regarding control cablea. Cable linkage has the disadvantage that tension must be adjusted frequently due to stretching and temperature changes.b. Low mechanical efficiencyc. High strength and weight

89. Operational amplifier

90. Find resistance and current in the ckt(could not show diagram)a. 12ohm and 5 ampere

91. In the circuit shown in the figure, calculate the value of value of unknown resistor R when the current in branch OC is zero.(DIAGRAM)a. 6 V

92. If the input of half wave rectifier is 240 V and transformer has a step down ratio of 8:1, what is the output peak value?a. 42.2 Vb. 30 V

93. Find resistance………a. 0.667 ohmb. 0.0667 ohm

c. 0.00667 ohmd. 0.000667 ohm

DGCA PAPER II (Feb Session 2012)DGCA PAPER II

Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(Feb Session 2012)

1. fires in flammable petroleum products or other flammable or combustible liquids, greases, solvents, paints, etc is classified asa. class A fireb. class B firec. class C fire

2. Heat treatment of aluminum consists ofa. Solution heat treatmentb. Precipitation Heat Treatmentc. Annealingd. All of the above

3. If distance of cg from datum is 160” and of leading edge of MAC is 140” and length of MAC is 100”. Find MAC %a. 20%b. 50%c. 75%

4. If the input of half wave rectifier is 240 V and transformer has a step down ratio of 8:1, what is the output rms value?a. 42.2 Vb. 30V

5. Demultiplexer isa. Output is same as multiplexerb. Output is opposite of multiplexerc. As in b CCU regulates in input and output

6. Which of them is a 5 layer devicea. Diacb. Triac

7. Convert octal code 3574 to binarya. 011 101 111 100b. 100 111 101 011c. 111 101 011 111

8. A metal which can be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking, breaking, or leaving some other detrimental effect, is said to bea. Malleableb. Ductility

9. MTCS regarding “Austenite” isa. The name given to steel when it is heated above the critical range, consists of a solid solution of cementite in gamma iron.

10. Data transfer in a/C is bya. Series busb. Parallel busc. Data busd. ARINC 429 bus

11. Speed of induction motor is increased whena. Number of poles is increasedb. Number of poles is reducedc.d. All of the above

12. MTCSa. turboprop engine requires lengthy runway than piston engine of same powerb. turbojet has more weight than piston engine of same powerc. turbofan required short runway as compare to turbojetd. all of the above

13. Yellow color stands fora. Hydraulicb. Lubricationc. Coolant

14. Illustrated parts catalog shows which drawinga. Orthographicb. Exploded view diagramc.

15. Pulse echo method can detect which defectsa. Welds flawb. Surface crackc. Subsurface defectd. All of the above16. Corrosion along grain boundaries is calleda. Intergranular corrosionb. Crevice corrosionc. Galvanic corrosion17. Aluminum is more susceptible to corrosion when substantial percentage of __________ is presenta. Magnesiumb. Copperc. Manganesed. Chromium18. We can get vastly superior product than iron If carbon is added to iron, in percentages ranging up toa. Approximately 0.5 percent.b. Approximately 1 percent.c. If Nickel 3.50%, chromium 1.55% is present19. Which resistor has the smallest possible sizea. Wire wound resistorb. Carbon composition resistorc. Surface mount resister20. While selecting a capacitor check fora. Voltageb. Sizec. typed. How much voltage it can withstand21. Metal tubings are sized bya. Inside diameter in increment of 1/16 inchb. Inside diameter in increment of 1/32 inchc. Outside diameter in increment of 1/16 inchd. Outside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch

22. Stringers, bulkhead, skin, rivet and extruded section are made froma. Cast aluminum alloyb. Wrought aluminum alloyc. Pure aluminum23. Two input bubbled AND gate isa. OR gateb. AND gatec. NAND gated. NOR gate24. Slots provided on the armature are not parallel but are staggered at an angle to providea. Safetyb. Reduce the humming noisec. Stability.d. …..25. In 18-8 steel 18% is composed ofa. Nickelb. chromiumc. ……..d. ……..26. Parco- lubrizing is a chemical treatment applicable toa. Aluminum and magnesium partsb. Iron and steel partsc. ………..27. Damaged rivets can be removed bya. Drive punchb. Prick punchc. Hollow punchd. Both a and b28. Value of induced emf depends upona. Number of wires moving through magnetic fieldb. Strength of magnetic fieldc. Speed of rotationd. All of the above29. If the peak value is 100 volts then at an angle of 30˚ what is the instantaneous valuea. 50 Vb. 100 Vc. 150 Vd. 200 V30 Wrenches are made ofa) Carbon steel b) Tungsten c) Chrome vanadium steel31 The type of torque wrench which has the ability to preset the torquea) Deflecting beam b) rigid frame c) micrometer setting type32 Fire extinguisher periodic checklist includea) remove all external dirt and dustb) check for proper weightc) no nozzle obstructiond) all of the above33 The drag which is contributed by the lifta) induced dragb) parasite dragc) profile drag34 In straight and level flighta) lift equals drag and drag is the resistance of the air to objects moving through itb) thrust equals weight and thrust is derived from jet propulsion or from a propeller and engine combinationc) lift equals weight but thrust equals dragd) all are correct35 Variable delivery pump in hydraulic system36 devices which make it possible to obtain more than one voltage from a single power sourcea) Current dividerb) Potential divider

c) Resistance dividerd) All are correct37 The property of a coil to oppose any change in the current flowing through it calleda) Inductanceb) Capacitancec) Resistanced) All of the above38 Maximum allowable weight without fuel1. Pay load2. Zero fuel weight39 medium threads isa) Class 1 b) class 2 c) class 340 Tied down of large a/ca) Cable b) rope c) chain d) any of the above41 aluminum alloy head markinga) 2 raised dash b ) single raised dash c) astric mark42 which bolt is used only in tension never in tensiona) Clevis b) eye bolt43 A thread running length of the fabrica) Warp b)weft44 Cable MTCSa) Frequent adjustment of the cable tensionb) Low mechanical efficiencyc) High strong and high weightd) all45 what is an alternatora) Ac current generator b) dc generator c)ac motor46 In large a/c dc supply comes froma) battery onlyb) b) battery &TRUc) c) battery and generator47 CRT COLOUR1. Red, green, blue2. Yellow, red ,green48 EICAS1. Engine indicating and crew alerting system49 RMS value in half wave is 10 amp, what will be the rms value if it is full wave rectified1. 14.14 amp2. 20/p amp3. 40/p amp50 Zone numbers on aircraft blue prints are used to1. Locate parts, sections and views on large drawing2. Indicate different section of aircraft3. Locate parts in aircraft51 Which type crack can be detected by MpI using either circular or longitudinal method?1. 4502. Longitudinal3. Transever52 What Al-alloy designation indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment1. 3003-F2. 5052-H363. 6061-053 What tasks are completed prior to weighing an a/c to determine its empty wt?1. Remove all items except those on a/c equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluid2. Remove all items on a/c equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid lot3. Remove all items except those on a/c equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir54 Zero fuel wt. isa) Dry wt. plus the wt. of full crew, passengers and cargo basic operating wt. without crew, fuel and cargob) Maximum permissible wt. of a loaded a/c ( passengers, crew and cargo) without fuel55 The core material of alclad 2024 T4 is

a) Heat treated Al. alloy internally and the surface material is commercially pure Al.b) Commercially pure Al. and the surface material is head treated Al. alloyStain hardened Al. alloy and the surface is pure Al56 Which number represents the vernier scale uraduation of a m/m1. .000012. .0013. .000157 Which too is generally used to calibrate a m.m or check its accuracy1. Gauge block2. DTI3. Machinist scale58 Kirchof current law applicable only for1. Closed loop 2.Junction network 3. Open ckt59 Fretting corrosion is mostly likely to occur1. When two surfaces fit tightly together but can move relative to one another2. When two distance metals are in contact3. When two surfaces fit loosely together but can move relative to one another60 Spilled mercury on aluminium1. Urgently increases susceptibility to hydrogen imbrutement2. May cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in proposed contact3. Causes rapid end severe corrosion that is very difficult to control d) all61 Direction of single phase motor can be reversed by1. Using reversible switch2. Changing the connection of both winding3. Changing the connection of stating winding62 Flux is used for1. Reduce oxidation2. Remove the oxides4. All63 O ring color code indicates1. Size2. Shape3. Vapour and fluid compatibilityQ64. Which cable has high resistance to fatigue?1. Galvanized2. Stainless steel3. Carbon steel65 Which brazing method is used for precious by localized parts1. Induction2. Torch brazing3) Resistance brazing4. Furnace brazing66 When all others parameters are remains unchanged1. Less the aspect ratio, more the induce drag2. More the aspect ratio less the induce drag3. Higher the angle of attack, higher the induce drag4. Higher the angle of attack, less the induce drag67 In orthographic projection1. Eight veiws are common2. Two vines are common3. One view, two view and three views are common68 the main purpose of using core in transformers to1. Reduce reactance2. Reduce copper loss3. decrease the reluctance of common magmetic circuit4. Reduce iron loss69 Tempering is used for1. Reduce hardness and ductility2. 2. Increases hardness and ductility 3.3. Reduces hardness and brittleness

70 Point in atmosphere at which temp remain content1. Stratosphere2. Tropopause3. Troposphere4. Ionosphere71 Convert 127 octal to binary forma) (1111111)272 8085 microprocessora) Direct register73 8085 microprocessor74 materials such as magnesium and eureka when temperature increases its resistencea) Its resistance increases linearly with temperatureb) Its resistance decreases with temperaturec) Increasesd) Fairly constant over considerable range of temperature75) In star connectionIL= √3IP b) VL =VP c) IL=IP D)….76) General purpose soldersa)Tin, lead and antimony b) Tine ,lead and silver77 During refueling a/ca) Place chokesb) Keep the chock little forwardc) Keep the chocke on main landing geard) Never keep chocke and parking break should be on78 standard atmospheric conditionsa)b) 29.92 mm of inches of HG at 15degree celc) 52.8 mm of inches of HG at 15 degree celd) 14.7 psi at zero degree at O degree cel79 Regarding resonance of series ac ckta) Xl is less than XCb) Xc is greater than XLc) Xl=XCD)all of the above80) Semiconductor is used as1 Rectifier2 Clipper circuit3 Clamper4 All of the above81) Aluminum alloy is used vastly in a/c due toa) High strength to weight ratiob) Ease of fabricationc) Non magnetic and an excellent conductord) AOTA82bolt with asterisk sign on its heada)standard steel bolt83)ATA chapter -51a)structure85 arinc 429 sends data inA) BCDb) Binaryc) Any one of the language above86 which is not associated with discharge of LA batteryA) S.g increasesb) Voltage decreasesc) Both87) What happen when LA battery temp increases?88) Mark the wrong statement regarding parallel resistor cktA) Different resistor has their individual voltage drop

B) Different resistor has their individual current dropc) Power is additive89 when current flown b/w two conductor in same directiona) Field strength decreases and it attract each other90when one wheel is jacked nose of a/ca) Should face into windb) Opposite to windc) Any direction91) MCTS regarding computer memory92) Slip speed

93) When the a/c towed in uneven surface where should the tow bar be connected

DGCA PAPER - II IMPORTANT QUESTIONS FOR JUNE 2013

DGCA PAPER - II IMPORTANT QUESTIONS FOR JUNE 2013

1. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline upto height of _____________ above water line(a) 1 Feet (b) 2 Feet(c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter

2. Mark the correct statementsa)Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removalb)Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical methodc)Trichloroethylene is used for removal of greased)All of the above

3. Evidence of surface corrosion and extent of pitting should be tested by(a) Hardness testing (b) Impact testing(c) Probing with a fine needle (d) None of these

4. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless formed ________________ due to high temperature(a) Crevice corrosion (b) Electrolytic corrosion(c) Inter-granular corrosion (d) Stress corrosion

5. Which type of corrosion is occurred in mounting bolts of engine and wings ?(a) Inter-granular corrosion (b) Stress corrosion(c) Concentrating cell corrosion (d) Fettling corrosion 

6. Heated section checked with magnet for corrosion detection, basically that indicate their relative(a) Conductivity of part (b) Permeability of part(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 

7. Which is most suitable condition for storage of Aircraft part?(a) Less than 60% humidity (b) Equal to 60% humidity(c) More than 60% humidity (d) None of these

8. Paint stripper is removed with(a) Steel wool (b) Emery cloth(c) Aluminium wool (d) Non-metallic material

9. Which type of stripper is used on plastic or windows parts?(a) Water-miscible paint remover (b) Solvent-miscible paint remover (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

10. Anodic film can be removed by a solution ofa) 10% Sulphuric acid + 4% Potassium fluorideb) 20% Sulphuric acid + 10% Potassium fluoridec) 20% Sulphuric acid + 20% Potassium fluorided) All of the above 

11. Chromate film treatment is carried on __________ material(a) Al-alloy (b) Mg-alloy(c) Steel-Alloy (d) Titanium

12. Cadmium plating can be removed by(a) Mechanical cleaning (b) Chemical cleaning (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these 

13. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steela) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solutionb) Phosphoric acid can also be used c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surfaced) All of the above 

14. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of Al-alloysa) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemicallyc) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed mechanicallyd) All of the above

15. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up action of chromate bearing conversion coating treatment?(a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover (b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover(c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water(d) Nitric acid + water

Which acid is used for cleaning of Mg-alloy?(a) Chromic acid (b) Phosphoric acid(c) Nitric acid (d) Sulphuric acid

16. Steel and Non-clad Al-alloy can be cleaned by(a) Wet glass paper (b) Dry emery paper(c) Dry sand paper (d) As in (a) & water acts as lubricants 

17. Which type of scraper is used for corrosion removal on casting or forging parts?(a) Steel carbide tipped (b) Plastic copped tip scraper(c) Abrasive tipped cap scraper (d) None of these

18. Mark the correct statement regarding battery componenta)Lead-acid battery compartment neutralized by bi-carbonate of sodab) Ni-Cd battery compartment neutralized by acetic acidc) The sump vent jar containing moist absorbent pad with neutralizing agentd) All of these

19. Human wastes corrode the lavatory area, because it is ________ in nature(a) Acidic (b) Caustic (c) Neutralizing agent (d) None of these

20. Grip length of the bolt is(a) Total length of the bolt (b) Plain sank portion of the bolt(c) Length under the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt(d) None of these 

21. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is(a) 10 ounce hammer (b) 20 ounce hammer(c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer (d) Sledge hammer 

22. AN 4-7 bolt shows(a) 7/8” dia (b) ¼” length (c) 4”length (d) ¼”dia

23. Bolt of class 4 fit is(a) Loose fit (b) Free fit(c) Close fit (d) Tight fit

24. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where(a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface (b) Bolt is installed head down(c) It can be used any where (d) None of these 

25. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is(a) AN 936 (b) AN 935 (c) AN 970 (d) AN 960 

26. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is(a) Plain nut (b) Castle nut(c) Castellated shear nut (d) Self locking nut

27. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the centre of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet)(a) 2d to 4d (b) 8d (c) 6d (d) 75% of the pitch 

28. Pitch of the rivet should be(a) 1½ d (b) 6d to 8d (c) 1½ x d (d) All of these

29. The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet is(a) 2 d (b) 4 d (c) 1½ x d (d) 8 d 

30. Chamfering of the patch plate is done at the angle of (a) 25 ° (b) 45 ° (c) 60 ° (d) 15 °

31. In patch repair, clearance between the rivet and hole should be(a) 0.008” (b) 0.5” (c) 0.002” to 0.004” (d) 0.4”

32. A rivet with part no. AN 470 AD 3-5 is having a diameter of (a) 3/32” (b) 5/32” (c) 3/16” (d) 5/16”

33. Seam welding is (a) Pressure welding (b) Non-pressure welding (c) Electric resistance (d) Both (a) & (c) 

34. In which type of welding, the electrode is non-consumable(a) TIG (b) MIG(c) Electric resistance (d) Oxyacetylene

35. Spot welding electrodes should be

(a) Good conductor of Electricity (b) Good conductor of heat(c) High strength & Hardness (d) Both (a) & (c)

36. In leftward welding(a) Filler rod precedes torch (b) Torch precedes filler rod(c) A 60° V is prepared at the end of plate (d) Both (a) & (c)

37. The color of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is(a) Maroon & Black (b) Black & Maroon(c) Yellow & Black (d) Black & Yellow

38. Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane of articulation through(a) 120 ° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) None

39. For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement (e) Every third inner plate is extended in one direction(f) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction(g) Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction(h) All are wrong 40. If supply voltage = 30V, then working voltage of capacitor could bea) 90Vb) 45Vc) 50Vd) 55V

41. The useful load of an aircraft isa) Difference between maximum gross weight and empty weightb) Difference between maximum net weight and total weightc) Sum of empty weight and gross weightd) Weight of fuel

42. MTCSa) CD-plated rivet should not be used in areas where temperature of 250o or more are likely to be encounteredb) If the thickness of the sheet is less, then half the diameter of the rivet is usedc) Failure of joint will depend on the bearing stress rather than shear stress in the rivet.d) All of the above

43. Rivets are designeda) Stronger in shearb) Stronger in tensionc) Should not be subjected to excessive tension loadd) Both a) and c)

44. Zero fuel weight meansa) AUW menus weight of fuelb) Weight of cargo, passenger and crewc) Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b)d) All of the above

45. I-beam is produced bya) Rollingb) Castingc) Forgingd) None

46. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producinga) Passive oxidation

b) Improved corrosion resistancec) Corrosiond) None

47. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger ofa) Forming passive oxideb) Entrapping corrosive materialc) Corrosion by embedded iron oxided) All of the above

48. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result ofa) A tendency for them to return their natural stateb) Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metalc) Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode aread) All of the above

49. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occura) Presence of electrolyteb) Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic areac) Presence of passive oxide filmd) None of these

50. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy parta) May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery depositb) Appears as thread like filamentc) Cannot always be detected by surface indicationd) All of the above

51. When QNH is set on milibar scale, the altimeter readsa) Altitude above mean sea levelb) Height above the airport elevationc) Both A and Bd) None of the above

52. When QFE is set on milibar scale, altimeter readsa) Altitude above mean sea levelb) Height above the airport elevationc) Both A and Bd) None of the above53. Pitot head is mounted parallel to thea) Latitudinal axis of aircraftb) Longitudinal axis of aircraftc) Both A and Bd) None of the above

54. All the altimeter a) Are constructed on the principle of Aneroid barometerb) They have pressure responsive elementsc) Aneroid mechanismd) All of the above

55. Hysterisis error in altimetera) Is induced by aircraft maintaining a given altitude for certain period of time and suddenly making a large altitude changeb) This error will eliminate itself with slow climbs and descendsc) After maintaining a new altitude for a reasonable period of timed) All of the above

56 Installation errors in altimeter mechanism is

a) Caused by change of alignment of static pressure port with the relation windb) Speed of aircraft and angle of attack of aircraft

c) By location of the static port in a disturbed pressure fieldd) All of the above

57 An ROCI is connected toa) Static pressure onlyb) Pitot pressure onlyc) Both A and Bd) None of the above

58 In ROCI during dive of aircraft, the diaphragma) Contractsb) Expandsc) Both a & bd) No effect

59 Any sudden or abrupt change in the aircraft altitude may cause erroneous indications of ROCIa) Due to a sudden change of airflow over static portb) Sudden change of air flow over pitot headc) On both A and Bd) None of the above

60 An instantaneous ROCI isa) Recent developmentb) Incorporates acceleration pumpsc) Eliminates limitations associated with calibrated leak assemblyd) All of the above

61. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated jaws for gripping round pipes?a) Warnok typeb) Stillson typec) Super wrench toold) Williams type

62. Vise grip pliers is also known asa) Heavy pliersb) Lever jaw wrenchc) Monkey pliersd) None

63. Punch holders are used to holda) Punchesb) Chiselsc) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correctd) As in ‘a’, when a hard blow is required 

64. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation?a) Safety wire pliersb) Diagonals & duck bill pliersc) Both ‘a’ & ’b’ are correctd) As in ‘a’ & diagonals

65. Diagonals are used for a) Cutting steel wires & rodsb) Cutting bolt heads

c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correctd) None

66. The shape of long nose pliers isa) Roundb) Half- roundc) Squared) None

67. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by a) A small lever at each handleb) A compound lever at both handlesc) A small lever at one of the handlesd) None

68. What action locks the jaws of a vise grip pliers?a) Compound leverage actionb) Lever actionc) Toggle actiond) None

69. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction?a) Acmeb) Squarec) Wormd) Buttress

70. In interlocking- joint pliers, a) There are a number of holes at the hinge pointb) There are two holes at the hinge pointc) There are several curved grooves at the hinge pointd) None

ANSWERS ................

1B 2C 3C 4C

5D 6B 7A 8D

9C 10A 11B 12C

13D 14D 15B 16A

17D 18A 19D 20A

21C 22A 23D 24C

25B 26C 27A 28A

29C 30C 31C 32A

33D 34D 35A 36D

37A 38A 39

40. b41. a42. d43. d

44. c45. a46. c47. b48. a49. c50. c51. a52. b53. b54. d55. d56. d57. a58. b59. a60. d61. b62. b63. c64. c65. d66. b67. c68. c69. d70. c

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM- Paper 2, part-1

A/C ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

1. Suppose you suddenly come across a colleague who is stuck to live bus-bars in a sub-station. Your first actionwould be to: (Ref. BL Theraja)

*a. switch off the supply b. put him away from the bus-barsc. immediately call for medical assistance d. start artificial breathing straightaway

2. The centripetal force necessary to keep electrons rotating the elliptical orbits round the nucleus is supplied by theforce of attraction between their charges are given by (Ref. BL Theraja)*a. coulomb‟s laws b. faraday‟s lawsc. Fleming‟s law d. none of the above

3. The purpose of carbon contact in attracted-core, heavy duty relay: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 108)a. to limit the current in relay coil*b. to absorb initial heavy current and thereby reduce arcing to a minimum before positive connection with main contacts is madec. to compensate for loss of springd. all the above are correct

4. The RMS value of alternating current is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 33)a. sum of square of individual component of currentsb. sum of square of individual components of currents divided by no. of individual components*c. during a half cycle, squaring the value and taking their mean value and then taking the square rootd. none of the above5. A tumbler switch is also called: (Ref. AC 65 – 9A) a. micro switch* b. toggle switch c. push switch d. none of the above 6. The performance of rectifier depend on: (Ref. Grob., 812) a. maximum temperature of plate *b. maximum reverse voltage c. minimum voltage d. both a & c are correct 7. Which switch is not having moving parts: (Ref. TK Eismin, 259) a. mercury b. thermal 

*                                                                                                                                           c.                                                                                                                                           * proximity d. rotary 8. Which is not thermally affected by temperature: (Ref. AC 65 – 9A) a. fuse b. CB *c. limiting resistor d. thermistor 9. The effect of change in frequency will change: (Ref. BL Theraja – Ed 1991, 578) a. hysteresis loss b. eddy current loss *c. both a & b d. n10. A series LCR is connected to 20V AC supply. The value of resistance is 8 ohms, inductive reactance of coil is 18ohms and capacitive reactance of capacitor is 12 ohms. How much is current flow in the circuit:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 202) *a. 2 amps b. 10 amps c. 5 amps d. 1 amp. 11. A LCR circuit is connected across 200V, 50 Hz AC supply, value of R is 6 ohms, inductive reactance is 8 ohms and capacitive reactance is 16 ohms. Calculate the voltage drop across the resistance: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 202) a. 200/30 volts b. 200/2 volts *c. 120 volts d. none of the above 12. Which of the relay have very high sensitively: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 108) 

a. slugged relay *b. polarized relay c. heavy duty relay d. none of the above 13.What is the resistance of wire having same cross sectional area and material when the length is increased by 6 times: (Ref. AC 65 – 9A) a. two times *b. 6 times c. 8 times 14. Temperature compensation capacitor is made of: (Ref. Grob., 420) a. mica b. chip c. paper *d. ceramic 15. Mark the correct statement for a single loop coil lying parallel to the magnetic field:  (Ref. BL Theraja-Ed 1991, 244) *a. flux linked with the coil is minimum b. rate of change of flux linkages is maximum c. emf induced in the coil is maximum d. all the above 16. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected in:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 153) a. parallel with the light *b. series with the light c. series parallel with the light d. none of the above 17. Paper capacitors are suitable for: (Ref. BL Theraja-Ed 1991, 157) a. short wave work in radio b. smoothing circuits in radio receivers *c. audio frequency stages of radio receivers d. use at radio frequency 18. The delay in establishment of steady current through a coil depends on the value of:  (Ref. BL Theraja – Ed 1991, 242) a. applied voltage b. self inductance c. resistance *d. both b & c are correct 19. Kirchhoff‟s current law is applicable to: (Ref. BL Theraja, Ed. 1991, 56) a. closed loop b. electronic circuit *c. junction in network d. all the above 20. If the power factor is unity reactive power is: (Ref. BL Theraja, Ed. 1991, 457) a. maximum *b. zero c. minimum d. negative 

21. Match the correct statement for proximity sensors: a. proximity sensors are simply induction coil that operate in conjunction with steel targets b. the inductance of a proximity sensor is measured by a electronic control unit c. no moving contacts to fail, thereby high reliability *d. all are correct (Ref. TK Eismin – 259) 22. to get full wave rectification with the help of only two diodes: (Ref. BL Thareja, Ed. 1991 – 691) a. a bridge configuration is used *b. center tapped transformer is required c. diode connector is required d. none of the above 23. The basic unit of capacitance is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet -195) a. coloumb b. tesla c. gauss *d. farad 24. The sensitivity of a voltmeter can be increased by: FAA-9A, P-329 a. increasing the strength of the permanent magnet b. using lighter weight materials for the moving element c. by using sapphire jewel bearings to support the moving coil *d. all of the above 25. The frequency of an eight pole alternator rotating at 1800 rpm is: FAA-9A, P-417 a. 60 Hz b. 90 Hz *c. 120 Hz d. 30 Hz 26. Circuit breakers are located: Pallet, P-115 a. generally far from the power source *b. close to the power source c. at any location compatible to the particular unit d. so as not to be exposed to heat of any kind 27. All resistible circuit breakers: Pallet, P-113 a. should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operation control when overload exists b. should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operating control when a circuit fault exists 

c. are referred to as trip free circuit *d. all of the above 28. The total opposition to alternating current in an AC circuit is known as: Eismin, P-87 a. total resistance b. resistance c. reluctance *d. impedance 29.Theopposition offered by a coil to the flow of ac is called: a. reluctance b. impedance c. inductance *d. inductive reactance 30. Soft soldering: CAIP-281 a. is a method of joining metals with fusion of the basis metal b. is a method of joining metals without intentional fusion of the basic metal *c. as in (b) and is done by the solders having a lower melting point than the metals being joined d. as in (a) and is done by the solders having a higher melting point than the metals being joined 31. In an series RLC circuit: BLT/1991/473 a. current lags behind the voltage if XL>XCb. current lags behind the voltage if XC>XL c. current is in phase with voltage if XL=XC *d. all are correct 32. An ac circuit has 4 ohms resistance and 3 ohms reactance: FAA-9A, P-358 *a. power factor is 0.8 b. power factor is 1.33   d. impedance is 8c. impedance is 633. In an AC circuit the 5% of max. value of voltage occurs at: BLT/1999/ED/42   d. 90 *c. 30 b. 60a. 4534. Pallet-100  (i) (ii)  (iii) (iv) (a) single-pole, double throw (b) double-pole, single-throw (c) single-pole,single-throw (d) double-pole,double-throw a. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (d) b. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (a) c. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (d) d. (i) (d) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (b) 35. MTCS: a. current limiters limit the starting current in the starter motor 

*b. limiting resistor limits the starting current in the 

starter motor c. HRC fuses limit the starting current in the starter motor d. circuit breakers limit the starting current in the starter motor 36. A white band on the button of a circuit breaker when exposed indicates: Pallet-114 a. circuit breaker is on and functioning properly b. circuit breaker is drawing less current than the rated value *c. circuit breaker is tripped d. circuit breaker is overheated and must be now switched off 37. Electric charge is measured in: Pallet-195 a. Farad (F) *b. coulomb (C) c. joule (J) d. Mercy (H) 38. Magnetic flux is measured in: Pallet-195 a. ampere turn b. tesla *c. weber d. ampere per meter 39. Gilbert is the unit of: Pallet-196 a. magnetic field b. flux density *c. magneto motive force d. reluctance 40. Ampere-turn is the unit of: *a. magneto motive force b. flux density c. reluctance d. magnetic field 41. The opposition to the flux established by the magnetizing force is known as: Pallet-196 a. magneto motive force *b. reluctance c. resistance d. impedance 42. The rate of doing work is known as: Pallet-194 a. energy b. potential c. current *d. power 43. That part of the impedance which is due to inductance, or both, and which stores energy rather than dissipates it, is known as: Pallet-195 a. capacitance b. inductance c. both (a) & (b) *d. reactance 44. The amount of magnetic flux per square centimeter, over a small area at a point in a magnetic field is known as:  Pallet-195 a. magnetic field strength *b. magnetic flux density c. magneto motive force d. permeability 45. A circuit breaker is a device for: Pallet-223 *a. protecting an electrical circuit from current overload b. collapsing the primary circuit of a magneto c. completing a circuit without being affected by current flow d. all of the above 46. The current in a purely capacitive circuit will: Pallet-221 *a. lead the applied voltage b. lag the applied voltage c. be in line with the applied voltage d. either (b) or (c) 47. Factors that must be considered in selecting the size of wire are: FAA-15A, P-436 a. I2R b. IR drop c. current carrying ability *d. all of the above 48. The voltage drop in the main power cable from aircraft generation source or the battery to bus should not exceed: FAA-15A, P-436 *a. 2% of regulated voltage b. 3% of regulated voltage c. 4% of regulated voltage d. 1% of regulated voltage 49. The max. resistance between ground point of generator/ battery and ground terminal of any electrical device should not exceed: FAA-15A, P-436   4. 0.0005 3. 0.5 b. 0.05*a. 0.00550. Push switches are primarily used for those circuits which are required to be operated for: Pallet-101 a. short duration b. long duration c. when circuit is to be completed or interrupted momentarily *d. both (a) & (c) are correct 51. The impedance of an AC circuit is measured in: Pallet-221 a. kilovolt amperes b. amperes *c. ohms d. none of the above 52. The number of circuits which can be completed through the poles of a switch is indicated by the term: 

 Pallet-223 a. pole b. position *c. throw d. none 53. In a thermal switch employing steel and invar element actuation of the contacts under increasing temperature condition is caused by: Pallet-223 *a. expansion of the steel element only b. contraction of the invar element only c. expansion of the steel element causing displacement of the in rear element d. none of the above 54. A soft iron core is placed within the coil of a moving coil instrument because: Pallet-223 a. it provides a solid spindle about which the coil can rotate *b. this ensures an even, radial and intensified magnetic field for the coil to move in c. the inertia of the core will damp out oscillations of the coil d. none of the above 55. Relays which are slow to operate are known as: Pallet-108 *a. slugged relays b. polarized relays c. light duty relays d. extremely light relays 56. Switches which confine the action of toggle and push-button switches are called: Pallet-102 a. rotary switches b. micro switches c. tumbler switches *d. rocker-button switches 57. Toggle switches are also known as: Pallet-100 a. rotary switches b. time switches *c. tumbler switches d. push switches 58. Mercury switches are used in/for: Pallet-104 a. monitoring pressures *b. measuring angle c. delaying the operation d. hastening the operation 59. The principal advantage of proximity switches over micro switches is that: Pallet-106 a. proximity switches are located very near to the circuit component and hence do not require lengthy wires for operation b. use of relays is eliminated when proximity switches are used hence total components used will be much less *c. proximity switches have no moving parts as compared to micro switches d. proximity switches work on the same principle as solid state devices hence they consume very small amount of power 60. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should: Pallet-207 a. be removed from the generator housing b. show high resistance when the meter probes are connected to the terminal of the coil *c. show very low resistance if it is a series coil d. none of the above 

61. Megger is used for testing : FAA-9A-331 a. ground, continuity tests b. measuring insulation resistance c. measuring resistance with a high potential *d. all are correct 62. The precaution for using ohm meter are: Pallet-166 a. circuit components to be tested should be isolated b. power source to be removed from circuit *c. both (a) & (b) d. none is correct 63. An ohm meter when connected across a circuit component indicates infinity, it means: FAA-9A-330 a. the circuit has continuity *b. the circuit is open c. the circuit has short circuit d. all of the above are correct 64. Meggar needle normally rests at: FAA-9A-330 a. extreme right b. extreme left c. middle *d. at any place 

65. While measuring the value of resistance, connected in a circuit at least one end of resistance is disconnected in order to avoid: a. reading the resistance of series path b. damage of resistance in parallel path c. damage the resistance in series path *d. reading the resistance of parallel path 66. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is: FAA-9A-324 a. air friction b. fluid friction *c. eddy current d. none of the above 67. The meter that is suitable for only direct current measurement is: BLT/1991/366 a. moving iron type *b. permanent magnet type c. electrodynamometer type d. hot wire type 68. The hot wire ammeter: Eismin-244 a. is used only for DC circuits b. is a higher precision instrument c. is used only for AC circuits *d. reads equally well DC and or AC 69. The moving system of an indicating type of electrical instrument is subjected to: BLT/1991/353 a. a deflection torque b. a controlling torque c. a damping torque *d. all of the above 70. Which is not essential for the working of an indicating instrument: BLT/1991/417 a. deflecting torque *b. braking torque c. damping torque d. controlling torque 71. If an ammeter is used as a voltmeter, in all probability it will: BLT/1991/418 a. indicate much higher reading b. give extremely low reading c. indicate no reading at all *d. burn out 72. If a moving coil ammeter is used to measure the value of a alternating sinusoidal current having a peak value of 100 A, it will read a. 50 A b. 63.7A c. 141.1A *d. 70.7 A 73. In a capacitive circuit: a. a decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge b. a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge c. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor discharge *d. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge 74. In a sine-wave ac circuit with XC and R in series, the:  with high series resistance a. phase angle of the circuit is 180 out of phase with its charge and discharge current *b. voltage across the capacitance must be 90c. voltage across the capacitance has the same phase angle as its charge and discharge current  out of phase with the applied voltage d. charge and discharge current of the capacitor must be 9075. In a sine-wave ac circuit with R and C in parallel:  a. the voltage across C lags the voltage across R by 90*b. resistive IR out of phase with IC is 90c. IR and IC are in phase d. IR and IC out of phase  are 180 XC R in series with a 9076. In a sine-wave ac circuit with a 90, the phase angle equals:   d. 90 c. 60 *b. 45a. 30 XC R in parallel with a 100077. The combined impedance of a 1000 equals:   d. 2000 c. 1000 *b. 707a. 500F each, the voltage across each capacitor will be: 78. With 100 V applied across two series capacitors of 5a. 5 V b. 33 1/3 V *c. 50 V d. 66 2/3 V 

79. In a sine-wave ac circuit with XC and R in series, the a. voltages across R and XC are in phase b. voltage across R and XC out of phase  are 180*c. voltage across R leads the voltage across XC  by 90d. voltage across R lags the voltage across XC  by 9080. Flight compartment lights include: Eismin, P-256 a. incandescent flood light b. fluorescent flood lights c. dome light and panel lights *d. all of the above 81. With higher frequencies, the amount of capacitive reactance: a. increases b. stays the same *c. decreases d. increases only when the voltage increase 82. At the same frequency, larger capacitance results in: a. more reactance b. the same reactance *c. less reactance d. less reactance if the voltage amplitude decreases  XC83. Two 1000 values in series have a total reactance of:   *d. 2000 c. 1414 b. 1000a. 500

XC84. With 50V rms applied across a 100-, the rms current in the circuit equals: Grob, P-542 *a. 0.5A b. 0.637A c. 0.707A d. 1.414A 85. A capacitor consists of two: *a. conductors separated by an insulator b. insulators separated by a conductor c. conductors alone d. insulators alone F equals: 86. A capacitance of 0.02a. 0.02x10-12 *b. 0.02x10-6 F c. 0.02x106  d. 2002x1012  87. Capacitance increases with: a. larger plate area and greater distance between plates: b. smaller plate area and less distance between plates *c. larger plate area and less distance between plates d. higher values of applied voltage 88. Which of the following statement is correct: Grob, P-522 a. air capacitor have a black band to indicate the outside foil F b. mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 1 to 10*c. electrolytic capacitors must be connected with the correct polarity d. ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity 89. Which of the following statement is true: a. alnico is commonly used for electromagnets *b. paper cannot affect magnetic flux because it is not a magnetic material c. iron is generally used for permanent magnets d. ferrites have lower permeability than air or vacuum 90. Hysteresis losses: *a. are caused by high high-frequency alternating current in a coil with an iron core b. generally increase with direct current in a coil c. are especially important with permanent magnets that have a steady magnetic field d. cannot be produced in an iron core, because it is a conductor 91. The ac power line voltage of 120 V rms has a peak value of: a. 100 V *b. 170 V c. 240 V d. 338 V 92. If two similar wire conductors are connected in parallel, their total resistance is: a. double the resistance of one wire *b. one half the resistance of one wire c. the same as the resistance of one wire d. two-thirds the resistance of one wire 

93. Which colour is not used in 1st band of a colour coded resistor: a. brown b. white c. red *d. black 94. Silver band represent the tolerance of: *a. 10% b. 5% c. 0% d. 20%   95. Phase angle : Esmin, P-88 a. it is an angular distance between current and voltage in an a.c. circuit b. it is always measured between the horizontal line and the resultant vector c. none of the above *d. both (a) & (b) 96. Unit of inductance: Esmin, P-107 *a. henry b. ohm c. mho d. none of the above 97. Diamagnetic materials have permeability: Grob, P-390 a. more than 1 b. from 50 to 500 *c. less than 1 d. exactly 50 98. Vacuum has: Grob, P-408 a. high permeability b. high reluctance *c. low permeability and high reluctance d. high permeability and low reluctance 99. The resistance of a short circuit is: Grob, P-37  d. more a. infinity *b. zero c. always 100100. What is characteristics of parallel circuit: a. branch current are additive b. voltage are additive c. powers are additive *d. (a) & (c) are correct 

101. Magnetic field lines are considered to be: *a. coming out of north pole and enter south pole b. coming out of south pole and enter north pole c. coming out of north pole but doesn‟t enter south pole d. depends on shape of magnet 102. The ability of magnet to hold its magnetism varies greatly with the type of metal and is known as:  FAA-9A, P-302 a. reluctance *b. retentivity c. permeability d. diamagnetic 103. The polarity of the statically induced voltage is determined by: Grob, P-431 a. Fleming‟s right hand rule for conventional current b. Fleming‟s left hand rule for electronic current c. Thumb rule *d. Lenz law 104. Unit of mmf is: Grob, P-401 a. oersted in cgs b. gauss *c. gilbert d. tesla 105. The direction of field around a positive charge is: FAA-9A, P-270 a. toward the charge *b. away from the charge c. either (a) or (b) d. none of the above 106. If the third band is silver in color, the ___ digit must be multiplied by ___%: FAA-9A, P-280 a. third digit, 10% b. first two digit, 10% c. third digit, 1% *d. first two digit, 1% 107. If third band is gold in colour the first two digits must be multiplied by: B. L. Thareja, P-280 a. 5% *b. 10% c. 1% d. none 108. Tolerance is: FAA-9A, P-279, 280 a. The percentage variation between the marked value and the actual value of a resistor b. fourth color band on the resistor *c. both (a) & (b) d. none 109. The example of intermittent duty relay switch is FAA-9A, P-320 a. battery relay switch *b. starter relay switch c. both (a) & (b) d. neither (a) nor (b) 110. In a circuit with three parallel branches, if one branch opens, the main line current will be: a. more *b. less c. the same d. infinite 

R1111. A 1- R2 and a 20 are in series with a 30-V source, if R1 opens, the voltage drop across R2 will be: *a. zero b. 20 V c. 30 V d. infinite 112. If a fixed value of voltage is connected across a variable resistance: Grob, P-194 a. I will vary in direct proportion to R *b. I will be inversely proportional to R c. I will remain constant as R is varied d. none of the above 113. Number of coulombs passing through any given point in a conductor per second is: a. charge b. potential *c. current(Ampere) d. both (a) & (c) 114. Unit of magnetic flux is: Grob, P-382 a. tesla *b. Weber c. Gilbert d. none of the above 115. Unit of flux density is: Grob, P-383 *a. tesla b. Weber c. Gilbert d. none of the above 116. The reasons of using horse shoe magnet instead of bar magnet in instruments is/are: Grob, P-387 a. it occupies less space *b. has less air gap c. it increases the flux density in the air gap d. all of the above 117. The ability of magnetic materials to concentrate magnetic flux is known as: Grob, P-386 a. permittivity *b. permeability c. flux density d. field intensity 118. A resistor with a power rating of 25w is most likely a: Grob, P-51 a. carbon composition resistor b. metal film resistor c. surface mount resistor *d. wire wound resistor 119. A potentiometer is a: Esmin, P-101 *a. three terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit; b. two-terminal device used to vary the current in a circuit c. fixed resistor d. two-terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit 120. Mark the correct statement about electricity and magnetism: Grob, P-409 a. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to flux density b. current is analogous to magneto motive force and reluctance is analogous to resistance c. current is analogous to flux and resistance is analogous to magneto motive force *d. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to magneto motive force www.rjworld.com 121. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-302 *a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly less than one b. a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have permeability slightly more than one c. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly less than one and diamagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly more than one d. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly more than one and diamagnetic materials have very high permeabilitities 122. The d.c. series motor should never be switched on at no load because: B. L. Thareja, P-1030 a. the field current is zero b. the machine does not pick up *c. the speed becomes dangerously high d. it will take too long to accelerate 123. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is: a. air friction b. fluid friction *c. eddy currents d. none of the above 124. A simple potentiometer is correctly called a :- B.L. Thareja, . Page – 55 a. current devider b. voltage stabilizer c. variable resistor *d. voltage divider 

125. The unit of capacitance is :- B.L. Thareja, . Page – 55 *a. farad b. coulomb c. volt d. metre 126. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging current becomes ………… percent of its……… value:- B.L. Thareja, Page-157 a. 37, final b. 63, final *c. 63, initial d. 37, initial 127. The magnetizing force produced by a solenoid depends on :- a. the number of its turns b. the current carried by it c. its length *d. all the above B.L. Thareja, Page-193 128. Aluminium can be classified as a ……………….. material :- *a. Para magnetic b. Force magnetic c. Dia magnetic d. Soft magnetic B.L. Thareja, Page-193 129. Whenever a magnet is quickly brought towards an open circuited stationary coil :- a. A current is induced in it b. Work has to be done *c. e.m.f. is induced it d. Power is spent B.L. Thareja, Page -219 130. The direction of induced e.m.f. in a coil may be found with the help of :- a. faraday‟s law *b. Lenz‟s law c. fleming‟s left hand rule d. steinamety law B.L. Thareja, . Page – 219 131. An e.m.f. is induced in the coil whenever flux through it :- (B.L. Thareja, P -220) a. Is decreased b. Is increased c. Is abruptly reduced to zero *d. All the above 132. Capacitance does NOT depend upon which factor :- ( T.K. Eismin,Page-103) a. plate area b. plate thickness c. distance between plates d. nature of di-electric 

133. Which of the following material has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance ? (B.L Thareja, Page – 8) a. Brass b. Copper c. Aluminium *d. Carbon 134. Carbon composition resistors are most popular because they :- (AC 65-9A, Page-278) *a. cost the least b. are smaller in size c. can withstand over loads d. do not produce electric noise 135. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel dc circuit ?  ( T.K. Eismin, Page – 107) *a. powers are additive b. voltages are additive c. currents are additive d. elements have individual currents 136. For a given voltage, four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected :- *a. All in parallel b. All in series c. With two parallel point in series d. One pair in parallel with the other two in series  T.K. Eismin, Page – 8 137. A cylindrical wire, 1 m in length, has a resistance of 100 ohm. What would be the resistance of a wire made from the same material if both the length and cross sectional area are doubled ? B.L Thareja, Page-7 a. 200 ohms b. 400 ohms *c. 100 ohms d. 50 ohms 138. The working voltage of a capacitor in an A.C circuit should be :- AC 65-9A, Page-351 a. equal to the highest applied voltage b. at least 20% greater than the highest applied voltage *c. at least 50% greater than the highest applied voltage d. none of these 139. Higher the self-inductance of a coil :- (T.K. Eismin, Page – 107) a. lower the e.m.f. induced in it a. The number of their turns *b. Permeability of the core c. Cross sectional area of their common core d. All the above 141. Permanent magnets are normally made of :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-8) a. Aluminium b. Wrought iron 

c. Cast iron *d. Alnico alloys 142.those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which have :- a. low permeability and high hysterisis loss *b. high permeability and low hysteresis loss c. low permeability and low hysteresis loss d. high permeability and high hysteresis loss (AC 65-9A, Page-302) 

143. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets while have :- (9A/303) *a. high retentivity and high coercivity b. high retentivity and low coercivity c. low retentivity and low coercivity d. low retentivity and high coercivity 144. In a magnetic material, hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to :- (AC 65-9A, Page-450) a. flux – density lagging behind magnetizing force b. molecular friction c. its high retentivity *d. rapid reversals of its magnetization 145. Circuit breakers are located :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-115) a. generally far from the power source *b. close to the power source c. at any location compatible to the particular unit d. so as not to be exposed to heat of any kind 146. All resetable circuit breakers :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-113) a. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operation control when overload exits b. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operating control when a circuit fault exists c. Are referred to as trip free circuit *d. All of the above 147. Which particle of an atom actually moves in the production of an electric current : (BL Thereja-Pg 1) a. the proton *b. the electron c. the neutron d. all three 148. The term that describes the combined resistive force in an AC circuit is : (Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87) a. resistance b. capacitance c. total resistance *d. impedance 149. If a series R-L-C circuit contains 10 ohm of resistance, 20 ohm of inductive reactance, and 30 ohm of capacitive reactance it is said to be (Numerical) a. inductive b. in resonance c. resistive *d. capacitive 150. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of ac is called: (Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87) a. conductivity b. impedance c. reluctance *d. inductive reactance 151. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit  (Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87) a. capacitance & voltage *b. inductance & frequency c. voltage and resistance d. resistance & capacitive reactance 152. Which statement is correct in reference to electrical resistance (Numerical) a. two electrical devices will have the same combined resistance if they are connected in series as they will have if connected in parallel *b. if one of 3 bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is removed, the total resistance of the circuit will become greater 

c. an electrical device that has a high resistance will use more power than one with a low resistance with the same applied voltage d. a 5 ohm resistor in a 12 V circuit will use less current than a 10 ohm resistor in a 24 V circuit  153. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass most readily (BL Thereja Pg-245) a. copper *b. iron c. aluminium d. titanium 154. Unit of capacitive and inductive reactance is (BL Thereja Pg-201) a. farad & henry b.ohm & henry c. farad & ohm *d. ohm & ohm 155. The maximum value of charge in a capacitor reached at: Thomas K Eismin Pg-105 a. 2 Time constant b. 3 Time constant c. 4 Time constant d. *6 Time constant 156. Dielectric strength is maximum in: FAA-9A Pg-351 a. Paper b. Glass *c. Mica d. Air 157. In one time constant, capacitor takes the charge upto ___ % of its full charge  Thomas K Eismin Pg-105 *a. 63.2 b. 36.7 c. 20.6 d. 80.2 158. What is the power factor of a parallel resonance circuit? BL Thereja Pg-555 *a. Unity b. Zero c. 0.5 d. 0.866 159. A circuit breaker that can not be reset when the circuit fault exist is called: EHJ Pallett Pg-113 a. Electric CB b. Non-resettable CB *c. Trip free CB d. Polarized CB 160. For sensing angular position the ________ switch is used a. Proximity b. Thermal switch EHJ Pallett Pg-104 c. Micro switch *d. Mercury switch 161. Thermal switch in the fire warning system is operated above:  C EHJ Pallett Pg-106  C d. 500 C c. 500 C b. 400*a. 300162. Closing of freight door is normally indicated with the help of: a. Relays *b. Proximity switch EHJ Pallett Pg-106 c. Mercury switch d. None 163. “HRC” terms used with : EHJ Pallett Pg-112 a. CB‟s b. Switches c. Relays *d. Fuses 164. The unit of resistivity is: BL Thereja Pg-4 *a. Ohm-meter b. Ohm/Meter c. Ohm-centimeter d. Ohm/Sq cm. 165. A three phase synchronous motor is well suited for driving :- B.L Thareja, Page – 651 a. fluctuating loads b. printing presses *c. motor generator set d. vacuum cleaners 166. Current changing at the rate of 0.5 Amp. / Sec. induces on e.m.f. of 2V in a coil. The self inductance of the coil in Henry is :- B.L Thareja, Page – 219 *a. 4 Henry b. 2 Henry c. 1 Henry d. 3 Henry 167. The starting winding of a single phase motor is placed in the :- E.H.J. Pallet, Page-143 a. Rotor *b. Stator c. Armature d. Field www.rjworld.com 168. In synchronous motor, damper winding is provided in order to :- (T.K. Eismin, page-186) a. stabilize rotor motion b. suppress rotor oscillations c. develop necessary starting torque *d. both (2) & (3) 169. While running , a synchronous motor is compelled to run at synchronous speed because of :-  (AC 65-9A, Page-457) a. damper winding in its pole faces *b. magnetic locking between stator and rotor poles c. induced e.m.f. in rotor field winding by stator flux 

d. compulsion due to Lenz‟s law 170. The Hysterisis motor works on the principle of : (EHJ Pallette , P-144) a. Flemings right hand rule b. Hysteresis principle *c. As in „2‟ and the rotor rotates at Synchronous speed 171. Synchronous motor runs at :- AC 65-9A, Page-457 a. Synchronous speed at no load b. Less than synchronous speed at all loads *c. It runs at synchronous speed from no load to full load d. Both (1) & (3) are correct 172. In 3 Phase induction motor :- AC 65-9A, Page-453 a. at no load, rotor speed is slightly less than synchronous speed b. with increase of load, rotor speed decreases c. with decrease of load rotor speed increases *d. all are correct 173. In 3 Phase inductions motor % slip depends upon :- (AC 65-9A, Page-453) *a. load b. line voltage of three phase A3. Supply c. number of conductors on rotor d. all are correct 174. If a single phase induction motor runs with noise, the more likely defect is :- ( B.L Thareja, Page-62 ) a. Improper fuses b. Shorted running winding c. Open starting winding *d. Worn bearing 175. The principle of statically inducted e.m.f. is utilized in :- ( B.L Thareja, Page-553) *a. Transformer b. Motor c. Generator d. Battery 176. . In End to Center band system, if the tolerance band shows blue color, the tolerance value will be: *a. 6% b. 2% BL Thereja Pg-280 d. 4% d. None of the above 177. . Carbon composition resistors have the demerits of: a. More cost b. Larger in size *c. Produce electric noise d. None of the above BL Thereja Pg-25 178. The speed of a D.C. motor can be controlled by varying :- B.L Thareja, Page – 321 a. Its flux b. Armature circuit resistance c. Applied voltage *d. All the above 179. When load is removed, which motor will run at the highest speed :- B.L Thareja, Page – 311 a. Shunt *b. Series c. Cumulative d. Differential compound 180. The armature torque of a D.C motor is a function of its a. Pole flux b. Armature current c. Speed *d. Both (a) & (b) 181. A universal motor has variable speed characteristics because it is :- B.L Thareja, Page – 627 *a. series wound b. compound would c. operated on both D.C and A.C supplied d. wholly laminated 182. Polarized relay is normally used in: FAA-9A Pg-401 *a. Generator-Battery circuit b. Generator-Load circuit c. Generator-Lighting circuit d. None SERVOMECHANISMS & AMPLIFIERS 183. All the synchros are working on: (Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 23) *a. transformer principle b. resistance principle c. inductor principle d. capacitance principle 184. Which component is not used in torque synchro: (Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 232) a. motor b. amplifier *c. motor and amplifier d. none of the above 185. Generally torque synchro are used for transmitting: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 135) 

*a. power plant datas and position indication b. navigational datas c. manometric datas d. inertial datas 186. Control synchro is used for: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 136) a. power plant data transmission *b. close loop servo system c. position indication flap position indication 187. Differential synchro is used for: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 136) a. power plant data. manometric data c. position indication *d. output depends upon two input data 188. Resolver synchro is used where we require Cartesian coordinate of a point to: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 143)   b. R Sina. R Cos  d. R Tan and R Sin*c. R Cos189. Polar coordinate is used to find out resultant of: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 149)  b. R Sina. R Cos  d. R Tan and R Sin*c. R Cos190.In torque synchro if the rotor connection is reversed then: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139) a. no effect on output b. output is advanced by 900c. output is advanced by 270 *d. output is advanced by 180191. If there is cycle shift of stator connection torque synchro then output datum is advanced by: *a. 240 b. 2700 c. 180 d. 900 (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139) 192. In torque synchro if stator coil connection of two lead are interchanged then:  (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139) a. output is advanced by 900 b. output is advanced by 1800c. output is advanced by 2700 *d. reverse rotation of output rotor 193. In resolver synchro where polar is connected to Cartesian R3 & R4 rotor coils are shorted to:  (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 147) a. prevent burning b. prevent hunting c. improve accuracy *d. as in c & limit spurious response 194.In control synchro supply is given to: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 14) a. transmitter stator *b. transmitter rotor c. receiver stator d. receiver rotor 195.Resolver syschro consists of: a. four rotor coil b. four stator coil (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 146) c. two rotor and stator coil *d. four rotor and stator coil 196. When pilot is flying the a/c manually the pilot and his control surface together may be termed as:  (Ref. AFC Pallet, 72) a. auto flight b. manual flight *c. man / machine close loop servo system d. all are correct 197. The role of AFCS is to: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 73) a. over come a stability and control deficiency b. improve handling and ride quality c. carry out series of maneuver which pilot is unable to perform *d. all are correct 198. Servo system must be able to perform: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 83) a. detect difference between input and output b. amply the error signal c. control the closing of servo loop by providing feedback 

*d. all are correct 199. Servo mechanism are coming under two classes may function as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 83) a. position control b. speed control *c. position and speed control d. differentiator and integrator 200. In position control servo system the amplifier output is equivalent to: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 84) A) 0 - 0) d. K (1 - 0 *c. K (( 1 b. a.

201. In speed control servo system output from the amplifier is: *a. K (V1-V0) b. K (V0-Va) c. V1 d. Vo (Ref. AFC Pallet, 84) 202. What are the type of input in servo system: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 84) a. step input b. ramp input *c. step and ramp input d. step and ramp output 203.Impositon feed back system if there is step input: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 85) *a. continuous oscillation b. load comes to rest at null point c. load lags behind d. all are correct 204. Inherent friction cause: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86) *a. light damping b. heavy damping c. critical damping d. all are correct 205. The degree of damping which prevent any over shoot is known as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86) a. light damping *b. critical damping c. optimum damping d. heavy damping 206. Damping which allows small over shoot and smallest settling time is known as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86) *a. optimum damping b. critical damping c. light damping d. heavy damping 207. Small force of constant magnitude opposing servo motor is known as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86) *a. coulomb friction b. viscous friction c. eddy current d. lubricant 208. In velocity feed back damping if there is ramp input: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 88) a. no velocity lag b. over shoot *c. velocity lag increase d. none of the above 209. In error rate damping when input and output shafts are at equal velocity then: Ref. AFC Pallet, 88 *a. no error signal b. there is an error signal c. error signal is more d. all are correct 210. In ECAM system which mode is the automatic mode? EHJ Pallette, P-133 a. Flight Phase b. Cautionary c. Advisory *d. Both (a) and (c) 211. In EICAS system, which is a “level A warning”? TK Eismin, P-359 a. Cabin Depressurization b. Engine Fire c. Both (a) and (b) in display form *d. Both (a) and (b) in display as well as in aural form 212. In ECAM system: EHJ Pallette, P-134 a. The graphical display is given by the R.H unit b. The graphical display is given by the L.H unit *c. As in a. and advisory message color change to white after corrective action taken d. As in b. and advisory message color change to white after corrective action taken  www.rjworld.com 213. CRT used in A/C instrument displays are: TK Eismin, P-123a. Electromagnetic deflection type *b. Electrostatic deflection type c. Both „1‟ & „2‟ BONDING & SCREENING 214. In aircraft having non metallic structure: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 88) a. four or more copper strip type conductors are used extending whole length of fuselage 

b. they are not more than six feet apart as measured around the periphery of fuselage c. the fuselage earthing strips are connected to further strips which follow the leading and trailing edges from root to tip of each wing and horizontal stabilizer *d. all the above 215. Corona discharge in a/c is prevented by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 74) *a. static discharger b. screening c. potting d. none of the above 216. What is true about bonding tester: (Ref. CAP-II, Ch-EEL/06) a. 60 lead is connected to a/c main earth point b. 6 lead two prongs are connected where there is joint c. it has got one 1.2v cell and calibration is done by standard resistances provided *d. all the above 217. Bonding and grounding are made to provide: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 92) a. current return path b. protection of person from shock hazard c. stability of radio reception and transmission *d. all the above 218. The tags or lugs on bonding jumpers are generally fitted by: CAIP-II/943 a. soldering method *b. crimping method c. sintering method d. nuts & bolts 219. The maximum primary bonding resistance between the extremities of the fixed portion of all metallic aircraft is: CAIP-II/496 a. 0.1 ohm b. 0.01 ohm *c. 0.05 ohm d. 0.001 ohm 220. Mark the correct statement: E.H.J. Pallet, P-92 a. precipitation charges are those which are induced into an aircraft when flying into electric fields created by certain types of cloud formation b. electrostatic charges are built up on the outer surface of an aircraft due to friction contact with rain particles, snow and ice crystals, dust, smoke and other air contamination *c. precipitation static charges are built up on the outer surfaces of an aircraft due to frictional contact with rain particles, snow and ice crystals, dust, smoke and other air contamination whereas charges of electrostatic are those induced into an aircraft when flying into electric fields created by certain types of cloud formation. d. none of the above 221. Mark the correct statement: E.H.J. Pallet, P-94 a. classification of primary bonding is determined by the magnitude of current to be expected from precipitation static charges b. classification of secondary bonding is determined by the magnitude of current to the expected from electro statically induced charges *c. bonding is classified as primary and secondary, such classification being determined by the magnitude of current to be expected from electro statically induced charges and precipitation static charges respectively. d. bonding is classified as primary and secondary, such classification being determined by the magnitude of current to be expected from precipitation static charges and electro statically induced charges respectively. ELECTRONICS 222. The doping materials are called impurities because they: (Ref. BL Theraja) a. decrease the number of charge carriers 

b. change the chemical properties of semi conductors c. make semi conductors less than 100 percent pure *d. alter the crystal structure of pure semi conductors 223. Feedback in an amplifier always helps to: (Ref. BL Theraja) *a. control its output b. increases its gain c. decreases its input impendence d. stabilize its gain 224.In normal operation of p-n-p transistor, its junctions are biased: (Ref. BL Theraja) a. both forward b. both reverse c. emitter base – reverse, collector base – forward *d. emitter base – forward, collector base – reverse 225. An SCR can be turned off by: (Ref. BL Theraja-1991, 817) a. anode current interruption b. reversing polarity of anode – cathode voltage c. reducing current through SCR below the holding *d. any of above method can be used independently 226. The logic symbol represents: Pallet-225 a. an AND gate *b. a NOR gate c. an OR gate d. an XOR gate 227. In order to energize the relay in the circuit shown below here the logic state at the inputs must be  Pallet-226 

a. log 0 at points A & B b. 0 at point A and 1 at point B *c. 1 at both points d. 0 at both points A B C 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 228. The truth table shown here corresponds to: Pallet-226 a. an OR gate b. an AND gate c. a NOR gate d. an XOR gate 229. The circuit shown here performs a logic: Pallet-226 a. AND function *b. OR function c. NAND function 230. DTL family Logic employs: (BL Thereja, P-2376) *a. Diode, Resistor, Transistor b. Diode and resistor c. Resistor & Transistor 231. In a normally working PNP transistor, both base and collector are at _____potential w.r.t the emitter  (BL Thereja Pg-1975) a. +ve *b. –ve c. either (1) or (2) d. neither (1) or (2) 232. A transistor does not conduct unless its __________ base junction is forward biased (BL Thereja Pg-1975) *a. emitter b.collector c. both (1) and (2) d. either (1) or (2) 233. FETs have similar properties to (VK Mehta Pg-488) a. PNP transistors b. NPN transistors *c. Thermionic valve d. UJT 234. The smallest negative grid voltage, for a given plate voltage, at which plate current becomes zero is known as  (VK Mehta Pg-44) *a. grid cutoff bias b. grid cut in bias www.rjworld.com 

c. break over voltage d. break down voltage235. The band width of the band pass filter depends upon (Thomas K Eismin Pg-289) a. resistance of inductor b. No. of elements used *c. both (1) and (2) d. either (1) or (2) 236. Which transistor has the highest voltage and power gain ? (BL Thereja Pg-2059) a. CB *b. CE c. CC d. Both (1) and (2) 237. The --- configuration on of transistor is suitable for high input to Low output impedance matching  (BL Thereja Pg.- 2032) a. CB b. CE *c. CC d. All of the above 238. The common base configuration of transistor is used for: (VK Mehta Pg-227) *a. Impedance matching (high frequency signal) b. audio frequency signal c. impedance matching (Low frequency signal) d. none of the above 239. Germanium has how many electrons in the outermost orbit- (VK Mehta Pg-119) a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 *d. 4 240. Silicon & Germanium are the examples of- (VK Mehta Pg-120) a. conductor *b. semiconductor c. super conductor d. dielectric 241. A Zener diode has how many terminals? (BL Thereja Pg-1908) a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 242. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many terminals? (BL Thereja Pg-2160) a. 1 *b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 243. Aquadag coating done in CRT is to- (BL Thereja Pg-2394) a. avoid dust formation on the screen b. avoid mixing of colours *c. capture secondary electrons d. accelerate thermions 244. Sweep generator generates : (BL Thereja Pg-2392) a. Triangular wave form *b. Sawtooth waveform c. Sinusoidal Waveform d. all of these 245. A Bipolar transistor has how many terminals? (BL Thereja Pg-1974) a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 *d. 4 246. In semiconductor diodes, the current is made of- (BL Thereja Pg-1855) a. electrons b. holes *c. both (1) and (2) d. it depends on impurity concentration POWER DISTRIBUTION 247. Merz-price protection system is also known as: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 122) a. over current protection b. under voltage protection *c. differential protection d. over voltage protection 248. Differential fault means: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 12) *a. difference between the current leaving the generator and the current arriving at the bus bar b. voltage difference between generator and bus bar c. frequency difference between generator and bus bar d. none of the above 249. Essential loads are connected to: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 77) a. battery bus bar b. generator bus bar *c. both a & b d. vital bus bar 250. When external AC power is connected to TRU, its output: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 63) a. energies d.c. control relay circuits b. is connected to d.c. bus bar to operate d.c. consumers *c. both a & b are correct d. is used sparingly on ground 251. If all the generators fail during flight, the essential services will be maintained by: (Ref. TK Eismin, 243) 

a. A.C. bus *b. hot bus c. d.c. bus d. none of the above 252. In constant frequency load system which is correct statement: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 49 & 50) a. reactive load sharing is done by field excitation b. active load sharing is done by governor setting c. load sharing depends on the size of the generator *d. both a & b are correct 253. In twin engine a/c in flight, power is normally supplied by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 77) 

                                                                                                                                              *a. two main generators b. one generator and APU generator c. two main generators and batteries d. batteries and APU generator 254. Which is true about power distribution system: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 76) a. power consuming equipment must not deprived of power in the event of power source failure unless the total power demand exceeds the available supply b. fault on the distribution system, e.g. fault current, grounding or earthing at bus bar should have the minimum effect on system functioning and should constitute minimum fire risk c. power consuming equipment faults must not endanger the supply of power to other equipment *d. all are correct 255. A/c which operate only on a.c. generators as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 78) *a. a step down transformer and rectifier unit b. on invertors and voltage dropping resistor c. APU generator d. all are correct 256. Bus bars are located at/on: AES, P-76-77 www.rjworld.com a. consumer equipment b. cockpitc. tails *d. junction boxes or distribution panels 257. Bus bars are made of: AES, P-76-77 a. silver b. aluminium c. copper *d. either (b) or (c) 258. When braided copper wire is used as bus bar then it will be a: AES, P-76-77 a. main bus bar *b. subsidiary bus bar c. essential bus bar d. none of the above 259. Vital services are connected: AES, P-76-77 *a. directly to batteries b. directly to generators c. either (a) or (b) d. none of the above 260. Non-essential services are connected to: AES, P-76-77 a. battery bus bar *b. generator bus bar c. both (a) & (b) d. none of the above 261. The main source of power supply is provided by: AES, P-76-77 *a. generators b. batteries c. invertors d. APU 262. The stand by source of power is provided by: AES, P-76-77 *a. batteries b. generators 

c. invertors d. APU 263. In all AC aircraft the DC supplies are provided from/by: AES, P-76-77 a. batteries *b. transformer rectifier units (TRUs) c. separate DC generator d. none of the above 264. The configuration of the transformers of the TRU are: AES, P-65 a. star delta star b. star delta delta *c. star star delta d. delta star delta 265. The millivolt drop of the shunt installed in the TRU is: AES, P-63 a. 100 mV at 100 A b. 100 mV at 50 A c. 50 mV at 50A *d. 50 mV at 100 A 266. TRUs are designed to operate at: AES, P-63 a. single phase input of 115 volts AC, 400 c/s *b. three phase input of 200 volts at 400 c/s c. DC input of 26 volts d. none of the above values are correct 267. TRUs are cooled by: AES, P-63 a. blast air b. ram air c. cooling fans *d. natural convection 268. The number of terminals on the shunt of TRUs are: AES, P-65 a. two *b. four c. six d. eight 269. The thermal switches inside the TRUs operate at: AES, P-63  C www.rjworld.com  C and 250 C b. 200 C and 200*a. 150 C C and 100 C d. 50 C and 150c. 100270. Mark the correct option about reverse current circuit breaker: AES, P-115 *a. series coil assists the shunt coil when generator is charging the batteries b. series coil opposes the shunt coil when generator is charging the batteries c. series coil assists the shunt coil when reverse current flows from battery to the generator d. none of the above is correct 271. Mark the correct statement about reverse current circuit breaker: AES, P-115 a. series coil assist the shunt coil when reverse current flows from battery to generator b. series coil opposes the shunt coil when reverse current flows battery to generator c. series coil assists the shunt coil when generator is charging the battery *d. both (b) & (c) are correct 272. In the parallel operation of generator in aircraft when any generator fails: AES, P-77 a. the loads of the failed generator are supplied by batteries *b. the loads of the failed generator are supplied by the available generator/generators c. only essential loads are supplied by the running generator/generators d. none of the above is correct 273. In the A.C. split bus bar system of operation when any generator fails: AES, P-78 *a. its loads are supplied by the other operating generator b. only essential a.c. loads are supplied by the operating available generator c. TRUs become in operative d. all the above are correct 274. In the 3-pin external power receptacle: AES, P-70 a. the smaller pin is positive b. the smaller pin is negative *c. as in (a) and it controls the supply to external power relay d. none of the above is correct 275. The purpose of the battery in the aircraft is: AES, P-69 a. to provide main source of electrical power *b. to provide emergency source of power when main generator/generators fail c. to provide internal start d. none of the above is correct 276. Mark the correct answer about the external D.C. supply receptacle on the aircraft: AES, P-70 a. it has two mater pins and one bigger pin b. it has two bigger pins and one smaller pin c. as in (a) and one of the smaller pin is negative *d. as in (b) and one of the bigger pins is positive 

277. Mark the correct answer: AES, P-70 a. external power relay is located inside the ground power unit (GPU) *b. external power relay is located inside the aircraft and is controlled by the smallest pin of the external supply receptacle c. as in (a) and is controlled by one of the two bigger pins of external supply receptacle d. none of the above 278. The main contacts of the external supply contactor in the multiple d.c. bus bar system connect the external supply to: AES, P-71  a. no. 1 D.C. bus bar b. no. 2 D.C. bus barc. no. 3 D.C. bus bar *d. as in (b) and vital bus bar 279. Magnetic indicators of in the multiple D.C. bus bar system indicate: AES, P-71 a. satisfactory connection of generators to the bus bar b. satisfactory connection of batteries to the bus bar *c. satisfactory connection of external power to the bus bars d. none of the above is correct 280. Mark the correct statement about the multiple d.c. bus bars system being energized by the external power:  AES, P-71 a. the main contacts of the external supply contactor provide the supply to the coils of No. 1 & No. 3 bus-tie connectors b. the auxiliary contacts of the external supply contactor connect the external supply to the bus bar *c. the main contacts of the external supply contactor connect the external supply to the bus bars while the auxiliary contacts provide the supply to the coils of No. 1 and No. 3 bus the contactors. d. none of the above 281. Mark the correct answer about the magnetic indicators of the multiple d.c. bus bar system being energized by external power: AES, P-71 a. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided through the main contracts of the external supply contactor and bus tie contactors *b. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided through the auxiliary contacts of the external supply contactor and the bus-tie contactors c. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided by the bus bars directly d. none of the above is correct 282. External supply receptacle is generally located at: AES, P-69 a. wings bottom side b. wheel bays c. tail plane *d. the sides of the fuselage 283. When external A.C. supply is connected to the aircraft it is indicated by: AES, P-72 *a. amber light b. red bight c. green bight d. none of the above 284. The external a.c. power receptacle has: AES, P-73 a. at least 2 bigger pins b. at least 3 bigger pins *c. at least 4 bigger pins d. at least 5 bigger pins 285. The external power receptacle for APU starting has: AES, P-72 a. two bigger +ve pins and one smaller –ve pin b. two bigger –ve pins and one smaller +ve pin c. one +ve & one –ve bigger pin and one smaller +ve pin *d. one +ve & one –ve bigger pin and one smaller –ve pin 286. One of the function of auxiliary power unit is: AES, P-73 a. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during landing b. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during low altitude flying *c. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during takeoff and climb d. none of the above 287. APU is normally started by: AES, P-73 

*a. batteries b. generators www.rjworld.com b. invertors d. APUs are started by separate generators provided at the tail section of aircraft 288. Silver-coated copper wire is used for temperatures upto: Eismin, P-56  C)  F (220 C) *b. 392 F (105a. 221 C) d. none of the above  F (260c. 500289. The capacity of a battery is measured in: Pallet-220 a. volts b. cubic centimeters *c. ampere-hours d. by the number of plates 290. The phase voltage of a three-phase star-connected a.c. generator is: Pallet-221 a. equal to line voltage b. greater than line voltage 2 times max voltage *c. less than line voltage d. equal to291. The ratio of true power to apparent power of an AC circuit is known as: Pallet-221 a. reactive power *b. power factor c. real power d. total power 292. Power factor is the ratio of: Pallet-221 *a. true power to apparent power b. apparent power to true power c. apparent power to real power d. apparent power to impedance 293. If a source maintains a constant voltage at the input to the line then any variation in the load on line will cause:  FAA-15A, P-435 a. variation in line current *b. as in (a) and also variation in IR drop in line c. no effect on line current and IR drop d. variation in line current but no variation in IR drop 294. In a CSD unit, the control cylinder is mechanically coupled to the: Pallet-221 *a. variable displacement unit b. fixed displacement unit c. governor d. none of the above 295. The governor of a CSD unit is driven by the: a. input gear b. input ring gear *c. output gear shaft d. none of the above 296. A CSD unit which has been disconnected during flight: *a. may only be reconnected on the ground b. may be recommended in flight by re-set shutdown c. automatically resets of engine shutdown d. none of the above 297. Rectification is the process of converting: a. a high value of AC into a lower value b. AC into DC *c. AC into DC d. none of the above 298. An “N-type” semiconductor is one having: Pallet-222 a. an excess of “holes‟ b. a deficiency of holes *c. an excess of electrons d. none of the above 299. The three groups which usually categories the importance of consumer services are: Pallet-76  a. battery, generator, alternator *b. vital, essential, non-essentialc. TRU, engine, APU d. none of the above 300. The services which can be isolated in an in flight emergency for load shedding purposes, and are connected to DC and AC busbars, as appropriate and which are supplied from a generator are called: Pallet-77 a. vital services b. essential services *c. non essential services d. none of the above 301. The services which are required to ensure safe flight in an in-flight emergency situation and are connected to DC and AC busbars, as appropriate and in such a way that they can always be supplied from a generator or from batteries are known as: Pallet-77 a. vital services *b. essential services c. non essential services d. none of the above 

302. Those services which would be required after an emergency wheel up landing and are connected directly to battery are known as Pallet-77 *a. vital services b. essential services c. non essential services d. none of the above 303. The output from the aircraft generating sources is coupled to one or more low impedance conductors which are known as: Pallet-77 a. jumpers b. boding wires *c. bus bars d. shorting clips 304. The system shown is a: Pallet-81   a. parallel bus bar system b. split bus bar system*c. split parallel bus bar system d. none of the above 305. Circuits in which currents and voltages are only a few milli amperes and milli volts and which are extremely essential utilize: Pallet-108 a. slugged relays *b. polarized relays c. heavy duty relays d. light duly relay 306. Current transformer are: Pallet-175 a. step-up transformers *b. step-down transformers c. have unity power factor d. as in (b) and are known as instrument transformers 307. “Thermal Runaway” is associated with: Pallet-23 a. lead acid battery *b. nickel cadmium battery c. primary battery d. generator 308. When an area is contaminated with alkali electrolyte the most suitable neutralizing agents used are/is:  CAIP/II/1000 a. saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda b. ammonic powder c. borax powder *d. boric acid solution 309. When an area is contaminated with sulphuric acid electrolyte, the most neutralizing agent used in:  CAIP/II/1000 a. boric acid solution b. boric acid crystals or powder *c. saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda d. saw dust 310. Acid has spilled on the floor. The correct action taken in sequence should be: CAIP/II/1000 a. wash the area with copious amounts of water, treat the affected area with borax powder and the whole area should be sealed with saw dust which should then be removed & buried b. the affected area should be treated with ammonia powder, followed by washing down with copious amounts be soaked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried *c. the acid should be socked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried. The affected area should be treated with saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda, followed by washing down with copious amount of fresh water d. the acid should be soaked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried. The area should then be washed down with copious amounts of fresh water followed by treating the affected area with ammonia powder. 311. The method/methods of securing a generator to an accessories gear box are: Pallet-9 a. pulleys & belts method b. quill shaft method *c. flange or manacle ring method d. either (a) or (b) 312. Integrated drive generators means: Pallet-43 a. generator and starter in the same unit & side by side b. starter and CSD in the same unit & side by side *c. CSD and generator are mounted side by side to form a single compact unit 

d. generator and voltage regulator are mounted side by side to form a single compact unit 313. The advantage/advantages of integrated drive generators are/is: Pallet-43 www.rjworld.com a. reduces weight b. requires less spaceb. reduces vibration *d. all of the above 314. Following a mal function, disconnection of a CSD transmission system is accomplished by: a. mechanically by levers located in the flight crew compartment b. electro-pneumatically c. electro-mechanically *d. any one of the above 315. Which transformer is preferred when different type of voltage is required from one transformer:  Pallet-61 a. current transformer b. step-up transformer c. auto transformer d. step down transformer 316. The device used to sense load current in an AC: Eismin-244 a. current transformer b. high range ammeter c. potential transformer d. either (a) or (b) 317. Transformer cores are laminated in order to: BLT-1120 a. simplify its construction b. minimize the eddy current loss c. reduce cost d. reduce hysteresis loss 318. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when: BLT-1121 a. copper loss = iron loss b. copper loss > from loss c. copper loss < iron loss d. none of the above 319. High frequency transformers normally use: BLT-506 a. laminated iron core b. one solid piece iron core c. air core d. ferrite core 320. Iron losses in the transformer can be found out by: BLT-1058 a. open circuit test b. short circuit test c. fuel load test d. 50% load test 321. The power loss due to ohmic heating in a transformer is called: JB Gupta-588 a. magnetic loss b. hysteresis loss c. copper loss d. eddy current loss 322. In a three phase circuit: FAA-9A-414 a. IL = IP in star connected circuit b. IL = IP in delta connected circuit c. VL = VP in delta connected circuit d. both (a) & (c) are correct 323. Frequency of alternator depends upon: Pallet-191 a. number of conductors b. number of poles c. speed in rpm d. both (b) & (c) are correct 324. In brushless alternator frequency is kept constant by: FAA-9A-423 a. engine gear drive assembly b. CSD c. varying field excitation as per frequency change d. voltage regulator 325. No-break power transfer (NBPT) means: Eismin-244 www.rjworld.com a. when electrical power is to transferred from generator to loads the wires & cables used should not have any connectors, plugs & sockets or terminal blocks any where in between from busbar to the loads. This ensures uninterrupted supply b. that it is a automated system in which power source is transferred without a momentary interruption of electric power 

c. both (a) & (b) d. none of the above 326. Cells are connected in series to: Grob, P-370 a. increase the voltage output b. decrease the voltage output c. decrease the internal resistance d. increase the current capacity 327. A generator has an output of 10 V n open circuit, which drops to 5 V with a load current of 5 mA and RL of . The internal resistance ri1000 equal:   d. 1000 c. 100 b.50a. 25328. One extra negative plate in Pb acid cell than positive plates is used in order to: FAA-9A, P-309 a. prevent positive plate from warping or buckling b. increase the cell potential c. increase the cell capacity d. decrease the cell‟s internal resistance 329. Ni/Cad. Cell is advantageous over Pb acid from ___ view point: FAA-9A, P-313 a. low maintenance cost and long service life b. short recharge time and good reliability c. excellent reliability and good starting ability d. all of the above 330. During removal of battery from the a/c___ terminal is disconnect at least in order to avoid __ short:  Esmin, P-153 a. negative, accidental b. positive, accidental c. either negative or positive, accidental d. none of the above is done 331. Which method is used to charge the battery in a/c and why? Esmin, P-153 a. constant voltage method because a/c electrical system voltage remains constant b. constant current method order to reduce the charging time c. constant current method to avoid much supervision d. constant current method to need relatively less time 332. __ is one of the factor of thermal run away of Nickel/Cadmium cell: Esmin, P-47 a. damaged layer of cellophane material b. exothermic reactions at electrodes plates c. 30% of dilute KOH by volume d. both (a) & (b) 333. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series no-load voltage=2.1 volts per cell furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is: Esmin, P-33 a. 0.52 ohms b. 2.52 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 0.25 ohms 334.Active elements in a lead acid battery: Esmin, P-30 a. nickel hydrate and iron oxide b. lead peroxide and spongy lead c. manganese dioxide and carbon d. none of these 335. When the temperature is increased, specific gravity of electrolyte: Esmin, P-41 a. increases b. decreases c. remains same d. none 336. The neutralizing agent for H2SO4 electrolyte is: Esmin, P-40 a. KOH b. HCL c. 5% bicarbonate of soda solution d. vinegar  www.rjworld.com 337. More resistance branches reduce the combine resistance (equivalent resistance) of a parallel circuit because:  Grob, P-140 a. of more voltage drop across the resistors b. more current is required from the same voltage c. either (a) or (b) depending upon the value of resistance d. none 338. The thermal protector: FAA-9A, P-307 a. is protective device b. acts as automatic CB c. is based on different expansion of two metals d. all of the above 339. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311 a. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by weight) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water. 

b. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by weight) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water. c. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by volume) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water. d. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by volume) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water 340. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311 a. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is distilled water and the specific gravity remain between 1.240 and 1.300 at room temperature b. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.240 and 1.300 at room temperature c. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and 1.220 at room temperature d. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and 1.220 at room temperature 341. Mark the correct answer while determining the state of charge of lead acid battery: FAA-9A, P-311 a. a specific gravity reading between 1.300-1.275 indicates a high state of charge whereas between 1.240 and 1.200, a low state of charge b. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a high state of charge where as between 1.240 and 1.200, a low rate state of charge c. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a low state of charge d. a specific gravity reading between 12.240 and 1.200 indicates a high state of charge 342. In a lead acid battery the specific gravity reading should be adjusted for temperature correction:  F  F and above 90 F b. below 70 F and below 90a. above 70c. at room temperatures d. none of the above 343. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by connected its shunt field: B. L. Thareja, P-991 a. to earth b. to an a.c source c. in reverse d. to a d.c. source 344. The main function of interpoles is to minimize ____ between the brushes and the commutator when the d.c. machine is loaded: a. friction b. sparking c. current d. wear and tear www.rjworld.com 345. shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their voltage characteristics:  B. L. Thareja, P-965/966 a. identical b. drooping c. linear d. rising 346. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to __ of VR and VL: a. arithmetic sum b. algebraic sum c. phasor sum d. sum of the squares 

347. The rms value of sinusoidal a.c. current is equal to its value at an angle of __ degree: a. 60 b. 45 c. 30 d. 90 . If frequency is increased 348. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50Hz is 10to 100Hz reactance becomes __ ohm: B. L. Thareja, P-496 a. 20 b. 5 c. 2.5 d. 40 349. Mark the correct statement (EHJ Pallette,P-79) a. Split Bus bar system mostly used on 4 engine A/C b. Bus-Tie breakers are responsible for connecting different bus bars to a single Alternator c. Split-Parallel bus bar system used on 2 engine A/C d. Both (1) & (2) 350. In a parallel circuit, all component must :- a. have the same p.d. across them b. have some value c. carry equal currents d. carry same current 351. Parallel grouping of cells yields maximum current when external resistance :- (B.L. Thareja, . Page – 55) a. equals internal resistance per cell b. is greater than internal of the battery c. equals internal resistance of the battery d. is less than the internal resistance of the battery 352. A good electric conductor is one that :- ( B.L Thareja, Page – 7) a. Has low conductance b. Is always made of copper wire c. Produces a minimum voltage drop d. Has few free electrons 353. The input to an A.C circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 20 kV1. The power drawn by the circuit is :- a. 12kW b. 20kW c. 16kW d. 8kW 354. Three equal impedances are first connected in star across a balanced – 3 phase supply, if connected in delta across the same supply :- (B.L Thareja, Page-532) a. Phase current will be tripled b. Phase current will be doubled c. Line current will become one third d. Power consumed will increase three fold 355. The chief disadvantage of a low power factor is that :- (B.L Thareja, Page-536) a. more power is consumed by the load b. current required for a given load power is higher c. active power developed by a generator exceeds its rated output capacity d. heat generated is more than he desired amount 356. Unless otherwise specified, any value given for current or voltage in an ac circuit are assumed to be :-  (T.K. Eismin, Page – 84) a. Instantaneous value b. Effective values c. Maximum values d. Average values www.rjworld.com 357. Which requires the most electrical power during operation :- ( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page-20) a. a 24 volt motor requiring 8 amperes b. four 30 watt lamps in a 12 volt parallel circuit c. two lights required : 3 amperes each in a 24 volt parallel system d. all the above require : same amount of power 358. When relatively high capacitance is required in a small capacitor, we use :-  ( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page-128) a. ceramic capacitor b. paper capacitor c. electrolytic capacitor d. mica capacitor 359. In an A.C circuit the 50% of maximum value of voltage occurs at :- ( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page-42) a. 45º b. 60º c. 30º d. 90º 360. An A.C circuit has 4 Ohm resistance and 3 Ohm reactance :- ( AC 65-9A, Page – 358) a. P.f. is 0.8 b. P.f. is 0.6 c. Impedance is 6 Ohm d. Impedance is 8 Ohm 

361. The potential difference between two conductor, which are insulated from each other is measured in:- a. volts b. amperes c. coulombs d. ohms 362. The state of charge of a Ni-Cd battery can be found out by: (CAIP-II Pg-11.7) a. Open circuit voltage b. Specific Gravity reading c. Measured discharge test d. Amount of gassing 363. Why is the value of efficiency affected when load on transformer is varied :- ( B.L Thareja, Page-598) a. iron losses vary, copper loss constant b. iron losses constant, copper loss vary c. Iron losses and copper loss vary d. efficiency is not affected 364. In modern alternator why is armature kept stationary and the field windings rotating type:-  (AC 65-9A, Page-412) a. armature reactance is reduced b. improved, insulation c. less no. of slip rings d. all are correct 365. Why is the field windings is supplied with varying D.C excitation field current as per speed and electrical load in A/C :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-199) a. to have pulsating magnetic field b. to have constant voltage c. to have pulsating magnetic field at start and constant at run d. none is correct 366. Under what conditions is the KVA rating equivalent to KW rating of transformer :- ( B.L Thareja, Page-536) a. Load is resistive b. Load is resistive and inductive c. Load is resistive and capacitive d. None is correct 367. Frequency of alternator depends upon :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-193) a. number of conductors on armature b. number of poles c. speed in r.p.m. d. Both (2) & (3) are correct 368. For symetrical wave the R.M.S value is calculated over: (EHJ Pallette, P-33) a. Half Cycle b. One-fourth Cycle c. Full Cycle d. all are correct 369. In Brush – less A.C generator frequency is kept constant by :- a. engine gear box b. CSD www.rjworld.com c. Varying D.C excitation d. none is correct(AC 65-9A, Page-423) 370. Permanent magnets in Brushless A.C generator are :- a. Located on rotor shaft of alternator b. Located in inter – polar gaps of A.C exciter c. Used for providing initial magnetism d. Both (1) & (3) are correct 371. In modern aircraft electrical system :- a. A.C generator are used for normal power b. Battery and static inverter with 3 Phase A.C output for emergency power c. Battery and static inverter with Single Phase A.C output for emergency power d. Both (1) & (3) are correct  (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-78) 372. In modern aircraft electrical system :- a. TRU‟s are used to giving 28 D.C output b. Auto transformers are used for giving Single Phase 28 AC output c. Static invertor is used for providing Single Phase 28V A.C output d. All are correct (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-78) 373. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connections  (AC 65-9A, Page-359) a. is called mutual induction b. is called air gap transfer c. will cause excessive arcing and heat d. is impractical 374. The main propose of using core in a transformer is to :- (AC 65-9A, Page-358) a. decrease iron losses b. prevent eddy current loss c. eliminate magnetic hysteresis d. decrease reluctance of the common magnetic circuit 

375. Many of the larger transport a/c have been quipped with AC electrical system. The reason is :- a. Easier to install b. Less maintenance required c. More efficient d. All of the above 376. Sulphation in a lead-acid battery occurs due to :- (B.L Thareja,Page-351) a. Trickle charging b. Incomplete charging c. Heavy discharging d. Fast charging 377. Mark the NOT correct statement about the battery :- (E.H.J.Pallet, Page -49) a. capacity of a battery is a function of total plate area b. the capacitance is partially a function of its internal resistance c. capacity depends upon type of separators d. battery of higher capacity has lower internal resistance than low capacity batteries 378. Overheat of battery is indicated by :- (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-23) a. Thermocouples b. External temperature gauge c. Temperature sensing devices are located with in battery d. Hotwire instrument 379. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 Amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is :-  (Numerical) a. 0.52 ohms b. 2.52 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 0.25 ohms  www.rjworld.com 380. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed ? (T.K. Eismin, Page-40) a. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse b. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with lean water c. Apply sodium bicarbonate soda to the affected are followed by a water rinse d. None of these 381. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery when it is being charged by a constant voltage source :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-42) a. the total plate area of the battery b. the state of charge of the battery c. the ampere hour capacity of the battery d. none of these 382. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low liquid level because :-  (T.K. Eismin, Page-52) a. electrolyte evaporates through the vents b. of current package form individual cells c. Electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates d. None of these 383. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells gas only :- (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-23) a. towards the end of the charging cycle b. when the electrolyte level is low c. if they are detective d. none of these 384. In a constant current charging system, a battery requires attention at the end of charge to avoid :-  (T.K. Eismin,Page-52) a. sulphation of battery b. spilling of electrolyte c. evaporation of electrolyte d. danger of overheating 385. A fully charged lead acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because :-  ( T.K. Eismin, Page-39) a. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution a. most of the acid is in the solution b. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing c. none of these 386. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel cadmium battery utilizes :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-52) 

a. constant current and constant voltage b. constant current and varying voltage c. constant voltage and varying current d. none of these 387. The purpose of providing a space underneath, the plates in a lead acid battery container is to a :-  (T.K. Eismin, Page-37) a. prevent sediment built up from touching the plates and causing a short circuit b. allow for convection of the electrolyte in order to provide for cooing of the plates c. ensure that the electrolyte quantity radio to the number of the plates area is adequate d. none of these 388. The servicing & charging of nickel cadmium and lead acid batteries together in the same service room are likely to result in is :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-43) a. normal battery service life b. increased explosion and / or fire hazard c. contamination of both types of batteries d. none of these 389. What may result it water is added to nickel cadmium battery when it is not fully charged ?  (T.K. Eismin,Page-50) a. Excessive electrolyte deletion www.rjworld.com b. Excessive spewing is like to occur during the charging cycle c. No adverse effects since water may be added any time d. None of the above 390. In nickel cadmium battery, a rise in cell temperature (T.K. Eismin, Page-45,46) a. causes an increase in internal resistance b. causes a decrease in internal resistance c. increases cell voltage d. has no effect 391. The electrolyte solution in Ni Cd battery is :- ( T.K. Eismin, Page-47) a. 70% KOH and 30% distilled water, by weight b. 30% KOH and 70% distilled water, by weight c. 70% KOH and 30% distilled volume, by weight d. 30% KOH and 70% distilled volume, by weight 392. Which D.C. generator has the poorest voltage regulation :- (B.L Thareja, Page – 288) a. over compound b. flat compound c. shunt d. series 393. Brushes of electrical machines wear out very rapidly, at high attitude, due to absence of moisture in air, the cause is :- (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-10) a. friction between brushes and attitude because the lubrication film can not form b. contact resistance becomes negligible giving rise to heavy reactive sparking and accelerated brush erosion c. static electrical charges due to friction, producing molecular breakdown of the brushes d. all the above 394. Interlopes are connected :- a. in series with armature winding only b. in series with armature winding and compensating winding c. in series with auxiliary internal d. each statement is true 395. The primary reason for providing compensating winding in a D.C generator is to :-  (T.K. Eismin, Page-195) a. compensate for decrease in main flux b. neutralize armature mmf c. neutralize cross magnetizing flux d. maintain uniform flux distribution 396. Generator inter poles :- ( T.K. Eismin, Page-195) a. improve generator output b. prolong the life of the brushes and commutator c. reduces radio interference d. all of the above 397. The commutation process in DC Generator basically involves :- (B.L Thareja, Page-611) a. Passage of current from moving armature to a stationary b. Reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA 

c. Conversion of A.C to D.C d. Suppression of reactance voltage 398. The main function of an equalizer bar is to made the parallel operation of two over compounded D.C Generator :- (B.L Thareja, Page-620) a. stable b. possible c. regular d. smooth  www.rjworld.com 399. For the voltage built up of a self excited D.C. generator which of the following is NOT an essential condition  (TK Eismin, P-198) a. There must be some residual flux b. Field winding mmf must aid the residual flux c. Total field circuit resistance must be less than the critical value d. Aarmature speed must be very high 400. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by connecting the shunt field :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-193) a. to earth b. to an A.C. source c. in reverse d. to a D.C source 401. In a D.C generator the conversion of induced A.C to D.C is accomplished by :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-191) a. the generator commutator b. a battery connected inverter c. two groups of generator interposers d. a battery connected rectifier transformer combination . 402. During flight, when more power is needed, the generator voltage will :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-199) a. remain at a constant value, however the current flow will increase b. automatically decrease because of the greater current flow c. remains at a constant value, the current will also remain at a constant value d. increase at a steady value in order to restrict the current flow 403. In a long shunt compound wound generator, the shunt field is connected in parallel with :-  (B.L Thareja, Page – 270) a. Armature b. Series field c. Parallel combination of armature and series field d. Series combination of armature and series field A/C WIRING SYSTEM 404. Cable used where temperature is high and also severe flexibility is required under low temperature conditions:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 83) a. unifier „F‟ b. FEPSIL c. EFGLAS d. TERSIL 405. Certain terminal box/junction boxes are having one side open while fitting these the open side should be:  (Ref. AC 43 – MRO Manual) a. open outward b. open downward c. open horizontally d. open backward 406. The insulation on electrical conductor to be used in fire area: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 83) a. TERSIL b. FEPSIL c. NYVIN d. None 407. The system of wiring used in modern a/c is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 87) a. in d.c. power supply single wire earth return system is used b. all negative connections are connected to aircraft structure at various earth stations c. for a.c. power supply circuits the airframe also serves as a connection for the neutral point. d. all the above are true. 408. The earth conductor on a/c should be checked for: (Ref. EHJ Pallet) a. corrosion b. mechanical strength c. IR drop d. all the above 

409. Co-axial cables are used for: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 87) www.rjworld.com a. ignition harness b. generator cablesc. fuel quantity indicating system d. none of the above 410. The composition of cable loom is governed by factors such as: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 85) a. overall diameter/ electrical resistance of wire b. temperature conditions c. types of circuit with which cables are associated d. all are correct 411. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft application must be what type? (Ref. TK Eismin, 66) a. soldered type b. hook type c. slotted type d. ring type or fork type 412. Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire size to use for a/c installation: (Ref. TK Eismin, 60) a. allowable power loss/permissible voltage drop b. current carrying capacity of wire c. type of load (continuous or intermittent) d. all the above 413. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle:  (Ref. TK Eismin, 70) a. staggered along the length of the bundle b. grouped together to facilitate inspection c. enclosed in a conduit d. any one of the above 414. When electric cables must pass through holes in the bulk head, formers, ribs, firewalls etc, the wire must be protected for chaffing by: (Ref. TK Eismin, 65) a. wrapping with electrical tapes b. using a rubber grommet c. wrapping with plastic d. any one of the above 415. In ducted loom wiring system, the duct may be made of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 85) a. aluminum b. resin impregnated asbestos c. molded fibre glass re-inforced plastic d. all are correct 416. The insulation used on the electrical wire should confirm to the following rigid requirement:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 85) a. toughness and flexibility over a fairly wide range of temperature b. resistance to fuels, lubricants and hydrolic fluids c. ease of stripping for terminating, non-flammability and minimum weight d. all the above 417.During installation of electrical connections on terminals strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that: (Ref. TK Eismin, 70) a. only locknuts have been used for terminal attachment to the studs. b. the terminal should be anchor against rotation c. only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used for terminal attachment to the studs d. any one of the methods can be used 418. While routing electrical cable the precautions to be used are: a. protection to the wires against heat, liquids, abrasion and wear b. clamps should be installed in such a manner that the wires do not come in contact with other parts of the aircraft when subjected to vibration www.rjworld.com c. sufficient slack should be left between the last clamp and electrical equipment to prevent strain at wire terminal d. all the above (Ref. TK Eismin, 64) 419. The open wiring system what precaution should be used: a. the number of wires grouped in a bundle should be limited in order to reduce the problems of maintenance and to limit damage in case a short circuit should occur and burn of the wire in bundle b. shielded cable, ignition cable and wires that is not protected by circuit breaker or fuse should be routed separately 

c. the bending radius of a wire bundle should not be less than 10 times the outer diameter of the bundle d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 62) 420. What is true about aluminum wires used in aircraft: a. an aluminum conductor having same resistance as copper conductor, has only two –thirds of the weight but twice the cross sectional area of copper conductor b. aluminum wire smaller than AWG size 6 is not acceptable c. aluminum wires can not be soldered. In many cases aluminum wire requires a special wire-stripping tool to ensure that the strands are not nicked or broken d. all the above (Ref. TK Eismin, 70) 421. The crimped terminations are considered superior to soldering termination: a. crimpling is faster, easier and uniform action can be assured b. good electrical conductivity and lower voltage drop c. strong electrical connection, no chance of shorting as solder is not used and no heating required, dry joints are eliminated d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 88) 422. The composition of cable loom is dictated by such factors as: a. overall diameter and temperature conditions b. type of current, ac or dc, intermittent duty or continuous duty c. interference resulting from inductive or magnetic effect d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 84) 423. For connecting aluminum termination, the hardware to be used is made of: a. aluminum or aluminum alloy b. should be plated with cadmium or some other compatible material c. both a & b are correct d. brass to used (Ref. TK Eismin, 70) 424. Which of the following statements is correct for connectors: a. AN connectors are of five basic classes b. connectors of classes A, B, C & D are made of copper c. class K is made of steel d. both a & c are correct (Ref. AC65 -12A, 258) 425.Where physical separation of wire bundle is not possible with a metal line carrying a flammable fluid:  (Ref. TK Eismin, 65) a. wires should be placed above the flammable fluid line and securely clamped to the structure b. wires must be placed in conduits c. wire should be wrapped with PVC tube or tape d. any one of the above method can be used 426. While pulling the cables wire bundle through conduits the recommended lubrication to be used is:  (Ref. TK Eismin -66) www.rjworld.com a. light weight vegetable based grease b. powered graphitec. talc powder d. easily available hydrolic oil om-15 427. Nickel-coated copper wire must be used at temperatures: Eismin, P-56  C)  F (260 C) and 500 F (220 C) b. 392 F (220 C) and 392 F (105a. 221 C) d. none of the above  C and 100c. 50428. For rectangular conductors the size of the wire is measured in: Eismin, P-57 a. circular mil b. rectangular mil c. square mil d. none of the above is correct 429. Intermittent circuits carry current for intervals of: Eismin, P-58 a. 15 min. or less b. 10 min. or less c. 5 min. or less d. 2 min. or less 430. A continuous flow is considered to be any circuit that carries current for a period longer than:  Eismin, P-58 a. ½ min. b. 1 min. c. 2 min. d. 4 min. 

431. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 28 volt system is:  Eismin, P-58 a. 8 volts b. 4 volts c. 2 volts d. 1 volt 432. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 14 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 4 volts b. 2 volts c. 1 volts d. 0.5 volt 433. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 115 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 7.0 volts b. 4.0 volts c. 1.0 volts d. 0.5 volts 434. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 200 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 7.00 volts b. 4.00 volts c. 1.00 volts d. 0.5 volts 435. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in a 14 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 14.00 volts b. 8.00 volts c. 2.00 volts d. 1.00 volts 436. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 28 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 1.00 b. 2.00 c. 8.0 d. 14.00 437. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 115 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 14.0 system b. 8.0 volts c. 2.00 volts d. 1.00 volts 438. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 200 volts system is: a. 14.0 volts b. 8.0 volts c. 2.0 volts d. 1.00 volts 439. The maximum size of aluminium wire used for aircraft is: Eismin, P-59,70 a. AL-8 b. AL-6 c. AL-4 d. AL-2 440. Mark the correct statement while replacing copper wire with aluminium wire: Eismin, P-59 a. In general, an aluminium wire two sizes larger than the copper wire be acceptable b. In general, an aluminium wire one sizes larger than the copper wire be acceptable c. In general, an aluminium wire two sizes smaller than the copper wire be acceptable d. none of the above 441. MTCS about aircraft cables & wires: Eismin, P-63 www.rjworld.com a. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a double overhand knot in single cord lacing. b. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a bowline-on-a-bight knot with a single overhand knot in single cord lacing c. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in single cord lacing d. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a bowline-on-a-bight knot in a single cord lacing 442. MTCS about aircraft cables & wires: Eismin, P-63 a. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a clove-hitch locked with a double overhand knot in double cord lacing b. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in single cord lacing c. when the continuous lacing is applied the clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in double cord lacing d. none of the above 443. The terminating ends of the cord, while trying or lacing wire bundles, are trimmed to provide a minimum length of: Eismin, P-63 a. 3/8 inch b. 3/16 inch c. 3/32 inch d. 3/64 inch 

444. In open areas, the cable bundles should be laced or tied if supports for the cable are more than:  Eismin, P-62 a. 4 inches apart b. 6 inches apart c. 8 inches apart d. 12 inches apart 445. Mark the correct statement about the cable installation: Eismin, P-64 a. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the bottom b. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the top c. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the right angle d. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the side with a  angle of 60446. MTCS about cables wire installation: Eismin, P-65 a. a grommet is not required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a bulkhead, and the clearance between the edge of hole and the bundle is more than ¼ inch b. a grommet is required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a bulkhead, and the clearance between the edge of the hole and the bundle is less than ¼ inch c. both (a) & (b) are correct d. both (a) & (b) are incorrect 447. The type of cable used for general services wiring is: Eismin, P-83 a. NYVIN b. PREN c. TERSIL d. either (a) or (b) 448. The type of cable used for areas where screening is required is: Pallet, P-83 a. NYVIN MET Sheath b. NYVIN c. PREN d. EF glass 449. The type of cable most appropriate to be used in landing gear shock strut switch circuit is:  Pallet, P-83 a. unifire „F‟ b. nyvin met sheath c. FEPSIL d. EF glass 450. The type of conductor used in UNIFIRE-„f” cable is: Pallet, P-83 www.rjworld.com a. tinned copper conductor b. aluminiumc. nickel-plated copper d. silver plated copper 451. The type of cable used in high temperature areas where resistance of aircraft fluids is necessary is:  Pallet, P-83 a. UNIFIRE-“f” b. NYVIN MET SHEATH c. EF GLASS d. TERSIL 452. The type of cable used in circuits required to function during or after a fire is: Pallet, P-83 a. NYVIN b. UNIFIRE-„f‟ c. NYVIN FIRE-„f‟ d. EF GLASS 453. “Potting” means/related to: a. bonding jumpers b. plugs & sockets c. nickel cadmium battery d. lead acid battery Pallet, P-92 454. The magnetic indicators in which an electromagnet rotates a ball through 150 degrees give:  Pallet, P-130 a. one-position indications b. two-positions indications c. three-positions indications d. four-positions indications 455. The total no. of allowable nicked and broken strands in aluminium cables is: Eismin, P-70 a. 2 nicked, none broken b. 4 nicked, none broken c. none nicked, none broken d. data in sufficient 456. For a wire length of 6 inches the indication marking is done on/at: AGE Lalit Gupta, P-281 

a. 3 inches interval b. near each ends c. exactly in the centre d. it need not be marked 457. Identification code on a cables is printed: AGE Lalit Gupta, P-281 a. near each end and at 12 to 15 inch intervals b. near each end and at 15 to 18 inch intervals c. at 24 inch intervals d. none of the above 458. The unit of magneto motive force (m.m.f.) is: Pallet, P-196 a. ampere-turns b. tesla c. ampere per meter d. weber 459. A wire is marked as 1P1A22N. The number 22 here indicates: Pallet, P-185 a. cable number b. cable size c. cable segment d. current carrying capacity of cable is 22 amps 460 .The lighting used for the general illumination of cockpit areas is: Pallet, P-152 a. electroluminescent lighting b. pillar lights c. eye brow lights d. flood lights 461. The studs of electric terminal strips can accommodate: Eismin, P-69 a. 2 terminals b. 4 terminals c. 6 terminals d. 8 terminals 462. MTCS about the electrical connectors: Eismin, P-71 a. a connector assembly consists of plug and sockets b. a connector assembly consists of plug and receptacle c. as in (a) and plug contains pins & socket contain inserts d. as in (b) and plug contains sockets and receptacle contains pins www.rjworld.com 463. Which of the following is a fire proof connector: 15A, P-455 a. class A b. class D c. class K d. class M 464. Mark the correct answer about identification markings on cables: 15A, P-440 a. wire are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch lengthwise and within 6 inch of each junction on terminating point b. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 18 inch length wise and within 3 inch of each junction or termination point c. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch length wise and within 3 inch of each junction or termination point d. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch length wise and within 6 inch of each junction or termination point 465.. Identify the given knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-443 a. clove hitch only b. clove hitch with square knot c. bowline-on-a-bight d. none of the above 466. Mark the correct statement about the routing of wires in areas containing combustible fluids on oxygen lines:  15A, P-446 a. wires should be on a level with plumbing lines b. wires should be above the plumbing lines c. wires should be below the plumbing lines d. either (a) or (b) 467. Conduits are used to: 15A, P-457 a. protect the wires & cables mechanically b. protect the wires & cables from hydraulic fluids or oils c. either (a) or (b) d. both (a) & (b) 468. Wire bundles can generally have: 15A, P-441 a. 50-75 wires b. 75-100 wires c. 100-125 wires d. 125-150 wires 469. Identify the following knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-448 a. clove hitch b. bowline on a bight c. double knot d. none of the above  www.rjworld.com 470. Identify the given knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-447 a. clove hitch only b. clove hitch with square knot c. bowline-on-a-bight d. none of the above 

471. The maximum gap between two successive aircraft cable makings can be: FAA-15A, P-440 a. 12 inches b. 15 inches c. 18 inches d. 24 inches 472. A wire bundle has a dia. of 3 inches. The most suitable lacing to be done on it is: AGE/286 a. single load lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot b. double cord lacing with clove-hitch knot c. single cord lacing with clove-hitch knot d. double cord lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot 473. Recommend knot for starting the single cord lacing method: a. clove-hitch b. bowline-on-a-bight c. as in (a) and double looped over head knot d. as in (a) and single looped overhand knot 474. Corona discharge occurs more readily at: Pallet-94 a. curves and sections of wing which have minimum radii b. wing tips c. trailing edges, pitot tubes d. all of the above 475. In the six position cable identification code under ATA-100, the 5th position indicates: Pallet-186 a. cable number b. cable size c. cable segment d. either (a) or (b) 476. In the ATA-100 cable identification code if he cable is a coaxial one, the following position code is omitted:  Pallet-186 a. 1st & 3rd positions b. 4th & 5th positions c. only 5th position is omitted d. only last position is omitted 477. A cable is marked as 2-3A-AL. It indicates: Pallet-186 a. aluminium cable b. thermocouple cable c. as in (a) and size as AL3 d. as in (b) and its conductor is alumel 478. A connection in which a cable conductor is secured by compression to a termination so that the metals of both are held together in close contact is called: CAIP/II/1008 a. soldered connection b. flawless connection c. crimped connection d. looped connection  www.rjworld.com 479. Terminals used to connect aluminium wires are/is:  CAIP/II/1010 a. aluminium only b. bimetal (Al. Cu) c. either (a) or (b) can be used d. copper 480. “Potting”: Pallet-92 a. is a technique usually applied to plugs & sockets b. is a method of cooling the generator c. is a method of bonding major components to structures of aircraft d. is a method of bonding secondary components to structure of aircraft 481. The frequency of a 2 pole alternator running at 3600 RPM: BLT/1991/636 a. 50 b. 60 c. 120 d. 720 7. AIRCRAFT SYSTEM 482. Sparking caused by discharge of static electricity is prevented by: (Ref. RollsRoyce-153) a. bonding all a/c and engine components b. bonding is not required c. unnecessary weight is increased d. none of the above 483. In thermocouple system of fire detector: (Ref. RollsRoyce-154) a. two dissimilar metals are joined together to form two junctions b. rise in temperature produces an e.m.f. that triggers the detector 

c. both a & b is correct d. none of the above 484. Failure to obtain an alarm signal when the test switch is actuated may be caused by: Ref. FAA-12A– 405 a. defective test switch or control unit b. lack of electric power c. both a & b d. as in c & an opening in the sensing element 485. The „firewire‟ system for fire detection is considered superior because Ref. EHJ Pallet, 163 a. it provides maximum coverage of an engine fire zone b. it can eliminate the use of a considerable number of fire detector c. coverage area can be easily increased by extending the „fire wire‟ length by special coupling unit d. all the above 486. The „fire wire‟ fire detecting system working on the principle of change of capacitance with the temperature, the principle advantage of the system is that: (Ref. EHJ Pallet) a. a short circuit grounding the element or system wire does not result in a false fire warning b. it does not result in a false fire warning c. both a & b are correct 487. In Lindberg Donner system, the principle utilized to give indication for overheat or fire warning is:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164) a. change in capacitance with change in temperature b. change in resistance valve due to change in temperature c. change in gas pressure with change in temperature to actuate diaphragm operated contacts d. none of the above www.rjworld.com 488. For starting engine the type of fire extinguisher required to be positioned is: (Ref. FAA – 120T) a. foam type b. CO2c. Water type d. no need to have a fire extinguisher positioned 489. The purpose of normally closed diaphragm operated low pressure switch in Lindberg Donner system is: a. to indicate presence of gas in the detector b. to make the “detector inoperative” in case gas pressure is reduced or completely leaked (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164) c. both a & b are correct 490. The fixed fire extinguishers used in aircraft are operated: (Ref. General) a. mechanically b. electrically c. both a & b d. pneumatically 491. To blow out jet pipe fire: (Ref. General) a. use appropriate fire extinguisher b. cold crank the engine c. start the engine and blow out the fire d. any of the above 492. Thermistor consists of semi-conductor material whose resistance changes as: (Ref. RollsRoyce -155) a. increase of pressure b. increase of temperature c. increase of velocity d. any of the above 493. The charge of fire extinguisher: (Ref. AC65-12A/400) a. is sprayed through perforated pipes on nozzle into the cold zone of engine b. is sprayed into the hot zone, around combustion chamber c. sprayed around the exhaust pipe d. all are correct 494. Type of fire detectors most commonly used for fast detection of fires are: (Ref. FAA-12A– 399) a. rate of temperature rise b. radiation sensing 

c. over heat detectors d. all the above are correct 495. Automatic heat sensing fire detection circuit consists of: (Ref. FAA-12A– 399) a. heat sensing unit b. controlling unit c. a relay and warning devices d. all the above 496. Fire protection installation continuous loop is supported by attachment or clamps every:  (Ref. FAA-12A– 400) a. 6 – 8 inches b. 8 – 10 inches c. 10 – 12 inches d. 4 – 6 inches 497. Too great distance between support of continuous loop system may: (Ref. FAA-12A– 400) a. permit vibration b. as in a & chafing c. as in b & false alarms d. none 498. A fire warning light for each engine is located in a: (Ref. FAA-12A– 405) a. special fire switch handle on the instrument panel b. light shield c. fire control panel d. all the above are correct 499. In fire extinguishing system if cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason: www.rjworld.com  (Ref. AC65-12A/407)a. can be fitted back to original assembly only b. all the cartridges can be interchanged c. removed cartridge can not be replaced d. none of the above 500. On periodic check of fire extinguisher container, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits, under ambient temperature condition, the procedure should be followed: (Ref. AC65 – 12A/406) a. replace the container if pressure is above the maximum limit b. replace the container if pressure is below the minimum limit c. replace the container d. release the a/c with MEL 501. Mark the correct statement for Kidde sensing element: (Ref. AC65 – 12A/393) a. two wires are embedded in a special ceramic core within Inconel tube b. one of the two wires is welded to the case at each end & act as an internal ground c. the second wire provides a current signal when ceramic core material changes its resistance with a change in temperature d. all are correct 502. The contents of fixed types fire bottles in the a/c is generally: (Ref. AC65 – 12A/395) a. CO2b. methyle bromide c. halogenated hydrocarbon (commonly called freon), Halon 1211 of Halon 1301 d. none of the above 503. Mark the correct statement for strobe lighting: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 147) a. capacitor discharge type b. flashing frequency is 70 per minute c. uses xenon filled tube d. all the above are correct 504. The instrument lighting system used in a/c is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 151) a. pillar lights b. bridge lights c. wedge light d. all the above 505. Dome light in the cockpit is dimmed by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 153) a. resistance in series b. choke in series c. capacitor in series d. none of the above 506. Emergency lights in cockpit and passenger cabin illuminate: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 154) a. in the event of power failure in a/c b. primary control of the lights is by means of a s/w on a cockpit overhead panel c. illumination is normally at a lower lever 

d. all are correct 507. What is colour and orientation of the position lights for navigation light on civil air planes:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 145) a. port – green, st. bd. – red, rear – white b. port – red, st. bd. – green, rear – white c. port – white, st. bd. – green, rear – red d. none of the above  www.rjworld.com 508. Runway turn off lights are used to provide illumination area to: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 146)a. the immediate right and left of aircraft b. rear of the a/c c. both a & b are correct d. none of the above 509. Mark the correct statement of strobe lighting: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 147) a. its input supply is 28v DC or 115v, 400 Hz a.c b. output is capacitor discharge, 450v and light is white in colour c. typical flashing frequency is 70 per minute d. all are correct 510. The landing gear warning usually provide which of the following indications: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 176) a. red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up b. green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear c. red light for unsafe gear, green lights for gear down, no light for gear up d. none of the above 511. Anti-skid sensor is sensing: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178) a. speed of the a/c b. pressure of brake unit c. temperature difference between hydrolic oil and atmosphere temperature d. all the above are correct 512. The anti-skid system works on the principle: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178) a. it monitors the rate of wheel deceleration b. if the rate of deceleration is very high, correction signed is applied to control valve c. the control valve diverts the fluid reaching to brake system, hence wheel spin up and causes to brakes to be reapplied d. all are correct 513. In anti-skid system the reference speed signal is given by: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178) a. transducers in the main wheels b. transducer in the nose wheels c. internal reference velocity signal is inbuilt to skid control unit d. none of the above 514. The purpose of thermal switch incorporated in wind shield motor unit: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179) a. to open the motor circuit if field winding temperature attains approximately 1500c temperature b. if current in field winding exceed pre-determine valve i.e. 8 to 10 amps. c. to limit the operating speed of motor d. both a & b are correct 515. Wind shield motor works on: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179) a. electric supply b. pneumatic supply c. hydrolic supply d. all the above 516. Anti-icing system used for pitot/static head is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 215) a. natural air b. electrical heating c. chemical heating d. all the above are correct 517. In de-icing system, where pneumatic boots are used, the ice is removed: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 169) a. by directing the hot air on the ice through the holes of boots b. by heating thin conducting coating provided over the surfaces of boot www.rjworld.com c. by inflation and deflation, causing ice to break up and with aid of air stream, crack off d. both a & b care correct 

518. The method of de-icing used for helicopter blades is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 168) a. pneumatic b. electrical c. spray of chemical on the blade d. de-icing is not required. Ice is automatically thrown away due to centrifugal forces acting on the blades 519. The purposes of time delay in rain repellent system is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179) a. to allow measured fluid to flow under pressure through the spray nozzle and onto the windshield once with single operation of push switch b. to allow fluid to flow after delay of 0.25 seconds c. to allow fluid to flow regularly after interval of 0.25 seconds d. all the above are correct 520. The braking effect in windshield wiper motor in parking position is effected by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178) a. brake solenoid b. eddy current effect c. the motor operates a cam to change over the brake switch contacts which then short out the armature to stop the motor d. eddy current 521. Mark the correct statement for windshield rain repellent system: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 179) a. rain is repelled by electrical heating b. compressed air is directed on to the windshield to remove rain particles c. fluid is prayed through nozzles which causes the surface tension in water to change to that the water is formed into globule which are blown off the windshield by air stream d. all are correct 522. As per the requirement the windshield wiper motor operated on various speeds. The speed regulation is effected by: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178) a. controlling the shunt filed strength of the motor b. using tapped transformer c. controlling the series filed strength d. connecting resistance in series with the d.c. power supply 523. Mark the correct statement for ice detection in the air: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 174) a. the ice accretion causes a drop in pressure sensed by the probe and a diaphragm the deflection of which make the circuit to warning light b. knife edge cutter method c. ultrasonic probe system d. all the above 524.Where the temperature sensing element is located in electrical heated windshields: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 172) a. within the cockpit and operated by pilot b. above the windshield c. embedded within the panel d. just outside the windshield but touching it firmly 525. Mark the correct statement for windshield heating on large aircraft: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 170) a. transparent stannic oxide or gold film is used b. metal is deposited on the inside of the outer glass layer c. power necessary to deal with severe icing conditions in the order of 5 –6 watts/in2 of windshield area www.rjworld.com d. all are correct 526. Generally in turbo propeller engine installation: (Ref. RollsRoyce, 150) a. electrical system of ice protection is used b. electrical heating is used on air intakes cowling of the engine, propeller blade an spinner c. none of the above 

d. both a & b are correct 527. Rain protection is provided in aircraft: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178) a. by use of windshield wipers on pilot‟s and co-pilots windscreen b. by spraying rain repellant on pilot‟s and co-pilots windscreen c. no need for any such arrangement d. both a & b systems are used 528. Safety relief valve in pressurization system operates: (Ref. General) a. pneumatically b. mechanically c. electrically d. automatically 529. Temperature sensors used in ducting in air conditioning system provide signal in unbalance condition to operate:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) a. pack valve b. temperature control valve / mix valve c. mixing valve d. air cycle machine 530. The ram air flows from: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) a. primary heat exchanger b. secondary heat exchanger c. air cycle machine d. both a & b are correct 531. The purpose of limit sensor and anticipator sensor is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) a. to regulate air conditioning temperature b. to modulate any rapid changes demanded by an unbalanced control bridge so that when the actuator control moves the mix valve it will produce cabin temperature changes without sudden blast of hot air and cold air, and without raising duct temperature above limits c. to switch off the air conditioning when the temperature exceeded the anticipated limit d. all the above 532. The safety valve in air conditioning and pressurization system works: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) a. with electric supply b. with hydrolic supply c. works automatically with air pressure from cabin (pneumatically) d. none of the above 533. The purpose of dump valve is: (Ref. General) a. to release cabin pressure to atmosphere on landing b. to ensure that differential cabin pressure is maintained through out the flight c. to maintain cabin temperature as per the setting d. none of the above 534. In large aircraft the air conditioning and pressurization is done with help of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 180) a. freon refrigent b. liquid ammonia cycle c. compressed air taken from engine compressor d. all of the above 535. Down stream temperature of air cycle machine is controlled by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) www.rjworld.com a. pack valve b. temperature control valve (also known as mix valve) c. zone controller d. temperature 536. The principle of smoke detector in aircraft is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164) a. infrared beam of light passes through the air sample b. air is sampled and any smoke present, causes a change of electric current in photo diode c. change in the density of air sample due to presence of smoke is measured by density motor 537. The horn in landing gear warning circuit is activated by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 176) a. up lock micro s/w b. down lock micro s/w c. engine throttle retard micro s/w d. all the above 

538. When the resistance type continuous wire fire warning element gets broken: Pallet, P-163 a. fire warning system will not work satisfactorily b. fire warning system will still work satisfactorily c. as in (a) and a horn comes on when the continuous wire breaks down d. none of the above statements are correct regarding fire warning system 539. The aft (tail) navigation light: Eismin, P-250  on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear a. must show light through an angle of 70 on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear b. must show light through an angle of 50 on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear c. must show light through an angle of 140d. none of the above 540. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit:  Eismin, P-87 a. capacitance and voltage b. inductance and frequency c. voltage and resistance d. resistance and capacitive reactance 541. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass most readily: BLT, P-745 a. copper b. iron c. aluminium d. titanium 542. The power factor of a parallel resonance circuit is: BLT, P-555 a. one b. zero c. 0.5 d. 0.707 543. Current transformers are/have: Pallet, P-126 a. step-down transformer b. step-up transformer c. transformation ratio as one d. none of the above 544. The purpose of the current transformer is: Pallet, P-126 a. to step-up the voltage b. to step-down the voltage c. to measure large AC load currents of main lines d. none of the above is correct 545. Mark the correct statement about shunts: Pallet, P-126 a. shunts used in DC circuits have two terminals while those in AC have for terminals b. shunts used in DC circuits have four terminals while those used in AC have two terminals c. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have four terminals www.rjworld.com d. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have two terminals 546. Mark the correct statement about instrument transforms: BLT/2005/444-446 a. current transformers are used with high range ammeters whereas potential transformer are used with low range voltmeter b. current transformers are used with low range ammeters whereas potential transformers are used with high range voltmeters c. both current and potential transformers are used with low range meters d. none of the above 547. Mark the most appropriate choice with regard to meter sensitivity: FAA-9A, P-325,329 a. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the amount of current required to give full-scale deflection b. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the number of millivolts across the meter when full scale current flows through it /E) and is determined by dividing the resistance of the c. the sensitivity of a voltmeter is given in ohms per volt (meter plus the series resistance by the full-scale reading in volts. d. all of the above 548. The range of an ammeter can be extended by: a. connecting a high value resistance in parallel with the meter movement 

b. connecting a low value resistance in parallel with the meter movement c. connecting a high value resistance in series with the meter movement d. connecting a low value resistance in series with the meter movement 549. A typical frequency of anti-collision light beam rotation is: Pallet-224 a. 40-45 cycles per minute b. 80-90 cycles per second c. 80-90 cycles per minute d. 100-120 cycles per minute 550. Retractable type landing lights utilize: Pallet-149 a. split field series motors b. hydraulic power c. either (a) or (b) d. both (a) & (b) 551. Strobe light utilize: Pallet-147 a. DC driven motor b. capacitor discharge flash tube c. split field series motor d. hydraulic power 552. Pillar lights are located on/at/in: Pallet-151 a. on the pillars in the passenger compartments b. on the pillars in the cabin c. on the pillars in the nose strut d. on the main instrument panel 553. Integral lights are fitted at/on/in: Pallet-151 a. inside the landing lights b. inside the taxying lights c. inside the ice inspection light d. inside the instruments 554. Bridge lighting is located at/on/in: Pallet-151 a. passenger cabin b. bridge lighting is recessed into the sides of the fuselage and are preset to direct beams of light at the required angles c. on the instruments outside d. on the instruments inside 555. When a resistance type continuous wire fire detector is broken, it: Pallet-163 a. gives a false warning b. the system becomes inoperative www.rjworld.com c. the warning function is no way affected d. none of the above is correct 556. The principal advantage of capacitive type of fire warning system is that: Pallet-164 a. it can work on DC as well as AC b. a short circuit grounding the element or system wiring does not result in a false fire warning c. it utilizes very small amount of power d. it does not need fire extinguishers 557. Smoke detectors use: Pallet-166 a. capacitor discharge tubes b. spot fire detectors c. continuous fire wire elements d. photo diodes 558. The safety switches in landing gear control circuit are located at/on/inside: Pallet-175 a. up lock assembly b. down lock assembly c. landing gear shock struts d. inside the relay 559. When all the lights in the under carriage position indicator are extinguished, it indicates: Pallet-176 a. all gears down and locked b. all gears up and locked c. all gears in the travelling mode d. all gears are unlocked 560. The purpose of safety switch in landing gear control circuit is: Pallet-175 a. to bring all gears safely down b. to make the touch down as smooth as possible c. to prevent accidental retraction of the gear while the aircraft is a ground d. as in (b) and works in conjunction with braking system 561. Electroluminescent lighting contain: CAIP/II/990 a. sodium b. phosphor c. mercury d. filaments 562. Passenger compartment is lighted with the help of: CAIP/II/991 a. in candescent lamp b. fluorescent tube c. either (a) or (b) or both d. pillar lamps 563. Wings scan lamps: CAIP/II/985 a. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the formation of ice b. as in (a) and also visual inspection of turbine engines 

c. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the assessment of damage due to bird hits d. to measure using drop on each wing 564. Which of the following loads can be supplied from the frequency wild generator: a. VHF radio set b. artificial horizon c. electrical de-icing system d. all of the above 565. The advantages of proximity sensors are/in: Eismin-259 a. it gives very bright & clean indication because current consumption is low b. uses less number of wires, hence it is easier to install, service repair c. there are no moving contacts which makes it more reliable d. it is cheap 566. In overheat and fire detection system: (EHJ Pallette, P-164) a. Sensor are filled with helium gas www.rjworld.com b. Sensor are filled with hydrogen gas c. As in (a) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire d. As in (b) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire 567. In capacitive type fire warning system: (EHJ Pallette, P-164) a. Capacitance of the element will increase with increment of temperature b. Capacitance of the element will decrease with increment of temperature c. As in (a) and doesn‟t give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding d. As in (b) and doesn‟t give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding 568. Mark the correct statement: (EHJ Pallette,P-173) a. Pneumatic Boot is a anti-icing system and applied in wing/stabilizer b. Electrical heating method of anti-icing is applied to windshield c. Fluid method of de-icing is applied to air-intake d. Combustion heating is applied to Wind shield 569.In propeller de-icing system: (EHJ Pallette,P-172) a. Power supply is fed through brush and commutator b. Only one timer unit gives supply to both propeller c. Both (a) and (b) are correct and timer energizes the heating element for 34 seconds d. As in (b) and timer energizes the heating element for 34 seconds 570. In Ice detection system: (EHJ Pallette,P-175) a. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 150 Khz frequency b. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 140 Khz frequency c. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 150 Hz frequency d. Any of the above. 571. In Engine air intake heating system: (EHJ Pallette,P-171) a. “Fast” mode is selected when temperature is between +10 degree to -6 degree centigrade b. “Fast” mode is selected when temperature is below -6 degree centigrade c. As in (a) and the duration of heat „on‟ and „off‟ is short d. As in (b) and the duration of heat „on‟ and „off‟ is long 572. The Red light will illuminate in LG system when : (EHJ Pallette,P-176) a. All LG is UP b. One LG is UP c. All LG is in intermittent position d. None 573. The horn in the LG system is connected with: (EHJ Pallette,P-176 ) a. Throttle and DOWN lock m/s b. Throttle and UP lock m/s c. Throttle Only d. None 574. The condition for LG system horn to come on is: (EHJ Pallette,P-177) a. Any one LG is not DOWN & locked b. Any one LG is not UP & locked c. As in (a) and throttle at landing configuration d. As in (b) and throttle at take off configuration 575. When the aircraft is on ground, LG UP position in the LG selector switch is prevented by the operation of:  (TK Eismin,P-255) a. Proximity switch www.rjworld.com 

b. Squat switch c. As in (b) and the switch is inside the LG selector d. As in (b) and the switch is on the LG shock strut 576. Squat switches are connected in: (TK Eismien,P-253) a. Series b. Parallel c. As in (a) and are closed when the aircraft is on ground d. As in (a) and are closed when the aircraft is in air 577. Horn silencer circuit will not function if: (EHJ Pallette,P-176) a. LG is not UP and locked b. Throttle is not at landing configuration c. As in (b) and LG is not DOWN and locked d. As in (a) and LG is not DOWN and locked 578. In case of fire the APU: (CAIP-II) a. Manually shut down by APU master switch in flight deck b. Automatically shut down APU with the help of “Auto Ignition cutoff “ system c. Automatically Shut down with the help of fire detection system d. Both (2) and (3) 579. Contacts of thermal switch used in the fire detection system is made up of: (EHJ Pallett Pg-106) a. Copper-rhodium b. Silver-rhodium c. Nickel-rhodium 4) None 580. Runway turn off lights is used: (TK Eismin, P- 256) a. To turn off runway light in front of aircraft b. Provide light to the left & right of the aircraft c. During taxying operation d. Both „2‟ & „3‟ 581. Ballast transformer used in the “Fluorescent light” system: (TK Eismin,P-256) a. To increase the system voltage b. To Stabilize the voltage c. To decrease the voltage 582. If an electrical actuator overloaded due to mechanical load, it can be protected by means of :-  (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-142) a. Lead screw b. Electrical brake c. Torque switch d. clutch AIR CRAFT IGNITION SYSTEM 583. Mark the correct statement: (Ref. RollsRoyce-122) a. electric starter is usually a d.c. motor b. electric starter supply may be high or low c. the electrical supply is automatically disconnected when starter load is reduced after the engine started d. all are correct 583. Pneumatic starters: (Ref. RollsRoyce-124) a. are used on most commercial airlines b. it is comparatively light, simple and economical to operate www.rjworld.com c. both are correct d. none of the above 584. As soon as the engine starts: (Ref. RollsRoyce-122) a. starter gets disengaged by clutch system b. it remains running through out the engine seen c. it does not matter at all d. none of the above 585.The commercial a/c requires its starting system to be: (Ref. RollsRoyce-122) a. highly reliable b. minimum disturbance to the passengers c. most economical d. all are correct 586. Starting power requirements for gas turbine engine differ from those of reciprocating engines, in gas turbine engine peak load to the starter is applied: (Ref. Treager -374) a. during starter engagement b. during starter cutting off 

c. initially during starting d. during initial engine acceleration prior to light off 587. Electric motor starters designed to provide high starting torque are: (Ref. Treager – 374) a. series wound b. shunt wound c. series & shunt wound d. shunt & series wound 588. Type of starter mostly used on small engines: (Ref. Treager-374) a. fuel air combustion starter b. hydraulic motor starter c. starter generator d. ATA (all the above) 589. The principle of electric starter is to convert: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 155) a. mechanical energy into electric b. electrical energy into mechanical energy c. magnetic energy into electrical energy d. magnetic energy into mechanical energy 590. Some of the turbo engine requires 24v/48v supply for engine starting. This supply is obtained: (Ref. General) a. only through external power source b. a/c electrical supply system is having batteries for 24 volt as well as 48 volt system separately c. battery supply and APU supply are connected in series to make 48v d. batteries are connected in parallel during normal operation and are connected in series during internal engine starting cycle. 591. Engagemnet of air turbine starter is accomplished through: (Ref. Treager-380) a. a jaw or friction coupling b. a jaw or fly wheel coupling c. a jaw or pawl and ratchet clutch d. none of the above 592. The electric field of primary coil is made to collapse to generate high voltage in secondary coil by the help of:  (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 158) a. choke b. contact breaker c. rectifier d. sealed discharge gap 593. The distinct features of LT ignition system are: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 160) a. no. of transformer coils are equal to number of cylinders b. the distributor supplies low voltage to primary winding of transformer c. no possibility of flares in distributor d. all are correct 594. D.C. operated ignition system receive their power from: (Ref. Otis 11-8) a. the battery bus b. from the AC bus www.rjworld.com c. from PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) d. both a & c595. Advantage of LT magneto ignition system over HT system is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 160) a. HT lead is short b. the distributor is receiving low voltage from primary winding c. high voltage is induced in transformer coil d. all the above 596. What will be the Joule rating of an ignition system operates on 10,000 watt for .00040 sec:  (Ref. Otis 11 – 3) a. 0.4 joule b. 4 joule c. 40 joule d. 400 joule 597. How much energy is required to ensure that the engine will obtain satisfactory relight at high altitudes:  (Ref. RollsRoyce-127) a. 15 joules b. 12 joules c. 18 joules 598. When is it necessary to have the ignition system continuously operating to give an automatic relight should flame extinction occur: (Ref. RollsRoyce-128) a. icing condition b. take off in heavy rain or snow c. both a & b 599. An ignition unit may be supplied with alternative current (a.c) and operated by: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) 

a. trembler mechanism b. a transistor chopper circuit c. transformer 600. A choke is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit is: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. to extend the duration of discharge b. to retard the duration of discharge c. either (a) or (b) 601. What is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit to operate safely, even when the high tension lead is disconnected and isolated: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. safety resistor b. discharge resistor c. choke 602. Transistorized ignition unit is having advantage over the d.c. trembler operated unit because it has:  (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. reduced size b. less weight c. both (a) & (b) 603. The discharge of shunted surface discharge type igniter plug takes the form of: (Ref. RollsRoyce -131) a. a. high intensity flashover from the electrode to the body b. a low intensity flashover from the electrode to the body c. either (a) or (b) 604. How many ignitor plugs being situated in different positions in the combustion system: (Ref. RollsRoyce -114) a. one b. two c. three d. it depends upon type of JE  www.rjworld.com 605. In HT magneto system the rotor of the distributor is electrically connected to: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 158)a. primary winding of magneto b. secondary winding of magneto c. a.c. supply from a/c d. all are incorrect 606. Ignition units are rated in: (Ref. RollsRoyce-127) a. joules b. coulomb c. amperes d. faraday 607. Mark the correct statement: (Ref. RollsRoyce-128) a. H.T. connection of d.c. supply is given as input to trembler operated ignition unit and output is H.T. connection to igniter plug as output b. low tension (LT) is input and HT is output of ignition unit c. H.T. connection is input and output is LT is output in ignition unit d. none 608. What will happen, when the voltage in the capacitor is equal to the breakdown value of a sealed discharge gap in trembler ignition unit: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. the energy is discharged across the face of the igniter plug b. the energy is discharged inside the face of the igniter plug c. the energy is destroy across the face of spark plug d. all the above 609. The surface discharge igniter plug has the end of the insulator formed by a semi-conducting pellet which permits an electrical leakage from: (Ref. RollsRoyce-131) a. central high tension electrode to the body b. body high tension electrode to the central rod c. both (a) & (b) d. none 610. Which device is fitted to ensure that any residual stored energy in the capacitor is dissipated within one minute of the system being switched off: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) 

a. choke b. discharge resistor c. safety resistor d. none 611. The advantage of transistorized ignition unit over trembler operated unit is: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. it has no moving parts and has longer operating life b. its size is reduced and weight is less than that of the trembles operated unit c. its construction and working function is easier d. both (a) & (b) 612. In a.c. ignition unit receives an alternating current which is passed through ………..and rectified to charge a capacitor: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. motor b. generator c. invertor d. transformer 613. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: a. the same speed as the engine b. half the speed of the engine c. one and a half times the engine speed d. twice the engine speed 614. When the rpm of a shunt wind motion increases the current drawn by it: Pallet-225 a. decreases b. remain the same c. increases d. none of the above www.rjworld.com 615. In an AC motor, the difference between synchronous speed and the speed of the rotor is termed:  Pallet-224 a. the motor loss speed b. the brake speed c. the slip speed d. none of the above 616. The self-sustaining speed is the: Pallet-225 a. maximum speed at which the starter motor runs to maintain rotation of an engine b. speed at which the engine is capable of maintaining rotation c. speed at which current to the motor is interrupted d. none of the above 617. The purpose of a “blow-out” cycle is to: Pallet-225 a. remove excess air from an engine during starting b. blow cooling air through the starting m0tor after stating c. remove the unburnt fuel from an engine in the event of an unsuccessful start d. none of the above 618. The contact breaker of a magneto is connected in the: Pallet-225 a. primary winding circuit b. secondary winding circuit c. circuit between distribution and spark plug d. none of the above 619. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: Pallet-225 a. the same speed as the engine b. half the speed of the engine c. one and a half times the engine speed d. twice the engine speed 620. Starter generators are: Pallet-157 a. compound wound machines b. series motors c. shunt generators d. starter generators have series generator and shunt motor 621. The number of sparks given by the rotating armature type of magnetos, per revolution of engine is:  Pallet-159 a. one b. two c. four d. eight 622. The number of sparks given by the rating magnet magnetos, per revolution of engine is: Pallet-159 a. one b. two c. four d. eight 623. Impulse coupling: Pallet-159 a. provide advance spark b. heavy spark c. it‟s a coupling through which generator is coupled to the engine drive shaft d. is used with turbine starters 624. Ignition switches: Pallet-159 a. are two switches into one switch b. it is used in magneto circuit 

c. as in (b) and it completes a circuit by closing its contacts in the “OFF” position d. as in (a) and is a rotary switch 625. Magnetos: Pallet-159 a. are a combination of generator and motor b. are a combination of an alternator and transformer www.rjworld.com c. are a combination of impulse coupling and step-up transformer d. are a combination of paramagnet generation and impulse coupling 626. The purpose of the choke inside the light energy ignition unit is: Pallet-161 a. hastens the duration of discharge b. extends the duration of discharge c. absorbs the extra energy during the discharge d. provides a safe discharge current 627. Polar inductor magneto is a: Pallet-159 a. rotating armature magneto b. rotating magnet magneto c. as in (a) and gives four two per revolution d. as in (b) and gives four sparks per revolution 628. A polar inductor motor to be fitted on a 12 cylinder engine must be driven at: BLT/1991/159 a. same speed as engine speed b. half the engine speed c. double the engine speed d. one & half times the engine speed 629. Distributor of a polar inductor magneto fitted on 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: Pallet-159 a. half the engine speed b. the engine speed c. one and a half times the engine speed d. double the engine speed 630. Mark the correct statement about magneto distributors: Pallet-159 a. the distribution rotor of a polar inductor magneto fitted on a cylinder engine must be driven at one and a half times the engine speed b. the distribution rotor of a rotating armature magneto fitted on a 6 cylinder engine must be driven at the engine speed c. the distributor rotors are always driven at half the engine speeds d. distribution rotors are always driven at double the engine speed 631. Proximity sensors work on the principle of: Eismin-259 a. capacitance effect of a capacitor b. inductance of a coil c. heating effect of current d. kirchoff‟s laws 632. When load is removed ___ motor will run at the highest speed: a,. shunt b. cumulative-compound c. differential compound d. series 633. If the pole flux of a d.c. motor approaches zero its speed will: a. approach zero b. approach infinity c. no change due to corresponding change in back emf d. approach a stable value somewhere between zero and infinity  and back emf 110 V is ___ ampere: 634. The current drawn by a 120-v d.c. motor of armature resistance 0.5a. 20 b. 240 c. 220 d.5 

DGCA PAPER II, (October Session 2011)DGCA PAPER II

Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(October Session 2011)

1. In four stroke engine spark plug fires ina. 4 revolutions of crank shaftb. 2 revolutions of crank shaft

c. ½ revolutions of crank shaftd. 360 degree revolution of crank shaft2. Before storing aircraft in hangera. Fuel tank should be fully filledb. Fuel tank should be half filledc. Fuel tank should be emptyd. Fuel tank should have residual fuel3. Jacking procedure of aircrafta. Minimum 4 jacking points are providedb. The legs of the jacks should be checked to see that they will not interfere with the operations to be performed after the aircraft is jacked.c.d. All of the above4. fires in flammable petroleum products or other flammable or combustible liquids, greases, solvents, paints, etc. is classified asa. class A fireb. class B firec. class C fire5. towing speed should not be more thana. 10km/hrb. 20 km/hrc. 50 km/hrd. Not to exceed wing walkers speed6. Sparking testing is most common means of identifyinga. Ferrous alloys onlyb. Nonferrous alloys onlyc. ………..7. In spark testing which steel gives off long, straight shafts having a few white sprigsa. Wrought ironb. Cast ironc. Low carbon steel8. T6 in heat treatment indicatesa.b. T indicates heat treatment and 6 indicates hardness statec.9. Heat treatment of aluminum consists ofa. Solution heat treatmentb. Precipitation Heat Treatmentc. Annealingd. All of the above10. If distance of cg from datum is 160” and of leading edge of MAC is 140” and length of MAC is 100”. Find MAC %a. 20%b. 50%c. 75%11. If the input of half wave rectifier is 240 V and transformer has a step down ratio of 8:1, what is the output rms value?a. 42.2 Vb. 30Vc.12. 2Mb in computer is equivalent toa. 2 X 2ˆ20b. 2 X 2ˆ10c. 2 X 2ˆ5d. 2 X 2ˆ1

13. Frequencies used in ultrasonic are in the frequency range ofa. 100 KHz to 5 MHzb. 200 KHz to 5 MHzc. 500 KHz to 10 MHzDGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(October Session 2011)2 | P a g e w w w . r j w o r l d . c o m e d i t e d b y - R a j u14. Electro static is dangerous if abovea. 1000 Vb. 100 Vc. 200 Vd. 500 V15. Static discharge is bya. High voltage levelb. High current levelc. Low current level16. In the circuit shown in the figure, calculate the value of value of unknown resistor R when the current in branch OC is zero.a. 4.5 Vb. 6 Vc. 9 Vd. 12 V17. Find the Ceq of the circuit shown in the fig. all capacitances are in microfarada. 4.4 microfb. 4.5 microfc. 6 microf18. 240 on capacitor indicatesa. 240 microfb. 240 picofc. 240000 f19. Rivnut isa. Hollow blind rivetb. A nutc.20. DE multiplexer isa. Output is same as multiplexerb. Output is opposite of multiplexerc.21. Airfoil design is ofa. Wing, turbine bladesb. Nose section of fuselagec. Elevator, aileronsd. All of the above22. cable of medium flexibility and is used for trim tab controls, engine controls, and indicator controls isa. 7 X 7b. 7 X 19c. 1 X 723. Which of them is a 5 layer devicea. Diacb. Triacc. Variac24. SCR consists ofa. 3 terminalsb. As in a and middle one is forward biasedc. As in a and middle one is reverse biasedd.25. Convert C5F2 to binary

a. 1100 0101 1111 0010b. 0010 1111 0101 1100c. 0010 1001 0111 110026. Convert octal code 3574 to binarya. 011 101 111 100b. 100 111 101 011c. 111 101 011 111DGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(October Session 2011)3 | P a g e w w w . r j w o r l d . c o m e d i t e d b y - R a j u27. Current in inductora. Lags voltage by Π/2b. Inductance is directly proportional to frequencyc.d. All of the above28. A metal which can be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking, breaking, or leaving some other detrimental effect, is said to bea. Malleableb. Ductilityc. Elasticity29. “Austenite” isa. The name given to steel when it is heated above the critical range, consists of a solid solution of cementite in gamma iron.b.c.30. Mark the correct statement regarding precipitation heat treatmenta. To obtain the maximum strength in aluminum , they must be either naturally aged or precipitation hardenedb.31. Data transfer in computer is bya. Series busb. Parallel busc. Data busd. ARINC 429 bus32. Speed of induction motor is increased whena. Number of poles is increasedb. Number of poles is reducedc.d. All of the above33. In capacitor if t is the thickness of the dielectric slab, capacitance increases witha. t increasesb. t reducesc.34. MTCSa. turboprop engine requires lengthy runway than piston engine of same powerb. turbojet has more weight than piston engine of same powerc. turbofan required short runway as compare to turbojetd. all of the above35. clipper circuit is useda. to get a desired wave formb. as in a and requires a battery source to select a dc voltage levelc. as in a and requires a transistord.36. Thermal runawaya. Should be avoidedb. Occurs in transistors……..c. Causes permanent damaged. All of the above

37. Thyractron isa. SCRb. Transistorc.d.38. In oxygen systema. Gaseous oxygen is chemically stable and is nonflammable.b. Combustible materials ignite more rapidly and burn with greater intensity in an oxygen rich atmospherec. Liquid oxygen causes severe frostbite if it comes in contact with the skin.d. All of the aboveDGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(October Session 2011)4 | P a g e w w w . r j w o r l d . c o m e d i t e d b y - R a j u39. Which is an excellent material to use with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid.a. Butylb. Neoprenec. Buna nd. Buna s40. Yellow color stands fora. Hydraulicb. Lubricationc. Coolant41. Illustrated parts catalog shows which drawinga. Orthographicb. Exploded view diagramc.42. Pulse echo method can detect which defectsa. Welds flawb. Surface crackc. Subsurface defectd. All of the above43. Internal flaws in composite are detected bya. Coin tap testb. Laser holographyc. Ultrasonicd. All of the above44. Corrosion along grain boundaries is calleda. Intergranular corrosionb. Crevice corrosionc. Galvanic corrosion45. Turnbuckle has groove or knurl ona. Right hand sideb. Left sidec. No such hard and fast rule46. Aluminum is more susceptible to corrosion when substantialpercentage of __________ is presenta. Magnesiumb. Copperc. Manganesed. Chromium47. 33xx indicates in wrought aluminum indicatesa. Copperb. Manganesec. Magnesiumd. Silicon48. The resistance of Manganina. increases with increase in temperature

b. change very little as the temperature changesc. decreases with increase in temperature49. brazing flux isa. tin and leadb. tin, lead and silverc.d.50. Soft brazing temperature isa. 200˚c to 400˚cb. 400˚c to 600˚cc. 600˚c to 850˚c51. PCB can be repaired bya. Soldering onlyb. With a bare wire that can be shorted across the damagec. No repair can be done on PCB52. We can get vastly superior product than irona. If carbon is added to iron, in percentages ranging up to approximately 0.5 percent.b. If carbon is added to iron, in percentages ranging up to approximately 1 percent.DGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(October Session 2011)5 | P a g e w w w . r j w o r l d . c o m e d i t e d b y - R a j uc. If Nickel 3.50%, chromium 1.55% is presentd.53. Test for demagnetization of partsa. It consists of placing a suitable magnetic compass in a position away from all stray magnetic influence and slowly rotating at a position along the east/west axis of the compass.b. It consists of placing a suitable magnetic compass in a position away from all stray magnetic influence and slowly rotating at a position along the north/south axis of the compass.c. As in b andd. As in a and if deflection of compass needle more than 1˚ will require the component to be demagnetized again and test repeated.54. Which resistor has the smallest possible sizea. Wire wound resistorb. Carbon composition resistorc.d.55. While selecting a capacitor check fora. Voltageb. Sizec.d.56. Screws are manufactured undera. Class 1 fitb. Class 2 fitc. Class 3 fitd. Class 4 fir57. Metal tubing’s are sized bya. Inside diameter in increment of 1/16 inchb. Inside diameter in increment of 1/32 inchc. Outside diameter in increment of 1/16 inchd. Outside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch58. Flexible hoses are used wherea. connect moving parts with stationary partsb. locations subject to vibration and where a great amount of flexibility is needed.c. It can also serve as a connector in metal tubing systems.d. All of the above

59. Stringers, bulkhead, skin, rivet and extruded section are made froma. Cast aluminum alloyb. Wrought aluminum alloyc. Pure aluminum60. Files used for filing internal angles, clearing out corners, and filing taps and cuttersa. Triangularb. Triangular and three squarec. Knifed.61. Hydraulic Ground Power Units can be used for Drain the aircraft hydraulic systems. Filter the aircraft system hydraulic fluid. Refill the aircraft system with clean fluid and check the aircraft hydraulic systems for operation and leaks. All of the above62. Leveling of aircraft is carried out bya. Placing spirit level at the pilot seatb. Placing spirit level at…..c. Placing a plumb bob……..d.63. If rf and af is present, it can be filtered usinga. LPFDGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(October Session 2011)6 | P a g e w w w . r j w o r l d . c o m e d i t e d b y - R a j ub. HPFc.d. Π filter64. In 3Φ star connectiona. Voltage of line is equal to voltage of phaseb. Line current = √3 phase currentc. Line current = phase currentd. Line voltage= √3 phase voltage65. Two input bubbled AND gate isa. OR gateb. AND gatec. NAND gated. NOR gate66. Slots provided on the armature are not parallel but are staggered at an angle to providea. Safetyb. Reduce the humming noisec. Stability..d. …..67. In transformers a low current is provided to the primary in startinga. To overcome iron losses…b. To overcome copper losses….c. …….d. …….68. Compensating winding area. Connected in series with the armature windingb. Connected in parallel with the armature windingc. Connected in series with the armature winding and aids the flux of armatured. Connected in parallel with the armature winding and opposes the flux of armature69. In generator frequency depends upon thea. Revolutions per minuteb. Number of polesc. Both70. Highest tensile strength is of which compositea. Fiberglassb. Aramid

c. Carbon/graphited. Boron71. 18-8 is composed ofa. 18% nickel and 8% chromiumb. 18% chromium and 8% nickelc. ……..d. ……..72. Parco-lubrizing is a chemical treatment applicable toa. Aluminum and magnesium partsb. Iron and steel partsc. ………..d. ……………..73. In oil and chalk process pupose of French chalk isa. Penetrantb. Absorbtion by chalk of fluidc. Developerd. All of the above74. Voltage is defined as thea. Force required to change an electrical powerb. Force required to move a currentc. Force required to move an electric charged. …….75. Damaged internal threads can be repaired bya. Replacement bushing methodb. helicoilc. Acres sleeved. All of the above76. Which battery is not affected by high discharge ratea. Lead acid batteryDGCA PAPER IIAircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices(October Session 2011)7 | P a g e w w w . r j w o r l d . c o m e d i t e d b y - R a j ub. Nickel cadmium batteryc. Secondary batteryd. ……77. Damaged rivets can be removed bya. Drive or drift punchb. Prick punchc. Hollow punchd. Both a and b78. Value of induced emf depends upona. Number of wires moving through magnetic fieldb. Strength of magnetic fieldc. Speed of rotationd. All of the above79. In transistor when both junctions are reversed biased it is in a state ofa. Cut offb. Saturationc. ……….d. …………80. In a circuit a power of 300watt is present and has a voltage of 120 volts, what is the current flowing in the circuita. 2.5 Ab. 3.5 Ac. 4.5 Ad. …….81. If the peak value is 100 volts then at an angle of 30˚ what is the instantaneous valuea. 50 V

b. 100 Vc. 150 Vd. 200 V82. ICs can be checked bya. ON/OFF stateb. Logic 0 and logic 1c. As in (a) and………….d. Both a and b83. The is amplified in transistor because ofa. High AC input resistanceb. Increasing Rcc. High AC output resistanced. …………