paper_2_question bank with answer.pdf

PAPER - II

PART I

1. Which statement is correct?

a) Al-alloy bolt smaller than ¼ mm diameter are not used in primary structure

b) Al-alloy bolts and nuts are used where they will be repeatedly removed for purpose of maintenance and inspection

c) Both are correct d) None of these

2. AN-73 drilled head bolt is similar to the a) Close tolerance bolt b) Special bolt

c) Standard hex-bolt d) All of these

3. To-bolt is a trade name of a) An internally treaded two piece rivet

b) An externally treaded three piece rivet.

c) An internally treaded three piece rivet d) An externally treaded two piece rivet

4. During installation of To-bolt

a) The nut is turned while the bolt is held b) The bolt is turned while the nut is held.

c) Bolt are turned at the same time d) None of these

5. The lock bolt combines the features of a a) High strength bolt and nut b) High strength bolt

and rivit c) High strength bolt, rivet and nut d) None of these

6. Blind type lock bolts are

a) Used where only one side of the work is accessible

b) As a) & they have exceptional strength c) As b) & sheet pull together characteristic

d) As c) & where it is difficult to drive a conventional rivet

7. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal recurred? a) With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit with no strain imposed on

the fork and safetied with a cotter pin. b) With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the

fork and the fitting to which it is being attached. c) With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened

enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork d) None of these

8. Which of the bolt head code marking shown identifies a internal hex head bolt?

a) b) c)

1) a 2) b 3) c 4) none

9. Which statement is correct? a) Self-locking nuts are used on a/c to provide tight connections which

will not shake loose under severe vibration

b) S.L.N are used where bolt or nut subject rotation c) Both a) & b)

d) None of these

10. Elastic stop nuts are not used a) Where temperature is lower than 250oF b) Higher than 250oF

c) Between 250oF to 750oF d) None of these

11. Special washers are used a) Where a bolt is installed at an angle to a surface

b) Where perfect alignment with a surface is not required c) Both a) & b)

d) None of these

12. The marking found on the head of the stud

a) Body diameter, length & shank type b) Body diameter, length & head type

c) Only length d) None of these

13. Airloc pasteners consists of three parts a) Stud, grommet and receptacle b) Stud &

grommet c) Stud, cross pin and receptacle d) None

14. 7x19 cable is made up

a) Seven strands of 7 wires b) Nineteen strands of seven wires each

c) Seven strands of nineteen wires each d) 19 strands of 19 wires each

15. The diameter range of 7x19 cables are a) 1/8 to 3/8”

b) 1/16 to 3/32” c) 1/8 to ¼”

d) 1/8 to 1/16”

16. Turnbuckle assembly is a a) Mechanical screw

b) Making minor adjustment in cable length and adjusting cable tension

c) Consisting two threaded terminals and a threaded barrel d) All the above

17. Push-pull tubes are generally made in short lengths to a) Prevent vibration and bending under tension load

b) Prevent vibration and bending under compression load c) Only prevent vibration

d) None

18. Corrosion resistant steel cotter pin is used in locations where a) Magnetic material is required b) Resistance to

corrosion is desired c) Both d) None

19. Which is correct statement

a) Pin rivet are used only in shear application b) They should never be used where the grip length is less than the

shank diameter

c) Both d) None

20. Pin rivets

a) Hi-shear rivets b) Used where access to both side of the material is required

c) They are approximately three times as strong as solid shank rivets

d) All

21. 10 KB 105 a) Flat head b) Flat head & countersunk

c) Countersunk d) None

22. 10 KB 107

a) Closed end and a key b) Flat head c) As a and countersunk head d) None

23. AN 10 DH5A where H indicate

a) 5/8” diameter head drilled b) 5/8” diameter head and shank drilled

c) 5/8” diameter & shank drilled d) None

24. O-rings can be detected by a) 4 – power magnifying glass

b) Small cracks, particles of foreign material or other irregularities are checked by rolling

c) Slight stretching of the ring checked by dowel d) All

25. Clevis bolt are used for a) Tension load b) Tension & shear load

c) Shear load d) None

26. Internal wrenching bolts are suitable for use in

a) Shear load b) Tension & shear load c) Tension d) None

27. A cross inside triangle indicates

a) Close tolerance bolt b) Corrosion resistant steel bolt

c) Stainless steel bolt d) Screw

28. A/C screw is generally manufactured with a) Class-1 fit of thread b) Class-2 fit of thread

c) Class-3 fit of thread d) Class-4 fit of thread

29. Generally speaking, bolt grip length should be a) 1½ time the thicker material through which they extend

b) Equal to thickness of material + one diameter

c) Equal to thickness of material through which they extend d) Any length

30. Stainless steel rivet head

a) Raised double dash b) Raised dash c) Raised cross d) No marking on head

31. A hole is corroded which cannot be removed, is repaired by

a) Scrap out the part b) Helicoil

c) Acres sleeve

d) Use special washer

32. Tw=100; Te=? Extension=5, A=20 (Torque wrench) a) 150 in – lbs b) 125 in – lbs

c) 175 in – lbs d) 200 in – lbs

33. For shear joint a) Clevis pin b)Taper pin c) Roll pin d) Cotter

pin

34. Solid rivet of 1/8” diameter is replaced by (CAP) a) Two rivet of 1/16” diameter

b) Three rivet of 1/16” diameter c) Four rivet of 1/16” diameter

d) Cannot be replaced

35. Colour code for o-rings

a) Red dot for hydraulic fluid b) Green dot for fuel

c) Yellow dot for skydrol fluid d) d) None

36. For safetying turnbuckles, locking wire is used in

a) Single wrap b) Double wrap c) Double wrap spiral d) All are correct

37. Dzus pastners consist of a stud, grommet and receptacle, stud

length is measured in a) Tenth of an inch b) Sixteenth of an inch

c) Hundredth of an inch d) Thousandth of an

inch

38. A grub screw is a a) Headless type set screw

b) Cap screw with fine threads c) Machine screw with flat countersunk head

d) Cylindrical piece threaded at both ends and is plain in the middle

39. Grip length of cherry lock rivet is measured in increments

a) 1/8” b) 3/32” c) 1/16” d)1/32”

40. Identifying marks on the head of Al-alloy rivet indicate

a) Shank size b) Head treatment given by

manufacturer c) Specific alloy and by manufacturer d) All are correct

41. The solid shank rivet, which is used in interior of a/c, where

maximum strength is needed – a) round head b) brazier head

c) flat head d) as in c) & is AN-442

42. The standard range for counter sunk head angle is a) 72˚ - 120˚ b) 78˚ - 112˚ c) 78˚ d)

100˚

43. To repair or replacement of protuding head rivet a) round head b) counter sunk head is

needed

c) universal head is used d) any rivet can be selected

44. For riveting Mg alloy sheet

a) 5056 rivet should be used. b) monel rivet should be used

c) mild steel should be used d) All of the above

45. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel

46. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received &

need no further heat treatment. a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100

47. “Ice-Box” rivets are a)2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) a) & c) are correct

48. The specification for universal head rivet – a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-

20615 d) all

49. The protective film of zinc chromate over rivet identified by a) its yellow colour b) pearl gray

c) its white colour d) its silver gray colour

50. Part No. – AN 470B 3 – 8 indicates a) shank diameter is 3 ” b) rivet length is 8 ”

16 32

c) material is 5056 – Al alloy d) all of the above

51. Mark the correct statement.

a) Identification marking shall appear either on shank or head of rivet.

b) The rivet length shall be taken in fraction of 32 of an inch. c) Group-A, Al-alloy can be used with Group-B Al-alloy keeping in

view the dissimilar metal corrosion factor. d) Both a) & b) are correct.

52. The material code for 2024 –T rivet

a) D b) AD c) DD d) B

53. The absence of latter following the AN-standard number indicate

a) material is Al-alloy b) material is steel c) material is mild steel d) any of the above

54. The head marking „Raised triangle‟, indicate the rivet is

a) 5056 b) 2219 c) 7075 d) Monel

55. The head marking for 2024-T is

a) raised dot b) raised double dash c) raised three dash d) recessed double dash

56. The marking „recessed single dash‟ indicate the rivet is a) QQW – 423 b) QQS-633 c) 2117 d) QQ1-281

57. The shank length used for making blind head in a „pull thru rivet‟ is

a) ½” – 1” b) ¼” - ⅓” c) 3/64” – ¼”

d) 3/64” – 1/8”

58. Its proven fatigue strength make it the only blind rivet

interchangeable structurally with solid rivet is a) wire draw cheeylock rivet b) dill lock rivet

c) bulb cherrylock rivet d) deutsch rivet

59. To joints requiring an excessive amount of „sheet take-up‟, you

may select a) pin rivet b) wire draw cherrylock rivet

c) bulb cherry lock rivet d) all of the above

60. Riv nut is

a) hollow, blind rivet b) made of 6053-Al alloy &

a) c) counter bored & thread inside d) all of the above

61. In Part No. – 10 KB 106, KB indicates

a) close end & keyless b) close end & keyed c) open end & keyed d) open end & keyless

62. Part No. – 10 - B -107 indicates

a) Riv nut having flat head b) Pin rivet having round head

c) Riv nut having counter sunk head d) Deutsch rivet

63. Pin rivet - a) not a blind type

b) have the same shear strength as bolt of equal diameter.

c) as in b) & are about 40% weight of bolt d) all of the above.

64. Pin rivets are used

a) in compression b) in tension c) in shear d) all of the above & also

carry bending load.

65. The Part No. – NAS 177 – 14 – 17 indicates

a) flat head Jo-bolt b) flat head Avdelok fastener c) flat head pin rivet d) counter sunk head, pin rivet

66. The hardware pre-lubricated & must not be degreased before

assembly is/are –

a) Jo-bolt b) Avdelok Fastener c) Both a) & b) are correct d) Huck mechanical lock rivet

67. The AN-3 to AN-20 (hex head a/c bolt) is

a) General purpose bolt b) Close tolerance bolt c) Internal wrenching bolt d) Special purpose bolt


a) Steel bolt smaller than No.- 10-32 are not use in primary structure.

b) The AN-3 & AN-73 series bolt are interchangeable for all practical purpose.

c) b) is correct from the stand point of tension & shear strength. d) All are correct.

69. Bolt can be identified a) by material b) by method of securing

c) a) & shape of head d) all of the above

70. The head marking on bolt indicate – a) bolt material

b) name of manufacturer c) a), b) & whether bolt is a standard type or special purpose bolt.

d) a) & b) are correct

71. The marking for corrosion resistant steel bolt is a) raised dash b) asterisk c) single raised dash

d) two raised dash

72. For a bolt, part no. – AN3DD5A indicates

a) bolt is drilled for saftying b) material of bolt is 2017 Al-alloy

c) diameter bolt is 5/16” d) length of bolt is 5/8”

73. Eye bolt is used

a) where internal tension load is applied. b) head is slotted to received common screw driver.

c) used for external tension load. d) both b) & c) are correct.


a) where, there is not much clearance, stump type lock bolt is used.

b) alloy steel lock bolt may be used to replace steel Hi-shear rivets. c) as in b) provided the diameter and head is similar.

d) both a) & c) are correct.

75. Bolt part no. – ALSF E 88 indicates a) brazier head, stump type lock bolt b) flat head, stump

type lock bolt

c) counter sunk, stump type lock bolt d) counter sunk, pull type lock bolt

76. The specification AN 335 indicates a) fine thread, light hex nut b) fine thread, plain

hex nut c) coarse thread, check nut d) coarse thread, plain

hex nut

77. Castellated shear nut is used

a) in tension application. b) in shear application only.

c) as in a) & with drilled clevis bolt, taper pin etc. d) as in b) slotted for safety.

78. Stainless steel self locking nut

a) having locking shoulder & key. b) used in application where temperature exceed 250 ˚F.

c) a) , b) & also called high temperature self locking nut. d) all are wrong.

79. Material used for Tinnerman instrument mounting nut is

a) Al-alloy b) Steel alloy c) Brass d) Monel

80. Mark the correct statement. a) Elastic stop nut can be used many time.

b) As in a) & when turn with fingers, replace it. c) Every time the parts disassembled, replace the elastic stop nut.

d) As in c) & used at place where temperature exceed 250˚F.

PAPER - II

PART I

ANSWER:-

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B

6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B

11. A 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. A

16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D

21. A 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C

26. B 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. B

31. C 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. C

36. D 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. C

41. D 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. A

46. A 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. C

51. A 52. C 53. C 54. B 55. B

56. A 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. D

61. B 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. D

66. C 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C

71. C 72. D 73. C 74. D 75. B

76. D 77. D 78. C 79. C 80. B

PAPER - II

PART II

a. To increase mechanical strength and tackiness b. To reduce mechanical strength and tackiness

c. To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness

d. To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness

2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of aircraft tubeless tyre

a. Butyl rubber b. Neoprene rubber c. BUNA-N d. thiokol

3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and wire insulation

a. Silicon rubber b. Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d. BUNA-N

4. „ Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property‟ – is the characteristic of which kind of synthetic rubber.

a. GR – I b. GR – S c. GR – P d. GR – A

5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be added

a. Sulfur b. Sulfur oxide c. Zinc d. Zinc oxide

6. Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston seal

a. Styrene butadiene seal b. Nitrile rubber c. Flexon rubber d. Fluoro carbon rubber

7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structure when

a. It under goes at low temperature b. It is frozen c. It is heated to 1300C d. It undergoes continues stress at

normal temperature

8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structure

a. Kevlar – 49 b. Kevlar – 149 c. Kevlar – 29 d. Kevlar – 129

9. The composition for E – glass is

a. Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass b. Lime-alumina borosilicate glass

c. Soda borosilicate glass d. None of the above

10. Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of fiber

a. S – glass b. Hollow fibre glass c. A – glass d. Carbon – glass

11. Which composit material is difficult to cut or drill a. Glass fibre b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite

d. None of above

12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibre

a. Is used to fabricate primary structure b. It has high strength and high rigidity

c. It takes compressive load d. It is ductile in nature

13. Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to aluminium

a. A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie b. Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly

c. Both (a) and (b) will be applied together d. None of the above

14. Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that

are subject to high stress and vibration a. Fibergalss b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of

these

15. Mark the correct statement

a. Carbon fiber are electrically non conductive b. Carbon fibers have high thermal expansion

c. Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance

16. Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of material

a. Titanium b. Tin c. Tungsten d. All above

17. Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses

a. Ceramic fiber b. Boron fiber c. Fiber glass d. Graphite fiber

18. Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientation a. Warp direction is designated at 900

b. Weft is designated at 00 c. Bias is at 450 angle of fill threads

d. None of the above

19. For repairing of fabric, which weave to be used a. Plain weave b. Basket weave c. Satin weave d. All of

these

20. Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation field are

a. Kevlar with carbon / graphite b. Kevlar with fiber glass

c. Carbon / graphite with fiber glass d. None of these

21. In fiber science, which acts as a curing agent

a. Resin b. Matrix c. Catalyst d. All of these

22. Plexiglass is

a. Thermoplastic b. Thermoset c. Laminated d. None of these

23. Mark the correct answer:

Apart from strongest adhesive characteristics of epoxy resin, it has other advantages

a. Useful at very high temperature b. It withstand bending stress

c. Reasonable rigidity and flexibility d. All of these


The advantages of fillers to add to resins are a. To control viscosity and weight b. To increase pot life

and strength c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these

25. Nomex is a a. Filler material b. Matrix c. Reinforced fiber d.

Core material

26. Tapered roller bearing support

a. Radial load b. Thrust load c. Both (a) and (b)

27. Bearing used on high powered aircraft engine is

a. Ball bearing b. Roller bearing c. Plain bearing d. Both (a) and (c)

28. Plain bearings are used for

a. Connecting rods b. Crank shaft c. Cam shaft d. All of these

29. Bearings are used to take

a. Thrust load b. Radial load c. Side load d. Both (a) and (b)

30. Bearing used where high compressive pressure, is generally made

of

a. Babitt b. Bronze c. Siliver bronze d. All of these

31. Bearing which offer more friction is made of a. Bronze b. Babitt c. Silicon d. None of

these

32. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to

a. Distance between the plate and inversely proportional to the plate area

b. Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plate.

c. Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plate

d. None of these

33. The correct way to connect a test volt meter in a circuit is

a. In series with a unit b. Between the source voltage and the load

c. In parallel with unit d. Both (a) and (c) are correct

34. Typical application of Zener diode is as a. Full wave rectifiers b. Half wave rectifier

c. Voltage regulator d. Amplifier

35. The method used to rapidly charge a Nickel Cadmium battery utilizes

a. Constant current and constant voltage b. constant current and varying voltage

c. Constant voltage and varying current

d. Varying voltage and varying current

36. What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight

a. Remove all items except those on aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluids

b. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight

c. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir

d. All of these

37. Useful load of an aircraft is the

a. Difference between the maximum gross weight and empty weight

b. Difference between the net weight and total weight c. Some of the empty weight and the max. gross weight

d. Weight of the fuel

38. Certain amount of slacks must be left in flexible hose during

installation because when under pressure it a. Expand in length and diameter

b. Expand in length and contracts in diameter c. Contracts in length and expands in diameter

d. Contracts in length and diameter 39. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by

expansion or contraction due to temperature change can best be avoided by

a. Using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of aircraft

b. Not projecting the aircraft to sudden change in temperature c. Providing bends in the tubing

d. None of the above

40. Which heat treating process of metal produces a hard, wear

resistance surface over strong, tough core a. Case hardening b. Annealing c. Tempering

d. Hardening

41. Which of the following hose materials are compatible with

phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids a. Butyl b. Buna-N c. Neoprene d.

Buna-S

42. In a metal tubing installation

a. Rigid straight line runs are preferable b. Tension is undesirable because pressurisation will cause is to

expand and shift c. A tube may be pulled in if the nut will start on the threaded

coupling d. None of the above

43. Magnetic particles inspection is used primarily to detect

a. Distortion b. Deep surface flaw c. Flaws on or near the surface d. Flaws in plastic

material

44. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects

a. Unclad aluminium alloys in sheet forms

b. 6061- T9 Stainless steel c. Clad aluminium alloy

d. Carbon steel

45. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine fire walls

a. Stainless steel b. Chromium Molybdenum alloy steel

c. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel d. Wrought iron

46. A fiber type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is

a. Under shear loading b. Under tension loading c. Subject to rotation d. All of these

47. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a a. Class-I fit for the thread b. Class-II fit for the thread

c. Class-III fit for the thread d. Class-IV fit for the thread

48. Hose and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken

a. Re-weld the defective portions b. Remove all the old weld and re-weld the joint

c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect and re-weld all gaps / holes

d. Can be used in the same way

49. Which condition indicate a part has cooled too quickly after being

welded a. Cracking adjacent to the weld

b. Discoloration of the base metal c. Gas pockets and porosity

d. Slag inclusion

50. Which tool is used to measure the clearance between the surface plates and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness.

a. Depth gauge b. Thickness gauge c. Dial indicator d. Vernier Caliper

51. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylinder

work a. Combination set b. Dial indicator c. Micrometer caliper

d. Set square

52. What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its

accuracy a. Gauge block b. Dial indicator c. Machinist scale d.

None of these

53. When approaching the front of an idling jet engine the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately

a. 10 feet b. 15 feet c. 25 feet d. 35 feet

54. Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire

a. Dry chemical b. A fine water mist c. Carbon dioxide d. Form

55. When approaching the rear of an idling turbo jet engine the hazard

area extends aft of the engine approximately a. 200 feet b. 100 feet c. 50 feet d. 25 feet

56. When towing a large aircraft

a. A person should be in the cockpit to watch the obstruction b. Person should be stationed at the nose

c. Person should be positioned each wing tip and the empennage

d. A person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes

57. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause a. Hard starting b. Detonation c. Vapor lock d. None of these

58. The main difference between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are a. Volatility and lead content b. Volatility, lead content and

colour c. Lead content and colour d. All of these

59. Tetra ethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to a. Retard the formation of corrosive

b. Improve the gasoline performance in the engine c. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline

d. None of these

60. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is trippled, the volume will

a. Triple b. Reduced to one third its original volume

c. Remains same d. Multiply by a fixed factor

PAPER - II

PART II

Answers:

1 c 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 d

6 b 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 d

11 b 12 d 13 c 14 b 15 c

16 c 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 d

21 c 22 a 23 d 24 c 25 c

26 c 27 b 28 d 29 d 30 b

31 a 32 c 33 c 34 c 35 c

36 c 37 a 38 c 39 c 40 a

41 a 42 b 43 c 44 c 45 a

46 c 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 b

51 a 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 b

56 d 57 c 58 c 59 b 60 b

PAPER - II

PART III

1. During towing operations

a) Pilot must be in the cockpit to operate brakes b) A qualified person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes

c) A person should be in the cockpit to look for obstructions d) Persons should be stationed at the nose and each of the wing-tips

2. Tail-wheel type aeroplanes have the greatest tendency to move

side-ways during taxing when there is a) Cross wind b) Tail wind c) Head wind

d) None of these

3. When parking a aircraft after towing, the nose wheel should be left

a) Pointed straight ahead b) As it was when towing stopped c) Unlocked d) All are correct

4. Before towing a large aircraft

a) Ballast should be put in the cockpit b) Tow bar should be fitted with a strong bolt

c) Tow bar should be fitted with a shear bolt d) None of these

5. While towing a large aircraft, personnel required are

a) Two in cockpit b) As in a) plus one each on wing tips c) As in b) plus one at the tail

d) As in c) plus one in overall control of operation

6. The most commonly used driving tool by a mechanic is

a) Ball peen hammer b) Cross peen hammer c) Claw hammer d) Sledge hammer

7. (i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground

(ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metal a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct

c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

8. i) Mallets can be termed as soft hammers

ii) Plastic mallets are more useful than raw hide mallets a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct


9. (i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out nails

(ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handle a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct


10. A punch is used to

a) Mark a location b) Remove a damaged rivet c) Locate a drill properly d) All are correct

11. i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet head has been chiselled off

ii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the rivet to be removed

a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

12. i) Location given by a prick punch should always be punched later

with a centre punch. ii) Goggles must be used while using any type of punch.


13. i) A mushroom head on a punch is better than a crown head since

chances of hammer slip are reduced

ii) A centre punch can be used for a variety of punching applications a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct

c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

14. Most commonly used slip joint plier has a length of a) 4 inches b) 6 inches c) 10 inches d) 12

inches

15. Duckbill plier a) Is a flat nose plier b) Is used for twisting safety wires

c) Have serrations on their jaws d) All are correct

16. Needle nose pliers are used for

a) Extracting thin/sharp components b) Extracting nails

c) Gripping small electronic components d) All are correct

17. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself ii) A die is a cutting tool


18. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of

a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees

19. Regarding a cutting chisel which statement is incorrect? a) It is made from high grade steel

b) Its cutting edge is always wider than the shank c) Cutting edge is flat so that force is applied uniformly on the surface

d) Chisel body is either square or octagonal

20. i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it has been drilled through

ii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold chisel


21. Aviation snip

a) Is same as Dutchman snip b) Has serrated cutting edges

c) Can easily cut thick sheet metals d) All are correct

22. Files are classified with regard to a) Physical shape b) Length

c) Type of cut d) All are correct 23. Various types of cut of a file are

a) Single cut b) Smooth cut c) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct

24. Vixen file have

a) Curved teeth b) No taper either in width or thickness c) A special file holder d) All are correct

25. i) Wood rasp files have individual teeth cut on to their surfaces

ii) Wood rasps are used to remove wood from a surface where it is not practical to use a saw or a plane


26. i) Mill files have uniform thickness, but are tapered in width

ii) Hand files have uniform thickness and width a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


27. i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and width ii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in width

a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


28. For filing acute angles, one should use a) Knife files b) Round files c) Triangular files

d) All are correct 29. Most files used in aviation have a length of

a) 4-10 inches b) 6-12 inches c) 6-16 inches d) 10-20 inches

30. The part of a file that fits into the handle is called a) Heel b) Fitting end c) Tang d) Point

31. i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edges

ii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsaws a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


32. Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at

a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees b) 45 degrees and 45 degrees

c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees d) None of these

33. There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the wrong one

a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest

34. File should be kept clean by a) Tapping it against the bench b) Brushing it with a wire brush

c) Lubricating it occasionally d) Both a) & b) are correct

35. Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth

a) Vixen b) Wood rasp c) Knife d) Triangular

36. Characteristics of steel are controlled by a) Removal of carbon from iron b) Types of alloying

elements added to it c) Amount of alloying elements added to it d) All are correct

37. Bearing strength of a material refers to

a) Direct tensile load it can bear b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load

c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load

d) Resistance to shear

38. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility

d) Brittleness

39. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets

c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity 40. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies

a) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copper c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy

41. Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit

signifies something. In 2024, the first digit indicates

a) Copper is the major alloying element b) Two alloying elements have been added

c) Total percentage of alloying elements d) None of these

42. Alclad is a metal consisting of

a) Aluminium alloy core with pure Al surface b) Pure aluminium core with Al alloy surface

c) Alternating layers of pure Al & Al alloys d) None of these

43. Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged?

a) 3003-F b) 5052-H c) 6061-O d) 7075-T6

44. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are

a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys

c) Easily heat treatable d) Less susceptible to corrosion

45. Aircraft structural members made from sheet metal can normally be

a) Repaired, except when subjected to compressible loads b) Repaired, except when subjected to tensile loads

c) Repaired using approved method d) Not repaired & need replacement only

46. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of

a) 0.1 – 0.3 b) 0.3 – 0.5 c) 0.5 – 1.0

d) 1.0 – 2.0

47. High carbon steel is generally used for a) Shock absorbers b) Landing gear struts

c) Engine mounting bolts d) Springs & files

48. What material is used in the construction of firewall of aircraft engines?

a) Aluminium alloy b) Stainless steel c) Chrome-molybdenum steel d) Tungsten steel

49. Which of the statement is correct?

a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardened

b) Strain hardening is same as cold working

c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working d) All are correct

50. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium

a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures

c) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic

51. The balls used for ball bearings are made of a) Cast iron b) Cast steel c) Wrought iron

d) Carbon chrome steel

52. Files used in fitting shop are made from

a) Cast iron b) High carbon steel c) Chrome steel d) Mild steel

53. Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is

called ductility. Most ductile material is a) Copper b) Gold c) Lead d) Tin

54. i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivity

ii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the addition of iron & silver a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


55. i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brass ii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2



56. Potential difference between two conductors insulated from each other is measured in

a) Ampere b) Coulomb c) Ohm d) Volt

57. Correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is a) In series with a unit b) In parallel with a unit

c) Between source voltage and load d) Both b) & c) are correct

58. Which term means .001 ampere

a) Micro ampere b) Milli ampere c) Kilo ampere d) Nano ampere

59. Unit used to express electrical power is a) Ampere b) Volt c) Watt d) Coulomb

60. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another

without the aid of electrical connection is a) Induction b) Air gap transfer

c) Not possible d) Possible but will cause excessive arcing thus not practical

61. Magnetic lines of force pass most readily through

a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Iron d) Titanium

62. In a straight conductor, the resistance is not affected by

a) Length b) Temperature c) Shape of cross section d) Material

63. Pitot pressure varies with

a) Speed b) Air density c) Speed and Air density d) None of these

64. Altimeter and rate of climb indicator utilize

a) Static pressure b) Pitot pressure c) Either a) or b) d) Both a) and b)

65. Pitot static system have heating elements to

a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formation c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct

66. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it

a) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orifices

c) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct

67. Leak test of pitot static system should be carried out

a) After installation of a component / instrument b) Whenever malfunctioning is suspected

c) At specified periods indicated in servicing schedules d) All are correct

68. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static

system? a) Vertical speed indicator b) Altimeter

c) Airspeed indicator d) All are correct

69. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static pressure is

a) Altimeter b) Pressure gauge c) Airspeed indicator

d) Vertical speed indicator

70. The unit where calculations are processed is called a) Central processing unit (CPU) b) Control unit

c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) d) Computing unit

71. Sequence of steps for computing a program is known as a) Flow chart b) Sequence process

c) Algorithm d) None of these

72. Basic function of a computer is

a) Addition b) Multiplication c) Division d) All are correct

73. EDP stands for a) Electrical data processing b) Electronic data processing

c) Entry data processing d) Electronic discrete programme

74. A computer basically

a) Processes data b) Stores data as per given instructions

c) Perform mathematical calculations d) All are correct

75. Computer stores instructions in a) English language b) Decimal number system

c) Octal number system d) Binary

76. In a straight and level flight of an aircraft

a) Lift equals aircraft weight b) Lift is more than weight c) Lift is less than weight d) Depends upon size of aircraft

and its loading

77. Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag associated with it. This is called

a) Form drag b) Skin friction drag c) Induced drag d) Shape drag

78. Lift generated by an airfoil is maximum at an angle of attack of

about a) 0 degrees b) 4 degrees c) 12 degrees

d) Stalling value

79. Lift generated by an aircraft depends upon

a) Density, forward velocity & aircraft area b) Density, square of forward velocity and aircraft area

c) Density, square of forward velocity and wing area d) Density, forward velocity & wing area

80. Lift on a wing

a) Acts through centre of gravity b) Acts vertically upwards c) Is perpendicular to chord line

d) Acts vertically upwards through centre of pressure

PAPER - II

PART III

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D

6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. D

16. C 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. C 21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C

26. A 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C

31. C 32. A 33. D 34. D 35. A 36. D 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. A

41. A 42. A 43. D 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. D

51. D 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A

61. C 62. C 63. C 64. A 65. B 66. D 67. D 68. D 69. C 70. C

71. C 72. A 73. B 74. D 75. D 76. A 77. C 78. D 79. C 80. D

PAPER - II

PART IV

1. While pushing a small and light aircraft, generally a) Rudder control should not be locked

b) It should be pushed backward rather than forward c) Flats of the hands should only be used

d) All are correct

2. While moving an aircraft from the runway after an emergency a) It should be towed away fast

b) It should never be towed away with deflated tyres c) Brakes should never be applied

d) All are correct

3. For picketing a light aircraft a) Cable or any rope should be used

b) Sufficient slack should be given for all types of ropes

c) Aircraft should be parked into the wind d) Both a) & c) are correct

4. Before jacking an aircraft

a) Empty the fuel tanks b) Fit critical stress panels c) Level aircraft laterally d) Remove all optional equipment

5. It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why?

a) To set the weighing scales to zero b) To stabilize the weighing scales

c) For first determining its empty weight d) For making aircraft level

6. (i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work

(ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work


7. A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called a

a) Cross cut saw b) Rip saw c) Back saw d) Wood saw

8. A cross cut saw has

a) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch c) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch

9. Find out the incorrect statement regarding back saw

a) It is used for cutting precision parts b) It has 18-32 teeth per inch

c) It is same as hacksaw d) Cutting teeth has very little set

10. Hacksaw blades are

a) Made from stainless steel b) 12 inches in length c) Held under tension in the frame d) Having 10-14 teeth per inch

11. i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel

molybdenum steel ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke.

The blade should be lifted for the return stroke a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


12. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth

should be used ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five

teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cut a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


13. Length of hacksaw is measured from a) The outer edge b) toothed part of blades

c) Between the centre of fixing holes d) Both a) & b) are correct

14. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are

a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) ¼ - one inch in diameter

c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct

15. A screw driver can be used a) For driving screws b) As a punch

c) As a chisel d) All are correct

16. Stubby screw driver has a) A blunt edge b) Blade length of up to 2”

c) Only wooden handle d) All are correct

17. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called

a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above

18. Air driven power screw driver should be used a) For large diameter screw

b) For removing screw that are jammed c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back

d) When removing screws from harder material

19. A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain width of the screw slot. It should cover at least

a) 50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 90%

20. i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge

screw driver ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal

screw driver


21. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement

a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel b) These are generally die cast

c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes d) These are plated to improve their appearance

22. Open end wrenches

a) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in restricted space

b) Are available in British & Metric sizes c) Open a nut faster than box end wrenches

d) All are correct

23. Box end wrenches are used

a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light b) Where there is restricted space

c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size d) When open end wrench is not available

24. Combination wrenches means, its two ends have

a) Open and box end b) Open and cut box end c) Open and flare nut end d) All are correct

25. i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end

wrench is used ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips

the nut at many places compared to an open ended wrench a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


26. i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrench ii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelines


27. Spanners are classified by

a) Type b) Material c) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits d) All are correct

28. Set spanners are off set to an angle a) So that it can be used in restricted places

b) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner over c) For proper grip

d) Both a) & b) are correct

29. Ratchets a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement

b) Are available with long and short handles c) Can easily fit into sockets

d) All are correct

30. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used

a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench

c) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct

31. Monel metal is an alloy of a) Nickel & copper b) Nickel & chromium

c) Copper & chromium d) Copper, nickel & chromium

32. i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings. ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases


33. SAE 2340 is

a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon

c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon d) Carbon (0.4%) steel

34. Engine mounts are made up of

a) 18-8 corrosion resistance mild carbon steel b) Chrome molybdenum mild carbon steel

c) Chrome molybdenum high carbon steel d) None of these

35. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic

nature, then it is a) Monel metal b) Carbon steel

c) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel

36. Weldability is poorest in case of

a) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steel c) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron

37. Carbon steel is

a) Refined form of cast iron b) Extremely hard

c) Made by adding carbon to steel d) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur &

phosphorous

38. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of a) Silicon b) Cobalt

c) Chromium d) Manganese

39. Manganese is added to low carbon steel to

a) Make them tough & hard b) Raise their tensile strength c) Improve machine ability d) Increase corrosion resistance

40. Cold bending of an aluminium sheet

a) Is not permitted b) Softens the material at the bend

c) Strain hardens material at the bend d) Results in material failure irrespective of bend radius

41. Titanium can be identified by

a) Chemical test b) Spark test c) Moistening & scratching with pencil d) Both b) & c) are

correct

42. L shaped channels are produced by a) Forging b) Extrusion

c) Machining d) Casting

43. Muntz metal is used for a) Nuts & bolts b) Parts in contact with salt water

c) Fuel & oil lines d) Both a) & b) are correct

44. All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel has

a) Two critical points b) Three critical points

c) Four critical points d) Six critical points

45. In steel, grain becomes coarser when a) It is heated to a temp just below critical point

b) It is heated above critical range c) Depends upon carbon percentage

d) It does not happen at all

46. Creep in metals is a) Elongation due to temperature

b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation

d) All are correct

47. Magnesium alloys are

a) Magnetic b) Light in weight c) Cheap & easy to machine d) Highly prone to corrosion

48. i) Bronze is superior to brass in corrosion resistance property

ii) Duralumin can be age hardened a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct

c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct 49. i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high

hydraulic pressure ii) Clad metals mean forged non ferrous metals


50. Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment medium to quench tank within 10 seconds or so. A delay

results in a) Retarded age hardening b) Reduced corrosion resistance

c) Dull/Strained surface d) Hard/brittle surface

51. Power and work are measured in a) Watt and force b) Watt and joule

c) Ampere hour and joule d) Farad and joule

52. One micron is a) 10-3 meter b) 10-6 meter

c) 10-9 meter d) None of these

53. The change in resistance depends upon

a) Temperature b) Material and length c) Cross sectional area d) Both b) and c) are correct

54. Most extensively used material in aircraft electrical cables is

a) Rubber and silk b) Nylon and cotton c) Teflon d) Both b) & c) are correct

55. In a parallel circuit

a) Total resistance is less than smallest resistor b) Total resistance decreases when one of the resistance is removed

c) Total voltage drop is same as total resistance d) All are correct

56. If there are „n‟ numbers of calls, each having a voltage of „E‟ and

resistance „R‟, then voltmeter connected across the electrolyte will

indicate a) nE b) (n-1)E

c) n(n - ½)E d) None of these

57. A 12V bulb is connected in series and draws 3 amperes current from a 12V battery. Its resistance and power will be

a) 36 ohms, 4 W b) 4 ohms, 36 W c) 1 ohm, 12 W d) None of these

58. The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument

panel is determined by the a) Size of the panel b) Type of the panel

c) Weight of the complete panel unit d) Number of instruments to be installed

59. Aircraft instrument panels are shock mounted to a) Absorb all vibrations

b) Absorb low frequency, high amplitude shocks c) Channel most airframe vibrations to the instruments

d) Absorb high frequency, high amplitude shocks

60. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on

a) Instrument manufacturer b) Design of the instrument case

c) Design of the aircraft fuselage d) Design of the instrument panel

61. How is a flange less instrument case mounted in an instrument

panel?

a) By four screws which extend through the instrument panel b) By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and

tightened by a screw from the front of the instrument panel c) By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument

panel d) By press fit into the instrument panel and held in place by friction

62. Why are most electrical instruments mounted in iron or steel

cases? a) To avoid damage to the instrument during maintenance

b) To facilitate removal or installation c) To prevent interference from outside magnetic fields

d) To reduce heat build up in the instrument

63. When installing instruments in an aircraft who is responsible for

making sure it is properly marked? a) An authorised inspector b) The aircraft owner

c) The instrument installer d) The instrument manufacturer

64. i) Instrument panels absorb low frequency high amplitude shocks.

ii) Shock absorbers of instrument panel permit instruments to operate under conditions of minor vibrations.


65. Assembler is

a) An individual who assembles computer b) Language c) Programme d) None of these

66. Input unit of a computer communicates between a) Operator & computer b) Memory with printer

c) CPU with monitor d) Output & computer

67. Primary memory of a computer are a) RAM, ROM b) RAM, ROM, PROM

c) RAM, ROM, CPU d) RAM, ROM, Hard Disc

68. Hard disc & floppies are

a) For different purpose b) For same purpose but hard disc stores more information

c) For same purpose but hard disc stores less information d) None of these

69. The symbol for hexa-decimal is a) 2 b) 8 c) 10 d) 16

70. Algorithm uses

a) One input, one output b) One input, two output c) One input, multiple output d) None of these

71. To solve a fifteen step problem, a computer will work in

a) Sequence b) Repetition c) Selection d) Sequence and repetition

72. Which of the following is a storage device?

a) Mouse b) Monitor c) CPU d) Hard disk

73. RAM stands for a) Read & access memory b) Random access memory

c) Record and maintain d) None of these

74. Radio equipment is protected from vibration damage by a) Shock mounts b) Aluminium alloy jumpers

c) Doubler plates around the mounting points d) All are correct

75. To communicate with ground control from an aircraft, pilot uses a) VOR receiver b) VHF trans receiver

c) HF transmitter d) ADF

76. Addition of avionics equipment forward of CG limits will affect

a) Maximum gross weight and datum b) CG limits and useful load

c) Empty weight and useful load d) Useful load only

77. i) AC current passing through a conductor creates emf around the conductor

ii) Frequency of radio wave radiated equals the frequency of the applied current


78. Basic components of a communication system are

a) Receiver & transmitter b) As in a) plus receiver / transmitter antennas

c) As in b) plus microphone

d) As in c) plus loudspeaker

79. Power output of large commercial aircraft VHF transmitter is of the order of

a) 1-15 watts b) 20-30 watts c) 50-100 watts d) 150-200 watts

80. An antenna is a special type of electrical circuit designed to

transmit & receive a) Audible signals b) Visual signal

c) Electro magnetic energy d) All are correct

PAPER - II

PART IV

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C

11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D

21. B 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. D

31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B

36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. D 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. B

46. C 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B 51. B 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. A

56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. C

66. A 67. A 68. B 69. D 70. A 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. B

76. C 77. C 78. D 79. C 80. C

PAPER - II

PART V

1. Angular momentum is

a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)

2. Mark the incorrect statement

a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of

applied force. b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the

rotor. c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the

rotor. d) None of the above

3. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved

by: a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them

as appropriate b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal &

opposite to the earth rate. c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude

d) All of these

4. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes

coincident with one or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as

a) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift

5. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at right angles to each other is termed as

a) Gimbal Lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent Drift

6. The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope which is regulated by a relief value at

a) 3.5 in Hg b) 4.5 in Hg c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg d) None

7. Grip length of the bolt is a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the

bolt c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these

8. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is

a) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammer c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer

9. AN 4 - 7 bolt shows

a) 7/8” dia b) 1/4" length c) 4” length d) 1/4" dia

10. Bolt of class 4 fit is a) Loose fit b) Free fit c) Close fit d) Tight fit

11. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where

a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head down

c) It can be used any where d) None of these 12. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and

bolt, the washer used is

a) AN 936 b) AN 935 c) AN 970 d) AN 960

13. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is a) Plain nut b) Castle nut c) Castellated shear nut

d) Self locking nut

14. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the center of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is

diameter of rivet) a) 2d to 4d b) 8d c) 6d d) 75% of the

pitch

15. Rasp file is used for a) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leather

c) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather

16. Pinning is related to

a) Chisels b) Punches c) Screw drivers d) None of these

17. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of

a) 730 b) 530 c) 600 d) 930

18. Snaps are used to

a) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during riveting

c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

19. Punch used for making a series of light pops along scribed line,

which will be machined or filed away a) Pin punch b) Stout punch c) Light centre punch

d) Parallel pin punch

20. Hand file is related to _______ of file a) Length of file b) Cut of file c) Grade of file d) Section of files

21. Screw drivers are classified by

a) Type and length of blade b) Type, grade, cut and section c) Length and type d) Overall length of screw driver

22. Steel drifts should be used

a) On soft materials b) For driving ball or roller bearing

c) Hardened steel d) None of these

23. Ring spanners are used for

a) Fitting the nut all around b) Fitting the nut from opened jaws

c) Fitting the splined nut d) None of these

24. Hard hammers are made of a) High carbon steel b) Carbon steel and forged to

shape and size c) Tool steel d) Mild steel

25. Flux used for commutator wires and electrical connections

a) Zinc chloride b) Zinc chloride by diluting with 50% alcohol

c) Alcoholic solution of rosin d) Rosin

26. Slotting hacksaw blade is usually of

a) 18” long 3/4" wide b) 8” long 1/2" wide c) 12” long 3/4" wide d) None of these

27. Hacksaw is used by

a) Putting same pressure for forward and backward stroke b) Putting pressure for forward stroke and release the pressure in

backward stroke c) Putting less pressure in forward stroke and more pressure in

backward stroke d) Any of these

28. Which hammers have large, smooth faces and are lightweight?

a) Ball peen hammers b) Body hammers

c) Cross peen hammers d) Sledge hammers

29. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4

d) 4 : 1

30. The stresses to which Aircraft are subjected are a) Tension b) Torsion c) Bending d) All of these

31. The internal force of a substance which opposes the deformation is

called a) Strain b) Stress c) Tension d) Torsion

32. The twisting load on the structure is called

a) Torsion b) Tension c) Strain d) Compression

33. Bending stress is the combination of

a) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear

34. Permanent deformation of structure is called

a) Stress b) Strain c) Tension d) Bend

35. In monocoque fuselage construction, main members are a) Frame, bulk head, longerons b) Bulkhead, stringers,

longerons c) Formers, frame assembly and bulkhead d) Longerons, stringers

and frames

36. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken by

a) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons

37. A semi monocoque construction fuselage is made of

a) Bulkhead and frame b) Frame, longerons and stringer c) Bulkhead, frame, longerons & stringers d) Bulkhead, frame &

formers

38. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carries a) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load d) Half of

the load

39. The cabin, flight compartment and baggage compartment are incorporated into a sealed unit to hold air pressure

a) More than atmosphere pressure b) Less than atmosphere

pressure c) Equal to atmosphere pressure d) None of these

40. To check the cabin for air tightness is called

a) Cabin static pressure test b) Cabin dynamic pressure test

c) Leak check d) All of these

41. An object demonstrates positive dynamic stability if the amplitude of motion

a) Decreases with time b) Increases with time c) Neither increases nor decreases d) None of these

42. The angle between the chord of the tail plane and the chord of the

main plane is known as

a) Lateral dihedral b) Longitudinal dihedral c) Normal dihedral d) Vertical dihedral

43. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on

a) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage

c) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these

44. Mark the correct statement for horizontal stabilizer a) It always produces nose up pitching moment

b) It always produces nose down pitching moment c) Either a) or b) depending upon the design

d) Provides no pitching moment

45. Slip or side slipping refers to any motion of the Aircraft

a) Towards upper wing b) To downward c) Towards the lower wing d) All of these

46. Rotating the control wheel clockwise will move

a) The right aileron upward b) The right aileron downward c) As in a) & flight spoiler on right wing up d) As in a) &

flight spoiler on left wing up

47. At high speed flight, to avoid excessively large rolling moments or

unacceptable structural loading or wing twist, devices used are a) Flaps b) Slots c) Outboard ailerons

d) Inboard ailerons

48. The principal surface contributing to the lateral stability of an

Aircraft is a) Side surfaces b) The fuselage c) Tail plane d) None of

these

49. Dihedral angle on the main planes provide with a) Longitudinal stability b) Dynamic stability

c) Lateral stability d) Horizontal stability

50. Aft moment of the control stick will cause a) Both elevators to move up b) Both

elevators to move down c) Left elevator will move up and right will move down d)

Movement of horizontal stabilizer

51. Minimising the expression

Y=A B C + A B C D + A B C D E + A B + A B C D E + A the output is a) Y=A b) Y=1 c) Y=A+ AB d) Y=AB

52. Y= ∑ (5, 15, 23, 29, 37, 47, 55, 61) + X (7, 13, 21, 31, 39, 45,

53, 63) a) Y=EF b) Y= AB c) Y=CD + EF d) Y=BD

53. In excess –3 codes, BCD 1001 will be written as

a) 9 b) 1011 c) 1100 d) 1001

54. If active low output is required for checking odd parity we will use a) AND gate b) OR gate c) XOR gate d)

XNOR gate

55. Which series of IC‟s is used for military purpose?

a) 7400 series b) 74H00 series c) 5400 series d) 74 L S 00 series

56. If a demultiplexer is converted into decoder, to get output high on

required output lines, we will tie date line to a) OV b) Ground c) Either a) or b) d) +VCC

57. Which of the following relation is correct? a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vc/Vd] b) Vo=AcVc[1+(1/CMRR)

Vd/Vc] c) Vo=AdVd[1+CMRR . Vc/Vd] a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]

58. Due to which action, flip flop act as memory unit a) Feedback action b) Amplifying action

c) Oscillating action d) All of these

59. In RS flip flop R=O, S=1 then action of flip flop is a) Reset b) Set c) No change d)

Forbidden

60. In D flip flop, the input to S & R terminals will be a) S=R b) R=S c) Both of these

d) None of above

61. Operating frequency of marker beacon is a) 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz b) 328.6 MHz to 335.4 MHz

c) 100 MHz fixed d) 75 MHz fixed

62. The facilities provided by a localiser is

a) Give indication of correct descending angle b) Distance from touch down point

c) Indication of lateral deviation with respect to centre line of runway d) None of these

63. The correct descending angle is approximately

a) 1 degree b) 2 degrees c) 2.25 degrees d) 2.75 degrees

64. The flag appears at the end of ILS indicator, indicates

a) Reading is correct b) Partially correct c) Incorrect & misleading d) None

65. The middle marker carrier is modulated on a) 3000Hz b) 1300Hz c) 400Hz d) 4000Hz

66. Typical airborne installation of GPS is carried out by

a) ARINC 249 b) ARINC 429 c) ARINC 629 d) Both b) & c)

67. How many GPS satellites are required to locate an aircraft?

a) 1 b) 2 c) Minimum 3 d) Minimum 4

68. The control segment of GPS consists of

a) A ground station b) Various ground based monitoring stations

c) A master control station d) Both b) & c)

69. Basically, GPS consists of

a) One independent segment b) Two independent segment c) Three independent segment d) Four independent

segment

70. The purpose of weather radar is a) To enable the pilot to look ahead to see if dangerous weather exist

b) To inform pilot of pleasant weather c) To inform about clouds

d) None of these

71. The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx. a) 6 Psi b) 8 Psi c) 10 Psi d) 12 Psi

72. A four pole generator will have a) 2 interpole b) 4 interpole c) 6 interpole d) 8

interpole

73. In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the voltage induced is

a) 90o apart b) 120o apart c) 60o apart d) 180o apart

74. To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or

less) type. The method used is

a) Interpole Method b) Brush setting method c) both (a) & (b)

d) None of these

75. Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding to a) Increase he life of brushes b) Distortion of field

c) Reduces radio interference d) All the above

76. Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator to a) Minimise ripple voltage b) Maintain constant output

c) Minimise eddy Current loss d) None of these above

77. A 3 four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency

of

a) 100 c/s b) 200 c/s c) 300 c/s d) 400 c/s

78. While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspect

a) Ventilation system of a/c b) Cable for chaffing c) Quick disconnection mechanism d) All of these

79. What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold

a) 42000 10% b) 42000 5% c) 12000 5% d) 22000

10%

80. AC generator works on the principle of

a) Faraday‟s law of electro-magnetic induction b) Mutual induction c) Self induction d) All of these

PAPER - II

PART V

1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C

11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D

21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C

26. B 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C

36. A 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. D 44. C 45. C

46. C 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. A 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. C

56. D 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B

66. D 67. C 68. D 69. C 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. B 74. C 75. D

76. A 77. B 78. D 79. B 80. A

PAPER - II

PART VI

1. Choose the correct sets of angles of set square of one piece

a) 450 x 300 b) 300 x 900 c) 450 x 600 d) 600 x 600

2. Phantom line is used for indicating the _________ position of part

a) Actual b) Hidden c) Relative d) None of these

3. Mark the correct statement a) The arrow head length is equal to double of its width

b) The arrow head length is equal to triple of its width c) The arrow head length is equal to its width

d) None of these

4. Top view false on the a) Horizontal plane b) Vertical plane

c) Half in horizontal and half in Vertical plane d) All above cases may be possible

5. Direction of rotation of external gears are

a) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above

6. “S” in Al-alloy designation indicates a) Cast alloy b) Wrought alloy c) As in b) and used for a/c

structure d) None

7. Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant? a) 2 S b) 3 S c) 17 S

d) 52 S

8. Al clad is generally of a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S

d) 53 S & 62 S

9. Inter-crystalline corrosion is generally occurred in a) Al-alloy containing copper composition b) 17 S c) 24

S d) All of these

10. Which of the following material is used for spot welding?

a) Clad alloys b) 52 S Al-alloy c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

11. Natural rubber is a polymer of

a) Isoprene b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of these

12. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural

rubber? a) Sulpher b) Phosphorus c) Sodium d) Carbon

13. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S

a) White b) Black c) Red d) Green

14. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands for

a) Butadiene b) Acrylonitrile c) Monovinyl d) Nitrile

15. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is stands

a) Monovinyl b) Chloroprene c) Acrylonitrile d) Styrene

16. GR-I designated for which type of rubber

a) Neoprene b) BUNA-S c) BUNA-N d) Butyl

17. Which type of properties is introduced in rubber after vulcanising process?

a) Elasticity b) Strong ness c) Reduce the tackiness d) All of these

18. A/C rivets are identified by a) Head Style b) Alloy c) Length & Diameter

d) All of these

19. For accurate location of particular area on an a/c, which of the following is necessary?

a) Water line b) Butt line c) As in a) & b) in conjunction with station line d) None

20. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric

arc welding? a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d)

Fretting

21. Which is most suitable for spot welding, in stainless steel?

a) Low-voltage b) High-amperage c) Low-voltage and High-amperage d) High-voltage and Low-

amperage

22. Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic? a) Inconel b) K-Monel c) Monel d) All of these

23. SAE 13XX represents

a) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel

24. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in

length a) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d)

Rolling

25. Which of the following have greatest tensile strength?

a) Fibreglass b) Aramid c) Carbon d) Ceramic

26. For flight equilibrium, designer tries to fix the CG a) and C of P together b) At rear of C of P

c) In front of most forward position of CP d) Along aerodynamic C of P

27. Flight calculations are based on the magnitude and direction of

a) Lift & drag b) Weight & thrust c) Lift & thrust d) Both a) & b)

28. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are

a) Structural consideration b) Drag consideration

c) Lift consideration d) Both a) & b)

29. What is required to reduce the landing speed? a) A low minimum drag coefficient b) A small movement of C of

P c) A high max CL d) A high value of CL3/2/CD

30. With increase in altitude pressure & temperature

a) Drops b) Will rise c) Pressure drops, temperature increases d) Temperature drops,

pressure increases

31. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is

a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure.

b) Weight due to pipelines c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.

d) All of these

32. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply,

greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate. a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm

d) None

33. Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative

position of a) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon

symbol) c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

34. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in

gyro horizon is ______ respectively a) 3600 and 900 b) 3600 and 800 c) 3600 and 850 d) None

35. The reason for restricting pitch movement of gyro horizon is to

prevent a) Gimbal error b) Gimbal lock c) Transport wander d)

None

36. In single disk break, break linings are known as

a) Pucks b) Three are fix c) Three are movable d) All above

37. When break pressure is released piston moves back to position

with the a) Return spring force b) Hydraulic pressure c) Adjusting pin

d) None

38. To check the angle of the main structural component in relation to the longitudinal and lateral axis is known as

a) Incidence check b) Dihedral check c) Structural alignment check d) Verticality check

39. On copper and copper alloy corrosion forms on the surface as

a) White powder b) Greenish film c) Blue d) Black

40. Corrosion on the metal is due to

a) Chemical attack b) Electro chemical attack c) Both a) & b) d) None

41. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected for

a) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of these

42. The truss type fuselage is covered by

a) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric d) All of these

43. Thermoplastic material is originally a) Hard b) Soft and pliable when

exposed to heat c) It retains the moulded shape when cooled d) All of these

44. Remoulding and reshaping cannot be done on

a) Thermosetting plastic b) Thermoplastic c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

45. Plastic should be stored in bins which are tilted at

a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250

46. The operating frequency of ADF is

a) 90Hz b) 90KHz c) 150Hz d) 90KHz to

1800KHz

47. The ADF operates on a) LF Band b) MF Band c) LF & MF Band d) VHF

Band

48. In ADF antenna system at a point signal fades out this is called a) Null position b) Figure of eight c) Cardiod d) None of

these

49. ADF receiver essentially is a) TRF receiver b) Superhetrodyne receiver c) Double

superhetrodyne receiver d) Suppressed carrier receiver

50. Types of antenna / antennas used for ADF receiver a) Half wave b) Full wave c) Sense aerial

d) As in c) and loop aerial

51. If a D flip-flop is to switch from 0 to 1, then input is to be kept high for at least time T where

a) T= t setup + t hold b) T= t setup + t hold + t propagation delay

c) T= t setup + t hold - t propagation delay d) T= clock period

52. JK Flip flop is dividing the input frequency by 2, then its condition

is a) J=0, K=0 b) J=0, K=1 c) J=1, K=0

d) J=1, K=1

53. In decimal to BCD decoder

a) 1 input, 10 output b) 10 input, 4 output c) 4 input, 10 output d) 10 input, 1 output

54. If SUB pin is high in a Adder-subtractor circuit, then circuit is;

a) Adding Two bytes b) Subtracting input byte from output

c) Subtracting output byte from input d) Adding 2‟s complement byte to the other byte

55. One of the effect of negative feed back in amplifiers is to

a) Increase the noise b) Increase the harmonic distortion

c) Decrease the bandwidth d) Decrease the harmonic

distortion

56. The relationship between back emf and applied voltage in case of a dc motor is given by

a) Eb = V + Ia Ra b) Eb = V – Ia Ra c) Eb = V d) None of these

57. The direction of rotation of dc motor can be determined by

a) Fleming‟s right hand rule b) Fleming‟s left hand rule c) Lenz‟s law d) Ampere‟s law

58. An engine driven 50 Hz alternator has a speed of 750 rpm. How

many poles it has? a) 6 poles b) 4 poles c) 2 poles d) 8 poles

59. The frequency of emf generated by a generator depends upon its a) Speed b) No. of ploles c) Machine rating d) Both a)

& b)

60. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when a) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees

b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same direction


61. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon

a) Separation between the plates b) Area of plates c) Di-electric material d) All of these

62. The device used to measure very high insulation resistance of electric cable is

a) High resistance voltmeter b) Megger / Insulation resistance tester

c) Iron vane meter d) Ammeter of high range

63. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will be

a) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E

64. Special test equipment comprising a meter and two cables each of specific length, is required for checking the resistance of bonding. A

meter widely used , consists of an ohm-meter operating on a) Principle of current ratio b) Principle of voltage ratio

c) None of these

65. Cell phone is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery from

a) Shorting between plates b) Thermal runaway c) Avoid leakage of electrolyte d) All of these

66. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet

a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel

67. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat treatment

a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100

68. „Ice-Box‟ rivets are a) 2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) Both a) & c)

69. The specification for universal head rivet a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 d) All

of these

70. Part No – AN 470 B 3-8, indicates a) Shank dia is 3/16” b) Rivet length is 8/32”

c) Material is 5056-Al alloy d) All of the above 71. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are

a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these

72. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is

a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All of these

73. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is

a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these

74. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted with

a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir b) To maintain the normal built up pressure


75. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for a) To maintain the normal system pressure

b) To safe guard the operation of the important services c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for

operation of services

d) Both b) & c)

76. Packing is made of a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber

d) Felt

77. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80

d) 0.5

78. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns

d) 10 microns

79. Component fitted in pressurization system to limit any possible

negative differentiate pressure to a sage value is a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d)

pressure controller.

80. Roots type blower pressurized and send air to cabin duct by taking a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air

d)None of these

PAPER - II

PART VI

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C

11. A 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C

21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. A

31. D 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C

41. D 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. B 46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. D

51. A 52. D 53. B 54. D 55. D

56. B 57. B 58. D 59. D 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. B

66. A 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C 71. D 72. B 73. A 74. C 75. D

76. C 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. A

PAPER - II

PART VII

1. Duckbill plier

a) Is a flat nose plier b) Is used for twisting safety wires c) Have serrations on their jaws d) All are correct




3. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself

ii) A die is a cutting tool a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


4. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees

c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees

5. Various types of cut of a file are a) Single cut b) Smooth cut

c) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct



c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load d) Resistance to shear

7. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is

a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness

8. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits

a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity

9. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies

a) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copper

c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy

10. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are

a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys

b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys c) Easily heat treatable

d) Less susceptible to corrosion 11. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of

a) 0.1 – 0.3 b) 0.3 – 0.5 c) 0.5 – 1.0 d) 1.0 – 2.0



b) Strain hardening is same as cold working c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working

d) All are correct

13. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium

a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures


14. Pitot static system have heating elements to a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formation

c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct

15. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it

a) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orifices

c) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct

16. i. In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work

ii. In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


17. A cross cut saw has a) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch

c) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch

18. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used

ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cut


19. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) ¼ - one inch in diameter

c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct

20. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called

a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above

21. Air driven power screw driver should be used

a) For large diameter screw b) For removing screw that are jammed

c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back d) When removing screws from harder material







24. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be

used a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench


25. SAE 2340 is

a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon

c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon d) Carbon (0.4%) steel

26. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic

nature, then it is a) Monel metal b) Carbon steel

c) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel

27. Weldability is poorest in case of

a) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steel c) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron

28. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of

a) Silicon b) Cobalt c) Chromium d) Manganese

29. L shaped channels are produced by

a) Forging b) Extrusion c) Machining d) Casting

30. Creep in metals is

a) Elongation due to temperature b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses

c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation

d) All are correct

31. Angular momentum is a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity

c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)

32. Mark the incorrect statement a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of



rotor. d) None of the above

33. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:

a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate

b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.

c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude d) All of these




35. Grip length of the bolt is

a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the bolt

c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these

36. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is a) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammer

c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer

37. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head

down c) It can be used any where d) None of these

38. Rasp file is used for a) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leather

c) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather

39. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of a) 730 b) 530 c) 600

d) 930

40. Snaps are used to a) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop

head during riveting c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

41. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of

a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4

d) 4 : 1

42. Bending stress is the combination of a) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension

c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear

43. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken by a) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d)

Longerons

44. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carries a) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load d) Half of

the load

45. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on

a) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage

c) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these

46. Direction of rotation of external gears are

a) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above

47. Al clad is generally of

a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S & 62 S


a) Isoprene b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of

these

49. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S a) White b) Black c) Red d) Green


arc welding? a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d)

Fretting

51. SAE 13XX represents a) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel

c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel


length a) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d)

Rolling

53. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are a) Structural consideration b) Drag consideration


54. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric

pressure. b) Weight due to pipelines

c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles. d) All of these


greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate. a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm

d) None

56. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected for a) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of

these

57. The truss type fuselage is covered by a) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric d) All of

these

58. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when

a) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in

the same direction c) Both a) & b)

d) None of these

59. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will be

a) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E

60. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat treatment

a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100

61. When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit, the

true power is a) More than the apparent power b) Less

than the apparent power c) As in b) in reactive circuit and as in a) in inductive circuit d)

None of these

62. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is a) In series with the unit b) Between the source

voltage and the load c) In parallel with the unit

63. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another

without the add of electrical connections a) is called induction b) is called air gap transfer

c) Will cause excessive arching and heat, and as a result is impractical

64. Diodes are used in electrical power circuit primarily as

a) Switches b) Rectifiers c) Relays d) Contactors

65. If three resistors of 3, 5 and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28V circuit, how much current will flow through the 3 ohms resistor?

a) 9.3 amps b) 1.05 amps c) 0.93 amps d) 10.05 amps

66. What is the value of a resistance if given colour codes as brown,

black, brown, black and brown. a) 1010 ohms b) 1000 ohms c) 101 ohms

d) 10.1 K ohms

67. What is the value of a capacitor if given colour codes are orange,

orange, blue and white. a) 33nF b) 33μF c) 33pF d) 3300μF

68. The output of a astable multi-vibrator is

a) Triangular wave b) Saw tooth wave c) Sinusoidal wave d) Square wave

69. In an oscilloscope by varying intensity control, what actually varied

internally? a) Cathode voltage b) Anode voltage c) Grid voltage

d) Cathode current

70. The output of NOT gate is always a) High b) Low c) Same as input

d) Complementary of input

71. Oxy acetylene welding process is suitable for joining metal sheets

and plates having thickness of a) 1 to 30mm b) 2 to 50 mm c) 2 to 40mm

d) All of these

72. In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod is required as a filter metal when welding is carried out above

a) 15mm b) 10mm c) 40mm d) 5mm

73. In oxyacetylene welding, neutral flame produces a maximum temperature of

a) 30000F b) 32000F c) 32000C d) 30000C

74. Standard colour for oxygen hose is

a) Black b) Red c) Green d) None of these

75. In magnet steel, the alloying elements are

a) Nickel, Cobalt b) Silicon, Nickel c) Molybdenum, Copper d) Tungsten, Cobalt

76. Maximum distance between support for fluid tubing of 1/8” size of

steel is a) 12” b) 14” c) 9.5”

d) 11.5”

77. MS 20004 is a a) Internal wrenching bolt b) Close tolerance bolt

c) Clevis bolt d) None of these

78. Mark the incorrect statement, regarding K monel metal

a) It is ferrous alloy b) It is used for gears and chain

c) It is non ferrous alloy d) It is corrosion resistant

79. The symbol is for a) Wood b) Cast iron

c) Steel d) Rubber

80. Ballast is used on a/c a) To attain the desired c.g. b) To increase the weightc) For

making nose heavy d) None of these

PAPER - II

PART VII

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A

6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. D

16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. C

26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. B

36. C 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. B 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D

46. A 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. A 53. D 54. D 55. B

56. D 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. C

66. C 67. B 68. D 69. C 70. D 71. B 72. A 73. C 74. C 75. D

76. D 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. A

PAPER - II

PART VIII

1. Which of these is indicator of elasticity & plasticity both? a) Rockwell hardness test b) Brinell hardness test

c) Shore Scleroscope d) Vicker‟s hardness test

2. Flattening test is a) Bending test b) Only for copper wires c) For tube testing

d) Both a) & c)

3. Max rate of bending per minute in reverse bend test is a) 50 b) 60 c) 10 d) 40

4. Izod test measures

a) Toughness b) Height of upswing c) Energy in

breaking d) Hardness

5. Fatigue test is for determining a) Stress in material b) Strain in rod

c) Stress limit for material d) Elongation of wire

6. Torsion test is essential for a) Wires b) Tube c) Rods d) Sheet

7. Bending test indicates

a) Ductility b) Brittleness c) Hardness d) Density

8. 250 HB 10 indicates a) Strength only b) Hardness only c) Both a) & b) d) Toughness

9. Unit of tension is a) N b) N/m c) KN/m2 d) Kg/cm2

10. First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast

furnace is a) Pig Iron b) Wrought Iron

c) Cast Iron d) Steel

11. Siderite is a) Oxide ore of Iron b) Carbonate ore of

Iron c) Sulphide ore of Iron d) Flux used in furnace

12. Coke used in blast furnace is

a) Fuel b) Flux c) Reducing agent d) Both fuel & reducing

agent

13. In upper reduction zone, we get a) Iron b) Carbon dioxide

c) Carbon monoxide d) Both Fe & CO2

14. Steel is alloyed to improve a) Hardenability b) Toughness

c) Fatigue strength d) All of the above

15. Cast Iron sparks are a) Red b) White

c) Straw coloured d) First Red then Straw

coloured

16. Corrosion resistant steel used in Aircraft construction is a) 18 – 8 steel b) Medium carbon steel

c) 18 – 6 steel d) Silicon steel

. Major alloying elements of stainless steel are ( in order of % composition)

a) Ni – Cr b) Ni – V c) W – Ni d) Cr – Ni

18. Forging steel is

a) Low Carbon steel b) Medium Carbon steel

c) High Carbon steel d) Either a) or c)

19. Exhaust collector is made up of

a) Silicon steel b) Titanium steel c) Chromium steel d) Ni – Cr steel

20. Which element is responsible for „Red hardness‟ property?

a) Ti b) Ta c) Mo d) W

21. Which elements are responsible for „Penetration hardness‟? a) Mn, S b) Mn, P c) Mn, Cr d) Cr, C

22. „Stainless steel‟ is

a) Ni – Cr steel b) Cr – Mo steel c) Ni – W steel d) Cr – Va steel

23. Silicon in steel acts as

a) Oxidiser b) Deoxidiser c) Impurity d) Both b) & c)


a) SAE 2330 is chromium steel b) SAE 3250 is used in making axle shafts because of high strength

c) SAE 3115 is used for making piston pins, cam rings

25. Steel is preheated before welding to a) Include strength b) Enhance its creep resistance

c) Enhance its creep resistance

26. Steel used for wing-hinge fittings & flying wire trunnions is a) SAE 4140 b) SAE 6150 c) SAE

1015

27. Steel used commercially for automatic machine production is

a) SAE 4135 b) SAE 4615 c) SAE 6115

28. Steel used as an alternate for SAE 4130 steel is a) SAE 8620 b) SAE 8630 c) SAE

9260

29. Pyrometer is used to a) Measure the temperature b) Protect the furnace

c) Give protective atmosphere

30. The fastest rate of cooling is given by a) Brine b) Oil c) Water

31. The tip of the rivet is upset to form a second head and that is known as

a) Round head b) Shop head c) Flat head d) Brazier head

32. O ring packings are used for preventing a) Internal leak b) External leak c) One direction leak

d) Both a) & b)

33. Gaskets are made of a) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of

these

34. While bending tubing, a small flattening is allowed but the small

diameter of the bend should not be less than _______ of the outside diameter

a) 90% b) 25% c) 75% d) 80%

35. Deep permanent impression in the hose produced by the pressure

of hose clamp is known as a) Hot flow b) Deep flow c) Cold flow d) None of

these

36. In hex bolt, the length is measured a) Under the head to the end of the bolt b) Plain portion of the

shank c) Total length d) Threaded length

37. Aircraft bolts are made of a) Mild steel b) Stainless steel c) Aluminum alloy

d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy

38. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are

a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these

39. Vegetable based fluid is normally

a) Pink b) Yellow c) Almost colourless d) None of these

40. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is

a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All

of these

41. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is

a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these

42. When no services are operated in open centre system, the pressure value in the system is

a) At low value b) At high value c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir d) Both a)

& c)

43. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is

fitted with a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir

b) To maintain the normal built up pressure c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

44. Thermal relief value fitted in the hydraulic system operates at a

pressure a) Slightly higher than normal system pressure

b) Relieve only a small quantity of fluid c) At lower than the system pressure

d) Both a) & b)

45. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for a) To maintain the normal system pressure

b) To safe guard the operation of the important services

c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of services

d) Both b) & c)

46. Restrictor valve fitted in the hydraulic system for a) Allowing free flow of fluid in one direction b) Limited

flow in other direction c) To control the pressure d) Both

a) & b)

47. Packing is made of a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber

d) Felt

48. Running seals are

a) Packing b) Gasket c) Wiper d) None of these

49. Washer (gasket) used for spark plug is a) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of these

50. Gasket used on uneven or varying space is made of

a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Copper d) All of these

51. Seals used for cleaning and lubricating is called a) Wiper b) Gasket c) Packing d) None of these

52. Fuel used for turbo jet engine is

a) Gasoline b) Aviation kerosene c) Petrol d) None of these

53. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80

d) 0.5

54. Relative density of AVTUR fuel is a) 0.80 b) Shop head

d) Both a) & b) d) All of these

c) 75%

c) Cold flow

a) Under the head to the end of the bolt

d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and

aluminum alloy d) All of these

c) Almost colourless

b) Vegetable

a) One only

c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir c) Both a) & b)

d) Both a) & b) d) Both b) & c)

d) Both c) Synthetic or natural rubber

a) Packing

b) Copper

b) Cork

a) Wiper

b) Aviation kerosene b) 0.72

b) 0.75 c) 0.70 d) 0.72

55. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of

a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns

56. The source of pressurised air in piston engine aircraft is

a) Compressor b) Supercharger c) Turbo charger d) Both b) & c)

57. Component fitted in pressurisation system to limit any possible

negative differentiate pressure to a sage value is a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value

d) pressure controller

58. To maintain a free flow of ventilation air within the aircraft when

parked the component is filled to a) Safety value b) Ground automatic relief value c) outflow

value d) Both a) & c)

59. Roots type blower pressurised and send air to cabin duct by taking a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d)

None of these

60. Engine driven cabin compressor which is used on turbo prop aircraft, its output pressure is controlled

a) Automatically b) Manually c) Not controlled d) Both a) & b)

61. The working fluid used in reciprocating engine is

a) Solid fuel b) Oxidizer & Fuel c) Fuel / Air

Mixture d) All of these

62. Mark the correct statement a) Turbo prop engine accelerate large mass of air through small

velocity change b) As in a) & Piston Engine also accelerate large mass of air through

small velocity change c) Turbo Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity

change d) Pulse Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity

change

63. To compress the engine working fluid, Piston Engine uses a) Turbine driven compressor b) Pressure rise

due to combustion

c) Positive displacement, piston type compressor d) Both a) & c) are correct

64. Piston engine classified according to

a) Thrust b) No. of stroke c) Cylinder arrangement with respect to crank shaft d) Both b)

& c)

65. Radial engine classified as a) Upright, inverted b) According to no. of

rows c) Cylinder arranged on cam shaft d) Both a) & c)

66. The emitter resistor RE in a transistor amplifier is bypassed by a

capacitor a) To reduce the voltage gain b) To increase the voltage

gain c) Causes thermal runaway d) Stabilises the Q point

67. A transistor is operating in the active region. Under this condition

a) Both the junctions are forward-biased b) Both the junctions are reverse-biased

c) Emitter-base junction is reverse-biased, and collector-base junction is forward-biased

d) Emitter-base junction is forward-biased, and collector-base junction is reverse-biased

68. The potential-divider method of biasing is used in amplifier to

a) Limit the input ac signal going to the base b) Make the

operating point almost independent of β c) Reduce the dc base current d) Reduce the

cost of the circuit 69. For generating 1 KHz note, the most suitable circuit is

a) Hartley Oscillator b) Colpits Oscillator c) Tuned-collector Oscillator d) Wein-bridge Oscillator

70.To generate a 1 MHz signal the most suitable circuit is

a) Wein-bridge Oscillator b) Phase shift Oscillator c) Colpits Oscillator d) Hartley Oscillator

71. Weather radar works on

a) Echo system b) LOS system c) VHF system d) HF system

72. Antenna size for DME is a) 1λ b) ½ λ c) λ/4 d) λ/8

73. EDAS means

a) Electrical and digital Aircraft system b) Electronics / digital Aircraft system

c) Electronics digital and avionics system d) None of these

74. The purpose of EDAS is

a) Modernise the various Aircraft system and their display system b) To reduce the work load of the pilot

c) To reduce the space in the Aircraft d) All of these

75. The satellites are placed in geo-synchronous orbit for sat com system and they provide coverage between

a) Longitude 750 b) Between latitude 750 North and South

c) Both a) & b) above d) None of these

76. In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear from gyro rotor shaft, the speed of holder

being__________ a) 25 rpm b) 20 rpm c) 30 rpm d) 35 rpm

77. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the

supply fed to the centre electrode is a) 25V AC b) 20V AC c) 12V AC d) 15V AC

78. Fast Erection system is supplied with a) 28V DC b) 115V AC c) 25V AC d) None

79. Erection rate of normal erection system is

a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec

80. Erection rate of fast erection system is a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec

PAPER - II

PART VIII

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A

11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D

21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A

31. B 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B

41. A 42. C 43. C 44. D 45. D 46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. B

51. A 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. A 56. D 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. A

61. C 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. B

66. D 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C 71. A 72. C 73. B 74. D 75. B

76. A 77. B 78. B 79. B 80. D

PAPER - II

PART IX

1. In electromagnetic method of fast erection, the output of secondary

winding of transformer is: a. 115V AC b. 20 V AC c. 28V DC d. 185V AC

2. For compensation of pendulosity error, the amount of inclination is

governed by value of: a. 0.50 b. 1.750 c. Either a) or b) d. None

3. In turn & ship indicator, the precession of gyro is equal to

a) Angular momentum of gyro b) Rate or turn c) Product of a) & b) d) None

4. In TSI, in practice, the gimbal ring deflection is generally not more

than a) 50 b) 120 c) 80 d) 60

5. Under banked turn in TSI means a) Skid out of turn b) Slip into turn c) None

6. Crank case of a piston engine is made up of:

a) One piece construction b) Two piece construction c) Multiple piece construction d) All of the above

7. Crank case provides

a) Attachment of the cylinder b) Attachment of propeller

c) Tight enclosure for lubricating oil & a) d) All of the above

8. In radial engine, impeller & blower are found in a) Power section b) Nose section

c) Super charger section d)Accessory section

9. Crank shaft

a) Converts heat energy in propulsive force b) Converts heat energy in mechanical work

c) Transform reciprocating motion of piston in to rotary motion d) As in c) & to rotating propeller shaft

10. Double throw crankshaft, also known as

a) 3600 crank shaft b) 600 crank shaft

c) 800 crank shaft d) 1800 crank shaft

11. Maximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional fabric

a) Warp b) Weft c) Biased d) Fill

12. Which of the following is the unidirectional fabric style? a) Mats b) Tapes c) Kevlar c)Fiber glass

13. Which of the following can use as leak tester

a) Ultrasound method (Water immersion method b) Dye-penetrant method

c) Magnetic particle inspection d) None of these 14. Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known as

a) Shear wave b) Compression wave

c) Surface wave d) Tension wave

15. Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by

a) X-Ray b) Ultrasonic method c) Eddy current d) None of these

16. By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion

easily a) Ultrasonic method b) Eddy current

c) Magnetic particle d) X-Ray

17. Grinding cracks on small radius bends is appeared as __________ in magnetic particle inspection

a) Irregular lines over affected area b) Short parallel lines

c) Dotted patch d) Scattered small lines

18. Permeability of material is the function of a) Magnetising force b) Flux density

c) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of these

19. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness? a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometer

c) Profilometer d) Hilsegmetometer

20. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by

a) Weight and pressure gauge b) Marking on neck c) By operating the extinguisher d) All of these

21. Which is incorrect statement? a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced

b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay

d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating

22. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by a) Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes

b) Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water

c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 d) Vacuum blasting

23. A gusset is

a) A bracing between longerons b) A type of connecting

bracket c) Used for fail safe construction d) Like a butt plate

24. Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are not

parallel a) Phillips screwdriver b) Reed & prince screwdriver

c) Both are correct d) None

25. The hallow magnetized shafts of interchangeable screwdrivers hold hex bits of

a) 1/2 inch size b) 3/4 inch size c) 3/8 inch size d) 1/4 inch size

26. The shape of which screwdriver permits the use of a wrench to

assist in tightening?

a) Stubby screwdriver b) Phillips screwdriver c) Heavy duty screwdriver c) Double ended screwdriver

27. Prick punch has an included angle of a) 150 b) 450 c)650

d) 900

28. While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch should be

a) Larger than the size of the pin b) Smaller than the size of pin

c) Same size of the pin d) Can be of any size

29. Which hammers are used for riveting & stretching of metals a) Ball peen hammer b) Straight peen hammer

c) Soft faced hammer d) Both „a‟ and „b‟ are correct

30. Soft hammers are made of

1) Babbitt 2) Brass 3) Carbon steel 4) Wood 5) Tool steel

a) 1,2 & 3 are correct b) Only „1‟ is correct c) 1,2 & 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 & 4 are correct

31. In N-type semiconductors, the concentration of minority carriers

mainly depends upon a) Doping technique b) Number of donor atoms

c) Temperature of material d) quality of intrinsic material

32. Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV) across the non-conducting diode (Reverse biased) in center tape full wave rectifier is equal to

a) Vm b) 2/Vm c) Vm/2 d)

2Vm

33. Zinor Breakdown in a diode is due to a) High electric field causes covalent bonds to break

b) Due to the increased velocities of minority carriers c) Due to heating of junction due to heavy current

d) None of the above

34. Two switches are connected ___________ to obtain AND gate function

a) In series b) In parallel c) Either parallel or series d) None of above

35. Which gate is known as universal gate

a) OR gate b) NOR gate c) AND gate

d) XOR gate

36. To identify Ferrous metal a) hardness test is used b) Spark test is used

c) Heat treatment is carried out d) Grinding stone is used

37. Solution heat treatment & artificially eged is indicated by a) T5 b) T7 c) T6 d)T8

38. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened

by a) Cold work b) Hot rolling c) Heat treatment d) All

the above

39. The heat range for salt bath Furnaces are a) Depending upon composition of bath

b) As in a) & normally 6500 F to 17000F c) As in a) & normally 3250F to 24500F

d) None of these

40. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken by a) Frame b) Stringer c) Longerons d)

Bulk head

41. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is carried by

a) Spar b) Rib c) Wing joints d) Bracing struts

42. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is a) Dead centre b) Point c) Margin d) Lip

43. The angle between a lip and axis of the drill bit is known as

______ and mostly 590 a) Heel angle b) Lip angle c) Lip clearance d)

None of these

44. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled is known as

a) Point b) cutting lips c) Margin d) Flutes

45. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved

by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity)

a) And C of P (Pressure) together b) Rear of C of P c) Front of C of P d) Along Aerodynamic C of P

46. The point on the chord line at which the total lift of a section at an

aerofoil is considered to act is known as a) Centre of Gravity b) Centre of Pressure

c) Lift d) None of the above

47. The difference between the angles of incidence between the main plane and tailplane is known as

a) Diheddral b) Anhedral c) Longitudinal Dihedral d) None of above

48. The type of drag which is produced by non lifting surfaces is known

as a) Parasite drag b) Wing drag c) Skin friction

d) Induced drag

49. The stability which is due to features incorporated in the design of the aircraft is called

a) Inherent stability b) Neutral stability c) Static stability d) Dynamic stability

50. The angle of attack of an aerofoil such as wing is the angle

between the a) Chord of the wing and the longitudinal axis

b) Chord of the wing and the relative airflow c) Chord of the wing and horizontal axis

d) Angle of incidence and stall angle

51. Crazing appears on the plastic surface in forms of

a) Straight line crack b) Zigzag crack

c) A network of crack running in all direction d) Not visible

52. If plastic is stored horizontally, the height should not be more than

a) 6” b) 24” c) 12” d) 18”

53. In a fail safe spar, the top section consist of a) Cap and upper web plate riveted together b) Single

extrusion c) Splice plates and cap d) All of these

54. Hydraulic fluid leak is avoided in between the body and the piston of the break assembly by means of

a) Gasket b) O-ring packing c) Seal d) All above

55. In cantilever wing design

a) No external support is required b) Bracing is required c) Drag wire is fitted d) None of these

56. The principal structured member of the wing is

a) Rib b) Spar c) Stringer d) Formers

57. In multiple disk break assembly stators are

a) Key to the bearing career b) Not key to the bearing

career c) It rotates d) None above

58. Pressure identification or false brinnelling appears in which type of

corrosion a) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Inter granular

corrosion d) Stress corrosion

59. Al and its alloys are covered with pure aluminium to corrosion resistance is called

a) Sherardizing b) Anodizing c) Cladding d) Chromating

60. Magnesium parts are protected for temporary storage with

a) Cladding b) Anodizing c) Plating d) Chrome

pickle treatment

61. The multiple disk break assembly consist of a) 3 stators b) 4 rotators c) 1 bearing career

d) All above

62. In anodizing of Al alloys a thin layer of film on the surface is formed of

a) Al oxide b) Sodium oxide c) Potassium oxide d) Calcium oxide

63. Dichromate treatment is given to

a) Al parts b) Steel parts c) Magnesium parts d) Copper parts

64. Al. Alloy bell cranks employing pressed in taper pins are suspected to

a) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Stress corrosion d) None of these

65. Rigid fuel tanks are tested for leak with the air pressure of

a) 2.5 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2 PSI d) 3 PSI

66. Flexible fuel tanks are tested for fuel leak with the air pressure of a) 0.25 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2.5 PSI d) 0.5 PSI

67. Fuel leak of the tank is checked for the seepage for the period of

a) 15 min c) 30 min c) 45 min d) 60 min

68. The bladder type of fuel cell is made to size in the cavity when it

sit a) Larger b) Smaller c) Equal d) All of

these

69. During symmetry checks of Aircraft a spring scale is used with the steel tape. Generally a pull of force is applied to obtain equal tension

during reading it. a) 8 lbs b) 15 lbs c) 5 lbs

d) 10 lbs

70. To check the rudder hinge alignment the instrument used is a) Scale b) Plum bob c) straight edge d)

Steel tape

71. Taper on a shaft is indicated along the

a) Centre line b) Base line c) Dimension line

72. Set squares can be used for drawing a) Vertical line b) Inclined line c) Parallel line

d) All of the above

73. Splined shafts are used to a) Transmit larger power than keyed shaft b) Obtain axial

movement c) Obtain rotary movement d) All of these

74. Flange couplings are

a) Flexible coupling b). Rigid coupling c) Compression coupling d) Clamp coupling

75. The type of key used in muff coupling is a) Wood roof key b) Gib-head key c) Round key d)

Any of these

76. Gear sector gives a) Continuous motion b) Intermittent motion

c) Reciprocating motion d) None of these

77. Helical gears are a) More quiet than spur gear b) Having more

number of teeth in contact c) Smooth in operation d) All of these

78. Addendum + Duodenum =

a) Working depth b) Whole depth c) Tooth space d) Backlash

79. The basic difference in datum line and phantom line is

a) Thickness of lines b) Length of lines c) No. of lines d) None of these

80. A straight line parallel to a vertical plane has

a) A line of same length in front view and point in top view b) A line of same length in both views

c) A line of same length in top view and point in front view d) None of these

PAPER - II

PART IX

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A

6. D 7.C 8. C 9. D 10. D

11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. A

16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20.A

21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D

26. C 27.B 28.A 29. A 30. C

31. C 32. D 33. A 34.A 35.B

36. B 37. C 38. C 39. C 40. C

41. D 42. B 43. B 44. B 45 C

46. B 47. C 48 A 49. B 50. B

51.C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55 A

56. B 57. A 58.B 59.C 60. D

61. D 62. A 63. C 64. C 65. B

66. A 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. B

71. A 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. D

76. B 77. D 78. B 79. A 80. A

PAPER - II

PART X

1. Chain (thick line of 0.7mm) indicates a. Visible outlines and edges

b. Hidden outlines and edges c. Surface which have to meet special requirements.

d. Cutting planes.

2. Raised countersunk heads bolt nominal length is measured from a. Under the head to the tip

b. Total length of the bolt c. Threaded length

d. Distance from upper surface of the head (excluding the raised portion) to the extreme end of shank

3. Bolt head is of a Steel b. Corrosion resistant steel c. Al. Alloy

d. Brass

4. Bolt head is of a. Steel b. Al. Alloy

c. C.R.S. close tolerance d. Al. Alloy close tolerance

5. AN 935 is a. Plain washer b. Lock spring washer

c. Shake proof washer d. None of above

6. AN 936 is a. Shake proof washer b. Lock spring washer

c. Plain washer d. None of above

7. Measuring capacity of Vernier Caliper is

a. Full graduated length of main scale b. Full graduated length of main scale minus the length of the

vernier scale. c. Full graduated length plus vernier scale

d. All above

8. Vernier caliper is checked for accuracy with the help of a. Slip gauge b. Micrometer c. Straight edge d.

both a) and b)

9. Calliper Micrometer is used for measurement of

a. Small internal diameter b. Big internal diameter

c. External diameter d. All above

10. For measurement of cutting a lapping dimension of Drills, Taps and

Reamers instrument used in a. External micrometer

b. Internal micrometer c. Vee-block micrometer

d. All above

11. When metal is in contact with plastics, glass wool (non-conducting material) the corrosion form is known as

a. Fretting b. Pitting c. Crevice corrosion d. None of

above

12. Argon cylinders should not be used if the pressure is less than a. 20 lbf/in b. 30 lbf/in c. 10 lbf/in d. None

13. Grub screws are used for

a. Locking the bolt b. Locking the nut c. Locking two threaded components d. To stop end

movement of piston

14. Taper pin are manufactured with taper of a. 1 in 48 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 50 d. 1 in 60

15. Main constituents of Inconel are

a. Nickel and Iron b. Nickel and Chromium

d. Nickel and Copper d. Copper and Manganese

16. Aircraft wheels, brake pedals, control columns are made out of a. Nickel alloy b. Magnesium alloys

c. Magnesium alloy castings d. Wrought Magnesium alloy

17. Anti-corrosive treatment given to copper and its alloys in order to reduce electric potential between these parts and its adjacent steel or

aluminium parts is a. Galvanizing b. Parkerizing

c. Metal spraying d. Cadmium plating

18. In order to increase elasticity and strength and reduce tackiness in

rubber, the process is known as a. Vulcanizing b. Calendering c. Hardening

d. None

19. Aircraft rivets are identified by a. Head style

b. Alloy c. Length & diameter

d. All

20. For accurate location of particular area on an aircraft, which of the following is necessary?

a. Water line b. Butt line

c. As in a) and b) in conjunction with station line

d. None

21. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?

a. Pitting b. Galvanic

c. Inter crystalline d. Fretting

22. For spot welding, in stainless steel, which is most suitable

a. Low-voltage b. High-amperage

c. Low-voltage and High-amperage d. High-voltage and Low-amperage

23. Heat generated in spot welding is measured by a. Resistance x (Current)2 x Time

b. Resistance x Time / (Current)2 c. (Current)2 / Resistance x Time

d. Resistance x Current

24. Which of the following is Non-Magnetic? a. Inconel

b. K-Monel c. Monel

d. All


a. Magnesium Steel b. Manganese Steel

c. Silicon Steel d. Chromium Steel


length a. Upsetting

b. Down setting c. Swaging

d. Rolling

27. Rivets are designed a. Stronger in shear

b. Stronger in tension

c. Should not be subjected to excessive tension load d. Both a) and c)

28. Zero fuel weight means

a. AUW minus weight of fuel b. Weight of cargo, passenger and crew

c. Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b)

d. All of these

29. I-beam is produced by a. Rolling b. Casting

c. Forging d. None 30. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of

producing

a. Passive oxidation b. Improved corrosion resistance

c. Corrosion d. None

31. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the

danger of a. Forming passive oxide

b. Entrapping corrosive material c. Corrosion by embedded iron oxide

d. All of the above

32. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of

a. A tendency for them to return their natural state

b. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metal

c. Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area d. All of the above

33. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for

corrosion to occur a. Presence of electrolyte

b. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area c. Presence of passive oxide film

d. None of these

34. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part a. May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit

b. Appears as thread like filament

c. Cannot always be detected by surface indication d. All of the above

35. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated

jaws for gripping round pipes? a. Warnok type

b. Stillson type c. Super wrench tool

d. Williams type

36. Vise grip pliers is also known as a. Heavy pliers

b. Lever jaw wrench c. Monkey pliers

d. None

37. Punch holders are used to hold

a. Punches b. Chisels

c. Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correct d. As in „a‟, when a hard blow is required

38. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation?

a. Safety wire pliers b. Diagonals & duck bill pliers

c. Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correct d. As in „a‟ & diagonals

39. Diagonals are used for

a. Cutting steel wires & rods b. Cutting bolt heads

c. Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correct d. None

40. The shape of long nose pliers is

a. Round b. Half-round

c. Square d. None

41. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by

a. A small lever at each handle b. A compound lever at both handles

c. A small lever at one of the handles

d. None

42. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction?

a. Acme b. Square

c. Worm d. Buttress

43. In interlocking-joint pliers,

a. There are a number of holes at the hinge point b. There are two holes at the hinge point

c. There are several curved grooves at the hinge point d. None

44. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or rod

a. Self-locking nut b. Jamb nut

c. Stainless steel nut with cotter pin d. None of these

45. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher

is checked by a. Weight and pressure gauge

b. Marking on neck c. By operating the extinguisher

d. All of the above

46. Choose incorrect statement

a. Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strength b. Proper tension in rope allows „1‟ movement

c. Manila rope requires extra slak due to shrinks d. The rope from tail should pull away at about 450 to each side

of tail 47. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check

a. Single base jack b. Bottle neck jack

c. Screw jack d. Tripod jack

48. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement

for faster work a. Vernier micrometer

b. Vernier calliper

c. Micrometer calliper d. None of these

49. Which is incorrect statement a. If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced

b. Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone c. For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay

d. Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating

50. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by a. Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes

b. Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water

c. Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 d. Vacuum blasting

51. A gusset is a. A bracing between longerons

b. A type of connecting bracket c. Used for fail safe construction

d. Like a butt plate

52. In computer terminology, MICR means a. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

b. Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition c. Monitor Indicating Computer Relay

d. Mass Information Computer Record

53. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely

resistive circuit is given by a. 00

b. 900 c. 450

d. 1350

54. One micro farad is equal to a. 0.001 milli farad

b. 100 milli farad c. 1000 milli farad

d. 10 milli farad

55. To smoothen the DC in rectifier, we employ a. LPF b. HPF

b. BPF d. None

56. The Voltage / Current across the short circuit a. V = max I = 0

b. V = 0 I = max c. V = 0 I = 0

d. V = max I = max

57. The vacuum tube has a. Directly heated anode

b. Indirectly heated cathode c. Directly heated cathode

d. Indirectly heated anode

58. The name “Superhet” is used for a. AM receiver

b. FM receiver

c. AM transmitter d. FM transmitter

59. Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel across a supply, giving 27 ampere, then current through 15 ohm will

be a. 27 amp

b. 12 amp c. 15 amp

d. 1 amp

60. Most effective method of removing rust from ferrous metal is a. Steel wire brush

b. Sand paper c. By abrasive blasting

d. Washing with hot shop solution

61. A) Rivet smaller than 3/32” diameter are never used on stressed structure

B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117T rivet a. Both are correct

b. Both are incorrect c. Only A) is correct

d. Only B) is correct

62. Regarding permanent ballast a. Lead bar or plate is used

b. Painted red and placarded c. Bolted as near as possible to CG

d. Both A and B

63. Transverse pitch is

a. Twice the rivet diameter b. 70% of rivet pitch

c. 75% of rivet pitch d. 6-8 diameter

64. Rivet pitch is

a. Distance between center of rivet in a row b. Distance between edge to center of rivet

c. Four times the rivet diameter d. Both a) and c) are correct

65. Edge distance (minimum) is

a. 4D b. 2D

c. 6-8D

d. Any of the above

66. The amount of rivet length used for shop head is a. 11/2” x diameter of rivet

b. 4 x diameter of rivet c. 3 x diameter of rivet

d. All of the above

67. Which plating process provide excellent base for paint a. Cd – Plating

b. Zn – Plating c. Granodizing

d. All of the above

68. Which treatment give excellent base for paint

a. CR – Plating b. Parkerizing

c. Metal spraying d. Zn – plating

69. The process use zinc as a medium for plating

a. Parkerizing b. Sheradizing

c. Galvonizing d. Both b) and c)

70. In Electrically driven attitude indicators, the gyro rotates approx.,

at a. 20000 rpm

b. 21000 rpm

c. 21500 rpm d. None of the above

71. During functional test of direction indicator, the drift should be

checked which should not exceed a. 2 degree in 15 minutes

b. 3 degree in 15 minutes c. 2 degree in 30 minutes

d. 3 degree in 30 minutes

72. Performance test of instruments should be carried out a. Before installation

b. At times when indication and operation are suspected c. At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manual

d. All of the above

73. Worm threads have a thread angle of

a. 45 degrees and is similar to ACME threads b. 29 degrees and is similar to ACME threads

c. 29 degrees and depth of threads are deeper than ACME threads

d. 29 degrees and ACME threads are deeper than worm threads

74. The figure shown here is of a. A simple gear train and the gear „D‟ moves at half speed of

gear „A‟ b. As in „a‟ & the gear „D‟ moves in the same direction of the

gear „A‟

c. A compound gear train & the gear „D‟ moves in the opposite

direction of the gear „A‟ d. A simple gear train and the gear „D‟ moves in the opposite

direction at a double speed of gear „A‟

100T 30 30 50T

A B C D

75. Which of the following memories has got equal access time for all

locations of the memory limit? a. Read Only Memory (ROM)

b. Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM) c. Random Access Memory (RAM)

d. Erasable ROM

76. To get a basic D.C. generator from A.C. generator which of the

following arrangement is made? a. By replacing the slip rings of the A.C. generator with

commutator b. By the addition of extra slip rings

c. By connecting a rectifier d. None of the above

77. The rotating part of a DC generator is called

a. Field coil b. Yoke c. Armature d. None of these

78. Variations of D.C. voltage generated by D.C. generator is called

a. Ripple b. R.M.S. c. Average d. Crest

79. The brushes in generator are generally made up of

a. High grade carbon b. High grade silicon

c. High grade selenium d. High grade zinc

80. The term 10-5 farads mean

a. 1 mili-farad b. 10 micro-farad c. 10 nano-farad d. None

PAPER - II

PART X

1.C 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.B

6.A 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B

16,.C 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. C 21.C 22. C 23. A 24.B 25. B

26. A 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. C

31. B 32. A 33.C 34.C 35.B 36. B 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B

41. C 42.D 43.C 44.B 45.A 46. A 47. D 48.B 49.C 50.C

51.B 52.A 53.A 54.A 55.A 56.B 57.B 58.A 59.B 60.C

61.C 62.C 63.C 64.D 65.B 66.A 67.C 68.B 69.D 70.B

71.B 72.D 73.C 74.D 75.C 76.A 77.A 78.A 79.A 80.B

PAPER - II

PART XI

1. Diamond is a: (a) Metal (b) Non-metal (c) Glass (d)

Composite

2. Number of atoms in a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal are: (a) Ten (b) Seventeen (c) Nine

(d) Fourteen

3. Type of bond formed in a material by sharing of electrons in different atoms is:

(a) Ionic Bond (b) Covalent Bond (c) Metallic Bond (d) Electrostatic bond

4. A crack in a metal due to corrosive atmosphere and static tensile stress is known as:

(a) Bauschinger‟s effect (b) Work hardening (c) Season cracking (d) Strain aging

5. A metal part or structure fails under repetitive or fluctuating loading

or stress is called: (a) Fatigue fracture (b) Ductile fracture (c) Creep

fracture (d) Brittle fracture

6. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as (2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution

(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect

(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (d) Both, (1) and (2)

are correct

7. Property of a material to resist indentation is known as: (a) Toughness (b) Hardness (c) Brittleness

(d) Strength

8. Conductivity and Expansion are physical terms which are related to: (a) Electricity (b) Heat (c) Cooling (d)

None of these

9. Addition of carbon to the surface of steel to make it hard, is known

as: (a) Case hardening (b) Carburizing (c) Quenching

(d) None of these

10. Permanent deformation of metal caused by applied load is called: (a) Stress (b) Elastic deformation (c) Plastic

deformation (d) None of these

11. The point at which marked increase in deformation occurs without increasing the load during tensile testing of a material, is:

(a) Yield point (b) Yield strength (c) Proof strength (d) Tensile strength

12. For tensile testing, the extensometer must be calibrated to:

(a) 0.0001 inch (b) 0.0002 inch (c) 0.0003 inch (d) 0.0004

inch

13. Yield strength of a metal can be determined by:

(a) Divider method (b) Drop of beam method

(c) Set method (d) None of these

14. In Brinell Hardness Testing, hard metal will have: (a) Large Brinell number (b) Small Brinell

number (c) No effect by hardness (d) None of these

15. In Vicker‟s Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals

of diamond pyramid is:

(a) 1260 (b) 1360 (c) 1460 (d) 1560

16. Size of specimen taken for reverse bending test is: (a) 5 inches (b) 10 inches (c) 15 inches

(d) 20 inches

17. In reverse bending test, number of bends require for small wires (a) 50 bends (b) 7 bends (c) 10 bends

(d) 90 bends

18. Torsion test is carried out on (a) Aircraft tubes (b) Wires (c) Sheets & strips (d)

Bars & rods

19. In radiography inspection, the wave length of x-rays are in order

of (a) 10-6 (b) 10-10 (c) 10-11 (d)

10-6 – 10-9

20. Circular magnetization detects the defect approximately: (a) In line with flux (b) Parallel to the line

of flux (c) Parallel to the axis of the part (d) None of these

21. Type of bond formed in a material by Electrons cloud is:

(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Mettalic bond (d) Electrostatic

22. For tensile testing, it is permitted to taper the gauge length of the

specimen towards center, maximum by:

(a) 0.001 inch (b) 0.002 inch (c) 0.002 inch (d) 0.004 inch

23. For elastic limit determination, the extensometer reading is taken

from: (a) 5% load of expected elastic limit (b) 10% load of

expected elastic limit (c) 15% load of expected elastic limit (d) 20% load of

expected elastic limit

24. While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from edges should be there to avoid:

(a) Buldging at opposite side (b) Deflection while testing

(c) Ridge scales (d) Scratches

25. (1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to ½

inches, where as (2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg.

(a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false

(c) Both are true (d) Both are false

26. Brinell Hardness Number is obtained by: a) Size of ball divided by area of depression

b) Area of depression divided by size of ball c) Load applied divided by area of depression

d) None of these

27. Maximum size of ball for Rockwell hardness test is: (a) 5mm (b) 10mm (c) ½ mm (d) 1 ½

mm

28. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of the B scale is: (a) B0 – B150 (b) B0 – B100 (c) B0 – B20

(d) None of these

29. In Rockwell hardness test, „B‟ scale is a combination of: (a) Diamond cone, 150kg load and Red dial

(b) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Black dial (c) Diamond cone, 100kg load and Black dial

(d) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Red dial

30. Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell

hardness test is: (a) 0.027 inch (b) 0.27 inch (c) 0.0027 inch

(d) None of these

31. Load applied in Shore Scleroscope hardness test is: (a) 30 kg (b) 50 kg (c) 10 kg (d) None of

these

32. For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is: (a) 1 to 1 ½ inch wide with suitable length

(b) 1 by ½ in cross section (c) Full section

(d) None of these

33. In reverse bending test, the specimen is bent through an angle of:

(a) 600 (b) 900 (c) 1200 (d) 1800

34. In Izod impact test, the specimen is :

(a) Supported on two supports (b) Clamped in heavy jaws

(c) Attached with pendulum (d) None of these

35. In Hydrostatic test, welded exhaust tubing are subjected to an internal pressure sufficient to put the welded seam under a tensile

stress of: (a) 1000 PSI (b) 10000 PSI (c) 100000 PSI

(d) 1000000 PSI

36. In torsion testing of wires, speed of revolution should not be more

than: (a) 80 revolution/min (b) 70 revolution/min (c) 60

revolution/min (d) 50 revolution/min

37. In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of material will not occur is known as:

(a) Plastic limit (b) Elastic limit (c) Proof stress (d) Endurance limit

38. Gamma rays used for inspecting aircraft material for internal

cracks / defects are having wave length of: (a) 10-3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9

(d) 10-11

39. (1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel

(2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel (a) Both are true (b) Both are false

(c) (1) is true (2) is false (d) (1) is false and (2) is true

40. High carbon steel is used for: (a) Great hardness and low ductility (b) Great

ductility and strength (c) Great hardness and machinability (c) All of these

41. Which of the following is more useful for taking backups?

(a) Floppy disk (b) Hard Disk (c) Optical Disk (d) Cartridge

42. One Megabyte is _____________ bytes.

(a) 1048576 (b) 1000 (c) 102756 (d)

10

43. The material used as heat sink in semiconductors is (a) Silicon (b) Germanium (c) Carbon (d)

Selenium

44. When the conduction-band orbit of one atom may intersect the hole orbit of another atom merging of a free electron and a hole

takes place. This merging of electron and hole is known as (a) Current flow (b) Minority current flow

(c) Combination (d) Recombination

45. The barrier potential at 25˚C in respect of silicon and germanium

is (a) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.3V (b) Si-0.3V and Ge-

0.7V (c) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.7V (d) Si-0.3V and Ge-

0.3V

46. Once the breakdown voltage is reached, the diode can conduct (a) Heavily (b) Very flow (c) Moderately (d)

None of these

47. An electronic device which converts alternating current into d.c. is called

(a) Detector (b) Rectifier (c) Oscillator (d) None of these

48. Mark the incorrect statement about a bimetallic strip (a) It consists of two metals joined together at their interface

to form a single strip. (b) One of the metal is invar, a form of steel with a 26% nickel

content and a negligible coefficient of linear expansion. (c) The other metal may be brass or steel both of which have

high linear expansion coefficient. (d) None of these.

49. Many of the instruments depend for their operation on sensitive

electrical circuits which are protected against adverse effects of atmospheric temperature, pressure and humidity by

(a) filling the cases with nitrogen (b) filling the cases with helium

(c) filling the cases with argon (d) either (a) or (b)

50. Instruments displaying information which is to be read accurately

and at frequent intervals have scale about _____________ in length fitting into standard ____________ in cases.

(a) 6 in & 3 ¼” (b) 7 in & 3½” (c) 7 in & 3¼” (d) none of these

51. The rolled section having dimension of 6”x 6” or larger &

approximately square is called (a) bloom (b) billet (c) slab (d)

none of these

52. To identify ferrous metal

(a) hardness test is used (b) spark test is used (c) heat treatment is carried out (d) grinding stone is

used

53. Solution heat treated & artificially edged is indicated by (a) T5 (b) T7 (c) T6

(d) T8

54. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by

(a) cold work (b) hot rolling (c) heat treatment (d) all the above

55. The heat range for salt bath furnances are

(a) depending upon composition of bath. (b) as in (a) & normally 650˚F to 1700˚F.

(c) as in (a) & normally 325˚F to 2450˚F. (d) none of these.

56. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken by

(a) frame (b) stringer (c) longerons (d) bulk hand

57. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is

carried by (a) spar (b) rib (c) wing joints

(d) bracing struts

58. In main plane at the inboard end of the wing near the attachment

point to the fuselage heavily stressed rib is called (a) butt rib (b) bulk head rip (c) compression rib (d)

all of them

59. Aircraft requiring extra wing area to aid lift often are (a) split flap (b) plain flap (c) fowler flap

(d) all of them

60. On multiengine aircraft Nacelles or pods are located (a) above the m/p (b) below the m/p

(c) at the leading edge of the m/p (d) all the above

61. An amplifying, comparative gage is an instrument that amplifies the variation in the size of two similar parts by

(a) 2 times (b) 5 times (c) 10 times (d)

20 times

62. Johansson precision gage blocks, the second series of gage blocks contains

(a) 19 blocks (b) 49 blocks (c) 81 blocks (d) none of these

63. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is

(a) dead centre (b) point (c) margin (d) lip

64. The angle between a lip and axis of a drill bit is known as

___________ and mostly 59˚. (a) heel angle (b) lip angle (c) lip clearance

(d) none of these

65. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a

hole is drilled is known as (a) point (b) cutting lips (c) margin (d)

flutes

66. A capacitor consists of two (a) conductors separated by an insulator called the di-electric.

(b) insulators separated by a conductor. (c) insulators separated by air medium.

(d) conductors separated by air medium.

67. In a capacitor electric charge is stored in (a) metal plates (b) di-electric (c) both (a) & (b)

(d) none of these

68. Unit of m.m.f. is

(a) weber (b) gilbert (c) maxwell (d) henry

69. Joule/coloumb is the unit of (a) electric field potential (b) potential (c) charge

(d) none of these

70. In a lead-acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to

(a) idleness of battery for a long time (b) low level of electrolyte

(c) persistent under charging (d) all of them

71. Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is

(a) dust particle (b) iron (c) lead crystals (d) sodium chloride

72. Overcharging of lead-acid battery will cause

(a) excessive gassing (b) loss of active material

(c) increase in temperature resulting in buckling (d) all of them

73. Total horse power developed by piston engine is

(a) IHP (b) BHP (c) FHP (d) Actual horse power

74. Factor affecting volumetric efficiency is

(a) improper fuel injection (b) cylinder bore

(c) low engine power (d) improper valve timing

75. In the formula indicated

HP= PLANK , where N stands for

33000 (a) number of power stroke per minute (b) number of

cylinder per engine (c) number of RDM per power stroke (d) none of

these

76. White arc on ASI dial indicates airspeed range (a) normal operating range (b) maximum &

minimum limits

(c) aircraft landing flaps may be extended (d) none of these

77. Mark the correct statement about

A field effect LCD (a) It incorporates additional plates called polarizers on the

front & back glass plates of the assembly. (b) It contains a specially prepared inside glass surface which

causes liquid crystal. (c) The molecular configuration causes the plane of polarization

to be reflected by 90˚ as it passes through LCD. (d) All the above.

78. A quality of precision gage have the accuracy of


79. The convenient gages which are designed to inspect the thickness

of paper, plastic, steel metal, leather and so on with great accuracy are

(a) indicating depth gage (b) indicating thickness gage

(c) amplifying comparative gage (d) indicating gage

80. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity)

(a) end C of P (Pressure) together (b) rear of C of P ( c) front of C of P (d) along aerodynamic

C of P

PAPER - II

PART XI

ANSWERS:

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A

6. D 7. B 8. B 9.A 10. C

11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B

16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. C

21. C 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. B

26. C 27. C 28. B 29. D 30.A

31. D 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. B

36. C 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. A

41. A 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A

46. A 47. B 48. B 49. D 50. C

51. A 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. C

56. C 57. D 58. D 59. C 60. D

61. C 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. B

66. A 67. B 68. B 69. A 70. D

71. A 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. A

76. C 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. C

PAPER - II

PART XII

1. Maximum permissible silicon in steel is: (a) 0.3% (b) 0.4% (c) 0.5% (d)

0.6%

2. An element of steel which is white in colour and increases the strength, yield point and hardness without effecting the ductility:

(a) Chromium (b) Molybdenum (c) Silicon (d) Nickel

3. An alloying element of steel which improves its homogeneity and

reduces the grain size, is: (a) Nickel (b) Molybdenum (c) Chromium (d)

Silicon

4. The High Speed Steel used for tools, which will retain its cutting

edge even when heated to dull redness by working: (a) Nickel-chromium (b) Tungsten-chromium steel

(c) Vanadium-Tungsten steel (d) Chromium-molybdenum steel

5. In SAE steel numbering system, the second digit indicates:

(a) Average carbon content (b) Type of steel (c) Number of alloying elements (d) Approximate percentage

of predominant alloy

6. The numerals and digits for 3.50% Nickel steel in SAE steel numbering system is:

(a) 25xx (b) 2xxx (c) 23xx (d) 24xx

7. In AN-QQ-S-689 specification, AN indicates:

(a) Army-Navy (Aeronautical) standard (b) Air force-Navy (Aeronautical) specification

(c) American National (Aeronautical) specification (d) None of these

8. SAE 1435 steel is used for structural tubings, its Military

specification is: (a) MIL-T-6737 (b) MIL-T-6731 (c) MIL-T-6732 (d)

MIL-T-6735

9. While heating the steel, the critical points are designated by:

(a) Ac1, Ac2, … (b) Ar1, Ar2, … (c) Ar3-2 (d) Arcm

10. At what percentage of carbon content, two upper critical points

merge together and forms a single critical point known as Ar3-2 (a) Slightly above 0.1% (b) Slightly above 0.2%

(C) Slightly above 0.4% (c) at 0.85%

11. Carbon is in chemical combination with iron as iron carbide, which is known as:

(a) Austenite (b) Pearlite (c) Martensite (d) Cementite

12. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is known as:

(a) Hyper-eutectoid (b) Hypo-eutectoid (c)

Eutectoid (d) None of these

13. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is composed of: (a) Austenite (b) Cementite and

martensite (c) Martensite and troostite (d) Pearlite with excess

cementite

14. Main constituent of hardened steel is: (a) Austenite (b) Troostite (c) Sorbite (d)

Martensite

15. Fine grain of the steel is obtained when it is heated: (a) Below critical range (b) Well above critical

range

(c) Slightly above critical range (d) Up to upper critical point

16. The hardest structure obtained in the steel is:

(a) Pearlite (b) Troostite (c) Martensite (d) Sorbite

17. Soaking time for steel is:

(a) 4 hours per inch thickness (b) 3 hours per inch thickness

(c) 2 hours per inch thickness (d) 1 hour per inch thickness

18. Spheroidizing is a type of annealing which improves machinability

of : (a) Low carbon steel (b) Medium carbon

steel (c) High carbon steel (d) Alloy steel

19. Normalizing is carried out to:

(a) Induce ductility (b) Improve hardness and strength

(c) Improve machinability (d) All of these

20. The most severe quenching medium is: (a) Brine (b) Water (c) Oil

(d) Air

21. Dry heat furnace are fired by:

(a) Oil (b) Gas (c) Electricity (d) Any one of these

22. To prevent scaling, better temperature regulation and for uniform

heating, the type of furnace to be used is: (a) Liquid furnace (b) Dry heat furnace

(c) Open hearth furnace (d) Electric furnace

23. Sufficient period of soaking of aircraft steel parts is: (a) 30 – 60 minutes (b) 15 – 45 minutes

(c) 30 – 45 minutes (d) 1 hour – 2 hour

24. For water quenching, temperature of water must be maintained: (a) Below 600F (b) Below 650F (c) Below 700F

(d) Below 800F

25. For normalizing SAE 1025 mild carbon steel, the temperature

should be: (a) 1600 – 16250F (b) 1625 – 16750F (c) 1650 – 17000F

(d) 1675 – 17250F

26. Special steel „HY-TUF‟ has a good toughness at a tensile strength of:

(a) 2,30,000 psi (b) 2,40,000 psi (c) 2,50,000 psi d) 2,60,000 psi

27. The steel to be used for case hardening purpose is:

(a) Low carbon steel (b) Medium carbon steel

(c) High carbon steel (d) Alloy steel

28. For solid carburizing, the metal box is having 2 inches legs (a) To avoid touching of box with furnace

(b) For free circulation of furnace gases (c) For proper support of the box

(d) All of these

29. Liquid carburizing is used for small parts, where case depth required upto:


30. In gas carburizing, the parts are heated in: (a) Carbon atmosphere furnace (b) Amonia gas

(c) Carbon-dioxide gas (d) Any one of these

31. The sequence of case hardening consists of: (a) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining

(b) Carburizing, core refining, case hardening and tempering (c) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining

(d) Carburizing, case hardening, core refining and tempering

32. For case hardening „MIL-S-6709‟ describe two types of nitralloys, in which composition-A is:

(a) Free machining steel (b) High carbon steel (c) Nitriding stainless steel (d) High core strength

steel

33. Which of the following is a mechanical treatment in shaping of

metal: (a) Casting (b) Sand blasting (c) Rolling (d)

Centrifugal cast

34. While shaping of a metal if the sectional dimension is less than 6X6 inch and approximately square, the shape is called:

(a) Billet (b) Bloom (c) Slab (d) Mold

35. Complicated sections or sections required in small quantity are

usually: (a) Hot rolled (b) Cold rolled (c) Drawn

(d) Forged

36. In drop forging, the inside faces of the die are given a slope of 30 – 70 to permit drawing out the finished parts. This slope is referred

to as: (a) Up setting (b) Drawing angle (c) Draft

(d) Fin

37. When finely powdered metal is placed in a die and pressed through a plunger, it forms a compact mass by:

(a) Attraction forces of the particles

(b) Forming a bond (c) By welding the particles together

(d) By interlocking of particles

38. Cold working of metal increases its: (a) Toughness and ductility (b) Strength and ductility

(b) Hardness and ductility (d) Strength and hardness

39. Size of hot drawn rod used for cold drawing of wires are: (a) 1/8 – 3/4 inch diameter (b) 1/16 – 1/32 inch diameter

(c) 1/32 – 5/8 inch diameter (d) None of these

40. „Blow hole‟ is a defect in steel, which can occurs in (a) Ingots (b) Rolling (c) Drawing (d) Forging

41. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline upto height of _____________ above water line

(a) 1 Feet (b) 2 Feet (c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter

42. Mark the correct statements

(a) Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal (b) Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method

(c) Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease (d) All of the above

43. Evidence of surface corrosion and extent of pitting should be

tested by (a) Hardness testing (b) Impact testing

(c) Probing with a fine needle (d) None of these

44. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless formed ________________ due to high temperature

(a) Crevice corrosion (b) Electrolytic corrosion

(c) Inter-granular corrosion (d) Stress corrosion

45. Which type of corrosion is occurred in mounting bolts of engine and wings ?

(a) Inter-granular corrosion (b) Stress corrosion (c) Concentrating cell corrosion (d) Fettling

corrosion

46. Heated section checked with magnet for corrosion detection,

basically that indicate their relative (a) Conductivity of part (b) Permeability

of part (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

47. Which is most suitable condition for storage of Aircraft part?

(a) Less than 60% humidity (b) Equal to 60% humidity

(c) More than 60% humidity (d) None of these

48. Paint stripper is removed with (a) Steel wool (b) Emery cloth

(c) Aluminium wool (d) Non-metallic

material

49. Which type of stripper is used on plastic or windows parts? (a) Water-miscible paint remover (b) Solvent-miscible

paint remover (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

50. Anodic film can be removed by a solution of

(a) 10% Sulphuric acid + 4% Potassium fluoride (b) 20% Sulphuric acid + 10% Potassium fluoride

(c) 20% Sulphuric acid + 20% Potassium fluoride (d) All of the above

51. Chromate film treatment is carried on __________ material

(a) Al-alloy (b) Mg-alloy (c) Steel-Alloy (d) Titanium

52. Cadmium plating can be removed by

(a) Mechanical cleaning (b) Chemical cleaning (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

53. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steel

(a) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solution (b) Phosphoric acid can also be used

(c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surface

(d) All of the above

54. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of Al-

alloys (a) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent

(b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemically (c) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed

mechanically (d) All of the above

55. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up

action of chromate bearing conversion coating treatment? (a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover

(b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover (c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water

(d) Nitric acid + water

56. Which acid is used for cleaning of Mg-alloy?

(a) Chromic acid (b) Phosphoric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Sulphuric acid

57. Steel and Non-clad Al-alloy can be cleaned by

(a) Wet glass paper (b) Dry emery paper (c) Dry sand paper (d) As in (a) & water acts as

lubricants

58. Which type of scraper is used for corrosion removal on casting or forging parts?

(a) Steel carbide tipped (b) Plastic copped tip scraper

(c) Abrasive tipped cap scraper (d) None of these

59. Mark the correct statement regarding battery component

(a) Lead-acid battery compartment neutralized by bi-carbonate of soda

(b) Ni-Cd battery compartment neutralized by acetic acid (c) The sump vent jar containing moist absorbent pad with

neutralizing agent (d) All of these

60. Human wastes corrode the lavatory area, because it is ________

in nature (a) Acidic (b) Caustic

(c) Neutralizing agent (d) None of these

61. Grip length of the bolt is (a) Total length of the bolt

(b) Plain sank portion of the bolt

(c) Length under the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt (d) None of these

62. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is

(a) 10 ounce hammer (b) 20 ounce hammer (c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer (d) Sledge hammer

63. AN 4-7 bolt shows

(a) 7/8” dia (b) ¼” length (c) 4”length (d) ¼”dia

64. Bolt of class 4 fit is

(a) Loose fit (b) Free fit (c) Close fit (d) Tight fit

65. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where (a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface (b) Bolt is

installed head down (c) It can be used any where (d) None of

these

66. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is

(a) AN 936 (b) AN 935 (c) AN 970 (d) AN 960

67. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is (a) Plain nut (b) Castle nut

(c) Castellated shear nut (d) Self locking nut

68. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the centre of the rivet to the edge of the sheet)

should be (d is diameter of rivet) (a) 2d to 4d (b) 8d (c) 6d (d)

75% of the pitch

69. Pitch of the rivet should be (a) 1½ d (b) 6d to 8d

(c) 1½ x d (d) All of these

70. The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet

is (a) 2 d (b) 4 d (c) 1½ x d

(d) 8 d

71. Chamfering of the patch plate is done at the angle of

(a) 25 ° (b) 45 ° (c) 60 ° (d) 15 °

72. In patch repair, clearance between the rivet and hole should be

(a) 0.008” (b) 0.5” (c) 0.002” to 0.004” (d) 0.4”

73. A rivet with part no. AN 470 AD 3-5 is having a diameter of

(a) 3/32” (b) 5/32” (c) 3/16” (d) 5/16”

74. Seam welding is

(a) Pressure welding (b) Non-pressure

welding (c) Electric resistance (d) Both (a) & (c)

75. In which type of welding, the electrode is non-consumable

(a) TIG (b) MIG (c) Electric resistance (d) Oxyacetylene

76. Spot welding electrodes should be

(a) Good conductor of Electricity (b) Good conductor of heat

(c) High strength & Hardness (d) Both (a) & (c)

77. In leftward welding

(a) Filler rod precedes torch (b) Torch precedes filler rod

(c) A 60° V is prepared at the end of plate (d) Both (a) & (c)

78. The color of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is

(a) Maroon & Black (b) Black & Maroon (c) Yellow & Black (d) Black & Yellow

79. Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane

of articulation through (a) 120 ° (b) 90° (c) 180°

(d) None

80. For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement

(a) Every third inner plate is extended in one direction (b) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction

(c) Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction (d) All are wrong

PAPER - II

PART XII

ANSWERS:

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. D

6. C 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. C

11. D 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. C

16. C 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A

21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B

26. A 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. A

31. B 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D

36. C 37. D 38. D 39. A 40. A

41. B 42. C 43. C 44. C 45. D

46. B 47. A 48. D 49. D 50. A

51. B 52. C 53. D 54. D 55. B

56. A 57. D 58. A 59. D 60. A

61. B 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. A

66. C 67. C 68. A 69. B 70. C

71. B 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. A

76. D 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. B

PAPER - II

PART XIII

1. What percentage of manganese and sulfur will completely form manganese sulfide in steel, which is harmless in small quantity:

(a) 0.3% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese (b) 0.30% Manganese and 0.06% Sulfur

(c) 0.03% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese (d) None of these

2. It is a grey metal which impart hardness, strength, wear resistance and corrosion resistance of steel:

(a) Chromium (b) Nickel (c) Silicon (d) Titanium

3. Which of the alloying element of steel is most expensive:

(a) Vanadium (b) Titanium (c) Molybdenum (d)

Tungsten

4. In SAE steel numbering system, first digit indicate: (a) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy

(b) Average carbon content (c) Type of steel

(d) None of these

5. In SAE steel numbering system, last two or three digits indicate: (a) Average carbon content (b) Approximate percentage

of predominant alloy (c) Type of steel (d) Number of alloying

elements.

6. The numerals and digits for 1.25% Nickel, 0.60% Chromium of

Nickel-chromium steel in SAE numbering system is: (a) 32xx (b) 31xx (c) 33xx (d)

30xx

7. Military specification (MIL) are developed jointly by technical services of Army, Navy and Air force and are issued by:

(a) American National Specification (b) Munitions Board Standard Agency

(c) American Military (d) Air force-Navy Specification Board

8. SAE 4037 steel is used for aircraft bolts, its „AN‟ specification is:

(a) AN-S-85 (b) AN-S-13-B (c) AN-S-9a (d) QQ-S-624

9. While cooling the steel, its critical points are designated by:

(a) Ac3, Ac2, … (b) Ar3, Ar2, … (c) Arcm (d) Ar3-2-1

10. At what percentage of carbon, all three critical points will merge together and forms a single critical point known as Ar3-2-1

(a) 0.85% (b) 0.65% (c) 0.45% (d) 0.25%

11. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is known as: (a) Eutectoid (b) Hypo-eutectoid (c) Hyper-

eutectoid (d) None of these

12. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is composed of:

(a) Pearlite (b) Pearlite with excess ferrite (c) Pearlite with excess cementite (d) Pearlite and

Austenit

13. While heat-treating the steel, transition from one form to another can be arrested by:

(a) Slow rate of cooling (b) Drastic rate of cooling (c) Cooling in still air (d) Cooling in furnace

14. Main constituent of Drawn (Tempered) steel is:

(a) Sorbite (b) Martensite (c) Troostite (d) Austenite

15. To know the critical range of any steel, it is very much important

to know its:

(a) Critical points (b) Upper critical point (c) Lower critical point (d) Chemical

composition

16. After heating the steel for annealing, the cooling is to be done: (a) In the furnace (b) In open air (c) In oil

(d) Any one of these

17. In annealed state, aircraft steel is not of practical use because of: (a) Its lowest strength (b) Very hard and

brittle (c) High ductility (d) All of these

18. Type of annealing mainly used in sheet and wire industries:

(a) Full annealing (b) Process annealing

(c) Spheroidizing (d) Shop annealing

19. Hardening of the steel is done by: (a) Heating above critical and cooling in furnace itself

(b) Heating below critical range and quenching (c) Heating above critical range and quenching

(d) Any one of these

20. To maintain an oxygen free atmosphere inside the dry furnace, the furnace is fed with:

(a) Ammonia gas (b) Water vapor (c) Carbon vapor (d) Oil vapor

21. In liquid heat furnace, the parts are heated by:

(a) Oil bath (b) Chemical bath

(c) Molten salt bath (d) Any liquid

22. Re-arrangement of internal structure of steel complete in: (a) Heating period (b) Quenching period

(c) Soaking period (d) Any one

23. Percentage of salt mixed with water to prepare brine is: (a) 5 – 10% (b) 10 – 15% (c) 15 – 20%

(d) 20 – 25%

24. For oil quenching, the temperature of oil must be maintained: (a) 70 – 1300F (b) 75 – 1400F (c) 80 – 1500F

(d) 85 – 1600F

25. For heat treating SAE 3140 Chrome-Nickel steel, the temperature

should be: (a) 1200 – 12750 F (b) 1250 – 13250F (c) 1400 –

15000F (d) 1475 – 15250F

26. Soaking period for „HY-TUF‟ special steel is two hours per inch of thickness at a temperature of:

(a) 500 250F (b) 550 250F (c) 600 250F

(d) 650 250F

27. In case hardening, carbon content at the case will be:

(a) 0.60 – 0.80% (b) 0.70 – 1.0% (c) 0.80 – 1.25% (d) 0.85 – 2%

28. For case hardening of aircraft work, the depth of case used is:

(a) 1/64 – 1/32 inch (b) 1/48 – 1/25 inch (c) 1/32 – 1/16 inch (d) 1/16 – 1/8 inch

29. For liquid carburizing, parts are heated in:

(a) Liquid furnace (b) Gas furnace (c) Molten salt bath (d) Electric furnace

30. The sequence of case hardening consists of:

(a) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining (b) Carburizing, core refining, case hardening and tempering

(c) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining (d) Carburizing, case hardening, core refining and tempering

31. For selective case hardening, the portion of the parts not required

to be hardened, are:

(a) Jappaned (b) Copper plated (c) Left as it is (d) None of these

32. Method of case hardening which increases compressive stress on

the skin and tensile stress just below the surface is: (a) Selective case hardening (b) Nitriding

(c) Shot peening (d) Induction hardening

33. While shaping of a metal if the sectional dimensions is 6X6 inches

or larger and approximately square, the shape is called: (a) Slab (b) Bloom (c) Billet

(d) Rod

34. To get a fine grained structure, hot rolling must be finished:

(a) Below critical range (b) Above critical range (c) Within critical range (d) Just below upper

critical point

35. The type of forging in which two dies are used, one is attached to the hammer and other to anvil, is known as:

(a) Hammer forging (b) Drop forging (c) Cold forging (d) Press forging

36. In metal powdered parts, property of the metal will be of:

(a) Particles of maximum quantity (b) Individual particles will held there property

(c) Uniform nature (d) None of these

37. Tensile strength of powdered metal parts can be obtained upto: (a) 80% of solid metal parts (b) 70% of solid metal

parts (c) 90% of solid metal parts (d) 95% of solid metal

parts

38. After hot rolling, it is necessary to cold roll: (a) To avoid cracking (b) To avoid scaling

(c) To avoid oxidation (d) To impart smooth surface and accurate dimensions

39. When cold drawing of wire, reduction in diameter in each draw can

be up to: (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30%

(d) 40%

40. „Fins and Laps‟ is a type of defect in steel, which can occurs in

(a) Cold drawn seamless tube (b) Rolling (c) Ingots (d) Forgings

41. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is split in the battery

compartment, which procedure should be followed (a) Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by the

water rinse (b) Rinse the affected area thoroughly with the clean water.

(c) Apply sodium-bi-carbonate solution to the affected area followed by the water rinse


42. Which of the following can provide the empty weight on an aircraft

if the aircraft‟s weight and balance record become lost, destroyed or otherwise inaccurate

(a) Re-weighing the aircraft (b) Aircraft specification

(c) Type certificate datasheet (d) Flight manual

43. The useful load of an aircraft consists of (a) Crew, useable fuel, passengers and cargo

(b) Crew, useable fuel, oil and fixed equipments (c) Crew, passengers, useable fuel, oil, cargo and fixed equipments

(d) None of the above

44. The maximum weight of an aircraft is

(a) Empty weight + crew, maximum fuel weight

(b) Maximum fuel weight, cargo, baggage and passenger (c) Empty weight + crew, passengers and fixed equipments

(d) Empty weight + useful loads

45. Zero fuel weight is (a) Dry weight + the weight of full crew, passenger and cargo

(b) Basic operating weight without crew, fuel and cargo (c) Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft without fuel


46. Amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding C.G is

(a) Empty fuel tanks (b) Useable fuel

(c) The amount of fuel necessary for half hour of operation

(d) Full tank fuel

47. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are replaced in

an airplane so that their distance from C.G are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the C.G should a third box

weighing 20 pounds be placed so that the C.G will not be changed. (a) 3 feet (b) 2.5 feet (c) 3.5 feet

(d) 8 feet

48. Flexible hose used in aircraft system is classified with (a) Outside diameter (b) Wall thickness

(c) Inside diameter (d) Outside dia-inside dia

49. Scratch or Nicks on the straight portion of aluminium alloy tubing

may be repaired if they are no deeper than (a) 20% of the wall thickness

(b) 1/32 inch or 20% of wall thickness, whichever is less (c) 10% of the wall thickness

(d) None of these

50. When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing (a) Paint should be removed

(b) Paint clamp and tube after installation (c) Leave as it is

(d) Remove paint or anodizing from tube and clamp location

51. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compare to 3.8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will

(a) Have about the same outer diameter

(b) Have equivalent flow characteristic (c) Usually have interchangeable application

(d) Have same internal diameter

52. What method of magnetic particles inspection is used often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks

(a) Residual (b) Inductance (c) Intermittent (d) Continuous

53. In performing a dye-penetrate inspection, the developer

(a) Act as blotter to produce a visible indication (b) Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of cracks

(c) Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to the inspection (d) Perform no function

54. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundary of aluminium alloy which are improperly or inadequately heat treated

(a) Filiform (b) Intergranular (c) Fretting (d) Strain

55. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be

installed so that the bolt head is (a) Upward or in a forward direction

(b) Downward or in a forward direction (c) Downward or in a rearward direction

(d) Upward or in a rearward direction

56. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an (a) AN corrosion resistance steel

(b) NAS standard aircraft bolt

(c) NAS closed tolerance bolt (d) Magnetic resistance bolt

57. A bolt with an X-inside a triangle on the head is classified as an

(a) AN corrosion resistance steel bolt (b) NAS aircraft bolt (c) NAS closed tolerance bolt (d) Aluminium bolt

58. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plain of rotation of a disc

(a) Dial indicator (b) Shaft gauge (c) Protector (d) Micro meter

59. Weather waning tendency is greatest than taxying

(a) Either type of aeroplane in a quartering tail wind (b) A tail wheel type aeroplane in a direct cross wind

(c) In a nose wheel type aeroplane quartering head wind (d) A tail wheel type aeroplane parallel wind

60. When taxying an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from

the control tower means (a) Move clear of the runway/taxy way immediately

(b) OK to proceed but used extreme caution (c) Return to starting point

(d) Stop where are

61. The color of 100 ll fuel is (a) Blue (b) Colorless or straw (c) Red

(d) Green

62. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause

(a) Vapour lock (b) Detonation (c) Hard starting (d) None

63. Nickel cadmium battery case and drain surfaces which have been

affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of (a) Boric acid (b) Sodium bi-carbonate

(c) Potassium hydroxide (d) Sodium chloride

64. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of (a) Excessive Anodization

(b) Contact between two unlike metals (c) Excessive etching (d) Surface carburization

65. Which material is the most acidic (a) Cadmium (b) Magnesium (c) Copper (d) Gold

66. Speed of sound in the atmosphere

(a) Varies according to the frequency of sound (b) Varies according to the temperature

(c) Varies according to the pressure (d) All of the above

67. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of

(a) Wing span to the wind root (b) Square of the chord to the wing span

(c) Wing span to the mean chord

68. A wing with a very high aspect ratio will have

(a) Low drag at high angles of attack (b) A low stall speed

(c) Good control at low speed (d) All of the above

69. Vicious cycle is connected to

(a) Nickel cadmium battery (b) Sulphuric acid battery (c) Dry cell (d) None of the above

70. Basically corrosion reduces the strength of materials by the process of

(a) Chemical reaction (b) Electrochemical reaction (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Electromagnetic process

71. Evidence corrosion on stainless steel is an appearance of (a) Brown color rust (b) Green color scum

(c) White color debris (d) None of these

72. When corrosion product is removed from surface corrosion, then which type of corrosion is appeared on it?

(a) Oxidation corrosion (b) Dry corrosion (c) Pitting corrosion (d) Wet corrosion

73. The metal that is oxidized due to the corrosion attack that is called

as (a) Neutralized agent (b) Anodic change

(c) Cathodic change (d) None of these

74. Mark the correct statement:

(a) Under corrosive environment, most active metal become cathodic

(b) Under influence of corrosive agent less active metal become anodic

(c) Established condition for corrosion due to the presence of anode and cathode is called as local cell

(d) All of the above are true

75. Types of corrosion depends upon (a) Type of materials (b) Size of metal

(c) Shape of metal (d) All of the above

76. Crevice corrosion is an example of

(a) Surface corrosion (b) Concentration cell corrosion (c) Electrolytic cell corrosion (d) Exfoliation corrosion

77. Which type of corrosion occurs in high-strength materials used as

brackets, attached to Al-alloy skin of aircraft (a) Galvanic corrosion (b) Fretting corrosion

(c) Stress corrosion (d) Dry corrosion

78. “Coca” is formed in which type of corrosion? (a) Filiform corrosion (b) Exfoliation corrosion

(c) Fretting corrosion (d) Microbial corrosion

79. Which type of corrosion will occur in welded parts? (a) Stress corrosion (b) Inter-crystalline corrosion

(c) Fretting corrosion (d) Dissimilar metal corrosion

80. Stress corrosion can be prevented by

(a) Shot-penning (b) Shot-bursting

(c) As in (a) & increase in the fatigue strength (d) As in (a) & increase in the tensile strength

PAPER - II

PART XIII

ANSWERS:

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A

6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A

11. B 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. D

16. A 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C

21. C 22. C 23. A 24. C 25. D

26. C 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. B

31. B 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. B

36. B 37. A 38. D 39. C 40. B

41. C 42. A 43. A 44. D 45. C

46. B 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. D

51. B 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. A

56. A 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. B

61. A 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. B

66. B 67. C 68. D 69. A 70. C

71. D 72. C 73. B 74. C 75. D

76. B 77. A 78. C 79. B 80. C

PAPER - II

PART XIV

1. Number of atoms in a Face Centered Cubic (FCC) crystal are:

(a) Fourteen (b) Seventeen (c) Nine (d) Fifteen

2. Type of bond forms in a material by loosing or gaining of electrons is:

(a) Covalent Bond (b) Ionic Bond (c) Metallic Bond (d) Secondary Bond

3. Hardness induced in a metal due to deformation is known as:

(a) Stress hardening (b) Age hardening (c) Work hardening (d) None of these

4. When a metal is deformed plastically, forces required to deformed it

in reverse direction will be less, this is known as: (a) Work hardening (b) Bauschinger‟s Effect (c) Strain

aging (d) None

5. Failure of component under high temperature and stress conditions is known as:

(a) Creep fracture (b) Ductile fracture (c) Fatigue

fracture (d) Brittle fracture

6. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as (2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution

(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect

(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct

7. Iron changes its forms at different temperatures, that‟s why it is

known as : (a) Ferrous metal (b) Magnetic metal

(c) Allotropic (d) None of these

8. Ductility of a material is its property to be drawn into:

(a) Wire (b) Sheet (c) Tubes (d) Both (a) and (c)

9. Strength is the ability of a material to resist external loads where as

toughness is to: (a) Resist fracture (b) Resist deflection

(c) Resist elastic deformation (d) Withstand bending or torsion without fracture

10. Treatment given to a metal to relieve internal stresses and induce

softness is: (a) Tempering (b) Hardening (c) Normalizing

(d) Annealing

11. Maximum load per square inch a material can with stand is: (a) Yield strength (b) Tensile strength (c) Proof

stress (d) Elasticity

12. A series of heating and cooling to improve physical properties of a

metal is known as: (a) Normalizing (b) Hardening (c) Tempering

(d) Heat treatment

13. Specimen is tested for which strength during tensile testing (a) Proof stress (b) Fatigue strength

(c) as in „a‟ and Yield strength (d) as in „c‟ and Ultimate Tensile Strength

14. (1) For tensile testing the specimen must be straight

(2) Specimen can be straighten by hammering or bending. (a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1)

is false (c) Both (1) and (2) are true (c) Both (1) and (2)

are false

15. Proof stress is the stress at which a permanent set occurs:

(a) 0.001 inch per inch of gauge length (b) 0.0001 inch per inch of gauge length

(c) 0.00001 inch per inch of gauge length (d) 0.01 inch per inch of gauge length

16. (1) For checking elastic limit, load can be released upto zero,

where as

(2) For checking proof stress load is released up to 20% (a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false

(c) Both (1) and (2) are true (d) Both (1) and (2) are false

17. Yield point of a metal can be determined by:

(a) Divider method (b) Set method (c) Extension under load method (d) both (b) and

(c)

18. For checking the area of depression in Brinell Hardness Test, Accuracy of microscope should be:

(a) 0.05mm (b) 0.005mm (c) 0.5mm (d) 0.0005mm

19. In Rockwell Hardness Test, if „B‟ scale is used for material harder

than B-100 (a) It will give inaccurate reading (b) Ball may get

flattened (c) No reading will be their (d) None of these

20. To locate a defect in a material with the help of magnaflux test, it is essential that the magnetic lines of force pass approximately

(a) Parallel to defect (b) Perpendicular to defect (c) Any direction of defect (d) Both (a) and (b) are

correct

21. Number of atoms in a Hexagonal Closed Pack (HCP) crystal are: (a) Fourteen (b) Nine (c) Eleven (d)

Seventeen

22. Bonds formed in materials due to Vander Wall‟s forces of attraction, is:

(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Mettalic bond (d) Secondary bond

23. Elastic limit of a material is considered to have been reached if a permanent set obtained is:


24. Proof stress of a specimen of 2 inch gage length will be at a permanent set of:


25. For Brinell Hardness Testing, application of load should be for at

least: (a) 20 second (b) 15 second (c) 10 second

(d) 5 second

26. In Rockwell hardness test, red dial is used for: (a) Ball penetrator (b) Diamond point penetrator

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None

27. In Rockwell hardness test, combination used for aircraft material are:

(a) A and B (b) C and D (c) A and D (d) B and C

28. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of C scale is:

(a) C10 & upward (b) C15 & upward

(c) C20 & upward (d) C25 & upward

29. In Rockwell hardness test, a ball penetrator as large as ½ inch diameter should be used for soft metal with:

(a) 60kg load (b) 20kg load (c) 100kg load (d) 150kg load

30. Load applied for soft material in Vicker‟s hardness test is:

(a) 20 kg (b) 15 kg (c) 10 kg (d) 5 kg

31. For bending test, the diameter of the pin over which bend is to be

performed, should be: (a) Equal to the diameter of the test specimen

(b) Equal to the thickness of the material

(c) Equal to diameter of thickness of the test specimen (d) None of these

32. For bending test of forging stock specimen, the corners are to be:

(a) Made round (b) Broken by file (c) Rounded to 1/16 inch radius (d) None of these

33. The jaws of the vice are to be rounded for reverse bending test:

(a) 3/16 inch radius for wire above 3/16 inch diameter (b) 3/16 inch for wire below 3/16 inch diameter

(c) 3/16 inch radius up to 3/16 inch wire (d) None of these

34. In charpy impact test, the „V‟ notch of the specimen faces:

(a) Opposite to the pendulum (b) Towards the pendulum (c) Above the jaws (d) None of these

35. When carrying out crushing test on aircraft tubing, the tube should

be in: (a) Annealed condition (b) Normalized

condition (c) Heat treated condition (d) Any one of these

36. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire less than 0.033 inch diameter:

(a) 10 inch (b) 20 inch (c) 30 inch (d) 40 inch

37. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire more then 0.033 inch diameter:

(a) 10 inch (b) 20 inch (c) 30 inch (d) 40 inch

38. X-rays are used efficiently for the inspection of steel parts upto

thickness of: (a) 8 inch (b) 6 inch (c) 3 inch (d) 2

inch

39. (1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel (2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel

(a) Both are true (b) Both are false (c) (1) is true (2) is false (d) (1) is false and (2)

is true

40. Presence of manganese in steel is mainly to

(a) Eliminate ferrous oxide (b) Improve forging quality (c) Induce penetration hardness (d) All of these

41. In tapered sectioned metal piece, which area is more susceptible

to corrosion (a) Exterior surface (b) Interior surface

(c) Thin portion (d) Thick portion

42. Mark the correct statement: (a) Inter-crystalline corrosion occurs along grain boundaries of an

alloy (b) This is a from of electrochemical attack

(c) As in (b) & occurs due to lack of uniformity

(d )All of the above

43. Stress corrosion can be detected by (a) Eddy current (b) Dye-penetrant

(c) X-ray (d) Ultrasonic method

44. Speed of electro-chemical attack is increased in _________ climate

(a) Hot and dry (b) Cold and moist (c) Hot & moist (d) Cold & dry

45. Which type of acid is produced by electrical sparks when combined

with moisture in confined spaces? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid

(c) Phosphoric acid (d) Chromic acid

46. Which type of corrosion is present in contact area of metal and

non-metal joint? (a) O2 concentration cell corrosion

(b) Metal ion concentration cell corrosion (c) Filiform corrosion

(d) Crevice corrosion

47. Mark the correct statement: (a) The fungus grows at the fuel/water interface

(b) As in (a) & temperature range is in between 50°-60°F. (c) As in (b) & this occurs in integral fuel tank

(d) As in (c) & this produces a microbial corrosion

48. Which corrosion is occurred due to improper heat-treatment and

welding defects? (a) Metabolic corrosion (b) Inter-granular

corrosion (c) Trans-granular corrosion (d) Weld decay

corrosion

49. Which of the following coating function as sacrificial protection? (a) Chromium plating (b) Galvanizing

(c) Cladding (d) Metal spraying


(a) Self-locking nut (b) Jamb but

(c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin (d) None of these


(a) Weight and pressure gauge (b) Marking on neck

(c) By operating the extinguisher (d) All of the above

52. Choose incorrect statement:

(a) Yellow polypropylene provide insufficient strength (b) Proper tension in rope allows 1” movement

(c) Manila rope requires extra slack due to shrinks (d) The rope requires extra slack due to shrinks

53. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check (a) Single base jack (b) Bottle neck jack

(c) Screw jack (d) Tripod jack

54. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster work

(a) Vernier micrometer (b) Vernier caliper (c) Micrometer caliper (d) None of these

55. Which is incorrect statement

(a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced (b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with para-ketone

(c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay (d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating

56. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by (a) Immersing them in like warm water for 30 minutes

(b) Mechanical means, i.e. wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water

(c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 (d) Vacuum blasting

57. A gusset is (a) A bracing between longerons (b) A type of

connecting bracket (c) Used for fail safe construction (d) Like a butt

plate

58. The unit where calculations are preferred is called

(a) Central processing unit (CPU) (b) Control Unit

(c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) (d) Computing unit

59. EDP stands for

(a) Electrical data processing (b) Electronic data processing

(c) Entry data processing (d) Electronic discrete programme

60. Assembler is

(a) An individual who assembles computer (b) Language (c) Program (d) None of the above

61. Input unit of computer communicates between (a) Operator and Computer (b) Memory with

printer (c) CPU with monitor (d) Output and

Computer

62. The symbol for Hexadecimal is (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 16

63. In computer terminology, MICR means

(a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (b) Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition

(c) Monitor Indicating Computer Relay (d) Mass Information Computer Record

64. Speed of processor is measured in (a) Kilobit / Sec (b) Hertz (c) Byte (d)

RPM

65. A byte is a group of (a) 2 bits (b) 4 bits (c) 8 bits (d)

16 bits

66. In digital computer system, number of states used is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 8 (d) 16

67. The term ROM means

(a) Random Operation Memory (d) Read and Operate Memory

(c) Read only Memory (d) None

68. The energy of a capacitor having capacitance „C‟ and voltage „V‟ is

given by (a) 0.5 CV2 (b) CV (c) C2V

(d) 0.5 C2V

69. One unit of magnetic flux is given by (a) Weber (b) Weber per meter

square (c) Square root of Weber (d) Henery

70. Generators works on the principle of

(a) Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction (b) Ohm‟s law

(c) Biot - severt‟s law

(d) Gauss‟s law

71. The Capacitor of a parallel plate is given by (a) Ac / d (b) A2C / d (c) Ad / c (d)

None

72. If there are „N‟ number of cells, each having voltage E and internal resistance „r‟ are connected in series, then the resulting e.m.f of the

circuit is given by (a) NE volt (b) E/N volt (c) E volt (d)

NEr volt

73. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given by

(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 45°

(d) 135°

74. One micro farad is equal to (a) 0.001 milli farad (b) 100 milli farad

(c) 1000 milli farad (d) 10 milli farad

75. The ability of magnet to restore magnetism is called (a) Retentivity (b) Permitivity

(c) Store ability (d) both (a) & (c)

76. If „Im‟ is the maximum current for sine AC then its R.M.S value is given by

(a) 0.707 Im (b) Im (c) 0.5 Im (d) 1.414 Im

77. The relationship between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is given by

(a) Voltage leads the current by 90° (b) Current lags the voltage by 90°

(c) both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above

78. By voltage division rule the voltage drop V1 in the circuit will be

(a) V1 = (R2 x Vs) / (R1+R2) (b) V1 = (R1 x Vs) / (R1+R2)

(c) V1 = Vs x (R1+R2) / R1

(d) None

79. If inductance is doubled and the capacitance is halved , then

resonant frequency F0

(a) Doubled (b) Halved (c) Remains same (d) Squared root of F0

80. 50000000 Hz stands for

(a) 5 MHz (b) 0.5 MHz (c) 50MHz (d) 500 MHz

PAPER - II

PART XIV

ANSWERS:

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A

6. D 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. D

11. B 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. B

16. D 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. B

21. D 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. C

26. A 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. D

31. C 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. A

36. C 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. D

41. D 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. B

46. D 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. B

51. A 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. C

56. C 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. C

61. A 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. C

66. A 67. C 68. A 69. A 70. A

71. A 72. A 73. A 74. A 75. A

76. A 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. C

PAPER - II

PART XV

1. The purpose of turnbuckle is to (a) make minor adjustment in cable length (b) adjust cable

tension (c) both (a) & (b) (d) none

2. The major alloying element in 7075 Al-alloy is

(a) magnesium (b) silicon (c) magnesium &

silicon d) Zinc

3. T-6 designation of Al-alloy indicates (a) solution heat treated and then artificially aged.

(b) solution heat treated and then stabilized. (c) artificially aged only.

(d) solution heat treated and then cold worked.

4. Meshing gear have same (a) teeth (b) pitch of same size

(c) dedendum (d) all

5. Vernier scale is used on (a) micrometer (b) boroscope

(c) spheroscope (d) all

6. Fibre glass is also known as

(a) E glass or Electric glass (b) S glass or Borosile glass (c) both (a) & (b) (d) All

7. Well threads are

(a) detection for warp direction (b) direction is 45˚ to warp (c) bias (d) perpendicular to warp

8. Strength of composite depends upon

(a) type of fiber (b) process of manufacture (c) heat treatment (d) all

9. Which statement is correct?

(a) Force is exhorted on uncharged particle.

(b) Force is applied on charged particle moving along the magnetic field.

(c) Both (a) & (b)

10. When two sphere are of same mass, one is positive charge and the other is negative charge then new mass will remain

(a) change (b) unchanged (c) sum of both mass

11. If the conductor is of 4 and if it is stretched to twice its length

then its resistance is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 16 (d)

32

12. A & B are big and small battery having same emf internal resistance of battery A is

(a) less than B (b) greater than B (c) equal to B (d) unaffected

13. Which statement is correct? (a) Battery terminal voltage is equal to battery emf.

(b) Battery terminal voltage is less than battery emf. (c) Battery terminal voltage is more than battery emf.

(d) Depends on direction of current flow.

14. In flourescent method (a) if wet developer is applied, it must be dried.

(b) if wet developer is applied, it must not be dried. (c) dry for long period.

(d) none

15. Telescoping gage (a) is used for inside diameter (b) range from ½” to

6”

(c) range from ½” to 1” (d) both (a) & (b)

16. Whole gage is used for measuring (a) Grooves and slots (b) small hole (c) both (a)

& (b) (d) none

17. The size of flat cold chisel is determined by (a) width of cutting edge (b) length of cutting

edge (c) length of chisel (d) all

18. Thread may be produced by

(a) on a lathe with specially shaped cutting tool. (b) on spiral machine using rotary cutter (Tapes).

(c) by rolling on spiral machine using dies.

(d) all.

19. Needle file are (a) knurled on both sides (b) knurled on

one side (c) used on slot by dye maker and watch maker (d) both

(b) & (c)

20. Hook spinner is used on (a) round nut having series of knotches or slots cuts on its

side. (b) hexagonal nuts with slots.

(c) octagonal nut with slots. (d) all.

21. Muntz metal is used (a) to make oil and hydraulic fitting.

(b) nuts and bolts for used in salty atmosphere. (c) nuts and bolts which are not affected by fresh water.

(d) none.

22. Al weldable material is (a) 2 S (b) 17 S (c) 52 S (d) 53 S

23. A punch made of tool steel is heat treated to

(a) heat to cherry red colour (b) as in (a) & dipped in sand

(c) heat to dazzling white (d) as in (b) & heat to purple colour

24. Computer performs only the calculation i.e. (a) simple (b) complex

(c) problem with split into number of logic step (d) none

25. High discharge tester is used to check the

(a) voltage of battery in normal operating condition. (b) efficiency of condenser.

(c) generator output. (d) voltage of battery to find its charge condition and whether

recharging is required.

26. Electrical power and energy is expressed in terms of (a) Kilo Watt and Kilo Watt Hour respectively

(b) Watt and Joule respectively

(c) Watt and Watt Per Hour respectively (d) Watt and Newton

27. Three phase winding rotate with 1800 rpm in magnetic field

having 8 poles, its frequency will be (a) 120 Cycle/Sec (b) 800 Cycles/

Sec (c) 1200 Cycles/ Sec (d) 1800 Cycles/ Sec

28. Titanium is heat treated for following purpose

(a) Thermal hardening to improve strength. (b) Annealing offer hot working and cold working to provide

maximum ductility for subsequent cold working. (c) Both (a) & (b).

(d) None.

29. The normal solder technique of Al is

(a) similar to that of other material. (b) differ to control the expansion and contraction of matter.

(c) differ to the extent a low heat input is required. (d) both (b) & (c) are correct.

30. Flux is used in wielding of Al alloy for

(a) better penetration (b) rid to oxidation (c) for better fusion (d) slow down the flow of molten

metal

31. Flux used in silver soldering is (a) zinc chloride (b) ortho phospheric acid

(c) sulphuric acid (d) all are correct

32. Rust in steel is removed by

(a) wire brush (b) emery paper (c) control sand blasting (d) all

33. Barcol tester is used on

(a) harder material (b) softer material (c) all type of material (d) none

34. I-Beam is produced by

(a) extruding (b) forging (c) casting (d) rolling

35. Which one is stable wrought alloy

(a) piston (b) cylinder head (c) crank shaft

(d) Al-clad

36. The load per unit square inch at which material breaks (a) ultimate tensile strength (b) yield point

(c) tensile strength (d) all are correct

37. The ultrasonic testing is used to check (a) fatigue crack (b) disbond

(c) void and inclusion on cast (d) all are correct

38. Which statement is correct regarding sensitivity of x-rays? (a) The darkness of ratio graph does not depends on the

radiation penetrating in the cylinder. (b) Thicker the specimen, lighter the image.

(c) Thicker the specimen, darker the image.

(d) None.

39. If information of physical data is large such as in altimeter, display is known as

(a) long range display (b) short range display (c) smooth range display (d) wide range display

40. Nick name of digital display is

(a) alphanumeric display (b) straight scale display

(c) circular scale display (d) platform scale display

41. The soldering of Al-alloy differs from another metal due to

(a) high specific heat and conduction (b) greater heat

input (c) uneven expansion and contraction avoided (d) all

42. Kirchoff‟s Law is applicable to

(a) DC (b) AC (c) DC circuit having resistance (d) AC & DC

43. In modulation, the available band is

(a) one (b) two (c) no band (d) many band

44. The modulation in which, amplitude is kept constant and frequency is changed is called

(a) amplitude modulation (b) space modulation

(c) frequency modulation (d) phase modulation

45. Angle of attack is the (a) acute angle between aircraft longitudinal axis and cord line

to which aerofoil is mounted on the aircraft. (b) horizontal acute angle between the symmetry of aircraft

and wind direction from which it touches the aircraft. (c) acute angle between the symmetry of the aircraft and the cord

line of the aerofoil section. (d) all.

46. In NDT of material by dye pentrant inspection, the volume of

defect is interpreted by (a) staining rate (b) staining speed (c) staining

extent (d) all

47. In ultrasonic test scanning is carried out by moving both probes

simultaneously in opposite direction for (a) flash butt joint (Welding) (b) heavy forging

(c) heat treatment defect (d) thickness measurement

48. During fuelling the most necessary precaution to be observed

(a) grounding connection first made to aircraft and then fuelling vehicle.

(b) Grounding connection first made to fuelling vehicle and then the aircraft.

(c) Either (a) or (b)

49. The fluid is used for all type of aircraft engine except rocket is

(a) gasoline (b) air (c) aviation turbine fuel (d) all of the above

50. In composite the strength is provided by

(a) reinforced fibre (b) core (c) resin (d) as in (a) and fabric use

51. In hardness testing of composite the hardness is measured

(a) resin (b) reinforcing fibre (c) by the use of specific chart (d) both (b) & (c)

52. In composites repair the part is steeped rather than to be

scarfed for

(a) uniform sheer stress (b) uniform tensile

stress (c) smoothness (d) both (a) & (b)

53. In uniform fluid flow, the fluid is first made to flow through tube

and the pressure exerted by the fluid is measured by (a) dynamic pressure (b) static pressure (c)

Reynold‟s no. (d) all

54. PARKETON is used for protection of (a) steel (b) numinium (c) Mg

(d) as in (a) and cable

55. The rust and corrosion is removed from highly stressed steel parts by

(a) abrasive paper (b) fine buffling clothron buffling wheel

(c) wire brush (d) all

56. Centre drill is used to produce

(a) short hole and CSK hole (counter sunk) (b) short hole and large hole

(c) both (a) & (b) (d) all

57. During repair procedure of composite part treatment is done for (a) small dis bands (b) restore surface

protection (c) seal honey comb casting (d) none

58. Synthetic rubber used in the aircraft is designated GRM as

(a) poly-sulphide polymer

(b) isobutylene (c) complex of butylenes and cresylonitrile

(d) Governemtn rubber mono-vinyl acetylene or neropene

59. To pentralise the surface of Ni-Cd battery compartment (a) boric acid (b) water (c) backing soda (d)

all

60. Close tolerance bolt is identified by (a) triangle marking on head (b) crossed triangle

marking on head (c) circle marking on head (d) triangle on head with plus

marking within it.

61. While jacking, the approved procedure is

(a) both wheels are raised together. (b) wheels are raised one after another.

(c) A/C should be raised through designated point only. (d) both (a) & (c).

62. The class of fit required for a tight drive fit is

(a) class-1 (b) class-2 (c) class-3 (d) class-4

63. Piston engine‟s mechanical efficiency differs due to

(a) difference of pressure (b) difference of temperature

(c) difference of grade of fuel used (d) difference in mass of fuel

64. A device which gives lateral control and is mounted at the upper surface of wing

(a) spoiler (b) vertex generator (c) tab (d) flap

65. The pressure of water in composite can be detected by

(a) USI (b) DPI (c) Endoscope (d) Radiography

66. Aircraft bolts are generally manufactured with a

(a) class-1 fit for the threads (b) class-2 fit for the threads

(c) class-3 fit for the threads (d) class-4 fit for the threads

67. The hose of 100 LL AVGAS dispense is (a) red (b) blue (c) black (d) green

68. Which is low energy logic circuit?

(a) TTl (b) ECL (c) both (a) & (c) (d) none

69. Metal matrix composite is a recent conception materials where in (a) resin is reinforced with metal.

(b) resin and fibre are reinforced with metal. (c) fibres are reinforced with metal during molten stage.

(d) all of the above.

70. Two wires each one meter long are kept at a distance of 0.02mt.

apart. If 1 amp current is flowing through each wire, then force acting in the wire will be

(a) attractive if the direction of the current flowing through wires is same.

(b) attractive if the direction of the current will be opposite. (c) repulsive if direction of the current will be reverse.

(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.

71. The symbol represents

(a) SCR, rheostat respectively (b) rheostat, thyristor respectively

(c) resistor, FET (field effect transistor) respectively (d) none of the above

72. In which condition the bridge is said to be balance?

(a) R1 is increased, R2 is decreased (b) R3 is increased, R4 is decreased

(c) R2 is increased, R3 is decreased (d) when G is constant

73. Mark the wrong statement.

(a) Helicoils are made of 18-8 stainless steel. (b) Screws come in AN 500 and NS 200 series.

(c) Diameter of nut is measured in 16th of an inch. (d) Lockwashers should be used only with secondary structure

not with primary structure.

74. In case of battery which of the following quantity can be stored? (a) energy (b) charge (c) current (d) none of

the above

75. In a dry cell battery (a) carbon electrode is placed centrally surrounded by

aluminium chloride electrolyte.

(b) zinc chloride is placed centrally surrounded by aluminium chloride electrolyte.

(c) carbon electrode is placed centrally surrounded by zinc chloride electrolyte.

(d) both (a) and (c) are correct.

76. The identical insulated wire coils are hung from air so that they are facing each other and supplied with same direction a.c.

(a) both are attracted to each other (b) both are repelled

(c) clockwise rotation (d) anticlockwise rotation

77. Hot water quenching (a) minimize distortion and elevated cracking.

(b) Ensures maximum resistance to corrosion. (c) Minimizes distortion but results in cracking.

(d) (a) & (b) are correct.

78. In gas welding of oxygen and acetylene regulators has

(a) left hand thread and right hand thread respectively. (b) right hand thread and left hand thread respectively.

(c) both have left hand thread. (d) both have right hand thread.

79. Pull thru rivets are fabricated in two common head styles

(a) universal head (b) brazier head (c) 100 countersunk head (d) both (a) & (c) are correct

80. A rivet head having raised across indicating

(a) 5056 T (b) 2024 T (c) carbon steel (d) corrosive resistant steel

PAPER - II

PART XV

ANSWER :

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A

6. A 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. B

11. C 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. D

16. C 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. A

21. B 22. C 23. A 24. C 25. D

26. B 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. B

31. A 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. D

36. A 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. A

41. B 42. D 43. D 44. C 45. B

46. C 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. D

51. D 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. B

56. A 57. B 58. D 59. A 60. B

61. D 62. D 63. C 64. A 65. D

66. C 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. A

71. A 72. D 73. D 74. B 75. D

76. A 77. A 78. B 79. D 80. A

PAPER - II

PART XVI

1. Rheostat varies (a) amount of current (b) amount of voltage

(c) both (a) & (b) (d) none

2. Potentiometer varies (a) amount of current (b) amount of voltage

(c) both (a) & (b) (d) none

3. At the center of a coil, amount of flux is concentrated maximum at

(a) starting of a coil (b) end of a coil (c) center of a coil (d) remain equal at all

places

4. Negative plate of lead acid battery is (a) lead (b) lead peroxide (c) lead sulphide (d)

spongy lead

5. Plates of lead acid battery is made of (a) lead + antimony on which active material is attached.

(b) lead + iron on which active material is attached. (c) antimony + iron on which active material is attached.

(d) none

6. m.m.f. is measured in Gilbert and symbolized by the capital letter.

(a) G (b) F (c) M (d) W

7. Solenoid relay is operated on (a) high current (b) low current (c) high voltage

(d) low voltage

8. Construction of separator of a lead acid battery is made in such a way that it circulates the electrolyte freely around the plates in

addition it also provides a path for sediments to settle. (a) at the side of cell (b) at the top of cell

(c) at the bottom of cell (d) none

9. Thermal protector is used to

(a) protect a motor (b) to open the circuit automatically

(c) it operates when temperature is very high (d) all of the

above

10. S/W designed for momentarily operation (a) micro s/w (b) push button s/w (c) toggle s/w

(d) none

11. Rotary S/W are used in (a) voltmeter selector s/w (b) ignition s/w (c) both (a) & (b)

(d) none

12. Starter relay s/w is made to operate (a) intermitenty (b)

continuously (c) could cause over heating if operated continuously (d)

both (a) and (c)

13. Oil capacitors generally restricted to be used in

(a) radio transmitting equipment (b) radar transmitting equipment

(c) both (d) none

14. In fixed mica capacitor the dielectric is made of (a) metal plate (b) mica (c) both (a) & (b)

(d) none

15. Mica prevents as a dielectric (a) arching between the plates (b) can withstand

higher voltage (c) both (a) & (b) (d) none of these

16. The capacitor which provides large capacitance in small physical size is

(a) oil capacitor (b) mica capacitor (c) electrolytic capacitor (d) paper capacitor

17. Wet-electrolytic capacitors must be mounted on

(a) horizontally (b) vertically (c) any position (d) none

18. The working voltage of a capacitor depends on

(a) type of material used as a di-electric (b) thickness of di-electric

(c) frequency (d) all of the above

19. The working voltage of a capacitor should be at least

(a) 50% greater than highest voltage applied. (b) 60% greater than highest voltage applied.

(c) 70% greater than highest voltage applied (d) none

20. To prevent the entry of water and other foreign matter, the pilot

pressure tube is provided with (a) mast (b) baffles (c) drain hole (d)

moisture trap

21. If at mean sea level ambient temperature decreases than ICAO standard atmosphere

(a) altimeter under read (b) altimeter over read (c) no indication error

22. In order to compensate for barometric error i.e. altitude error due to atmospheric pressure change an altimeter is incorporated

with (a) capsule of suitable material (b) bimetallic strip

(c) barometric pressure setting device (d) hair spring

23. The tropopause marks the point at which (a) air pressure stops decreasing (with increasing altitude) and

remains constant. (b) air temperature starts increasing

(c) air temperature reaches to freezing point temperature

24. Fuel pressure indicator is the means for (a) warning for low pressure.

(b) warning for high pressure.

(c) as in (a) & indicate pressure at which fuel is being supplied. (d) as in (b) & indicate pressure at which fuel is being

supplied.

25. In square law compensating devices, the principle being made in use is that the length of lever is altered as progressive deflection of

the capsule takes place causing the (a) mechanism & pointer movement to be increased for small

deflection and decreased for large deflection. (b) mechanism & pointer movement to be decreased for small

deflection and increased for large deflection. (c) either (a) or (b).

(d) none of these.

26. A mechmeter is a compound flight instrument and uses the

following mechanism to compute the required ratio. (a) air speed mechanism (b) altitude mechanism

(c) either (a) or (b) (d) both (a) & (b)

27. In vertical speed indicator (VSI) during descent the capsule will (a) expand (b) contract (c) no effect

28. During a descent, the static vent become blocked by ice, the air

speed indicator will (a) under read due to static pressure increasing.

(b) fall rapidly to zero due to differential pressure equalizing. (c) over read due to static pressure increasing.

(d) continue to indicate correctly because the instrument only uses pilot pressure.

29. The number, size and disposition of shock proff mounting requires are governed by

(a) the size of the panel. (b) number of instrument to be installed.

(c) as in (a) & the distribution of the total weight. (d) as in (a) & (b).

30. Micro desynn synchronous data transmission system is used for

(a) air brake, flap position indication (b) oil or fuel pressure indication

(c) liquid content indication (d) none of the above

31. An aircraft is flying a constant rate of descent at 650 fpm when the static vents become blocked by ice. A few seconds after the

blockage occurs the most likely VSI indication will be

(a) zero (b) 550 fpm descent (c) 650 fpm descent (d) 750 fpm descent

32. In TSI, the slip indicator is of the ball and liquid filled tube type the liquid used is

(a) silicon fluid (b) alcohol (c) white spirit

33. The Bristol modified method is an adoption of (a) hot fluid method (b) cold fluid method

(c) oil & chalk process (d) both (a) & (b)

34. In the hot fluid method, the oil used may be (a) 28% lard oil (by volume) in paraffin.

(b) as in (a) or 3 parts of paraffin & 1 part lubricating oil.

(c) as in (b) or 50% paraffin oil & 50% spindle oil. (d) none of these.

35. Dye-penetrant method is not applicable on

(a) ceramics (b) moulded nibber (c) plexi-glass (d) all of these

36. Dye-penetrant method is used for finding out

(a) cracks (b) porosity (c) defects open to the surface (d) all of these

37. To avoid the risk of corrosion, dye-penetrant test of magnesium

alloys are done after (a) anodising (b) chromatizing (c) carburizing

(d) parcolubrizing

38. In dye-penetrant method, the penetrant time does not depend

upon (a) the characteristics of process being used (b) the size

of parts (c) the temperature of parts and dye (d) none of these

39. Mark the correct statement regarding dye-penetrant method

(a) the shallow cracks indication takes less time where as normal cracks indication takes more time.

(b) the rate of staining is an indication of volume where as the extent of staining is an indication of width and depth of defect.

(c) scattered dots of dye indicate fine porosity or pitting where as gross porosity may result in an entire area becoming stained.

(d) all of these.

40. Surface defects are best detected by

(a) dye penetrant method (b) eddy current method (c) radiography (d) all of these

41. The penetration power of X-rays increases with an increase in

(a) voltage (b) frequency (c) wave length (d) both (a) & (b)

42. Fluroscopy is applicable to

(a) normal Y-ray sources (b) low energy X-rays

(c) X-rays (d) both (a) & (b)

43. The degree of blackening of radiograph is

(a) contrast (b) definition (c) density (d) penumbra

44. The sharpness of image details on a radiograph is

(a) density (b) definition (c) resolution (d) contrast

45. Blurring at the edges of a radiographic image due to the

radiation source being of finite dimensions (a) penumbra (b) resolution (c) unsharpness (d)

none of these

46. Indication and recording is the title of ATA (a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 33

(d) 34

47. The chain should be rejected if the extension is more than

(a) 2% (b) 4% (c) 6% (d) 1%

48. If air intake fire occurs before the engine picks up an ideal

ground fire extinguishes used is (a) methyl bronze (b) CO2 (c) BCF (d)

both (b) & (c)

49. Fire extinguisher kept in storage should be checked for weight once in

(a) 2 years (b) 1 year (c) 3 years (d) 5 years

50. Seam welding is (a) Pressure welding (b) non-pressure welding

(c) electric resistance (d) both (a) & (c)



52. Spot welding electrode should be

(a) good conductor of electricity (b) good conductor of heat

(c) high strength & hardness (d) all of these


(a) filler rod precedes torch (b) torch precedes filler rod

(c) a 60˚ V is prepared at the end of plate (d) both (a) & (c)

54. The colour of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is (a) maroon & black (b) black & maroon

(c) yellow & black (d) black & yellow

55. In _______________ projection, the projectors are perpendicular to the plane of projection.

(a) isometric (b) oblique (c) orthographic (d) perspective

56. In third angle projection method, the top view is always above

the ___________ view.

(a) front (b) right side (c) left side (d) pop

57. In isometric projection, each of the three axes makes an angle

of _____________ with the other two. (a) 60o (b) 90o (c) 180o

(d) 120o

58. A full size drawing paper is available approximately of (a) 565 x 565mm (b) 565 x 765mm (c) 765

x 565mm (d) none of these

59. The size of the title block as recommended by the B. I.S. is

(a) 185 x 65mm (b) 18.5 x 6.5cm (c) 184 x 6cm

(d) 18.9 x 6.9cm

60.An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of ___________

(a) two parts only (b) two or more parts (c) four parts only (d) none of these

61. What is the primary purpose is to show the assembly drawing?

(a) Relationship of the various parts (b) Clear picture of different parts

(c) clear view of single part (d) None of these

62. Caulking tool is in the shape of a _________________ chisel.

a) blue (b) flat (c) blunt (d) cape

63. Caulking and fullering processes are generally performed with

the aid of _____________ (a) hydraulic power (b) air pressure

(c) pneumatic power (d) none of these

64. Thickness of fullering tool is about the (a) as that of the plates (b) less as that of the

plates (c) same as that of the plates (d) none of these

65. The diameter of the drilled hole in riveting should be

(a) about 1mm to 1.5mm (b) about 0.1mm to

1mm (c) about 0.5mm to 1.5mm (d) none of these

66. What happens due to drilling during riveted joints?

(a) burr (b) shrinkage (c) stress concentration (d) bending

67. Burr defect is removed by a little ________________ in riveted

joint. (a) counter sinking (b) counter hammering (c) counting

burr (d) none of these

68. Choose the correct statement. (a) Tearing of the plate between the rivet head if they are very

near each other.

(b) Tearing of the plate between the centre of the plate and the rivet hole, if the hole is to the edge.

(c) Shrinking of the rivet if the diameter of the rivet is smaller than necessary.

(d) Crushing of the plate or the rivet.

69. If the thickness of sheet is t, then what will be the empirical formulae of the diameter of rivet, if the diameter of rivet is d

(a) d = 3t (b) d = 3√t (c) d = 6t (d) d = 6√t

70. The key which is in the form of a segment of a circular disc of

uniform thickness is

(a) woodruff key (b) cone key (c) feather key

(d) circular key

71. (A) Rivet smaller than 3/32” diameter are never used on stressed structure.

(B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117rivet. (a) both are correct. (b) both are incorrect

(c) only (A) is correct (d) only (B) is correct

72. Regarding permanent ballast (a) lead bar or plate is used (b) painted red and

placarded (c) bolted as near as possible to CG (d) both (a) & (b)

73. Transverse pitch is

(a) twice the rivet diameter (b) 70% of rivet pitch

(c) 75% of rivet pitch (d) 6-8 diameter

74. Rivet pitch is (a) distance between center of rivet in a row (b) distance

between edge to center of rivet (c) four times the rivet diameter (d) both (a) & (c) are

correct

75. Edge distance (minimum) is (a) 4D (b) 2D (c) 6-8D (d) any of

the above

76. The amount of rivet length used for shop head is (a) 1½” x diameter of rivet (b) 4 x diameter of

rivet

(c) 3 x diameter of rivet (d) all of the above

77. Which plating process provide excellent base for paint (a) Cd-Plating (b) Zn-Plating (c) Granodizing

(d) all of the above

78. Which treatment give excellent base for paint (a) CR-Plating (b) Parkerizing (c) Metal spraying

(d) Zn-plating

79. The process use zinc as a medium for plating (a) Parkerizing (b) Sheradizing (c) Galvonizing

(d) both (b) & (c)

80. The earth rotates at its own axis at a rate of

(a) 20 degrees per hour (b) 30 degrees per hour

(c) 15 degrees per hour (d) 25 degrees per hour

PAPER - II

PART XVI

ANSWER

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A

6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. B

11. C 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. C

16. C 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. B

21. B 22. C 23. A 24. C 25. A

26. D 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. B

31. A 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. C

36. D 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. A

41. D 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. A

46. B 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. D

51. A 52. D 53. A 54. A 55. C

56. A 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. B

61. A 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. A

66. A 67. A 68. D 69. A 70. A

71. C 72. D 73. C 74. D 75. B

76. A 77. C 78. B 79. D 80. C

PAPER - II

PART XVII

1. Vulcanization on rubber

a) To increase mechanical strength and tackiness b) To reduce mechanical strength and tackiness

c) To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness d) To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness

2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for

manufacturing of aircraft tubeless tyre a) Butyl rubber b) Neoprene rubber c) BUNA-N d)

thiokol

3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as

sealing ring and wire insulation a) Silicon rubber b) Polymethane rubber c) BUNA-S d) BUNA-N

4. „ Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property‟ –

is the characteristic of which kind of synthetic rubber. a) GR – I b) GR – S c) GR – P d) GR – A

5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be added

a) Sulfur b) Sulfur oxide c) Zinc d) Zinc oxide

6. Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston

seal a) Styrene butadiene seal b) Nitrile rubber

c) Flexon rubber d) Fluoro carbon rubber

7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structure when

a) It under goes at low temperature b) It is frozen c) It is heated to 1300C d) It undergoes continues stress at

normal temperature

8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structure a) Kevlar – 49 b) Kevlar – 149 c) Kevlar – 29

d) Kevlar – 129

9. The composition for E – glass is a) Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass b) Lime-alumina

borosilicate glass

c) Soda borosilicate glass d) None of the above

10. Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of fiber

a) S – glass b) Hollow fibre glass

c) A – glass d) Carbon – glass

11. Which composit material is difficult to cut or drill

a) Glass fibre b) Aramid c) Carbon / Graphite d) None of above

12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibre

a) Is used to fabricate primary structure b) It has high strength

and high rigidity c) It takes compressive load d) It is ductile in nature

13. The most commonly used driving tool by a mechanic is

a) Ball peen hammer b) Cross peen hammer c) Claw hammer d) Sledge hammer

14. (i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground

(ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metal a) Only (i) is correct

b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

15. i) Mallets can be termed as soft hammers

ii) Plastic mallets are more useful than raw hide mallets a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct


16. (i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out

nails (ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handle

a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor

(ii) is correct

17. A punch is used to

a) Mark a location b) Remove a damaged rivet

c) Locate a drill properly d) All are correct

18. i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet head has been chiselled off

ii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the rivet to be removed

a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is

correct

19. i) Location given by a prick punch should always be punched later with a centre punch.

ii) Goggles must be used while using any type of punch.


correct

20. i) A mushroom head on a punch is better than a crown head since chances of hammer slip are reduced

ii) A centre punch can be used for a variety of punching applications a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


21. Most commonly used slip joint plier has a length of

a) 4 inches b) 6 inches c) 10 inches d) 12 inches

22. Duckbill plier a) Is a flat nose plier b) Is used for twisting

safety wires c) Have serrations on their jaws d) All are correct




24. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself ii) A die is a cutting tool


c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is

correct

25. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees c) 90 degrees

d) 110 degrees

26. Regarding a cutting chisel which statement is incorrect? a) It is made from high grade steel

b) Its cutting edge is always wider than the shank c) Cutting edge is flat so that force is applied uniformly on the surface

d) Chisel body is either square or octagonal

27. i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it has been drilled through

ii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold

chisel a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


28. Aviation snip

a) Is same as Dutchman snip b) Has serrated cutting edges

c) Can easily cut thick sheet metals d) All are correct

29. Files are classified with regard to a) Physical shape b) Length

c) Type of cut d) All are correct

30. Various types of cut of a file are

a) Single cut b) Smooth cut c) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct

31. Vixen file have

a) Curved teeth b) No taper either in width or thickness

c) A special file holder d) All are correct

32. i) Wood rasp files have individual teeth cut on to their surfaces ii) Wood rasps are used to remove wood from a surface where it is not

practical to use a saw or a plane a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


correct

33. i) Mill files have uniform thickness, but are tapered in width ii) Hand files have uniform thickness and width


correct

34. i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and width ii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in width


correct

35. For filing acute angles, one should use

a) Knife files b) Round files c) Triangular files d) All are correct

36. Most files used in aviation have a length of

a) 4-10 inches b) 6-12 inches c) 6-16 inches d) 10-20 inches

37. The part of a file that fits into the handle is called

a) Heel b) Fitting end c) Tang d) Point

38. i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edges

ii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsaws a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


correct

39. Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees b) 45 degrees and 45

degrees c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees d) None of these

40. There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest.

Find out the wrong one a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest

41. File should be kept clean by

a) Tapping it against the bench b) Brushing it with a wire brush

c) Lubricating it occasionally d) Both a) & b) are

correct

42. Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth a) Vixen b) Wood rasp c) Knife d)

Triangular

43. Characteristics of steel are controlled by a) Removal of carbon from iron b) Types of alloying

elements added to it c) Amount of alloying elements added to it d) All are correct



c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load

d) Resistance to shear

45. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility

d) Brittleness

46. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets

c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity

47. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies

a) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copper

c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy

48. Before jacking an aircraft

a) Empty the fuel tanks b) Fit critical stress panels c) Level aircraft laterally d) Remove all optional

equipment

49. It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why? a) To set the weighing scales to zero

b) To stabilize the weighing scales c) For first determining its empty weight

d) For making aircraft level

50. (i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work (ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work



51. A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called a

a) Cross cut saw b) Rip saw c) Back saw d) Wood saw

52. A cross cut saw has

a) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch c) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch

53. Find out the incorrect statement regarding back saw

a) It is used for cutting precision parts b) It has 18-32 teeth per inch

c) It is same as hacksaw

d) Cutting teeth has very little set

54. Hacksaw blades are a) Made from stainless steel b) 12 inches in length

c) Held under tension in the frame d) Having 10-14 teeth per inch

55. i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum steel

ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade should be lifted for the return stroke


correct

56. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth

should be used ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five

teeth are there on each side of the tube as it is cut a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


57. Length of hacksaw is measured from

a) The outer edge b) toothed part of blades

c) Between the centre of fixing holes d) Both a) & b) are correct

58. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) ¼ - one inch in

diameter c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct

59. A screw driver can be used

a) For driving screws b) As a punch c) As a chisel d) All are correct

60. Stubby screw driver has

a) A blunt edge b) Blade length of up to 2” c) Only wooden handle d) All are correct

61. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw

driver is called

a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the

above

62. Air driven power screw driver should be used a) For large diameter screw

b) For removing screw that are jammed c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back

d) When removing screws from harder material

63. A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain width of the screw slot. It should cover at least

a) 50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 90%

64. i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driver

ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw driver


correct




66. Open end wrenches a) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in

restricted space b) Are available in British & Metric sizes

c) Open a nut faster than box end wrenches d) All are correct




68. Combination wrenches means, its two ends have

a) Open and box end b) Open and cut box

end c) Open and flare nut end d) All are correct

69. i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end

wrench is used ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips

the nut at many places compared to an open ended wrench a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


70. i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrench

ii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelines a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


correct

71. Spanners are classified by a) Type b) Material

c) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits d) All are correct

72. Set spanners are off set to an angle a) So that it can be used in restricted places

b) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner over c) For proper grip

d) Both a) & b) are correct

73. Ratchets a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement

b) Are available with long and short handles

c) Can easily fit into sockets d) All are correct

74. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be

used a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench


75. Monel metal is an alloy of a) Nickel & copper b) Nickel & chromium

c) Copper & chromium d) Copper, nickel & chromium

76. i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings.

ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases


correct

77. Angular momentum is a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) &

b) d) Sum of a) & b)

78. Mark the incorrect statement a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of



rotor.


79. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:

a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate

b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.

c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude d) All of these




PAPER - II

PART XVII

ANSWER:

1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D

6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. D

11. B 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. C

16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. D

21. B 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. B

26. C 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. A

31. D 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. A

36. C 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. D

41. D 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. C

46. A 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. C

51. A 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. C

56. A 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. B

61. C 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. B

66. D 67. A 68. D 69. C 70. C

71. D 72. D 73. D 74. D 75. A

76. C 77. C 78. A 79. D 80. A

PAPER - II

PART XVIII

1. Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to aluminium

a) A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie

b) Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly c) Both (a) and (b) will be applied together


2. Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to high stress and vibration

a) Fibergalss b) Aramid c) Carbon / Graphite d) None of these


a) Carbon fiber are electrically non conductive b) Carbon fibers have high thermal expansion

c) Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance

4. Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin

film of material a) Titanium b) Tin c) Tungsten d) All

above

5. Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses

a) Ceramic fiber b) Boron fiber c) Fiber glass d) Graphite fiber

6. Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientation

a) Warp direction is designated at 900 b) Weft is designated at 00

c) Bias is at 450 angle of fill threads d) None of the above

7. For repairing of fabric, which weave to be used a) Plain weave b) Basket weave c) Satin weave

d) All of these

8. Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation field are

a) Kevlar with carbon / graphite b) Kevlar with fiber glass

c) Carbon / graphite with fiber glass d) None of these

9. In fiber science, which acts as a curing agent a) Resin b) Matrix c) Catalyst d) All of

these

10. Plexiglass is a) Thermoplastic b) Thermoset c) Laminated

d) None of these


Apart from strongest adhesive characteristics of epoxy resin, it has other advantages

a) Useful at very high temperature b) It withstand bending stress

c) Reasonable rigidity and flexibility d) All of these

12. Mark the correct answer: The advantages of fillers to add to resins are

a) To control viscosity and weight b) To increase pot life and strength

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

13. Nomex is a

a) Filler material b) Matrix c) Reinforced fiber d) Core material

14. Tapered roller bearing support

a) Radial load b) Thrust load c) Both (a) and (b)

15. Bearing used on high powered aircraft engine is

a) Ball bearing b) Roller bearing c) Plain bearing d) Both (a) and (c)

16. Plain bearings are used for

a) Connecting rods b) Crank shaft c) Cam shaft d) All of these

17. Bearings are used to take a) Thrust load b) Radial load c) Side load

d) Both (a) and (b)

18. Bearing used wher e high compressive pressure, is generally made of

a) Babitt b) Bronze c) Siliver bronze d) All of these

19. Bearing which offer more friction is made of

a) Bronze b) Babitt c) Silicon d) None of these

20. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to

a) Distance between the plate and inversely proportional to the plate area

b) Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plate. c) Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the

plate d) None of these

21. The correct way to connect a test volt meter in a circuit is

a) In series with a unit b) Between the source voltage and the load

c) In parallel with unit d) Both (a) and (c) are correct

22. Typical application of Zener diode is as a) Full wave rectifiers b) Half wave rectifier

c) Voltage regulator d) Amplifier

23. The method used to rapidly charge a Nickel Cadmium battery utilizes

a) Constant current and constant voltage b) constant current and varying voltage

c) Constant voltage and varying current d) Varying voltage and varying current

24. High carbon steel is generally used for

a) Shock absorbers b) Landing gear struts c) Engine mounting bolts d) Springs & files

25. What material is used in the construction of firewall of aircraft engines?

a) Aluminium alloy b) Stainless steel c) Chrome-molybdenum steel d) Tungsten steel



b) Strain hardening is same as cold working c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working

d) All are correct

27. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength

at elevated temperatures


28. The balls used for ball bearings are made of a) Cast iron b) Cast steel c) Wrought iron d)

Carbon chrome steel

29. Files used in fitting shop are made from a) Cast iron b) High carbon steel c) Chrome steel

d) Mild steel

30. Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is called ductility. Most ductile material is

a) Copper b) Gold c) Lead d) Tin

31. i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivity

ii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the addition of iron & silver a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


32. i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brass

ii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2 a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


33. Potential difference between two conductors insulated from each

other is measured in

a) Ampere b) Coulomb c) Ohm

d) Volt

34. Correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is a) In series with a unit b) In parallel with a

unit c) Between source voltage and load d) Both b) & c)

are correct

35. Which term means .001 ampere a) Micro ampere b) Milli ampere

c) Kilo ampere d) Nano ampere 36. Unit used to express electrical power is

a) Ampere b) Volt c) Watt d) Coulomb

37. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connection is

a) Induction b) Air gap transfer c) Not possible d) Possible but will cause excessive

arcing thus not practical

38. Magnetic lines of force pass most readily through a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Iron

d) Titanium

39. In a straight conductor, the resistance is not affected by a) Length b) Temperature c) Shape of cross section

d) Material

40. Pitot pressure varies with

a) Speed b) Air density c) Speed and Air density

d) None of these

41. Altimeter and rate of climb indicator utilize a) Static pressure b) Pitot pressure c) Either a) or b)

d) Both a) and b)

42. Pitot static system have heating elements to a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice

formation c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct

43. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted,

because it a) Impairs their thermal efficiency

b) May cause obstruction of orifices c) None of the above

d) Both a) and b) are correct

44. Leak test of pitot static system should be carried out a) After installation of a component / instrument

b) Whenever malfunctioning is suspected c) At specified periods indicated in servicing schedules

d) All are correct

45. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static

system?

a) Vertical speed indicator b) Altimeter c) Airspeed indicator d) All are correct

46. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static

pressure is a) Altimeter b) Pressure gauge c) Airspeed indicator

d) Vertical speed indicator

47. The unit where calculations are processed is called a) Central processing unit (CPU) b) Control unit

c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) d) Computing unit

48. Sequence of steps for computing a program is known as a) Flow chart b) Sequence process

c) Algorithm d) None of these

49. Basic function of a computer is

a) Addition b) Multiplication c) Division d) All are correct

50. EDP stands for

a) Electrical data processing b) Electronic data processing

c) Entry data processing d) Electronic discrete programme

51. A computer basically

a) Processes data b) Stores data as per given

instructions c) Perform mathematical calculations d) All are correct

52. Computer stores instructions in

a) English language b) Decimal number system

c) Octal number system d) Binary

53. In a straight and level flight of an aircraft a) Lift equals aircraft weight b) Lift is more than

weight c) Lift is less than weight d) Depends upon size

of aircraft and its loading

54. Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag

associated with it. This is called a) Form drag b) Skin friction drag c) Induced drag

d) Shape drag

55. Lift generated by an airfoil is maximum at an angle of attack of about

a) 0 degrees b) 4 degrees c) 12 degrees d) Stalling value

56. Lift generated by an aircraft depends upon

a) Density, forward velocity & aircraft area b) Density, square of forward velocity and aircraft area

c) Density, square of forward velocity and wing area d) Density, forward velocity & wing area

57. Lift on a wing a) Acts through centre of gravity b) Acts vertically upwards

c) Is perpendicular to chord line d) Acts vertically upwards through centre of pressure

58. The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx.

a) 6 Psi b) 8 Psi c) 10 Psi d) 12 Psi

59. A four pole generator will have a) 2 interpole b) 4 interpole c) 6 interpole

d) 8 interpole

60. In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the voltage induced is

a) 90o apart b) 120o apart c) 60o apart

d) 180o apart

61. To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The method

used is a) Interpole Method b) Brush setting method

c) both (a) & (b) d) None of these

62. Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding to a) Increase he life of brushes b) Distortion of field

c) Reduces radio interference d) All the above

63. Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator to a) Minimise ripple voltage b) Maintain constant

output

c) Minimise eddy Current loss d) None of these above

64. A 3 four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency

of

a) 100 c/s b) 200 c/s c) 300 c/s d) 400 c/s

65. While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspect

a) Ventilation system of a/c b) Cable for chaffing c) Quick disconnection mechanism d) All of these

66. What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold

a) 42000 10% b) 42000 5% c) 12000 5% d) 22000

10%

67. AC generator works on the principle of

a) Faraday‟s law of electro-magnetic induction b) Mutual induction

c) Self induction d) All of these

68. Flight calculations are based on the magnitude and direction of a) Lift & drag b) Weight & thrust c) Lift &

thrust d) Both a) & b)

69. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are a) Structural consideration b) Drag consideration


70. What is required to reduce the landing speed?

a) A low minimum drag coefficient b) A small movement

of C of P c) A high max CL d) A high value of CL3/2/CD

71. With increase in altitude pressure & temperature

a) Drops b) Will rise c) Pressure drops, temperature increases d) Temperature drops,

pressure increases

72. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric

pressure. b) Weight due to pipelines

c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.

d) All of these


greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate. a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c)

24500rpm d) None

74. Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative position of

a) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol)


75. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in

gyro horizon is ______ respectively a) 3600 and 900 b) 3600 and 800 c) 3600 and 850

d) None

76. The reason for restricting pitch movement of gyro horizon is to prevent

a) Gimbal error b) Gimbal lock c) Transport wander d) None

77. Izod test measures

a) Toughness b) Height of upswing c) Energy in breaking d) Hardness

78. Fatigue test is for determining a) Stress in material b) Strain in rod

c) Stress limit for material d) Elongation of wire

79. Torsion test is essential for a) Wires b) Tube c) Rods d)

Sheet

80. Bending test indicates a) Ductility b) Brittleness c) Hardness

d) Density

PAPER - II

PART XVIII

ANSWER:-

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B

6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. A

11. D 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. B

16. D 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. C

21. C 22. C 23. C 24. D 25. B

26. D 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. B

31. A 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. B

36. C 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. C

41. A 42. B 43. D 44. D 45. D

46. C 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. B

51. D 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. D

56. C 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. B

61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D

66. B 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C

71. A 72. D 73. B 74. C 75. C

76. B 77. B 78. C 79. A 80. A

PAPER - II

PART XIX

1. “S” in Al-alloy designation indicates

a) Cast alloy b) Wrought alloy

c) As in b) and used for a/c structure d) None

2. Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant?

a) 2 S b) 3 S

c) 17 S d) 52 S

3. Al clad is generally of

a) 17 S & 24 S

b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S

d) 53 S & 62 S

4. Inter crystalline corrosion is generally occurred in a) Al-alloy containing copper composition

b) 17 S c) 24 S

d) All of above

5. Which of the following material is used for spot welding a) Clad alloys

b) 52 S Al-alloy c) Both a and b

d) None


a) Isoprene b) Neoprene

c) Diprene d) None

7. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural

rubber? a) Sulpher

b) Phosphorus c) Sodium

d) Carbon

8. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S a) White

b) Black c) Red

d) Green

9. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands for a) Butadiene

b) Acrylonitrile

c) Monovinyl d) Nitrile

10. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is stands

a) Monovinyl b) Chloroprene

c) Acrylonitrile d) Styrene

11. Out of the following memory types, one that is volatile

a) Magnetic Disk b) Ferrite Core

c) Semi Conductor ROM d) Semi Conductor RAM

12. A 4-bit date word is called a) Data bus

b) Band c) Byte

d) Nibble

13. The heart of digital computer is a) I/O

b) Processor c) CPU


14. Semi conductor memories are

a) Volatile b) Non-Volatile

c) Volatile as well as Non-Volatile d) Neither Volatile nor Non-Volatile

15. The decimal number 422 is equal to which of the following hexadecimal number

a) 6A b) A6

c) 6A1 d) 1A6

16. The decimal equivalent of 101.101 is

a) 5.625 b) 7.625

c) 45

d) 47

17. High speed semi conductor memory, which is used as additional memory device

a) ROM b) PROM

c) Cache memory d) None of these

18. From the point of view of integration, a microprocessor chip

employs a) S.S.I (Small Scale Integration)

b) M.S.I (Medium Scale Integration) c) L.S.I (Large Scale Integration)

d) G.S.I (Grand Scale Integration)

19. Floppy disk is a

a) Flexible storage b) Permanent storage

c) ROM d) Fast storage

20. MODEM is a

a) Code changing system b) Programme conversion system

c) Modulator Demodulator system d) Demodulator modulator system

21. Power factor is the ratio of

a) True power / apparent power

b) Apparent power / true power c) Zero power / true power


22. Transformer works on the principle of a) Self induction

b) Mutual induction c) Electromagnetic induction

d) Magnetic induction

23. The factor, which determines whether a given transformer is stepped up or steeped down, is given by

a) Current ratio b) Voltage ratio

c) Power ratio

d) Turns ratio

24. The purpose of iron core in transformer is a) Given electrical energy from the source

b) Isolates primary with secondary c) Join primary with secondary

d) Provides low reluctance for magnetic lines of force

25. If the ratio of the transformer input voltage to the output voltage is same as the turn ratio then, transformer is said to be

a) 50% efficient b) 110% efficient

c) 100% efficient d) 25% efficient

26. Which of the following transformer can approach 100% efficient a) Iron core transformer

b) Ferrite core transformer c) Copper core transformer

d) None of these

27. The range of frequency in the case of audio transformer is a) 40 to 20000 c.p.s

b) 20 to 20000 c.p.s c) 100 to 10000 c.p.s

d) 10 to 10000 c.p.s

28. RF transformer utilizes

a) Iron core b) Copper core

c) Magnetic core d) Air core

29. The symbol of autotransformer used for communication or

navigation circuit is

30. Copper loss in a transformer is caused by

a) Due to iron core b) The resistance of the conductor comprising of the turns of the

coil c) Due to no. of turns


31. The fastest logic gate is a) TTL

b) ECL c) DTL

d) RTL

32. The Boolean expression Y of two inputs ExNOR gate is a) Y = A . B + A B

b) Y = A . B + A B

c) Y = A . B + A B d) Y = A . B + A B

33. To remove half cycle of AC input voltage, we can employ

a) Clamper circuit b) Clipper circuit

c) Zener diode d) LED

34. The self exited mixer is economical because

a) It does not require separate amplifier b) It does not require tank circuit

c) It needs to generate f0 + fs d) None

35. There is no carrier present in a) DSBFC

b) SSBFC c) DSBSC

d) USBFC

36. The ionosphere‟s D-layer reflects a) HF wave

b) LF wave c) MF wave

d) a) and b) 37. Main drawback of TRF AM Receiver was

a) More complex circuit b) Tuning to fix frequency of different stages was difficult

c) Un-economical

d) None

38. The average value of AC is given by a) Im / 2

b) Im / √2 c) 2Im / π

d) Im / 2 π

39. In a superhet receiver, the first most stage is a) IF amp

b) AF amp c) RF amp

d) Mixer

40. In a superhet receiver, the name, “first detector” is often given to

a) 1st RF amp b) Local Oscillator

c) IF amp d) Mixer

41. The trunion nut of an aircraft landing gear requires a torque of

320 inch pound. To reach the nut, a 2” straight adapter must be used on an 18” torque wrench. How many foot-pounds will be indicated on

the torque wrench when the required torque of the nut is reached? a) 24

b) 28.8 c) 288

d) 220

42. An o-ring intended for use in hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606

(Mineral base) fluid will be marked with a) A blue strip or dot

b) One or more white dots c) A white and yellow strip

d) Red strip

43. A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow strip running the length of the hose. This stripe

a) Identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only Is used to insure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting

b) c) Identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and

may be suitable for a wide range of operation d) Both a) and b) are correct

44. To protect packing rings or seal from damage, when it is

necessary to install them over or inside threaded section, the a) Threaded section should be coated with a heavy grease

b) Packing should be stretched during installation to avoid contacts with the threads

c) Threaded section should be covered with a stiff paper sleeve d) Packing should be lubricated

45. The minimum amount of slack that must be left when a flexible

hose is installed in an aircraft hydraulic system a) 8%

b) 10% c) 5%

d) 7%

46. No-12 tubing has outside diameter of

a) ½” b) ¾”

c) 3/8” d) ¼”

47. What kind of rigid tubing can be flared with a double flare?

a) 5052-O Al-alloy b) 6061-T Al-alloy tubing with size from 1/8” – 3/8” OD

c) 7075-T d) Both a) and b)

48. A fibre type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if

the bolt is a) Under shear loading

b) Under tension loading c) Subject to rotation

d) Both a) and b)

49. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to

a) Clean dry thread b) Clean lightly oiled thread

c) Either dry or lightly oiled thread d) None


a) Double flare is more concentric and smoother than single flare

b) AN fitting has a shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone

c) AN sleeve is longer than AC sleeve d) Both a) and b)

51 Red radial line on the scale of instrument indicates a Take off and precautionary ranges

b Normal operating ranges c Maximum and minimum limits

d Range in which operation is prohibited

52 Red arc on scale of instrument indicates a Take off and precautionary ranges

b Normal operating ranges

c Maximum and minimum limits d Range in which operation is prohibited

53 Yellow arc on scale of instrument indicates

a Take off and precautionary ranges b Normal operating ranges

c Maximum and minimum limits d Range in which operation is prohibited

54 Qualitative display presents information in the form of

a Symbolic form only b Pictorial form only

c Both A and B d None of the Above

55 Spacing of marks on indicator scale is generally a Linear only

b Non-Linear only c Both A and B

d None of the above

56 In troposphere temperature decreases at a rate of a 1.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude

b 2.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude c 0.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude

d 3.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude

57 Heating element fitted around the pitot tube casing is to a Prevent ice formation

b Reduce position error

c Reduce instrument error d Reduce density error

58 Static vents are always located one on each side of a fuselage

and inter connected so as to balance out pressure effect resulting from

a Any yawing or side slip motion of an aircraft b Sudden pitch up

c Sudden pitch down d None of the above

59 Bimetallic device connected in magnification lever system of

altimeter is for a Compensation of installation error

b Compensation of scalar error

c Compensation of temperature error d All of the above

60 Setting knob in front of altimeter is for

a Setting QNH only b Setting QFE only

c Both A and B d None of the above

61. The Vernier height gage can be used as

a) Calliper b) Depth gage

c) Surface gage d) Snap gage

62. For measuring the diameter of small holes, which of the following gages can be used?

a) A small hole gage b) Depth gage

c) Plug gage d) Telescoping gage

63. The reading on the Vernier caliper is

a) 2.494 inches 2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

3

1 2 3 4 5 6

b) 2.4769 inches c) 2.438 inches

d) 2.394 inches 0 5 10 15 20 25

64. In a Vernier bevel protractor a) 12 divisions on the Vernier scale occupy the same space as 24

degree on the disk b) 13 divisions on the Vernier scale occupy the same space as 23

degree on the disk c) 13 divisions on the Vernier scale occupy the same space as 24

degree on the disk d) 12 divisions on the Vernier scale occupy the same space as 23

degree on the disk

65. Inside diameter of a cylinder is measured by

a) Small hole gage b) Cylinder bore gage

c) Dial indicator

d) Inside micrometer

66.How many blocks are there in the third series of gage blocks? a) 9

b) 19 c) 49

d) 3

67. The scriber point is usually made of a) Stainless steel

b) Tool steel c) Hardened & tempered cast iron

d) Hardened & tempered carbon tool steel

68. Surface plates are made of

a) Carbon steel b) Cast iron

c) As in „a‟ or granite d) As in „b‟ or granite

69. For measuring the valve clearance of a piston engine, which gage

is used? a) Screw pitch gage

b) Fillet gage c) Filler gage

d) Height gage

70. Universal & combination bevels are used for a) Measuring angles within one degree

b) Measuring angles that are difficult to measure by ordinary

protractors c) Checking & transferring angles, which are difficult to measure by

ordinary protractors. d) Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correct

PAPER - II

PART XIX

1. c

2. a 3. a

4. d 5. c

6. a 7. a

8. b

9. b 10. a

11. d 12. d

13. c 14. c

15. d 16. a

17. c 18. c

19. a 20. c

21. a 22. c

23. a

24. a 25. a

26. a 27. a

28. a 29. a

30. a 31. b

32. d 33. b

34. a 35. c

36. a 37. b

38. c

39. c 40. d

41. a

42. a 43. a

44. c 45. c

46. b 47. d

48. c 49. a

50. d 51. c

52. d 53. a

54. c 55. c

56. a

57. a 58. a

59. c 60. c

61. b 62. a

63. a 64. d

65. b 66. b

67. d 68. d

69. c 70. c

PAPER - II

PART XX

1. GR-I designated for which type of rubber

a) Neoprene b) BUNA-S

c) BUNA-N d) Butyl

2. Which type of properties is introduced in rubber after vulcanising

process?

a) Elasticity b) Strong ness

c) Reduce the tackiness d) All of the above

3. A/C rivets are identified by

a) Head Style b) Alloy

c) Length & Diameter d) All

4. For accurate location of particular area on an a/c, which of the

following is necessary? a) Water line

b) Butt line

c) As in a) and b) in conjunction with station line d) None


arc welding? a) Pitting

b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline

d) Fretting

6. For spot welding, in stainless steel, which is most suitable a) Low-voltage

b) High-amperage c) Low-voltage and High-amperage

d) High-voltage and Low-amperage

7. Heat generated in spot welding is measured by

a) Resistance x (Current)2 x Time

b) Resistance x Time / (Current)2

c) (Current)2 / Resistance x Time d) Resistance x Current

8. Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic?

a) Inconel b) K-Monel

c) Monel d) All


a) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel

c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel

10. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length

a) Upsetting b) Down setting

c) Swaging d) Rolling

11. Every processor must necessarily have a

a) Data bus b) Data bus & Address bus

c) Control bus d) Data bus, Control bus & Address bus

12. A device that works in conjunction with a computer but not as

part of it is called

a) Hardware b) Memory

c) Microprocessor d) Peripheral device

13. The unit of the speed of a digital I.C is

a) Hz b) KHz

c) MHz d) GHz

14. Which of the following storage has greatest capacity with less

cost per bit? a) Semi conductor memory

b) Magnetic tape

c) Magnetic drum d) None of these

15. Which of the following statement is true? a) Compiler is the name given to the computer operator

b) Compiler is the part of the digital machine to store the information

c) Compiler is the translator of source program to object program

d) Compiler is the name given to the punched tape

16. Trace the value for binary addition (1 + 1) a) 0 with a carry of 1

b) 1 with a carry of 1 c) 1 with no carry

d) 0 with no carry

17. Which of the following memories has got equal access time for all

locations of the memory limit? a) Read Only Memory (ROM)

b) Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM) c) Random Access Memory (RAM)

d) Erasable ROM

18. Which of the following memories will be used to store variable quantities or data

a) RAM b) ROM

c) PROM d) EPROM

19. The access time for semi conductor memories is of the order of a) A few milliseconds

b) A few microseconds c) A few nanoseconds

d) A few seconds

20. Semiconductor memories are faster than magnetic memories a) True

b) False

21. To get a basic D.C. generator from A.C generator which of the following arrangement is made

a) By replacing the slip rings of the A.C generator with commutator

b) By the addition of extra slip rings

c) By connecting a rectifier d) None of the above

22. The rotating part of a DC generator is called

a) Field coil b) Yoke

c) Armature d) None of these

23. The e.m.f generated in armature‟s conductor of a D.C. machine is of nature

a) A.C b) D.C

c) Both

d) AC and DC

24. Variations of D.C voltage generated by D.C generator is called a) Ripple

b) R.M.S c) Average

d) Crest

25. The “ripples” generated in DC generator may be reduced by using

a) More loops or coils b) Less loop or coils

c) Both d) None of the above

26. There must be an ______ number of poles in any generator a) Even

b) Odd c) Both


27. The purpose of slotting in armature is a) To increase mechanical safety

b) To increase electrical safety c) To increase both safety

d) None of these

28. The brushes in generator are generally made up of a) High grade carbon

b) High grade silicon

c) High grade selenium d) High grade zinc

29. In DC machine the commutator surface is highly polished to

a) Reduce friction b) Reduce eddy current loss

c) Both d) None of these

30. Which of the following DC generator(s) can never be used with airplane?

a) Series wound D.C generator b) Shunt wound D.C generator

c) Compound wound D.C generator d) All of the above

31. The term 10-5 farads mean

a) 1 mili-farad b) 10 micro-farad

c) 10 nano-farad d) none

32. The unit of electrical power is

a) Joules b) Watt-second

c) Joule-seconds d) Watts

33. One angstrom (A0) is equivalent to

a) 10-9 meters b) 10-10 meters

c) 10-9 seconds

d) 10-10 seconds

34. Which is true statement about capacitor? a) Blocks DC

b) Allows DC c) Blocks AC

d) None

35. For N P N transistor, arrowhead indicates the direction of a) Minor holes current

b) Major holes current c) Minor electron current

d) None

36. To bypass the AC components, in any device, select most

appropriate a) Inductor is connected in series

b) Capacitor is connected in series c) Inductor is connected in parallel

d) Capacitor is connected in parallel

37. In a P-N-P transistors, the device is ON only when a) Base is positive with respect to emitter

b) Base is negative with respect to emitter c) Emitter is negative with respect to base

d) None 38. In a series connection

a) Voltage is same across each element b) Current is same in each element

c) Both are correct

d) None

39. The symbol indicates a) Conductor

b) Capacitor c) Condenser

d) Variable Condenser

40. If supply voltage = 30V, then working voltage of capacitor could be

a) 90V b) 45V

c) 50V d) 55V

41. The useful load of an aircraft is a) Difference between maximum gross weight and empty weight

b) Difference between maximum net weight and total weight c) Sum of empty weight and gross weight

d) Weight of fuel

42. MTCS a) CD-plated rivet should not be used in areas where temperature

of 250o or more are likely to be encountered b) If the thickness of the sheet is less, then half the diameter of the

rivet is used c) Failure of joint will depend on the bearing stress rather than

shear stress in the rivet. d) All of the above

43. Rivets are designed a) Stronger in shear

b) Stronger in tension c) Should not be subjected to excessive tension load

d) Both a) and c)

44. Zero fuel weight means a) AUW menus weight of fuel

b) Weight of cargo, passenger and crew c) Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and

statement b) d) All of the above

45. I-beam is produced by

a) Rolling

b) Casting c) Forging

d) None

46. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of

producing a) Passive oxidation

b) Improved corrosion resistance c) Corrosion

d) None

47. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of

a) Forming passive oxide

b) Entrapping corrosive material c) Corrosion by embedded iron oxide

d) All of the above

48. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of

a) A tendency for them to return their natural state b) Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between

dissimilar metal c) Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area

d) All of the above

49. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur

a) Presence of electrolyte

b) Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area c) Presence of passive oxide film

d) None of these

50. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part a) May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit

b) Appears as thread like filament c) Cannot always be detected by surface indication

d) All of the above

51. When QNH is set on milibar scale, the altimeter reads a) Altitude above mean sea level

b) Height above the airport elevation c) Both A and B


52. When QFE is set on milibar scale, altimeter reads

a) Altitude above mean sea level b) Height above the airport elevation

c) Both A and B d) None of the above

53. Pitot head is mounted parallel to the a) Latitudinal axis of aircraft

b) Longitudinal axis of aircraft c) Both A and B


54. All the altimeter a) Are constructed on the principle of Aneroid barometer

b) They have pressure responsive elements

c) Aneroid mechanism d) All of the above

55. Hysterisis error in altimeter

a) Is induced by aircraft maintaining a given altitude for certain period of time and suddenly making a large altitude change

b) This error will eliminate itself with slow climbs and descends c) After maintaining a new altitude for a reasonable period of time

d) All of the above

56 Installation errors in altimeter mechanism is a) Caused by change of alignment of static pressure port with the

relation wind b) Speed of aircraft and angle of attack of aircraft

c) By location of the static port in a disturbed pressure field

d) All of the above

57 An ROCI is connected to a) Static pressure only

b) Pitot pressure only c) Both A and B


58 In ROCI during dive of aircraft, the diaphragm a) Contracts

b) Expands c) Both a & b

d) No effect

59 Any sudden or abrupt change in the aircraft altitude may cause

erroneous indications of ROCI a) Due to a sudden change of airflow over static port

b) Sudden change of air flow over pitot head c) On both A and B


60 An instantaneous ROCI is a) Recent development

b) Incorporates acceleration pumps c) Eliminates limitations associated with calibrated leak assembly

d) All of the above

61. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated

jaws for gripping round pipes?

a) Warnok type b) Stillson type

c) Super wrench tool d) Williams type

62. Vise grip pliers is also known as

a) Heavy pliers b) Lever jaw wrench

c) Monkey pliers d) None

63. Punch holders are used to hold

a) Punches b) Chisels

c) Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correct

d) As in „a‟, when a hard blow is required

64. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation? a) Safety wire pliers

b) Diagonals & duck bill pliers c) Both „a‟ & ‟b‟ are correct

d) As in „a‟ & diagonals

65. Diagonals are used for a) Cutting steel wires & rods

b) Cutting bolt heads c) Both „a‟ & „b‟ are correct

d) None

66. The shape of long nose pliers is

a) Round b) Half- round

c) Square d) None

67. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by

a) A small lever at each handle b) A compound lever at both handles

c) A small lever at one of the handles d) None

68. What action locks the jaws of a vise grip pliers?

a) Compound leverage action b) Lever action

c) Toggle action d) None

69. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one

direction? a) Acme

b) Square c) Worm

d) Buttress

70. In interlocking- joint pliers, a) There are a number of holes at the hinge point

b) There are two holes at the hinge point

c) There are several curved grooves at the hinge point d) None

PAPER - II

PART XX

1. d 2. d

3. d 4. c

5. c 6. c

7. a

8. b 9. b

10. a 11. d

12. d 13. a

14. a 15. c

16. a 17. c

18. a 19. c

20. a 21. a

22. a

23. a 24. a

25. a 26. a

27. a 28. a

29. a 30. a

31. b 32. d

33. b 34. a

35. a 36. a

37. b

38. b 39. d

40. b

41. a 42. d

43. d 44. c

45. a 46. c

47. b 48. a

49. c 50. c

51. a 52. b

53. b 54. d

55. d

56. d 57. a

58. b 59. a

60. d 61. b

62. b 63. c

64. c 65. d

66. b 67. c

68. c 69. d

70. c

PAPER - II

PART XXI

1) Which of the following have greatest tensile strength a) Fibreglass

b) Aramid c) Carbon

d) Ceramic

2) Which vector of fibres science takes shear load a) 45o

b) 90o c) 60o

d) 30o

3) Maximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional

fabric a) Warp

b) Weft c) Biased

d) Fill

4) Which of the following is the unidirectional fabric styles a) Mats

b) Tapes c) Kevlar

d) Fibreglass

5) Output power of piston engine is depend upon

a) Intensity of spark produced by spark plug b) Heat energy applied on piston head

c) Mean effective pressure during power stroke d) Moisture available in ambient air

6) Stab trim control used for

a) Change the angle of incident of horizontal stabilizer b) Change the longitudinal dihedral

c) Movement of control surfaces fitted at empennage d) All of the above

7) In steel casting, porosity can detect more easily by

a) Dye penetrant method b) Magnetic particle inspection

c) Eddy current

d) X-Ray

8) Rate of staining is an indication of

a) Volume of defect b) Width of defect

c) Depth of defect d) Both b and c

9) Which of the following can use as leak tester

a) Ultrasound method (Water immersion method) b) Dye-penetrant method

c) Magnetic particle inspection d) None of these

10) Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known as

a) Shear wave b) Compression wave

c) Surface wave d) Tension wave

11) The memory unit that communicates directly with the CPU is called

a) Main memory b) Auxiliary memory

c) Cache memory d) EPROM

12) The flow chart is a

a) Systematic representation of a task

b) Systematic representation with logical decision c) Systematic pictorial representation with logical decision

d) Random representation of a task

13) The most powerful computer is a) Micro computer

b) Super computer c) Mini computer

d) Lap top computer

14) Excess speed of computer depends upon a) Software used

b) Frequency and signal received

c) Both Software and Hardware

d) Only Hardware

15) Which are related to the memory 1. Hard disk 2. Key board 3. CD ROM 4.

Monitor a) 1 & 2

b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3

d) 2 & 4

16) Expand the term “RAM”

a) Random Access Memory b) Reverse Access Memory

c) Random Access Monitor d) Reverse Access Monitor

17) Which language is the oriented language?

a) PASCAL b) BASIC

c) FORTRAN d) COBOL

18) In third generation computer

a) Integrated circuits are used b) Microprocessor is used

c) Transistors are used


19) The unit of „Memory‟ is a) Bytes

b) Mega bite c) Mill

d) Byles

20) Analog computer is a) More correct than digital computer

b) Less accurate than digital computer c) Equal with digital computer

d) None of these

21) Which of the following DC generator has very poor voltage regulation

a) Series wound D.C generator b) Shunt would D.C generator

c) Differential compound D.C generator d) Cumulative compound D.C generator

22) Series wound D.C generator cannot be used in airplane because a) They have very poor voltage regulation

b) Poor efficiency c) Large losses

d) None of these

23) The output voltage of a series wound D.C generator may be

controlled by a) Using a rheostat in parallel with the field windings

b) Using a rheostat in series with the field windings c) Both a and b


24) If a constant voltage is desired, which one of the D.C generator we would prefer

a) Series wound D.C generator b) Shunt wound D.C generator

c) Both a and b d) None of these

25) In a compound wound generator the magneto motive force is equal to the

a) Sum of series and shunt field component b) Multiplication of series and shunt field component

c) Square of series and shunt field component d) Square root of series and shunt field component

26) A generator in which the no load and full load voltages have the

same value is called a) Flat compound generator

b) Shunt generator c) Series generator

d) Both b and c

27) Compound generators are usually designed to be a) Over compounded

b) Under compounded c) Flat compounded

d) All of these

28) In a situation where voltage regulation is of prime importance we prefer to use

a) Compound generator b) Series generator

c) Shunt generator d) All of these

29) Differential generators are a) Constant current generator

b) Constant voltage generator c) Constant power generator

d) None of these

30) The main application of differential generator is a) Electric arc welding

b) Fans c) Turbines

d) All of these

31) One nibble is equal to

a) 8 bits b) 4 bytes

c) 8 bytes d) 4 bits

32) Binary equivalent of (29)10 is

a) 11101 b) 10101

c) 10011 d) 11111

33) Decimal equivalent of (10111011101)2 is

a) 1500

b) 1401

c) 1501 d) 1600

34) Binary equivalent of (91.75)10 is

a) 010110.11 b) 1110011.11

c) 1011011.11 d) 1011010.1

35) Binary addition of (11011+111+11)2

a) 100101 b) 110101

c) 010101 d) 101101

36) The Boolean expression for output A B

Y C

a) Y=(A.B).C b) Y=A.B.C

c) Y=(A.B).C d) Y=A.(B.C)

37) How many bits are there in 1KB?

a) 1000 bits

b) 1024 bits c) 2048 bits

d) 108 bits

38) Immediately after picking up of signal by a super het type receiving antenna, the signal goes to

a) RF stage b) Detector stage

c) IF stage d) AF stage

39) The unit of magnetic flux is

a) wb/m2

b) Mili Henry

c) wb d) Farads

40) In line of sight communication, we use

a) UHF wave b) VHF wave

c) VLF wave d) HF wave

41) What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel

part a) Steel wire brush

b) Fine grit Al-oxide c) Medium grade carborendum paper

d) All of the above

42) Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact may best be

prevented by a) Placing a nonporous dielectric material between the surface

b) Cleaning both surface with a non residual solvent c) Apply paper tape between the surface

d) None of these

43) Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of

a) Excessive anodization b) Contact between two unlike metals

c) Excessive etching d) All of the above

44) Which of the following is most anodic a) Cadmium

b) Magnesium c) Zinc

d) 7075-T6

45) Which is most cathodic a) Zinc

b) Stainless steel c) Chromium

d) Al-alloy

46) Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when

a) The surface area of cathode is smaller than anode

b) The surface area of anodic material is smaller than cathodic material

c) Approximately same d) All are correct

e) Magnesium e) Chromium

The surface area of anodic material is smaller than cathodic aterial

47) One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress corrosion

cracking by a) Relieving compressive stress on the metal surface

b) Creating compressive stress on the metal surface c) Producing non uniform deformation while cold working during

manufacturing

d) None of these

48) The pickling solution can be a) H2SO4

b) HCL c) HNO3

d) All of the above

49) When an anodising surface coating is damaged, it can be partially restored by

a) Metal polish b) Complete penetration of air inhibitor

c) Chemical surface treatment d) Any one of the following

50) MTCS

a) Inter-granular corrosion is attack along the grain boundaries b) Al-alloy and some stainless steel are particularly susceptible

c) Ultrasonic and radiographic inspection method are used d) Both a) and b) are correct

51) An ASI is a) A sensitive differential pressure gauge

b) Indicates differential between the impact and static pressure surrounding an aircraft

c) Consists of a sensitive metallic diaphragm d) All of the above

52) Machmeter indicates

a) The ratio of aircraft speed to the speed of sound at any altitude

b) Mechanism is similar to that of True airspeed indicator

c) Mechanism is similar to that of altimeter d) Both A and B

53) During daily inspection of pitot static system

a) Pitot pressure entry hole, drain holes, static holes, or ports should be inspected that they are unobstructed

b) Static holes and drains holes must be cleared of obstruction with tools likely to cause enlargement


54) During Leak test of pitot static system

a) Rate of discharge of pressure should not be at high rate b) High rate may cause damage to the instruments

c) Both A and B


55) Leak test provides a means for a) Check those instruments connected to system, are functioning

properly. b) It serves as a calibration test also


56) The mechanism of pressure switches are similar to those

employed in a) ASI

b) Mach meter c) Altimeter

d) All of the above

57) A gyro having freedom in three planes at right angles to each

other but controlled by some external force is called

a) Free gyro b) Tied gyro

c) Earth gyro d) Rate gyro

58) Ability of gyro to resist any force, which tends to change the

plane of rotation is termed as

a) Gyroscopic Inertia

b) Gyroscopic Rigidity

c) Gyroscopic Precession d) Both A and B

59) On application of an external force, the angular change at right

angle to the applied force is called gyroscopic

a) Rigidity b) Precession

c) Inertia d) All of the above

60) The example of earth gyro fitment is

a) Directional gyro b) Artificial Horizon

c) Turn and bank indicator

d) All of the above

61) While reconditioning a screwdriver blade, a) Grind the end of the tip first to square with the shank and then

grind the end of the tip to required thickness b) Grind the blade first to the thickness required and then grind the

end of the tip to square with the shank c) There may not be any rule for grinding the sequence of grinding

d) None

62) A higher diametral pitch number means a) A larger tooth size

b) A smaller tooth size c) It has no relation with the tooth size

d) None

63) Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are not parallel

a) Phillips screwdriver b) Reed & prince screwdriver

c) Both are correct d) None

64) The hallow magnetized shafts of interchangeable screwdrivers hold

hex bits of a) ½ inch size

b) 3/4 inch size c) 3/8 inch size

d) ¼ inch size

65) The shape of which screwdriver permits the use of a wrench to

assist in tightening? a) Stubby screwdriver

b) Phillips screwdriver c) Heavy duty screwdriver

d) Double ended screwdriver

66) Prick punch has an included angle of a) 15o

b) 45o c) 65o

d) 90o

67) While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch

should be a) Larger than the size of the pin

b) Smaller than the size of the pin c) Same size of the pin

d) Can be of any size

68) What do you mean by a stub tooth? a) Same as involute tooth

b) It gives smoother operation than involute tooth c) It is thicker in proportion to it‟s length than the involute tooth

d) As in „c‟& is preferred where strength is not important

69) Which hammers are used for riveting & stretching of metals? a) Ball peen hammer

b) Straight peen hammer

c) Soft faced hammer d) Both „a‟& „b‟ are correct

70) Soft hammers are made of

1. Babbitt 2. Brass 3. Carbon steel 4. Wood 5. Tool steel a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b) Only „1‟ is correct c) 1, 2 & 4 are correct

d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

Indian Institute of Aircraft Engineering B-11

Mahipalpur, New Delhi

PAPER - II

PART XXI

Answers

1) b 2) a

3) a 4) b

5) c 6) b

7) a 8) d

9) b

10) c 11) c

12) c 13) b

14) c 15) c

16) a 17) d

18) a 19) a

20) b 21) a

22) a 23) a

24) b

25) a 26) a

27) a 28) a

29) a 30) a

31) d 32) a

33) c 34) c

35) a

36) c

37) b 38) a

39) c 40) b

41) b 42) a

43) b 44) b

45) c 46) b

47) b 48) d

49) c 50) d

51) d

52) d 53) a

54) c 55) a

56) d 57) b

58) d 59) b

60) b 61) a

62) b 63) a

64) d 65) c

66) b

67) a 68) c

69) a 70) c

PAPER - II

PART XXII

1. Velocity of trans verse wave is

a) Equal to sound wave b) Twice of sound wave

c) Half of sound wave d) There is no relation between transverse wave and sound

wave

2. Frequency chosen for defect scanning in ultrasonic depend upon

a) Size of the object b) Possible location of defect

c) Grain size of material d) All of these

3. Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by

a) X-Ray b) Ultrasonic method

c) Eddy current d) None of these

4. Longer wavelength of x-ray beam have quality of

a) More penetrating power b) Less penetrating power

c) As in b) and indicated by “half value layer”

d) As in a) and indicated by “full value layer”

5. By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion easily

a) Ultrasonic method b) Eddy current

c) Magnetic particle d) X-Ray

6. Grinding cracks on small radius bends is appeared as _____ in

magnetic particle inspection. a) Irregular lines over affected area

b) Short parallel lines c) Dotted patch

d) Scattered small lines

7. What are the advantages of Eddy current testing

a) Does not require extensive preparation of parts

b) Parts can be checked in “Insitu” condition c) It do not interfere with other parts

d) All of the above

8. Permeability of material is the function of a) Magnetizing force

b) Flux density c) Both a) and b) are correct


9. Sand blasting is not done on a) Steel

b) Cast aluminium cylinder head c) Where strength is not primary concern

d) Copper

10. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness?

a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometer

c) Profilometer d) Hilsegmetometer

11. In computer machine level language is

a) A High Level Language b) Low Level Language

c) Very High Level Language d) None

12. A modern computer uses

a) Decimal language

b) Binary language c) Hexadecimal language

d) All of the above

13. When data has to be read, the control structure will be a) In sequence

b) In sequence and repetition c) Repetition and sequence

d) None of them

14. Universal Gates are a) AND & OR Gates

b) NAND & NOR Gates

c) NOT & NAND Gates

d) Ex. OR & Ex. NOR Gates 15. The binary conversion of 11.75 is

a) 1101.10 b) 1011.11

c) 1110.01 d) 1001.11

16. Basic function of computer is a) Addition

b) Subtraction c) Multiplication

d) Division

17. The conversion of (010100)2 into Octal is a) (24)8

b) (28)8

c) (26)8 d) (50)8

18. A computer consists of

a) Printer, Decoder, Memory b) Input, Output, CPU

c) Input, Output, Printer d) None of the above

19. Computer viruses can spread from one computer to another by

means of a) An infected disk

b) Links to a network c) Any electronic communication medium

d) All of the above are correct

20. FORTRAN & COBOL are

a) High Level Language b) Assembly Language

c) Machine Language d) Fourth Generation Language

21. If the shunt field of a compound generator is connected across

both the armature and series field, then the connection is said to be a) Long shunt connection

b) Short shunt connection c) Parallel connection

d) Both a and b

22. Three wire generators are designed to deliver a) 240 or 120 volts from either side of the neutral wire

b) 120 volts or 360 volts c) 220 V or 440 V

d) Both a and c

23. The distortion of the magnetic field is called

a) Armature reaction b) Field reaction

c) Both a and b d) None of these

24. For parallel operation, the generators normally preferred are a) Shunt generators

b) Series generators c) Both a and b

d) Compound generator

25. In D.C generators, a inter pole field coils are connected a) In series with armature winding

b) In parallel with armature winding c) In series with load

d) In parallel with load

26. In D.C generators the brushes are always placed along a) Magnetic neutral axis

b) Geometrical neutral axis

c) Bisector of GNA and MNA d) There is no hard and fast rule for this

27. The range of paper capacitor is given by

a) 200 micro micro farads to several micro farads b) 400 micro farads to 20 micro farads

c) 1 micro farad to 1000 micro farads d) 200 micro farads to 400 micro farads

28. In radio and radar transmitters we generally prefer to use

a) Oil capacitor b) Paper capacitor

c) Mica capacitor

d) Electrolyte capacitor

29. The range of mica capacitor is

a) 50 micro micro farads to 0.02 micro farads b) 10 micro farad to 40 micro farads

c) Greater than 40 micro farads d) None of these

30. Can we apply “KVL” for AC circuit

a) Yes b) No

c) At low frequency we can apply

d) Both a and c

31. Clamper is used to a) Cut any portion of AC cycle

b) Shift its DC level c) Change the frequency

d) Adjust the AC level

32. The output is high only when both input are different. The device is

a) AND gate b) NAND gate

c) EXOR gate d) EXNOR gate

33. A FET is a device, which is a) Current driven

b) Voltage driven c) Power driven

d) None

34. The condition for sustaining oscillations in resonant circuit is a) XL > XC no feed back

b) R = XL and +VE feedback c) XL=XC and positive feedback

d) R=XC no feedback

35. The oscillator, which does not employ LC tank circuit

a) Hartlay

b) Collpit c) Crystal

d) Clapp

36. Advantage of modulation is a) Low frequency signals can be sent over long distance

b) Size of antenna is greatly reduced c) No interference with other transmitters

d) All of the above 37. In frequency modulation

a) The amplitude changes while frequency constant b) The frequency changes while amplitude constant

c) Both constant d) Both vary

38. If the signal frequency band is between 550 – 1500 KHz., and local oscillator frequency band [1045 – 1995] KHz then I.F. will be

a) 405 KHz b) 495 KHz

c) 500 KHz d) 1000 KHz

39. In conductor

a) Valence band is empty only b) Conduction band is full only

c) Both are overlapped d) VB, CB never combined

40. Two resistors (R1, R2) of 30 and 20 ohms respectively, are

connected in parallel across a 20V source. The current through R1

branch would be a) 12A

b) 10A c) 0.8A

d) 0.66A

41. A primary cause of inter-granular corrosion is a) Improper heat treatment

b) Dissimilar metal contact c) Improper application of primer

d) All of the above

42. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to de-

lamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product build-up is called

a) Brinelling b) Granulation

c) Exfoliation d) All of the above

43. Tubular members are protected

a) Internally and externally b) Internally during assembly and sealed to prevent accumulation

of moisture. c) Ultrasonic and Radiological method gives indication of reduction

of thickness during inspection d) All of these

44. If extra strength is required and clearance permit a) Round head rivet may be used

b) Flat head rivet may be used c) Counter sunk rivet may be used

d) It does not matter

45. The rivet fault shown is a) Insufficient hammering

b) Dolly not square c) Snap not square

d) Incorrect snap

46. The rivet fault shown is a) Hole too large

b) Insufficient hammering

c) Incorrect snap d) Snap not square

47. The washer used with castle and castellated shear nut is

a) Lock washer b) Plain washer

c) Flat washer d) Both b) and c)

48. Corrosion should be removed on Mg-alloy component with

a) Metallic bristle brush b) Nylon scrubber

c) Carborundum paper

d) Plain scrapper

49. The type of corrosion that is generally present in aircraft but not

visible is a) Exfoliation

b) Fretting c) Electrolytic

d) Inter-surface

50. Metals are graded as per electrode potential. Thus the most anodic material will

a) Give up electron more easily b) Corrode much faster

c) Resist corrosion d) Both a) and b)

51. The example of tied gyro fitment is a) Artificial Horizon

b) Directional Gyro c) Turn and Bank indicator


52. The turn and Bank indicator is called

a) Turn and slip indicator b) Needle and ball indicator

c) Shows correct execution of a bank and turn and indicate the lateral attitude of aircraft in level flight

d) All of the above

53. Turn pointer of TSI is operated by a gyro driven by

a) Vacuum b) Air pressure

c) Electricity d) All of the above

54. TSI is normally consisting electrical driven gyro so in case of

failure of vacuum driven artificial horizon and direction indicator, it acts as

a) Safety factor b) Stand by instrument for emergency operation

c) Both A and B


55. The fluid inside the slip indicator tube of TSI

a) Provides damping action b) Ensuring smooth movement of the ball


56. The tube of slip indicator is curved so that horizontal position of

the ball tends to seek

a) The lowest point b) The highest point


57. In T.S.I a small projection on the left end of tube contains a bubble of air, which compensates for

a) Expansion of the fluid during change in temperature b) Contraction of the fluid during change in temperature


58. Two stands of wire wound around the glass tube of bank

indicator of T. S. I. a) Fasten the tube to the instrument case

b) Serve as reference makers c) Indicates the correct position of ball in the tube

d) All of the above

59. During coordinated straight and level flight, the force of gravity

causes the ball to rest a) In the lowest part of the tube

b) Centered between the reference wires c) Both A and B


60. Fast erection switch should not be pressed a) Before 15 seconds have elapsed after switching on the supply

b) For more than one minute at a stretch c) Both A and B


61. Faces of soft hammers are specified by

a) Degree of hardness

b) Diameter of face & length of head c) Weight of the head without the handle

d) None

62. In aviation maintenance, the most popularly used drive sizes of sockets are

a) 1/4 & 3/8 inch b) 3/8 & 5/8 inch

c) 1/4 & 3/16 inch d) 1/4 & 5/8 inch

63. Crows foot sockets are available with

a) Open ends only b) Closed ends only

c) Flare nut ends only


64. Adjustable tap wrenches are available to hold taps & reamers of a) About 1/2 inch size

b) 1/2 – 5/8 inch size c) All sizes

d) None

65. The size range of Allen wrench is a) 3/64 – 3/8 inch

b) 3/8 - 5/8 inch c) 3/8 - 1 inch

d) 3/64 - 1/2 inch

66. The offset angle of the open end of a tool post wrench is a) 15 degrees

b) 22 ½ c) 0 degree

d) None

67. Speed handles can be used for turning a) Screws much faster than conventional screwdrivers

b) Nuts much faster than conventional wrench c) Nuts much faster than conventional ratchet wrench


68. The bottoming tap a) Is tapered back for 6 to 7 threads

b) Is tapered back for 2 to 3 threads c) Is tapered back upto its shank

d) None

69. Which type of reamer has less-tendency to chatter? a) Straight fluted reamer

b) Spiral fluted reamer c) Both a and b

d) None

70. A hand drill can be used to drill holes a) Upto 3/8”

b) Upto ¼”

c) 1/8” d) ¾”

PAPER - II

PART XXII

1. c

2. d 3. a

4. c 5. d

6. b

7. d 8. c

9. d 10. c

11. b 12. b

13. b 14. b

15. b 16. a

17. a 18. b

19. d 20. d

21. a

22. a 23. a

24. a 25. a

26. a 27. a

28. a 29. a

30. a 31. b

32. c 33. b

34. c 35. c

36. d

37. b 38. b

39. c

40. d 41. a

42. c 43. d

44. a 45. b

46. b 47. d

48. b 49. c

50. d 51. b

52. d 53. d

54. c

55. c 56. a

57. a 58. d

59. c 60. c

61. a 62. a

63. d 64. c

65. d 66. c

67. d 68. d

69. b

70. b

PAPER - II

PART XXIII

1. Which letter show as process code for achromatise

a) A b) B

c) C

d) D

2. Symbol indicate a) Electrical s/w

b) Chemical s/w c) Electrolytic s/w

d) Electro-thermal s/w


a) Self-locking nut b) Jamb nut

c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin d) None of these


a) Weight and pressure gauge b) Marking on neck

c) By operating the extinguisher d) All of the above

5. Choose incorrect statement

a) Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strength b) Proper tension in rope allows 1” movement

c) Manila rope requires extra slack due to shrinks d) The rope from tail should pull away at about 45o to each side

of tail

6. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check

a) Single base jack b) Bottle neck jack

c) Screw jack d) Tripod jack

7. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for

faster work a) Vernier micrometer

b) Vernier calliper c) Micrometer calliper

d) None of these

8. Which is incorrect statement

a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone

c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating

9. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by

a) Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes

b) Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water

c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3 d) Vacuum blasting

10. A gusset is

a) A bracing between longerons b) A type of connecting bracket

c) Used for fail safe construction d) Like a butt plate

11. The unit where calculations are preferred is called a) Central Processing Unit (CPU)

b) Control Unit c) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)

d) Computing Unit

12. EDP stands for

a) Electrical data processing b) Electronic data processing

c) Entry data processing d) Electronic discrete Programme

13. Assembler is

a) An individual who assembles computer b) Language

c) Program d) None

14. Input unit of computer communicates between

a) Operator and Computer b) Memory with printer

c) CPU with monitor d) Output and computer

15. The Symbol for Hexadecimal is

a) 2 b) 8

c) 10 d) 16


a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition b) Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition

c) Monitor Indicating Computer Relay

d) Mass Information Computer Record

17. Speed of processor is measured in a) Kilobit/Sec

b) Hertz c) Byte

d) RPM

18. A byte is a group of a) 2 bits

b) 4 bits c) 8 bits

d) 16 bits

19. In digital computer system, number of states used is

a) 2 b) 3

c) 8 d) 16


a) Random Operation Memory b) Read and Operate Memory

c) Read Only Memory d) None

21. The energy of a capacitor having capacitance „C‟ and voltage „V‟

is given by

a) 0.5 CV2

b) CV c) C2V

d) 0.5 C2V

22. One unit of magnetic flux is given by a) Weber

b) Weber per meter square c) Square root of Weber

d) Hennery

23. Generators works on the principle of

a) Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction

b) Ohm‟s law c) Biot-severt‟s law

d) Gauss‟s law

24. The Capacitor of a parallel plate is given by a) A є / d

b) A2 є / d c) Ad / є

d) None of these

25. If there are „N‟ number of cells, each having voltage E and internal resistance „r‟ are connected in series, then the resulting

e.m.f of the circuit is given by a) NE volt

b) E/N volt

c) E volt d) NEr volt

26. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely

resistive circuit is given by a) 0o

b) 90o c) 45o

d) 135o

27. One micro farad is equal to a) 0.001 milli farad

b) 100 milli farad

c) 1000 milli farad

d) 10 milli farad

28. The ability of magnet to restore magnetism is called a) Retentivity

b) Permitivity c) Store ability

d) Both a and c

29. If „Im‟ is the maximum current for sine AC then its R.M.S value

is given by a) 0.707 Im

b) Im c) 0.5 Im

d) 1.414 Im

30. The relationship between voltage and current in a purely

inductive circuit is given by a) Voltage leads the current by 90o

b) Current lags the voltage by 90o c) Both a and b

d) None of these

31. By voltage division rule the voltage drop V1 in the circuit will be a) V1=(R2*VS) / (R1+R2)

b) V1=(R1*VS) / (R1+R2) c) V1=VS*(R1+R2) / R1

d) None

32. If inductance is doubled and the capacitance is halved, then

resonant frequency F0 a) Doubled

b) Halved c) Remains Same

d) Squared root of F0

33. 50000000Hz stands for a) 5 MHz

b) 0.5 MHz c) 50 MHz

d) 5000 MHz

34. To smoothen the DC in rectifier, we employ

a) LPF

b) HPF c) BPF

d) None

35. The Voltage / Current across the short circuit a) V=max I=0

b) V=0 I=max c) V=0 I=0

d) V=max I=max

36. The vacuum tube has a) Directly heated anode

b) Indirectly heated cathode c) Directly heated cathode

d) Indirectly heated anode

37. For aircraft generation plant inductor is 1H. The value of capacitor should be

a) 1 / (800 π)2 farad b) (800 π) farads

c) (400 π) farads d) √800 π farads

38. In one time constant, the capacitor charges to

a) 36.8% of its maximum value b) 63.2% of its maximum value

c) 98% of its maximum value d) None

39. The name “Superhet” is used for

a) AM receiver

b) FM receiver c) AM transmitter

d) FM transmitter

40. Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel across a supply, giving 27 ampere., then current through 15 ohm

will be a) 27 amp

b) 12 amp c) 15 amp

d) 1 amp 41. Most effective method of removing rust from ferrous metal is

a) Steel wire brush

b) Sand paper

c) By abrasive blasting d) Washing with hot shop solution

42. A) Rivet smaller than 3/32” diameter are never used on stressed

structure B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117T rivet.

a) Both are correct b) Both are incorrect

c) Only A) is correct d) Only B) is correct

43. Regarding permanent ballast

a) Lead bar or plate is used b) Painted red and placarded

c) Bolted as near as possible to CG

d) Both A and B

44. Transverse pitch is a) Twice the rivet diameter

b) 70% of rivet pitch c) 75% of rivet pitch

d) 6-8 diameter

45. Rivet pitch is a) Distance between center of rivet in a row

b) Distance between edge to center of rivet c) Four times the rivet diameter

d) Both a) and c) are correct

46. Edge distance (minimum) is

a) 4D b) 2D

c) 6-8D d) Any of the above

47. The amount of rivet length used for shop head is

a) 1½” x diameter of rivet b) 4 x diameter of rivet

c) 3 x diameter of rivet d) All of the above

48. Which plating process provide excellent base for paint

a) Cd – Plating b) Zn – Plating

c) Granodizing d) All of the above

49. Which treatment give excellent base for paint

a) CR – Plating b) Parkerizing

c) Metal spraying d) Zn – plating

50. The process use zinc as a medium for plating

a)Parkerizing b) Sheradizing

c) Galvonizing

d) Both b) and c)

51. The earth rotates at its own axis at a rate of a) 20 degrees per hour

b) 30 degrees per hour c) 15 degrees per hour

d) 25 degrees per hour 52. Caging device is used to erect the gyro to its normal operating

condition a) Prior to flight

b) After tumbling of gyro c) Both A and B


53. Gyro horizon

a) Utilizes vertical spin axis gyro b) Provides visual indications of any change of pitch and roll

attitude of aircraft c) Both A and B


54. With gyro horizon in operation gyro rigidity a) Maintains the spin of axis in its normal operating position

b) Maintains horizon bar with respect to aircraft symbol c) A and B both


55. In Electrically driven attitude indicators, the gyro rotates

approx., at a) 20000 rpm

b) 21000 rpm c) 21500 rpm


56. During functional test of direction indicator, the drift should be checked which should not exceed

a) 2 degree in 15 minutes b) 3 degree in 15 minutes

c) 2 degree in 30 minutes d) 3 degree in 30 minutes

57. Performance test of instruments should be carried out

a) Before installation

b) At times when indication and operation are suspected c) At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manual

d) All of the above

58. The mounting of the instruments having flangeless cases is a) From the front of panel

b) Fixing screws and nuts are un-necessary c) A special type of clamp suited to the instrument case is secured

to the rare of the face of the panel d) All the above

59. Direction indicator provides a stabilized directional reference

a) For maintaining a desired course b) For turning on a new heading

c) Used as complementary instrument to direct reading magnetic

compass d) All the above

60. Setting knob at the front of the case of direction indicator is for

a) Setting the magnetic heading b) Caging the gyro assembly to prevent the damage during transit

& installation c) Both a and b


61. While filing a work piece on the lathe, the file should be held at

an angle of ____ to the work piece a) 0 degree

b) 10 degree c) 90 degree

d) 20 degree

62. What should be cutting angle of drill while cutting extremely hard metals?

a) 59 degree b) More than 59 degree

c) Less than 59 degree d) 118 degree

63. The angle of the flute of a drill in relation to the work is the

a) Cutting angle

b) Lip angle c) Web angle

d) Rake angle

64. What do you mean by thinning the point of a drill? a) Decrease the width of the dead centre

b) Increase the width of the dead centre c) Decrease the blade angle of the drill

d) Decrease the lip clearance of the drill

65. What will be the result if the angles of the cutting edges of a drill are equal but the lips are of unequal length?

a) The drill will bind on one side of the hole b) The hole will be larger than the drill

c) Both the points and the lip will be off centre

d) Both „b‟ and „c‟ are correct

66. A centre drill is used a) For drilling holes of accurate size

b) For drilling a short drilled hole and countersink hole in one operation

c) As in „b‟ and has an included angle of 65 degree d) None

67. Which reamer is considered as a rough reamer?

a) Rose reamer

b) Shell reamer

c) Chucking expansion reamer d) Jobber‟s reamer

68. Worm threads have a thread angle of

a) 45 degrees and is similar to ACME threads b) 29 degrees and is similar to ACME threads

c) 29 degrees and depth of threads are deeper than ACME threads d) 29 degrees and ACME threads are deeper than worm threads

69. In the picture, if the torque to be applied to the fastener is 225

inch-pounds, then what should be the pointer of the wrench read? a) Around 260 inch -pounds

b) 150 inch –pounds c) 225 inch- pounds

d) 180 inch -pounds

70. The figure shown here is of a) A simple gear train and the gear „D‟ moves at half speed of gear

„A‟ b) As in „a‟ & and the gear „D ‟moves in the same direction of the

gear „A‟ c) A compound gear train & the gear „D‟ moves in the opposite

direction of the gear „A‟ d) A simple gear train and the gear „D‟ moves in the opposite

direction at a double speed of gear „A‟

100T 30 30 50T

A B C D

PAPER - II

PART XXIII

1. b

2. c

3. b 4. a

5. a 6. d

7. b 8. c

9. c 10. b

11. c 12. b

13. c 14. a

15. d 16. a

17. b

18. c 19. a

20. c 21. a

22. a 23. a

24. a 25. a

26. a 27. a

28. a 29. a

30. c 31. b

32. c

33. c 34. a

35. b 36. b

37. a 38. b

39. a 40. b

41. c 42. c

43. d 44. c

45. d 46. b

47. a 48. c

49. b 50. d

51. c 52. c

53. c

54. c 55. b

56. b 57. d

58. d 59. d

60. c 61. b

62. b 63. d

64. a 65. d

66. b 67. a

68. c

69. d 70. d

PAPER - II

PART XXIV

1. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline

upto height of _____________ above water line (a) 1 Feet (b) 2 Feet

(c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter

2. Mark the correct statements

a)Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal

b)Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method c)Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease

d)All of the above

3. Evidence of surface corrosion and extent of pitting should be tested by (a) Hardness testing (b) Impact testing

(c) Probing with a fine needle (d) None of these

4. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless formed ________________

due to high temperature (a) Crevice corrosion (b) Electrolytic corrosion

(c) Inter-granular corrosion (d) Stress corrosion

5. Which type of corrosion is occurred in mounting bolts of engine and wings ?

(a) Inter-granular corrosion (b) Stress corrosion (c) Concentrating cell corrosion (d) Fettling corrosion

6. Heated section checked with magnet for corrosion detection, basically

that indicate their relative (a) Conductivity of part (b) Permeability of part

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

7. Which is most suitable condition for storage of Aircraft part?

(a) Less than 60% humidity (b) Equal to 60% humidity (c) More than 60% humidity (d) None of these

8. Paint stripper is removed with

(a) Steel wool (b) Emery cloth (c) Aluminium wool (d) Non-metallic material

9. Which type of stripper is used on plastic or windows parts?

(a) Water-miscible paint remover (b) Solvent-miscible paint remover

(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

10. Anodic film can be removed by a solution of

a) 10% Sulphuric acid + 4% Potassium fluoride b) 20% Sulphuric acid + 10% Potassium fluoride

c) 20% Sulphuric acid + 20% Potassium fluoride d) All of the above

11. Chromate film treatment is carried on __________ material (a) Al-alloy (b) Mg-alloy

(c) Steel-Alloy (d) Titanium

12. Cadmium plating can be removed by (a) Mechanical cleaning (b) Chemical cleaning

(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

13. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steel a) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solution

b) Phosphoric acid can also be used c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surface

d) All of the above

14. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of Al-

alloys a) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent

b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemically c) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed mechanically

d) All of the above

15. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up action of chromate bearing conversion coating treatment?

(a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover (b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover

(c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water (d) Nitric acid + water

Which acid is used for cleaning of Mg-alloy?

(a) Chromic acid (b) Phosphoric acid

(c) Nitric acid (d) Sulphuric acid

16. Steel and Non-clad Al-alloy can be cleaned by (a) Wet glass paper (b) Dry emery paper

(c) Dry sand paper (d) As in (a) & water acts as lubricants

17. Which type of scraper is used for corrosion removal on casting or

forging parts? (a) Steel carbide tipped (b) Plastic copped tip

scraper (c) Abrasive tipped cap scraper (d) None of these

18. Mark the correct statement regarding battery component a)Lead-acid battery compartment neutralized by bi-carbonate of soda

b) Ni-Cd battery compartment neutralized by acetic acid

c) The sump vent jar containing moist absorbent pad with neutralizing agent

d) All of these

19. Human wastes corrode the lavatory area, because it is ________ in nature

(a) Acidic (b) Caustic (c) Neutralizing agent (d) None of these

20. Grip length of the bolt is

(a) Total length of the bolt (b) Plain sank portion of the bolt

(c) Length under the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt (d) None of these

21. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is (a) 10 ounce hammer (b) 20 ounce hammer

(c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer (d) Sledge hammer

22. AN 4-7 bolt shows (a) 7/8” dia (b) ¼” length (c) 4”length

(d) ¼”dia

23. Bolt of class 4 fit is (a) Loose fit (b) Free fit

(c) Close fit (d) Tight fit

24. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where (a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface (b) Bolt is

installed head down

(c) It can be used any where (d) None of these

25. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is

(a) AN 936 (b) AN 935 (c) AN 970 (d) AN 960

26. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is

(a) Plain nut (b) Castle nut

(c) Castellated shear nut (d) Self locking nut

27. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the centre of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should

be (d is diameter of rivet) (a) 2d to 4d (b) 8d (c) 6d (d) 75% of

the pitch

28. Pitch of the rivet should be

(a) 1½ d (b) 6d to 8d (c) 1½ x d (d) All of these

29. The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet

is (a) 2 d (b) 4 d (c) 1½ x d

(d) 8 d

30. Chamfering of the patch plate is done at the angle of (a) 25 ° (b) 45 ° (c) 60 ° (d) 15 °

31. In patch repair, clearance between the rivet and hole should be

(a) 0.008” (b) 0.5” (c) 0.002” to 0.004” (d) 0.4”

32. A rivet with part no. AN 470 AD 3-5 is having a diameter of (a) 3/32” (b) 5/32” (c) 3/16” (d) 5/16”

33. Seam welding is

(a) Pressure welding (b) Non-pressure welding (c) Electric resistance (d) Both (a) & (c)



35. Spot welding electrodes should be

(a) Good conductor of Electricity (b) Good conductor of heat

(c) High strength & Hardness (d) Both (a) & (c)


(a) Filler rod precedes torch (b) Torch precedes filler rod

(c) A 60° V is prepared at the end of plate (d) Both (a) & (c)

37. The color of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is

(a) Maroon & Black (b) Black & Maroon

(c) Yellow & Black (d) Black & Yellow

38. Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane of articulation through

(a) 120 ° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) None

39. For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement

(e) Every third inner plate is extended in one direction

(f) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction (g) Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction

(h) All are wrong

PAPER - II

PART XXIV

ANSWERS :

1B 2C 3C 4C

5D 6B 7A 8D

9C 10A 11B 12C

13D 14D 15B 16A

17D 18A 19D 20A

21C 22A 23D 24C

25B 26C 27A 28A

29C 30C 31C 32A

33D 34D 35A 36D

37A 38A 39 40

PAPER - II

PART XXV

1. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is split in the battery

compartment, which procedure should be followed

(a) Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by the water rinse

(b) Rinse the affected area thoroughly with the clean water. (c) Apply sodium-bi-carbonate solution to the affected area followed by

the water rinse (d) All of the above

2. Which of the following can provide the empty weight on an aircraft if the

aircraft‟s weight and balance record become lost, destroyed or otherwise inaccurate

(a) Re-weighing the aircraft (b) Aircraft specification

(c) Type certificate datasheet (d) Flight manual

3. The useful load of an aircraft consists of (a) Crew, useable fuel, passengers and cargo

(b) Crew, useable fuel, oil and fixed equipments (c) Crew, passengers, useable fuel, oil, cargo and fixed equipments


4. The maximum weight of an aircraft is (a) Empty weight + crew, maximum fuel weight

(b) Maximum fuel weight, cargo, baggage and passenger (c) Empty weight + crew, passengers and fixed equipments

(d) Empty weight + useful loads

5. Zero fuel weight is (a) Dry weight + the weight of full crew, passenger and cargo

(b) Basic operating weight without crew, fuel and cargo

(c) Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft without fuel (d) None of the above

6. Amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding C.G

is (a) Empty fuel tanks

(b) Useable fuel (c) The amount of fuel necessary for half hour of operation

(d) Full tank fuel

7. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are replaced in an

airplane so that their distance from C.G are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively.

How far forward of the C.G should a third box weighing 20 pounds be placed so that the C.G will not be changed.

(a) 3 feet (b) 2.5 feet (c) 3.5 feet (d) 8 feet 8. Flexible hose used in aircraft system is classified with

(a) Outside diameter (b) Wall thickness (c) Inside diameter (d) Outside dia-inside dia

9. Scratch or Nicks on the straight portion of aluminium alloy tubing may

be repaired if they are no deeper than

(a) 20% of the wall thickness (b) 1/32 inch or 20% of wall thickness, whichever is less

(c) 10% of the wall thickness (d) None of these

10. When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing

(a) Paint should be removed (b) Paint clamp and tube after installation

(c) Leave as it is (d) Remove paint or anodizing from tube and clamp location

11. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compare to 3.8 inch

metal tubing used in the same system will (a) Have about the same outer diameter

(b) Have equivalent flow characteristic

(c) Usually have interchangeable application (d) Have same internal diameter

12. What method of magnetic particles inspection is used often to inspect

aircraft parts for invisible cracks (a) Residual (b) Inductance

(c) Intermittent (d) Continuous

13. In performing a dye-penetrate inspection, the developer (a) Act as blotter to produce a visible indication

(b) Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of cracks (c) Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to the inspection

(d) Perform no function

14. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundary of aluminium alloy

which are improperly or inadequately heat treated (a) Filiform (b) Intergranular

(c) Fretting (d) Strain

15. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is

(a) Upward or in a forward direction (b) Downward or in a forward direction

(c) Downward or in a rearward direction (d) Upward or in a rearward direction

16. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an

(a) AN corrosion resistance steel (b) NAS standard aircraft bolt

(c) NAS closed tolerance bolt (d) Magnetic resistance bolt

17. A bolt with an X-inside a triangle on the head is classified as an (a) AN corrosion resistance steel bolt

(b) NAS aircraft bolt (c) NAS closed tolerance bolt

(d) Aluminium bolt

18. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plain of rotation of a disc

(a) Dial indicator (b) Shaft gauge (c) Protector (d) Micro meter

19. Weather waning tendency is greatest than taxying

(a) Either type of aeroplane in a quartering tail wind (b) A tail wheel type aeroplane in a direct cross wind

(c) In a nose wheel type aeroplane quartering head wind

(d) A tail wheel type aeroplane parallel wind

20. When taxying an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means

(a) Move clear of the runway/taxy way immediately (b) OK to proceed but used extreme caution

(c) Return to starting point (d) Stop where are

21. The color of 100 ll fuel is

(a) Blue (b) Colorless or straw (c) Red (d) Green

22. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause

(a) Vapour lock (b) Detonation (c) Hard starting

(d) None

23. Nickel cadmium battery case and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of

(a) Boric acid (b) Sodium bi-carbonate (c) Potassium hydroxide (d) Sodium chloride

24. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of

(a) Excessive Anodization (b) Contact between two unlike metals

(c) Excessive etching (d) Surface carburization

25. Which material is the most acidic (a) Cadmium (b) Magnesium (c) Copper (d) Gold

26. Speed of sound in the atmosphere

(a) Varies according to the frequency of sound

(b) Varies according to the temperature (c) Varies according to the pressure


27. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of (a) Wing span to the wind root

(b) Square of the chord to the wing span (c) Wing span to the mean chord

28. A wing with a very high aspect ratio will have

(a) Low drag at high angles of attack (b) A low stall speed

(c) Good control at low speed (d) All of the above

29. Vicious cycle is connected to (a) Nickel cadmium battery (b) Sulphuric acid battery

(c) Dry cell (d) None of the above

30. Basically corrosion reduces the strength of materials by the process of (a) Chemical reaction (b) Electrochemical reaction

(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Electromagnetic process

31. Evidence corrosion on stainless steel is an appearance of (a) Brown color rust (b) Green color scum

(c) White color debris (d) None of these

32. When corrosion product is removed from surface corrosion, then which type of corrosion is appeared on it?

(a) Oxidation corrosion (b) Dry corrosion

(c) Pitting corrosion (d) Wet corrosion

33. The metal that is oxidized due to the corrosion attack that is called as (a) Neutralized agent (b) Anodic change

(c) Cathodic change (d) None of these

34. Mark the correct statement: (a) Under corrosive environment, most active metal become cathodic

(b) Under influence of corrosive agent less active metal become anodic (c) Established condition for corrosion due to the presence of anode and

cathode is called as local cell (d) All of the above are true

35. Types of corrosion depends upon

(a) Type of materials (b) Size of metal (c) Shape of metal (d) All of the above

36. Crevice corrosion is an example of (a) Surface corrosion (b) Concentration cell corrosion

(c) Electrolytic cell corrosion (d) Exfoliation corrosion

37. Which type of corrosion occurs in high-strength materials used as brackets, attached to Al-alloy skin of aircraft

(a) Galvanic corrosion (b) Fretting corrosion (c) Stress corrosion (d) Dry corrosion

38. “Coca” is formed in which type of corrosion?

(a) Filiform corrosion (b) Exfoliation corrosion (c) Fretting corrosion (d) Microbial corrosion

39. Which type of corrosion will occur in welded parts?

(a) Stress corrosion (b) Inter-crystalline corrosion

(c) Fretting corrosion (d) Dissimilar metal corrosion

40. Stress corrosion can be prevented by (a) Shot-penning

(b) Shot-bursting (c) As in (a) & increase in the fatigue strength

(d) As in (a) & increase in the tensile strength

PAPER - II

PART XXV

ANSWERS:

1 2 3 4

5 6 7 8

9 10 11 12

13 14 15 16

17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24

25 26 27 28

29 30C 31D 32C

33B 34C 35D 36B

37A 38C 39B 40C

PAPER - II

PART XXVI

1. In tapered sectioned metal piece, which area is more susceptible to corrosion

(a) Exterior surface (b) Interior surface (c) Thin portion (d) Thick portion


(a) Inter-crystalline corrosion occurs along grain boundaries of an alloy (b) This is a from of electrochemical attack

(c) As in (b) & occurs due to lack of uniformity (d )All of the above

3. Stress corrosion can be detected by

(a) Eddy current (b) Dye-penetrant

(c) X-ray (d) Ultrasonic method

4. Speed of electro-chemical attack is increased in _________ climate (a) Hot and dry (b) Cold and moist

(c) Hot & moist (d) Cold & dry

5. Which type of acid is produced by electrical sparks when combined with moisture in confined spaces?

(a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Phosphoric acid (d) Chromic acid

6. Which type of corrosion is present in contact area of metal and non-metal

joint? (a) O2 concentration cell corrosion

(b) Metal ion concentration cell corrosion

(c) Filiform corrosion (d) Crevice corrosion


(a) The fungus grows at the fuel/water interface (b) As in (a) & temperature range is in between 50°-60°F.

(c) As in (b) & this occurs in integral fuel tank (d) As in (c) & this produces a microbial corrosion

8. Which corrosion is occurred due to improper heat-treatment and welding

defects? (a) Metabolic corrosion (b) Inter-granular corrosion

(c) Trans-granular corrosion (d) Weld decay corrosion

9. Which of the following coating function as sacrificial protection?

(a) Chromium plating (b) Galvanizing (c) Cladding (d) Metal spraying


(a) Self-locking nut (b) Jamb but (c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin (d) None of these

11. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is

checked by

(a) Weight and pressure gauge (b) Marking on neck (c) By operating the extinguisher (d) All of the

above

12. Choose incorrect statement: (a) Yellow polypropylene provide insufficient strength

(b) Proper tension in rope allows 1” movement (c) Manila rope requires extra slack due to shrinks

(d) The rope requires extra slack due to shrinks

13. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check (a) Single base jack (b) Bottle neck jack

(c) Screw jack (d) Tripod jack

14. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for

faster work (a) Vernier micrometer (b) Vernier caliper

(c) Micrometer caliper (d) None of these

15. Which is incorrect statement (a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced

(b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with para-ketone (c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay

(d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating

16. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by (a) Immersing them in like warm water for 30 minutes

(b) Mechanical means, i.e. wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water

(c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3

(d) Vacuum blasting

17. A gusset is (a) A bracing between longerons (b) A type of connecting

bracket (c) Used for fail safe construction (d) Like a butt plate

18. The unit where calculations are preferred is called

(a) Central processing unit (CPU) (b) Control Unit (c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) (d) Computing unit

19. EDP stands for

(a) Electrical data processing (b) Electronic data processing

(c) Entry data processing (d) Electronic discrete programme

20. Assembler is

(a) An individual who assembles computer (b) Language

(c) Program (d) None of the above

21. Input unit of computer communicates between

(a) Operator and Computer (b) Memory with printer (c) CPU with monitor (d) Output and Computer

22. The symbol for Hexadecimal is

(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 16


(a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (b) Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition

(c) Monitor Indicating Computer Relay (d) Mass Information Computer Record

24. Speed of processor is measured in

(a) Kilobit / Sec (b) Hertz (c) Byte (d) RPM

25. A byte is a group of (a) 2 bits (b) 4 bits (c) 8 bits (d) 16 bits

26. In digital computer system, number of states used is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 8 (d) 16


(a) Random Operation Memory (d) Read and Operate Memory

(c) Read only Memory (d) None

28. The energy of a capacitor having capacitance „C‟ and voltage „V‟ is given by

(a) 0.5 CV2 (b) CV (c) C2V (d) 0.5 C2V

29. One unit of magnetic flux is given by

(a) Weber (b) Weber per meter square (c) Square root of Weber (d) Henery

30. Generators works on the principle of (a) Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction

(b) Ohm‟s law (c) Biot - severt‟s law

(d) Gauss‟s law

31. The Capacitor of a parallel plate is given by

(a) Ac / d (b) A2C / d (c) Ad / c (d) None

32. If there are „N‟ number of cells, each having voltage E and internal resistance „r‟ are connected in series, then the resulting e.m.f of the circuit is

given by (a) NE volt (b) E/N volt (c) E volt (d) NEr volt

33. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive

circuit is given by (a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 135°

34. One micro farad is equal to

(a) 0.001 milli farad (b) 100 milli farad

(c) 1000 milli farad (d) 10 milli farad

35. The ability of magnet to restore magnetism is called (a) Retentivity (b) Permitivity

(c) Store ability (d) both (a) & (c)

36. If „Im‟ is the maximum current for sine AC then its R.M.S value is given by

(a) 0.707 Im (b) Im (c) 0.5 Im (d) 1.414 Im

37. The relationship between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit

is given by (a) Voltage leads the current by 90°

(b) Current lags the voltage by 90°

(c) both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above

38. By voltage division rule the voltage drop V1 in the circuit will be

(a) V1 = (R2 x Vs) / (R1+R2) (b) V1 = (R1 x Vs) / (R1+R2)

(c) V1 = Vs x (R1+R2) / R1

(d) None

39. If inductance is doubled and the capacitance is halved , then resonant

frequency F0

(a) Doubled (b) Halved

(c) Remains same (d) Squared root of F0

40. 50000000 Hz stands for (a) 5 MHz (b) 0.5 MHz (c) 50MHz (d) 500

MHz

PAPER - II

PART XXVI

ANSWERS:

1D 2D 3B 4C

5B 6D 7A 8B

9C 10B 11A 12A

13D 14B 15C 16C

17B 18C 19B 20C

21A 22D 23A 24B

25C 26A 27C 28A

29A 30A 31A 32A

33A 34A 35A 36A

37C 38B 39C 40 C

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