physics sams

GCSE PhysicsSpecimen Assessment Materials

For first teaching from September 2011

For first assessment from Summer 2012For first award in Summer 2013

Subject Code: 1210

DraftAccredited Specimen Assessment MaterialsPre-publication version: March 2011

Foreword The awarding bodies have prepared new specifications to comply with revised GCSE and subject criteria. The specimen assessment materials accompanying new specifications are provided to give centres guidance on the structure and character of the planned assessments in advance of the first assessment. It is intended that the specimen assessment materials contained in this booklet will help teachers and students to understand, as fully as possible, the markers’ expectations of candidates’ responses to the types of tasks and questions set at GCSE level. These specimen assessment materials should be used in conjunction with CCEA’s GCSE Physics specification.

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Pre-publication version: March 2011

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GCSE Physics Specimen Assessment Materials

Contents Specimen Papers 1

Unit P1 Foundation Tier 3 Unit P1 Higher Tier 21 Unit P2 Foundation Tier 41 Unit P2 Higher Tier 63 Mark Schemes 87

General Marking Instructions 89 Unit P1: Foundation Tier 91 Unit P1: Higher Tier 101 Unit P2: Foundation Tier 111 Unit P2: Higher Tier 121 Controlled Assessment 131

Controlled Assessment Task (CAT) and Guidance Notes for Teachers 133 Controlled Assessment Task: Candidate Response Booklet A 137 Controlled Assessment Task: Candidate Response Booklet B 143 Controlled Assessment Mark Scheme 151

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Subject Code QAN

xxxxx xxxx/xxxx/

A CCEA Publication © 2011

You may download further copies of this publication from www.ccea.org.uk

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1

SPECIMEN PAPERS

DIVIDER FRONT

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2

SPECIMEN PAPERS

DIVIDER BACK

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3

General Certificate of Secondary Education

2011

TIME

1 hour 15 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your Centre Number and Candidate Number in the spaces provided at the top of this page. Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper. Answer all questions.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

The total mark for this paper is 80. Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the marks awarded to each question or part question. Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(b) and 3(b).

For Examiner’s use only

Question Number Marks

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Total Marks

Science: Physics

Unit P1

Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

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1 (a) A petrol engine converts the chemical energy in the fuel to both useful forms of energy and unwanted forms of energy. Measurements show that for every 1000J of input energy only 350J of useful output energy is produced.

(i) Using these measurements calculate how much unwanted energy is

produced.

Unwanted energy = ________J [1] (ii) Write down the formula used to calculate the efficiency of this petrol

engine.

__________________________ [1] (iii) Calculate the efficiency of this petrol engine.

You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Efficiency = ________________ [2]

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(b) The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a constant output of electricity. Discuss, with explanation, the reliability of wind farms, nuclear power stations and coal-fired power stations. In each case give the type of energy which is initially obtained from the energy resource from which the electricity is finally derived. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms.

_________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ [6]

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The most common energy resources used in Europe today are:

oil natural gas coal

(c)

nuclear energy hydroelectric wind energy (i) Choose one non-renewable energy resource from the list above and explain

why it is non-renewable.

Non-renewable energy resource: Explanation: [2]

(ii) Choose one renewable energy resource from the list above and explain why

it is renewable.

Renewable energy resource: Explanation: [2]

(iii) Global warming in seen by many as a major threat to many countries.

Nuclear power is seen by some as a solution to the energy needs of a country without causing further global warming. Explain why this is the case.

_____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ [2]

(iv) Name the fuel used in nuclear power stations.

_____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ [1]

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2 (a) (i) Mass is measured in kilograms (kg) and weight is measured in newtons (N). State what is meant by mass and what is meant by weight.

Mass is

Weight is [2]

(ii) State how the weight of an object is calculated when its mass is known.

____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ [2]

(b) (i) A car is pulled forward and begins to move along a road in the direction

shown below. After a few seconds the car is moving at a constant speed of 2m/s. Label clearly the two horizontal forces acting on the car.

[2] (ii) What can you say about the size of these two forces?

____________________________________________________________ [1]

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(iii) The car then accelerates forward along the horizontal road. It takes 3 seconds to increase its speed from 2m/s to 20m/s. Calculate the acceleration (rate of change of speed). You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Acceleration = ________________m/s2 [3] (c) The diagram shows an object moving in a circle.

(i) On the diagram draw an arrow to show the direction of the centripetal force acting on the object. Label this arrow F. [1]

(ii) On the diagram draw an arrow to show the direction the object would move

if this force were removed. Label this arrow v. [1] (iii) What happens to the size of this centripetal force if the mass of the object

moving in the circle is increased?

____________________________________________________________ [1]

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3 (a) John wants to measure the density of a rock. He finds the volume of the rock using the apparatus shown below.

(i) What volume does the smallest division on the scale of the graduated cylinder show?

Volume =______________ [2]

(ii) Using data taken from the diagram calculate the volume of rock.

Volume =__________cm3 [2] (iii) The mass of the rock was measured and found to be 36g.

Calculate the density of the rock. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer. Remember to give the correct unit for density.

Density of the rock = _____________ [3]

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(iv) John then measures the mass and the volume of a number of rocks. He then plots his results on a graph as shown below.

Which three rocks are made of the same material? Explain how you used the graph to arrive at this conclusion. ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ [3]

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(b) Using the ideas of the kinetic theory, describe and explain how solids change to liquids and liquids change to gases. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms. _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ [6]

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4 (a) Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.

(i) He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.

Calculate the work done by Kevin as he climbs the rope. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Work done =________________ J [2] (ii) He takes 6.0 seconds to climb the 3.0 metres.

Calculate the power generated by Kevin as he climbed the rope. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Power = ________________ W [3]

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(b) A nail gun fires nail of mass 5g with a speed of 20m/s.

Calculate the kinetic energy of the nail as it leaves the gun.


Kinetic energy =________________J [3]

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5 To study the motion of a ball down a curved runway the apparatus shown below was set up. The ball is released at various points along the runway. The height above the table at each point is H. When it reaches the bottom it travels through the air and the point where it hits the floor is marked. The distance S from the bottom of the table to this point of impact is measured.

For each value of H the ball was released three times and the value of S in each case

recorded. The measurements of the height H and the distance S were taken and are shown in the table below.

Distance S in cm Height (H)

in cm First value Second value Third value Average

value of S in cm

10 60 61 59 60 20 88 90 92 90 30 111 110 109 40 120 122 118

(a) (i) Using the data given in the table calculate the average value of S for each

height H. Write your answers in the spaces on the table. You may use the space below for your calculations. Two values have been calculated for you. [2]

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(ii) Plot a graph on the grid below to help you find out if the average distance S is proportional to the height H.

[5]

(iii) Is the average distance S proportional to the height H?

Explain your answer.

____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ [3]

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6 (a) The diagram below represents a helium atom.

(i) Name the particles or the part of the atom indicated by the arrows. Write your answers in the boxes provided. [1]

(ii) Although the atom contains charged particles it is electrically neutral.

Explain why this is so.

____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ [2]

(iii) Helium has the chemical symbol He. Complete the symbol for the nucleus

of the helium atom above by writing the appropriate numbers in the smaller boxes. For each box state what the number means. Write your answer to this part in the larger box.

[4]

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(b) A radioactive atom decays by emitting a beta (β) particle.

(i) What is a beta (β) particle?

____________________________________________________________ [1] (ii) The radioactive material which emitted this beta (β) particle has a half-life

of 46 days. Explain what this means.

____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ [2]

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7 To measure the range of alpha (α) particles in air the apparatus shown below was set up. The number of alpha particles reaching the detector in a 30 second period was measured at increasing distances from the source of alpha particles.

The graph below shows the results of this investigation.

(i) When the detector is 6cm from the alpha particle source how many alpha

particles reach the detector every second. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Number of α particles per second = ________________ [2]

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(ii) State the approximate range of α particles indicated by the graph.

Range = ________________cm [2] (iii) Explain why the detector does not give a reading of zero.

_________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ [2]

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___________________________________________

THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER ___________________________________________

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\


2011

TIME

1 hour 30 minutes




The total mark for this paper is 100. Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the marks awarded to each question or part question. Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(b), 2(b), 3(b) and 7(e).



1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Total Marks

Science: Physics

Unit P1

Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

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1 (a) Many countries see global warming as a major threat. (i) Some countries see nuclear power stations as a solution to their energy

needs which doesn’t cause further global warming. Explain why. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

(ii) State the main environmental disadvantage of using nuclear power to

generate electricity. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

(iii) Uranium is used as the fuel in most nuclear power stations. How does the

amount of uranium needed compare with the amount of coal or oil needed to fuel a power station with the same energy output? __________________________________________________________ [1]

(iv) All power stations, when they come to the end of their useful life have to

be de-commissioned. What does this mean?__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [1]

(v) State one problem of decommissioning a nuclear power station compared

with one that used fossil fuel. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [1]

(vi) Using wind energy in the form of wind turbines (wind farms) for

generating electricity is never likely to be a solution to our energy needs. Explain why. __________________________________________________________ [1]

(vii) Many view wind farms as an eyesore on the landscape.

State one other environmental disadvantage they have. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [1]

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(b) The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a constant output of electricity. Discuss, with explanation, the reliability of wind farms, nuclear power stations and coal-fired power stations. In each case give the type of energy which is initially obtained from the energy resource from which the electricity is finally derived. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms.

_______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [6]

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2 (a) A car sits at rest at the top of a roller coaster ride as shown in the diagram below. The brake is released and the car travels down the slope.

(i) On the diagram mark and label two forces acting on the car when it is moving. [2]

(ii) At the bottom of the slope the car reaches a speed of 27m/s and continues

along a horizontal track in which a braking system is operated. The deceleration of the car is 6m/s2. Calculate the time taken to come to rest. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Time taken = ________________seconds [3] (iii) The mass of the car is 1000kg.

The force applied to the car by the braking system is 5000N. Calculate the additional frictional force provided by air resistance which brings the car to rest. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Additional Frictional Force = ________________N [3]

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(b) A sky diver jumps from an aircraft and for a time falls through the air without her parachute open. After a time she opens the parachute. The graph below shows how the velocity of a skydiver changes as she falls through the air. Her parachute opens at the time marked.

Describe and explain how her acceleration changes as she descends. You should concentrate on the periods OA, BC and DE. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [6]

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3 (a) John was asked to measure the density of a number of rocks. He measured the mass and volume of a number of each and plotted his results on a graph as shown below.

(i) Which three rocks are made of the same material? Explain how you used the graph to arrive at this conclusion. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [3]

(ii) One of the rocks was found to have a density of 3.5g/cm3.

What would be the mass of this rock if its volume was 4cm3?

Mass = ________________g [1]

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(b) Using the ideas of kinetic theory, describe and explain how solids change to liquids and liquids change to gases. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [6]

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4 (a) Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.

(i) He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.

Calculate the work done by Kevin as he climbs the rope. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Work done = ________________J [2]

(ii) Kevin can develop a power of 200 W as he climbs the rope.

Calculate how long it takes him to climb 3.0 metres up the rope. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Time = ________________s [3]

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(b) A nail gun fires a nail of mass 5g. The nail leaves the gun with a kinetic energy of 1J.

(i) Calculate the velocity of the nail as it leaves the gun. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Velocity = ________________m/s [3] (ii) The nail gun is used to fix two pieces of wood together as shown in the

photograph. The nail penetrates a distance of 0.005m into the wood. Calculate the average force opposing the nail as it penetrates into the wood. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Opposing force = ________________N [4]

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(c) An electric motor is used to raise a load. Describe, in detail, how the apparatus could be used to measure the output power of the motor.

_________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ [4]

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5 (a) To study the motion of a ball down a runway, the apparatus shown below was set up. The ball is released at various points along the runway. The height above the table at each point is H. When it reaches the bottom it travels through the air and the point where it hits the floor is marked. The distance S from the bottom of the table to this point of impact is measured.

For each value of H the ball was released several times and an average value of S was calculated. The measurements of the height H and the average value of the distance S are shown in the table below.

Height (H) in cm

Average value of S in cm

10 60 20 90 30 110 40 120

(i) Give two reasons why repeating the measurements is good

experimental practice. 1 __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ 2 __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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(ii) Plot a graph on the grid below to help you find out if the distance S is proportional to height H.

[5] (iii) Is the distance S proportional to the height H? Explain your answer.

____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________

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6 (a) A large steel beam weighs 20,000N. A crane is used to raise this large steel beam into a vertical position, pivoting it about one end. The crane exerts a force F to just lift the end A of the beam off the ground. The length of the beam is 5m. This arrangement is shown in the diagram below.

(i) The beam can be treated as a lever. Mark clearly with the letter P

the pivot. [1] (ii) On the diagram above, draw an arrow to show where and in what direction

the weight of the beam acts. Assume the beam is of uniform width. [2]

(iii) By applying the principle of moments, calculate the size of the upward force

F that the crane must exert to just raise end A of the beam off the ground. Remember the beam weighs 20,000N. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Upward force F = ________________ N [4]

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(b) A car travelling at 20m/s collides with another car. The passenger, who is not wearing a seatbelt, continues to move forward hitting the dashboard in a collision that lasts 0.1 seconds.

(i) Calculate the value of the force that the windscreen exerts on the

passenger’s head. Assume the mass of the passenger is 50kg. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Force = ________N [4] (ii) Explain, in detail, how a seat belt would have protected the passenger

from serious injury.

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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(iii) To test springs that might be used in the crumple zone of a car the following tests were carried out. A 1kg mass was dropped from different heights H onto a platform attached to a spring as shown in the diagram below. The compression of the spring C was measured.

The measurements obtained are shown in the table below.

Height (H) in m

Compression (C) in cm

0 0 1 0.45 2 0.63 3 0.77 4 0.89

It is believed that the variables H and C are related by the equation C2 = kH. k is a constant that depends on the strength of the spring. 1. Without drawing a graph use the values in the table to show that this equation is correct. 2. Find the value for k. Show all calculations in the space below and give values to two decimal places.

k = ________ [4]

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7 (a) Radioactive substances emit alpha, beta and gamma radiations. In the table below describe the nature of each of these radiations.

Radiation Nature Alpha (α) Beta (β) Gamma (γ) [3]

(b) A radioactive atom of uranium decays by emitting a beta (β) particle.

(i) Complete the decay equation for this process by writing the appropriate

numbers in the boxes.

[4] (ii) The beta (β) decay process for this radioactive material has a half-life of 46

days. How many days pass before the activity falls by 75% of its initial value?

Days passed = ________ [1]

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(c) To measure the range of alpha (α) particles in air the apparatus shown below was set up. The number of alpha particles reaching the detector in a 30 second period was measured at increasing distances from the source of alpha particles.

The graph below shows the results of this investigation.

State the approximate range of α particles indicated by the graph.

Range = ________cm [2]

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(d) In the oil industry several companies may share the same oil pipeline to transport their oil. They need to know when one company’s oil stops and another company’s begins. Each company adds a radioactive substance (radioisotope) to the first part of the batch of oil. A detector (Geiger counter) and counter will then show when the oil containing this radioisotope passes.

What type of radiation must be emitted by the radioisotope in the oil for this method

to work? Give a reason for your answer.

Type of radiation ________________

_______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [2]

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((e) In 1910 an historic experiment was carried out. The experiment was designed to find out more about the structure of the atom. In the experiment alpha (α) particles were directed at a very thin metal foil.

Describe and explain the observations that were made and how each one provides information on the charge, the size and the mass of the nucleus of the atom. This question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms.

________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ [6]

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___________________________________________

THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

___________________________________________

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2011

TIME

1 hour 30 minutes




The total mark for this paper is 90. Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the marks awarded to each question or part question. Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(c)(ii) and 8(a).



1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Total Marks

Science: Physics

Unit P2

Foundation Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

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1 (a) Two mirrors, M1 and M2, are placed at right angles to one another. The diagram below shows a ray of light incident on mirror M1 and at an angle of 27° to its surface.

(i) On the diagram, accurately draw the path of the ray reflected from

mirror M1 and M2. [2] (ii) Calculate the angle of reflection at mirror M2.


Angle of reflection at mirror M2 = ________________° [2]

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(b) The diagram below shows a fish in a pond. A person looking into the pond sees the fish not at its true position but at the position shown in the diagram.

Complete the diagram to show how the man sees the fish. Draw an arrow on

the given ray to show its direction. [2]

(c) The diagram shows a ray of white light being dispersed by a triangular glass prism.

(i) On the diagram label the two colours at the top and bottom of the

spectrum. [1]

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(ii) Explain, in detail, how this spectrum is produced by the prism. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [6]

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2 (a) (i) All waves have a wavelength and a frequency. Electromagnetic waves have changing electric and magnetic fields. Name one other property common to all electromagnetic waves. _______________________________________________________ [1]

(ii) In the boxes below write the names of the various groups of

electromagnetic waves in order of increasing wavelength (as shown by the arrow). Some have been done for you.

[2]

(iii) Which electromagnetic wave is used for the following? Making toast ___________________________ Sterilising plastic syringes ________________ [2]

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(b) Sonar uses ultrasound to detect objects under water. A pulse of ultrasound is emitted upwards by a submarine deep below the ice sheet in the Arctic ocean as shown below.

Some time later the submarine detects an echo and a short time after that it

detects a second echo.

(i) Explain why two echoes are produced in this case.

First echo _________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ Second echo _______________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2] DRAFT


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(ii) To measure the distance to the ocean floor the submarine emits a pulse of ultrasound downwards. The echo of this pulse is detected 0.4s after it was emitted. The speed of ultrasound in water is 1500m/s. Use the equation distance = speed × time to help you calculate the distance from the submarine to the floor of the ocean. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Distance to the ocean floor = ________________m [3] DRAFT


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3 A length of rope and a slinky coil can be used to demonstrate different types of wave. The patterns obtained are shown in the diagrams below.

(a) (i) On each diagram add arrows to show the way in which the hand should

be moved to produce each wave and in the space provided state the type of wave being produced.

________________

________________ [4]

(ii) What do the waves transfer as they move from left to right?

________________ [1]

(b) The wave pattern obtained by the rope is shown again below.

(i) State the amplitude of the wave _________________ [1]

(ii) State the wavelength of the wave ________________ [1]

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The end of the rope makes 24 vibrations in 8 seconds. (iii) Calculate the frequency of the wave.

Make sure you also give the unit for the frequency in your answer. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Frequency = ________________ [2] (iv) Calculate the speed of the wave travelling along the rope.


Speed = ________________m/s [3]

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4 John is carrying out an investigation on the properties of shadows. He places a wooden object between the source of light and a screen as shown in the diagram below.

He moves the screen further from the object. The distance between the screen and

the object D, is measured. For each distance D, the height of the shadow on the screen is measured. John’s results are shown in the table below.

Distance D in cm 20 30 40 50 60 Height of the shadow H in cm 8 10 12 14 11

(a) John has incorrectly recorded one of the values for the height H. Circle this

incorrect value in the table. Write in the space below the correct value for H.

Correct value for H = ________cm [2]

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(b) (i) Plot a graph showing John’s measurements on the grid below. Make sure to use the corrected value of H.

[5]

(ii) State if the height (H) of the shadow is proportional to distance (D) between the object and the screen. Give a reason for your answer. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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(iii) Use your graph to find the height of the wooden object.

Height of wooden object = ________cm [1]

5 Two resistors are connected to a 12V battery as shown in the circuit below.

(a) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.

Total resistance = ________Ω [1] (b) Use the equation I = V/R to calculate the current in the circuit.


Current = ________A [2] (c) Calculate the voltage across the 2Ω resistor.


Voltage = ________V [2]

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(d) The current is allowed to flow through the circuit for 30 seconds.

Use the equation tIQ ×= to calculate the electric charge that has moved around the circuit in this time. Remember to give the unit for charge. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Charge = ________ [3]

6 The diagram below shows the planets in our Solar System.

(a) (i) State the names of the planets labelled A, B and C.

A ________________ B ________________ C ________________ [3]

(ii) What force provides the centripetal force that keeps the planets moving

around the Sun? ________________________________________________________ [1]

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(b) When the planet Mars is observed over a period of many months its path across the background of stars is at first in one direction. Then its motion reverses direction for a number of days before resuming its original path. This movement is shown in the diagram below.

(i) What is this motion called? ___________________________________ [1]

(ii) Which model of the solar system was able to explain this motion?

State the main feature of this model. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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(c) Observations of light from the stars in distant galaxies tells us that the galaxies are moving away, in other words space is expanding. The table below gives some information on the distance to some of our closest galaxies, and the speed with which they are moving away. Our own galaxy, the Milky Way, is included in the table.

Galaxy Distance from the Milk Way in millions of light years

Speed in km/s

Milky Way (our galaxy) 0 0 Virgo 80 1200 Persues 350 5400 Hercules 650 10000 Ursa Major 1000 15000

The astronomer Erwin Hubble, in a law named after him, proposed that the speed of the galaxy v and the distance d to the galaxy are related by the equation:

v = Hd

where H is a constant known as Hubble’s constant. (i) To test the validity of Hubble’s Law a graph can be drawn.

What quantity would you plot on: The x – axis ________________ The y – axis ________________ [2]

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(ii) Using the measurements in the table and the grid below draw a graph to test the validity of Hubble’s Law. [4]

(iii) Does the graph validate Hubble’s Law? Explain your answer.

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [3]

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7 (a) A bicycle generator uses a magnet rotating near a coil to produce an alternating current (a.c.).

(i) Sketch on the axes below how this alternating current varies with time.

[1] (ii) Explain how an alternating current differs from a direct current (d.c.).

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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(b) Power stations use much larger generators to produce electricity. This electricity is connected to the grid which supplies electricity to homes and businesses. Transformers play an important role in this distribution of electrical energy. The diagram below shows how electricity from the power station is distributed to homes.

(i) Write the names of the types of transformer in the appropriate boxes. [1] (ii) In the appropriate boxes, label the part of the distribution system where

the voltage is high and another part where it is much lower. [1] (iii) Why are high voltages used in the distribution of electricity?

__________________________________________________________ [1]

(c) An iron core is a major part of the construction of a transformer.

(i) Complete the diagram to show the other main components.

Label each component. Mark clearly on your diagram the part that the input voltage is applied to and the part that provides the output voltage. [3]

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59

(ii) Is the output voltage a.c. or d.c?

________________ [1]

8 (a) Explain fully how the various wires and other components within a three pin plug protect the user from electric shock should a fault occur. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [6]

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(b) To test the wiring of a three-pin plug connected to a metal kettle the equipment shown below was set up. C1 and C2 are metal clips. C1 is connected to the metal body of the kettle.

When clip C2 is connected to the earth pin of the three-pin plug what should be

observed if the wiring of the plug is correct? Explain your answer. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [3]

(c) An electric fire with a rating of 2kW is left on for 3 hours.

Calculate the cost of this if electricity costs 14 pence per kilowatt-hour. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Cost = ________ pence [2]

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___________________________________________


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BLANK PAGE

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2011

TIME

1 hour 45 minutes


Write your Centre Number and Candidate Number in the spaces provided at the top of the page. Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper. Answer all questions.


The total mark for this paper is 115. Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the marks awarded to each question or part question. Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 2(b) and 6(b)(ii).



1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Total Marks

Science: Physics

Unit P2

Higher Tier

[CODE]

SPECIMEN PAPER

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

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1 (a) The diagram below shows water waves approaching the boundary between deep water and shallow water. Jack records his observations of the refracted waves.

(i) What two errors have been made by Jack?

1 ___________________________________________________________ 2 ___________________________________________________________ [2]

(ii) On the diagram below show how the refracted waves would travel in the

shallow water.

[3]

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(b) Jane stands in front of a plane mirror as shown below. By drawing appropriate rays on the diagram determine the shortest length of mirror needed to allow Jane is to see all of her face, i.e. from the top of her head to the bottom of her chin.

Shortest length of mirror = ________________ cm [3]

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(c) A ray of light is shone into a rectangular glass block as shown below. (i) The critical angle for the glass is 41°. Explain what this means.

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

(ii) The path of the ray through the glass allows it to strike the shorter side.

The ray meets the shorter side at angle to the normal of 50º. Complete the diagram to show the path of the ray through and out of the glass block.

[3] (iii) Explain why the light follows the path you have drawn at the side BC.

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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2 (a) An object O is placed in front of a convex lens as shown below.

(i) On the diagram, using a ruler, draw rays that can be used to locate the

position of the image. The image should be clearly marked. [4] (ii) The diagram is full scale. How far from the centre of the lens L is the

image formed?

Distance of image from L = ________________cm [2]

Which of the properties listed below describe the image formed?

Ring those three that are correct.

Real Virtual

Magnified Diminished

(iii)

Upright Inverted [3]

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(b) Describe and explain how you would measure the focal length of a convex lens. State the measurements you would take and how you would improve the accuracy of your measurement. You may use the space below to illustrate your answer with a diagram. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms. _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ [6]

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3 (a) (i) In the boxes below write the names of the various groups of electromagnetic waves in order of increasing wavelength (as shown by the arrow). Some have been done for you.

[3] (ii) The microwaves used in a microwave oven have a frequency of

2.45 × 109Hz. The speed of light is 3 × 108m/s. Calculate the wavelength of these microwaves. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Wavelength = ________________ m [3]

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(b) Sonar uses ultrasound to detect objects under water. To measure the distance to the ocean floor the submarine emits a pulse of ultrasound downwards.

(i) The echo of this pulse is detected 0.4s after it was emitted. The speed of

ultrasound in water is 1500m/s. Calculate the distance from the submarine to the floor of the ocean. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer. Distance to the ocean floor = ________________ [4]

(ii) Radar uses electromagnetic waves to detect the flying aircraft. Explain

why Sonar would not be an appropriate method for this. __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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(c) When an earthquake happens waves are sent out from the site of the quake. These are known as P waves and S waves. The P waves are longitudinal waves and the S waves are transverse waves. Describe how the particles that make up the rocks of the earth move when each type of wave passes. _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ [3]

4 John is carrying out an investigation on the properties of shadows. He places a wooden object between the source of light and a screen as shown in the diagram below.

He moves the screen further from the object. The distance between the screen and the object D, is measured. For each distance D, the height of the shadow on the screen is measured. John’s results are shown in the table below. Distance D in cm 20 30 40 50 60 Height of the shadow H in cm 8 10 12 14 11

(a) John has incorrectly recorded one of the values for the height H. Circle this

incorrect value in the table. Write in the space below the correct value for H.

Correct value for H = ________________ cm [2]

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(b) (i) Plot a graph showing John’s measurements on the grid below. Make sure to use the corrected value of H.

[5] (ii) State if the height (H) of the shadow is proportional to distance (D)

between the object and the screen. Give a reason for your answer. ___________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________ [2]

(iii) Use your graph to find the height of the wooden object.

Height of wooden object = ________________cm [1]

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5 (a) Three resistors are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit below.

(i) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.


Resistance = ________________ Ω [4] (ii) Calculate the current through the 24Ω resistor.


Current = ________________ A [2] (iii) A piece of wire of negligible resistance is connected between the points X

and Y. Calculate the current that flows through the 24Ω resistor. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Current = ________________ Α [2]

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(b) Complete the circuit diagram below by adding an ammeter, a voltmeter and a device which will allow a pupil to investigate how the current passing through a particular component changes as the voltage across it is varied.

[3]

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(c) For each of the graphs shown below, state the component that would produce the graph. Write the name of the component in the space provided.

(i)

________________ [1]

(ii)

________________ [1]

(iii)

________________ [1]

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(d) The resistance of a piece of wire depends on its length and its cross sectional area. (i) On the axes below draw the shape of the graph that would be obtained if the

resistance of different lengths of copper wire was measured, the cross sectional area of each wire being the same.

[1] (ii) On the axes below draw the shape of the graph that would be obtained if the

resistance of copper wire of different cross sectional areas was measured, the length of each being the same.

[1]

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6 (a) An electric fire with a rating of 2kW is left on for 3 hours. Calculate the cost of this if electricity costs 14 pence per kilowatt-hour. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Cost = ________________ pence [2] (b) (i) A label on an electric motor gives the following information:

. Use the information on the label to calculate the fuse which should be used

in the plug connected to the motor. The available fuses are: 1A, 3A, 5A and 13A. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Fuse = ________________ A [4]

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(ii) Explain carefully how the various wires and other components within the three pin plug protect the user from electric shock should a fault occur within the motor. In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills including the use of specialist science terms.

_____________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ [6]

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(c) To test the wiring of a three-pin plug connected to a metal kettle the equipment shown below was set up. C1 and C2 are metal clips, C1 is connected to the metal body of the kettle.

When clip C2 is connected to the earth pin of the three-pin plug what should be observed if the wiring of the plug is correct? Explain your answer. ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ [3]

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7 (a) The diagram below shows the Sun.

On the diagram, draw carefully and label the path:

(i) a planet would take [1]

(ii) a moon would take [1]

(iii) State one property of the motion of the planets that suggests our solar

system was formed from a gas cloud (nebula).

____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________ [1]

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(b) Observations of light from the stars in distant galaxies tell us that the galaxies are moving away, in other words space is expanding. How do we know from observations that a galaxy is moving away from us?

________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ [2]

(c) (i) The table below gives some information on distance to some of our

closest galaxies and the speed with which they are moving away. Our own galaxy, the Milky Way, is included in the table.

Galaxy Distant from the Milky

Way in millions of light years

Speed in km/s

Milky Way (our galaxy) 0 0 Virgo 80 1200 Persues 350 5400 Hercules 650 10 000 Ursa Major 1000 15 000

The astronomer Erwin Hubble, in a law named after him, proposed that

the speed of the galaxy v and the distance d to the galaxy are related by the equation:

v = Hd where H is a constant known as Hubble’s constant.

To test the validity of Hubble’s Law a graph can be drawn. What quantity would you plot on: the x–axis ________________ the y–axis ________________ [2]

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(ii) Using the measurements in the table and grid below draw a graph to test the validity of Hubble’s Law.

[4] (iii) Does the graph validate Hubble’s Law? Explain your answer.

_____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ [3]

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8 (a) The diagram below shows a wire coil and a strong magnet. The coil is connected to a sensitive ammeter which has a zero at the centre of its scale.

Describe and explain carefully what you would observe with this apparatus when the following actions take place.

(i) The magnet is moved towards the coil.

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [1]

(ii) The magnet is placed at rest inside the coil.

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [1]

(iii) The magnet is then pulled back out of the coil.

__________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________ [2]

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(b) The diagram below shows the layout of a power pack that is found in most schools. The power pack contains a transformer. There is a moveable switch which can be turned so it touches the contacts A to K, this allows the output voltage (secondary voltage) to be varied.

(i) The input primary voltage is 240V.

The maximum value of the output voltage is 20V. The primary coil has 6,000 turns of wire. Calculate the number of turns on the secondary coil. You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.

Number of turns on secondary = ________________ [3] There are 50 turns of wire between consecutive pairs of terminals A to K, i.e.

between A and B there are 50 turns and B and C there are 50 turns and so on. (ii) In what voltage steps can the secondary voltage output be varied?


Voltage step = ________________ V [3]

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9 Michael carries out an investigation into the expansion of a metal as it is heated. He measures the length of a metal bar at various temperatures. His results are shown in the table below.

Table 1

Temperature in °C 0 20 40 60 80 Length of the bar in mm 2017.96 2018.42 2018.88 2019.32 2019.77

The expansion of the bar at a particular temperature is defined as: Expansion of the bar = length at that particular temperature – length at 0°C Michael predicts that the expansion of the metal bar is proportional to the rise in temperature of the bar.

(a) Complete the table 2 below using values for temperature rise against

expansion of the metal bar.

Table 2

Temperature rise in °C

Expansion of the bar in mm

[2] (b) Michael’s prediction is correct. Show how the values given in table 2 support

this. Do not draw a graph. Show all calculations in the space below.

[3]

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___________________________________________


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MARK SCHEMES DIVIDER PAPER FRONT

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MARK SCHEMES DIVIDER PAPER BACK

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Science: Physics

GENERAL MARKING

INSTRUCTIONS

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General Marking Instructions and Mark Grids Introduction Mark schemes are intended to ensure that the GCSE examination is marked consistently and fairly. The mark schemes provide markers with an indication of the nature and range of candidates’ responses likely to be worthy of credit. They also set out the criteria that they should apply in allocating marks to candidates’ responses. The mark schemes should be read in conjunction with these marking instructions. Quality of candidates’ responses In marking the examination papers, examiners should be looking for a quality response reflecting the level of maturity which may reasonably be expected of a 16-year-old which is the age at which the majority of candidates sit their GCSE examinations. Flexibility in marking Mark schemes are not intended to be totally prescriptive. No mark scheme can cover all the responses which candidates may produce. In the event of unanticipated answers, examiners are expected to use their professional judgement to assess the validity of answers. If an answer is particularly problematic, then examiners should seek the guidance of the Supervising Examiner. Positive marking Examiners must be positive in their marking, giving appropriate credit for description, explanation and analysis, using knowledge and understanding and for the appropriate use of evidence and reasoned argument to express and evaluate personal responses, informed insights and differing viewpoints. Examiners should make use of the whole of the available mark range of any particular question and be prepared to award full marks for a response which is as good as might reasonably be expected of a 16-year-old GCSE candidate. Awarding zero marks Marks should only be awarded for valid responses and no marks should be awarded for an answer which is completely incorrect or inappropriate. Types of mark scheme Mark Schemes for questions which require candidates to respond in extended written form are marked on the basis of levels of response which take account of the quality of written communication. Other questions which require only short answers are marked on a point for point basis with marks awarded for each valid piece of information provided.

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2011

Science: Physics

Foundation Paper 1

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

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1 (a) (i) 650J [1]

(ii) Efficiency = useful output energy/input energy

Work and power are alternatives to energy. Input and output alone are not acceptable. [1]

(iii) 350/1000 [1] = 0.35 or 35% [1]

The method is not required for full marks. 1 mark may be awarded for correct substitution of values if the final value is incorrect. [2]

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(b) Indicative content Wind farms – not reliable – constant supply of input energy is not constant since the wind is not constant Nuclear power station – reliable – constant supply of input energy in the form of heat from nuclear fission Coal fired power station – reliable – constant supply of input energy in the form of chemical energy from coal

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully with reasons the reliability and primary source of energy for all three types of electricity generation. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe the reliability of two types of electricity generation with reasons and they identify clearly the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates describe the reliability correctly but fail to clearly identify the reasons, they identify the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.

[1–2]

Response not worthy of credit

[0]

[6]

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(c) (i) Oil/gas/coal/nuclear [1] Explanation – have a limited supply [1]

[2]

(ii) Hydroelectric/wind [1]

Explanation – have an infinite supply/will not run out [1]

[2] (iii) Does not release greenhouse gases [1]

Carbon dioxide named in the answer [1]

[2] (iv) Answer – uranium [1] [1]

[17]

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2 (a) (i) Mass is the amount of matter in an object or a measure of the number of atoms/molecules in an object or is an unchanging property of an object

[1]

Weight is the pull or the force of gravity on an object. [1]

(ii) Multiply the mass in kg [1]

by 10 [1]

[2] (b) (i) Arrow to the right – labelled forward/pulling/engine force [1]

Arrow to the left – labelled friction [1] [2]

(ii) They are equal [1]

(iii) Acceleration = change of speed/time taken [1]

= (20 – 2)/3 or 18/3 [1] = 6(m/s2) [1] The method is not required for full marks. 1 mark may be awarded for the recall of the equation The second line is worth 2 marks as it is a substituted equation

[3] (c) (i) Arrow towards the centre labelled F

No label give [0] [1] (ii) Arrow up or down the page labelled v

No label give [0] [1] (iii) Increases [1]

[13]

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3 (a) (i) Smallest division = 2cm3

The method is not required for full marks. For identifying that 5 divisions = 10cm3 give 1 mark [2]

(ii) 36 – 18 [1]

= 18cm3 [1]

The method is not required for full marks.

[2]

(iii)

Density = ]1[VMDor

volumemass

=

]1[1836

=

Density = 2g/cm3 [1] The method is not required for full marks. [3]

(iv) A C D [1]

They are on a straight line [1] That passes through the origin (0,0) [1] Mark each line independently [3]

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(b) Indicative content • Solids, liquids and gases are made up of atoms/molecules • In solids the atoms/molecules are vibrating • Heat gives them more kinetic energy • This causes more vigorous vibrating • When some of them overcome the bonds the solid turns to liquid • As more energy is given to the liquid the remaining atoms/molecules overcome the bonds and a gas is formed.

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe and explain fully all the changes of state and clearly link the energy supplied with increased vibration and the spacing between atoms/molecules. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe and explain the changes of state, however, the linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of atoms/molecules is not always present. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar, punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe the changes of state, however, linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of atoms/molecules is not given. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited standard.

[1–2]


[0]

[6]

[16]

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98

4 (a) (i) Work = Force × Distance or W = F × D or 400 × 3 [1] Work done = 1200(J) [1] The method is not required for full marks. [2]

(ii)

tWPor

TakenTimedoneWorkPower == [1]

=1200/6 [1] =200(W) [1] Allow ecf from (i) Method not required for full marks [3]

(b) KE = ½mv2 [1]

½ × 0.005 × 202 [1] Kinetic energy = 1(J) [1] The method is not required for full marks. Failure to convert g to kg will give an answer of 1000(J), gives a maximum of 2 marks [3]

[8]

5 (a) (i) Average values of S: 110 [1] and 120 [1] cm [2]

(ii) Both axes labelled [2]

4 points correctly plotted [2] ½ each round down Smooth curve through the point [1]

[5]

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(iii) S is not proportional to H [1] Explanation – a straight line passing through origin cannot be drawn through the points. [2] or S does not double when H doubles [1] [3]

[10]

6 (a) (i) From the left – clockwise: electron, neutron, proton all needed for 1 mark

[1]

(ii) It (the atom) contains the same number of electrons as protons

Allow 1 mark for: Accept equal amounts/numbers of positive and negative charges

[2]

(iii) 3 [1] is the number of neutrons and protons/mass number [1]

2 [1] is the number of protons/atomic number [1]

[4] (b) (i) Fast moving electron [1]

(ii) After 46 days for this time [1]

its activity or number of unstable atoms or nuclei will decrease to half the initial value[1] [2]

[10]

7 (i) 600 [1] ÷ 30 = 20 [1] α particles per second

[2]

(ii) 13cm

12 or 14 give 1 mark [2] (iii) Background activity [1], will be detected [1] [2]

[6]

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BLANK PAGE

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2011

Science: Physics

Higher Paper 1

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

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1 (a) (i) It does not release greenhouse gases [1] Carbon dioxide named in the answer [1]

[2]

(ii) Radioactive waste [1]

Requiring storage for thousands of years [1]

[2] (iii) Less [1] (iv) Shutting down [1]

(v) Special precautions dealing with radioactive materials [1]

(vi) Not reliable or wind not always present [1] (vii) Destroys the habitats of animals or noisy [1]

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(b) Indicative content Wind farms – not reliable – constant supply of input energy is not constant since the wind is not constant Nuclear power station - reliable – constant supply of input energy in the form of heat from nuclear fission Coal fired power station – reliable – constant supply of input energy in the form of chemical energy from coal

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully with reasons the reliability and primary source of energy for all three types of electricity generation. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe the reliability of two types of electricity generation with reasons and they identify clearly the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates describe the reliability correctly but fail to clearly identify the reasons, they identify the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.

[1–2]


[0]

[6] [15]

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104

2 (a) (i) Any two from: • Weight acting vertically down • Friction upwards along the slope • Reaction force acting up at right angles to slope [2]

(ii) v = u + at or 0 = 27 − at [1]

t = 27/6 [1] Time taken = 4.5s [1] The method is not required for full marks.

[3] (iii) F = ma or F = 1000 × 6 = 6000N [1]

Additional Force = 6000 – 5000 [1] = 1000N [1] The method is not required for full marks. Each step can be awarded 1 mark as shown if full credit cannot be given

[3]

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(b) Indicative content Relating to OA • constant acceleration • resultant force is the weight minus air resistance Relating to BC • acceleration is zero. • weight and the air resistance cancel so resultant force is zero Relating to DE • constant deceleration • upward resultant force due to the air resistance provided by parachute

being greater than the weight.

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe accurately the accelerations, linking each explicitly with their explanation of resultant force. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe partially at least 2 of the observations, linking each with their explanation of resultant force. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates describe some of the observations but the linking with resultant force is unclear. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.

[1–2]


[0]

[6] [14]

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106

3 (a) (i) A C D [1] They are on a straight line [1] That passes through the origin (0,0) [1] Mark each line independently

[3] (ii) 4 × 3.5 = 14g [1]

(b) Indicative content

• Solids, liquids and gases are made up of atoms/molecules • In solids the atoms/molecules are vibrating • Heat gives them more kinetic energy • This causes more vigorous vibrating • When some of them overcome the bonds the solid turns to liquid • As more energy is given to the liquid the remaining atoms/molecules overcome the bonds and a gas is formed.

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe and explain fully all the changes of state and clearly link the energy supplied with increased vibration and the spacing between atoms/molecules. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe and explain the changes of state, however the linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of atoms/molecules is not always present. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe the changes of state, however linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of atoms/molecules is not given. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited standard.

[1–2]


[0]

[6]

[10]

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107

4 (a) (i) Work = Force × Distance or W = F × D or 400 × 3 [1] Work done = 1200(J) [1] The method is not required for full marks.

[2]

(ii) Time taken = work/power or t = W/P [1]

= 1200/200 [1] = 6 s [1] Guidance – method not required for full marks The first mark is for a re-arranged equation only [3]

(b) (i) v2 = 2Ek/m [1]

= 2 × 1/0.005 = 400 [1] v = 20m/s [1] Guidance – method not required for full marks The first mark is for a re-arranged equation only Failure to convert g to kg award max of 2 marks

[3] (ii) Work done = kinetic energy [1]

Work done = Force × Distance or 1 = 0.005 × F [1]

F = 005.01 [1]

Force = 200(N) [1] The method is not required for full marks.

[4]

(c) Any four from: • Known or measured weight • Measured distance e.g. between two markers or length of string • Switch on motor • Time to move measured distance • Use of the appropriate formula to calculate power • Repeat find an average [4]

[16]

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5 (a) (i) To get a more accurate value [1] To reduce errors/mistakes [1]

[2]

(ii) Both axes labelled [2]

4 points correctly plotted [2] ½ each round down Smooth curve through the point [1]

[5]

(iii) S is not proportional to H [1]

Explanation – a straight line passing through origin cannot be drawn through the points. [2] or S does not double when H doubles, give [1] [3]

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109

6 (a) (i) P marked in the lower right corner of beam. [1]

(ii) Arrow from the centre of the beam (judge by eye) [1]

Acting downwards [1]

[2] (iii) Principle of moment given as ACM = CM or implied [1]

20 000 x 2.5 [1] = F x 4 [1]

F = 4

50000 = 12500(N) [1]

The method is not required for full marks.

[4] (b) (i) Momentum (change) = force x time [1]

50 × 20 [1] = F × 0.1 [1]

100001.0

1000==F (N) [1]

OR Force = mass × acceleration/F=ma [1] =50 × (20/0.1) [1] =50 × 200 [1] =10000(N) [1] The method is not required for full marks. [4]

(ii) Seat belts increase the time to come to a stop [1]

This reduces the force [1]

[2] (iii) Calculations to show this: (0.45)2 /1 = 0.20

(0.63)2 /2 = 0.20 (0.77)2 /3 = 0.20 (0.89)2 /4 = 0.20 Each calculation is worth ½ mark round down [2] C2/H is a constant so the equation is correct [1] Value of k = 0.20 [1] Do not penalise values quoted to more than two decimal places. [4]

[17]

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110

7 (a) Alpha – He nucleus/2 protons combined with 2 neutrons [1] Beta – electrons [1] Gamma – electromagnetic radiation [1] [3]

(b) (i) β01

23893

23892 −+→ NpU

Give 1 mark to each correct number on the RHS of the equation [4] (ii) 92 days [1] (c) 13cm [2]

If answer is 12 or 14, give [1] mark only [2] (d) Gamma [1]

The only radiation that can penetrate the metal of the pipeline [1] The radiation must be correctly identified before the mark for the explanation can be given

[2]

(e) Indicative content • Repulsion between nucleus and the alpha particles – so the nucleus is

positively charged • Most of the alpha particles passed through without deflection – so the

nucleus is small • A few alpha were scattered back – so the nucleus is more massive

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully all 3 observations, linking each explicitly with its explanation. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe at least 2 of the observations and their explanation. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates describe some of the observations but the explanations are not linked explicitly to each observation. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.

[1–2]


[0]

[6]

[18]

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111


2011

Science: Physics

Foundation Paper 2

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

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112

1 (a) (i) Ray from A to Mirror M2 [1] Reflected rays from M2 [1] Judge by eye if the angles of incidence are equal to the angles of reflection. The ray from M2 should be parallel to the incident ray on M1.

[2]

(ii) one correct step in calculations [1] : e.g. 90 – 27 = 63; use of alternate

angles = 27° [1] Correct answer gets full marks

[2] (b) Refracted ray towards man’s head [1]

Arrow in correct direction [1] Arrow can be on either ray. If the ray from the fish meets the surface perpendicularly and is shown refracting towards the man award [0]

[2]

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113

(c) (i) Red above and violet/blue below [1]

(ii) Indicative content

• White light consists of seven (different) colours • Different colours travel at different speeds in glass • They take different paths through the glass • Violet (blue) slowed down most – so refracted most • Red slowed down least – so refracted least

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully the dispersion of white light. Explanation of refraction in terms of change of speed must be clearly linked with the amount refraction and the colour. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high quality.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe partially the dispersion of white light. The explanation of refraction in terms of change of speed may not be clearly linked with amount of refraction and the colour. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates describe some of the observations but fail to link the explanation of refraction with the change of speed and the colour. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.

[1–2]


[0]

[6]

[13]

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114

2 (a) (i) Any one from: • EM waves are transverse • EM waves can travel through a vacuum • EM waves travel at the same speed (in a vacuum) [1]

Gamma Ultra violet Visible Infra red Radio (ii)

All five in correct order give [2] Any three neighbouring in the correct order [1]

[2]

(iii) Infra-red [1]

Gamma [1] [2] (b) (i) First echo – reflection from the lower surface of the ice [1]

Second echo – reflection from the top surface of the ice [1]

[2] (ii) [ ]

[ ]1214.01500×

300(m) [1] Method is not required for full marks [3]

[10]

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115

3 (a) (i) Top diagram arrow(s) up and down page [1] Transverse [1] Bottom diagram arrow(s) left and right ↔ [1] Longitudinal [1] [4]

(ii) Energy [1]

(b) (i) 0.3m [1]

(ii) 0.8m [1]

(iii) 3 [1]

Hz [1] The unit mark may be awarded regardless of the numerical answer even if no numerical answer shown [2]

(iv) v = fλ [1]

v = 3 x 0.8 [1] 2.4(m/s) [1] [3]

Method is not required. Allow full marks for correct answer.

Allow error carried forward (ecf) for wavelength and frequency. [12]

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116

4 (a) H = 11 ringed [1] Correct value of H = 16 [1]

[2]

(b) (i) Both axes labelled [2]

5 points correctly plotted ½ each round down [2] Best fit line (with intercept on H axis) [1] [5]

(ii) Conclusion – D and H not proportional [1]

Reason – Line not through origin [1]

[2]

(iii) Answer consistent with their intercept on the H axis.

Typically 4cm ± 0.2cm [1] [10]

5 (a) 8 (Ω) [1]

(b) I=12/8 [1]

1.5(A) [1] Method is not required for full marks

[2]

(c) V=IR or V=1.5 × 2 [1]

3V [1] Allow ecf from (ii) for current Method is not required for full marks [2]

(d) Q = 1.5 x 30 [1] 45 [1] C [1] Allow ecf from (ii) for current Method is not required for full marks

[3]

[8]

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117

6 (a) (i) A = Earth [1] B = Mars [1] C = Saturn [1] [3]

(ii) Gravity [1]

(b) (i) Retrograde motion [1]

(ii) Heliocentric [1]

Sun at the centre (planets orbit it) [1] [2] (c) (i) X – axis: Distance [1]

Y – axis: Speed [1] [2] (ii) Both axes labelled [1]

5 points including 0,0 plotted, ½ each round down [2] Best line fit [1]

[4]

(iii) Hubble’s Law is valid [1]

Straight line [1] Passing through the origin [1] [3]

[16]

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118

7 (a) (i)

The shape is not important as long as the graph cuts the horizontal time axis [1]

(ii) Alternating current reverses direction (periodically) [1]

Direct current flows in one direction [1] [2] (b)

(i) 2 correct labels for [1] [1]

(ii) 2 correct labels for [1] [1]

(iii) To reduce energy losses (in the cables) [1]

(c) (i) Two coils wrapped around iron core [1]

Primary labelled and connected to input [1] Secondary labelled and connected to output [1] Ignore the number of turns on each coil [3]

(ii) a.c. [1]

[10]

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119

8 (a) Indicative content • Live wire in contact with metal case • Metal case connected to earth wire • This offers a low resistance path • The current becomes very large • Blowing the fuse • Disconnecting the motor from the mains supply [6]

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully and in a logical order how the fuse blows to protect the user. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to partially describe how the fuse blows to protect the user. The points shown above are not all in the correct sequence. They use satisfactory spelling grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates describe some of the observations but the sequence is not shown in a logical order. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.

[1–2]


0

(b) The bulb should light [1]

There is a conducting path [1] From the earth pin to the metal kettle [1] [3]

(c) No of kWh = 6 or 3 × 2 [1]

84 pence [1] Method is not required for full marks [2]

[11]

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120

BLANK PAGE

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121


2011

Science: Physics

Higher Paper 2

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

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122

1 (a) (i) Angle of refraction is wrong [1] Too many drawn [1] [2]

(ii) At least three waves drawn parallel to each other [1]

Angle of refraction correct [1] Wavelength smaller [1] [3]

(b) 11cm [1]

Ray from top of head to mid point of 10cm section [1] Ray from the chin to the mid point of the 12cm section [1] [3]

(c) (i) It is the angle of incidence in the glass [1]

Giving an angle of refraction of 90° [1] Alternate answer: If the angle of incidence in the glass is greater than 41° [1] then total internal reflection TIR occurs [1] [2]

(ii) Ray bent towards the normal as it enters the glass [1]

Ray strikes the side BC and is reflected [1] Ray travels to side CD, bending away from normal as it enters the air [1]

[3]

(iii) The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle [1]

So total internal reflection occurs [1] Accept TIR as meaning total internal reflection [2]

[15]

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123

2 (a) (i)

Ray from top of O parallel to principal axis refracted through F [1] Ray from the top of O through centre of lens undeviated [1] Rays intersect to the right of the lens [1] Image marked at the intersection of rays [1] [4]

(ii) 2.8 to 3.2cm

Outside this range award only 1 e.g., 2.4 to 2.7 or 3.3 to 3.6 [2]

(iii) Rings around:

Real [1] Inverted [1] Diminished [1] Deduct 1 mark for each response greater than three [3]

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124

(b) Indicative content • Choose a distant object • The light from this object is parallel rays • Arrange lens in front of screen • Move lens until sharp image of object seen on screen • The image is formed at the focus • This is the focal length • Repeat and take average

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to fully describe the method to measure the focal length, giving a precise explanation for the choice of object and the location of the image (using all above points). They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe the method used to measure the focal length (using 5-6 of the above points). Reasons for the choice of object and location of the image are not fully explained. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates describe the method used to measure the focal length (using some or all of the above points). Reasons for the choice of object and location of the image are not explained. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.

[1–2]


0

[6]

[15]

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125

Gamma Ultra violet Visible Infra red Radio 3 (a) (i)

All five in the correct order award 3 marks Any three neighbouring in the correct order award 1 mark

[3]

(ii) v = fλ or λ = v/f [1]

λ = 3×108/2.45×109 [1] λ = 0.12(m) [1] Method is not required for full marks [3]

(b) (i) Distance = speed × time [1]

]1[2]1[41500×

= 300(m) [1] Method is not required for full marks [4]

(ii) Sound travels more slowly than em waves [1]

Aircraft would have moved a large distance by time reflected wave returns [1] or Sound is absorbed by atmosphere [1] Little sound energy would reach aircraft/reflected back to source [1] [2]

(c) The particles vibrate [1]

In P wave parallel to the direction of propagation [1] In S waves at right angles in the direction of propagation [1] Guidance – ‘vibrate’ is essentially for the mark, ‘move’ alone is not However accept back and forth or up and down [3]

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126

4 (a) H = 11 ringed [1] Correct value of H = 16cm [1]

[2]

(b) (i) Both axes labelled [2]

5 points correctly plotted ½ each round down [2] Best fit line – (with intercept on H axis) [1] [5]

(ii) Conclusion – D and H not proportional [1]

Reason – Line not through origin [1]

[2]

(iii) Answer consistent with their intercept on the H axis typically 4cm ±

0.2cm [1]

[10]

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127

5 (a) (i)

]1[)(12

]1[600

20301301

2011

]1[111

21

Ω=

+=+=

+=

t

tt

t

R

equivalentorR

orR

RRR

Circuit resistance = 12+24 = 36 [1] Method is not required for full marks [4]

(ii) I = V/R [1]

0.33 or 1/3(A) [1] Method is not required for full marks Ecf for total resistance from (i) [2]

(iii) For recognising that total resistance is now 24Ω [1]

0.5A [1] Method is not required for full marks

[2]

(b) Ammeter in series with battery [1]

Variable resistor in series with battery [1] Voltmeter in parallel with component [1] [3]

(c) (i) Wire/resistor at constant temperature [1]

(ii) Filament Bulb [1]

(iii) Diode [1]

(d) (i) Straight line through the origin [1]

(ii) Curve of negative slope [1]

[16]

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128

6 (a) No. of kWh = 6 or 3 × 2 [1] 84 pence [1] Method is not required for full marks

[2]

(b) (i) P = IV [1]

800 = I × 220 [1]

6.3220800

==I [1]

5A [1] Method is not required for full marks

[4] (ii) Indicative content

• Live wire in contact with metal case • Metal case connected to earth wire • This offers a low resistance path • The current becomes very large • Blowing the fuse • Disconnecting the motor from the mains supply

Response Mark

Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully and in a logical order how the fuse blows to protect the user (using all of the above points). They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.

[5–6]

Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to partially describe how the fuse blows to protect the user (using 4-5 of the above points). The points shown above are not all in the correct sequence. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.

[3–4]

Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe some or all of the observations but the sequence is not shown in a logical order. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited standard.

[1–2]


0

[6]

(c) The bulb should light [1]

There is a conducting path [1] From the earth pin to the metal kettle [1]

[3] [15]

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129

7 (a) (i)

(ii)

[2] (iii) Any one from:

• Planets orbit the sun in same direction • Planets orbit the sun in the same plane

[1] (b) Light from stars in this galaxy [1]

Is red shifted [1]

[2] (c) (i) X – axis: Distance [1]

Y – axis: Speed [1]

[2] (ii) Both axes labelled [1]

Points including 0,0 plotted ½ each round down [2] Best line fit [1]

[4] (iii) Hubble’s Law is valid [1]

Straight line [1] Passing through the origin [1]

[3] [14]

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130

9 (a) Temperature Rise 20 40 60 80 Expansion 0.46 0.92 1.36 1.81

[2]

½ each correct column round down

(b) Ratio of expansion/temp rise = constant [1]

Each value shown ½ mark round down [2] 0.46/20 = 0.23, 0.92/40 = 0.23 1.36/60 = 0.23, 1.81/80 = 0.23 allow marks for inverse approach

[3]

[5]

8 (a) (i) The needle on the meter momentarily deflects or The needle deflects and returns to zero

[1]

(ii) The needle is at rest or no deflection [1]

(iii) The needle momentarily deflects [1]

But in the opposite direction [1]

[2] (b) (i) Np/Ns = Vp/Vs [1]

6,000/Ns = 240/20 [1] 500 turns [1] Method is not required for full marks

[3] (ii) 6000/50 = 240/Vs [1]

120 = 240/Vs or Vs = 240/120 [1] for either step Vs = 2V [1] Method is not required for full marks. If final answer incorrect, allow [1] mark for identifying 50 turns as 1/10 of total [3]

[10]

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131

CONTROLLED ASSESSMENT DIVIDER FRONT

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132

CONTROLLED ASSESSMENT DIVIDER BACK

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133


GCSE Physics

CONTROLLED ASSESSMENT TASK (CAT)

AND GUIDANCE NOTES FOR

TEACHERS

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134

Controlled Assessment Task (CAT) – Efficiency: Electric Motors Guidance Notes for Teachers Candidates should be given the opportunity to carry out an investigation on one of the different factors which affect the % efficiency of an electric motor. Candidates should identify the independent variables as either the load (mass) lifted, the height through which the load is lifted or the voltage supplied. One possible method might be to measure the total energy input of the motor using the voltmeter/ammeter method, however joulemeters may be used if available. The useful energy output is calculated by measuring the load and the vertical distance moved and applying the equation PE = mgh. The % efficiency can then be found for each load. Note: This is only one suggested method. Candidates should be encouraged to engage with the scientific process by making their own planning decisions. Candidates will be expected to process their results so that they calculate at least five % efficiencies for a range of the chosen independent variable. This data must be contained within their results table and will be required for plotting a line graph in the formally assessed Part C of the controlled assessment task (CAT). During the CAT, candidates must complete Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment and Part B: Data Collection in the Pupil Response Booklet A enclosed with this document. Part A is to be carried out under medium supervision and is formally assessed. Part B is to be carried out under limited supervision and is not formally assessed. Candidates must complete Part C: Processing, Analysis and Evaluation in Pupil Response Booklet B enclosed with this document. Part C of the CAT is carried out under high control and is formally assessed. Confidentiality These guidance notes and subsequent Candidate Response Booklet B must be kept confidential at all times and stored in a secure place e.g. a metal lockable cabinet.

An energy efficiency rating must, by law, be shown on all fridges, freezers, fridge/freezers, washing machines, tumble dryers, washer dryers, dishwashers, electric ovens and light bulb packaging in the UK. A more energy efficient product will help you cut down your energy usage, and therefore reduce your gas and electricity bills. Many of these products contain electric motors, the efficiency of which contributes to the overall energy efficiency rating of the product. Plan and carry out an investigation on one or more of the different factors that affect the efficiency of an electric motor.

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135

Health and Safety Centre must ensure that all health and safety issues are addressed and that teachers supervise candidates to ensure that there is compliance with the necessary health and safety requirements during the data collection part of the CAT. Marking Part A of the CAT should be marked using the generic mark descriptors for Planning and Risk Assessment as detailed in section 6.6 of the specification. Part C of the CAT should be marked using the mark scheme provided. Please refer to the specification for more detailed guidance on the procedures and controls for carrying out the controlled assessment task.

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136

BLANK PAGE

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137

General Certificate of Secondary Education 2011

GCSE Physics

Controlled Assessment Task

Candidate Response Booklet A

SPECIMEN

Efficiency: Electric Motors

Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment (Maximum of 18 marks) Part B: Data Collection Quality of written communication will be assessed in Part A

Date: ______________________ Candidate Name: _________________________________

Signature of candidate: ___________________________ Signature of teacher marking this booklet: _____________________________

Teacher Mark

Moderator Mark

Planning

Risk Assessment

Total

An energy efficiency rating must, by law, be shown on all fridges, freezers, fridge/freezers, washing machines, tumble dryers, washer dryers, dishwashers, electric ovens and light bulb packaging in the UK. A more energy efficient product will help you cut down your energy usage, and therefore reduce your gas and electricity bills. Many of these products contain electric motors, the efficiency of which contributes to the overall energy efficiency rating of the product. Plan and carry out an investigation on one or more of the different factors that affect the efficiency of an electric motor.

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138

Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment When completing your Hypothesis and Plan you will be assessed on your written communication skills, including the use of specialist, scientific terms.

Your Hypothesis (Say what you think will happen.)

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________________

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139

Your Plan

_______________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________________

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Risk Assessment ________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

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142

Part B: Data Collection

Draw a blank results table. Use this to record and process your data.

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2011

GCSE Physics

Controlled Assessment Task

Candidate Response Booklet B

Part C: Processing, Analysis and Evaluation Instructions

• Use blue or black ink. • Complete your candidate name and centre number. • Answer all questions in the spaces provided.

Information to candidates

• The maximum mark for this paper is 27. • The marks are shown in brackets • You may consult all the information and results contained in your Candidate Response Booklet A.

Question Teacher Mark Moderator Mark

1

2

3

4

5

6

Teacher

Total

Moderator

Total

Date: ______________________ Candidate Name: ___

Signature of candidate: _______________________________ Signature of teacher marking this booklet: ________________________________________

71

Centre Number

Candidate Number

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144

1 On the graph grid below, use the information in your results table to plot an appropriate graph. Remember to draw a line of best fit.

[4]

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145

2 Use your results and information from your graph to explain what you found out in your investigation and whether this agreed with the hypothesis you made at the start. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [5]

3 (a) State one factor that you kept the same in your investigation. Explain how this

made it a fair test.

_______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [2]

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146

(b) If you were doing your experiment again, state one improvement you would make and explain why you would make it. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [2]

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147

4 An electric crane manufacturer carries out a number of tests on the efficiency of the electric motor used in one of its electric cranes. The results for each test are shown below and overleaf on graphs 1–3.

Graph 1 DRAFT


148

Graph 2

Graph 3

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149

(a) Which graph is from an investigation most similar to your own? Explain your answer. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [2]

The following questions relate to the graph you have chosen in part 4(a). (b) Are there any anomalous results in the graph you have chosen?

Explain your answer. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [2]

(c) Describe fully the trend shown by the results on the graph and compare this

trend with the results for your own investigation.

_______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [3]

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5 Compare the largest % efficiency in your experiment with the largest % efficiency plotted on the graph you have chosen in Question 4(a).

(a) What is the largest % efficiency plotted: (i) On your chosen graph: ________% (ii) On your own graph: ________% [1]

(b) Estimate the ratio of the above % efficiencies.

_____________________ [1]

(c) Look at the graph you have chosen. Could this experiment be carried out in

the school science laboratory? Give a reason for your answer. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [1]

6 Look carefully at graph 3. (a) Draw a best fit line for this graph. [1] (b) Estimate the % efficiency of the motor when the operating voltage is 40V.

________________V [1] (c) The manufacturer recommends that the motor should not be used at an

operating voltage of <100V. Explain why this is the case. _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ [2]

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2011

GCSE Physics

Controlled Assessment

[CODE]

SPECIMEN

MARK SCHEME

(Part C – Processing, Analysis, Evaluation)

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152

GCSE Physics – Controlled Assessment Task Efficiency: Electric Motors Text

Marking Guidelines – Part C (Processing, Analysis and Evaluation)

Answer Mark Additional Guidance

1 X axis: scaled correctly, labelled with correct quantity and unit [1] Y axis: scaled correctly, labelled with correct quantity and unit [1]

[2]

Tolerance for plotting points is +/- 1 small square both vertically and horizontally. Allow one plotting error.

Points plotted correctly

[1]

Line of best fit drawn correctly

[1]

2

Valid statement which reflects the trend seen. Reference to graph/results Links the independent and dependent variable. Correctly states if outcomes agree/disagree with hypothesis Valid statement explaining why their conclusion either agrees/disagrees with their hypothesis

[1]

[1]

[1]

[1]

[1]

3(a) Any controlled variable Only one factor can be changed

[1]

[1]

Allow weight for load/mass No mark for “To make it a fair test”

3(b) States one valid improvement

[1]

Explains correctly why improvement should be made

[1]

A variety of responses may be worthy of credit. Teachers should use their professional judgement when considering these responses

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Question Answer Mark Additional Guidance 4(a) Graph 1, 2 or 3 as appropriate to

candidate’s own independent variable Same independent variable or equivalent

[1]

[1]

4(b) Graph 1: Yes Explanation: 150kg for load does not fit the pattern/trend. or Graph 2: Yes Explanation: 25m result for height does not fit the pattern/trend or Graph 3: Yes Explanation: 30V result for voltage does not fit the pattern/trend.

[2]

Accept “One result does not fit the pattern/trend”

4(c) Graph 1: Increases at start [1] Then decreases [1] or Graph 2: As height increases, efficiency increases [1] Graph not linear (or equivalent) [1] or Graph 3: (linear) increase at start [1] Then levels off [1] Valid comparison with their own results

[2]

[1]

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5(a) Correctly reads maximum % efficiency from both chosen graph and own results [1]

Must be exact

5(b) Correct ratio calculated [1] Allow inverse ratio

5(c) Values too large [1] Allow correct reference to safety

6(a) Line of best fit drawn correctly [1]

6(b) Efficiency is 3.2(%) +/- 0.2(%) [1] Allows +/- 0.2(%) efficiency This equates to +/- 1small square

6(c) Below 100V The efficiency decreases

[1]

[1]

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Mark Specification Grid GCSE Physics – Controlled Assessment Task

Assessment Objectives

AO2

AO3

HSW

Part A Planning and Risk Assessment

18

w – (ii)a

Part B Data Collection

Question 1 4 w(iii)c 2 5 w(i)a 3(a) 2 w(ii)a 3(b) 2 w(ii)d 4(a) 2 w(i)a 4(b) 2 w(iii)a 4(c) 3 w(iii)a 5(a) 1 w(iii)a 5(b) 1 5(c) 1 w(iii)a 6(a) 1 w(iii)a 6(b) 1 w(iii)c 6(c) 2

Part C Processing, Analysis and Evaluation

Totals 23 22 DRAFT


Mark Specification Grid Science: Physics

Unit 1 Foundation Specimen Paper Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Low

G - E Standard

D - C H S W

1. (a)(i) 1.2.1 1 1 (ii) 1.2.4 1 1 w-(iii) a (iii) 1.2.4 2 2 w-(iii) a

(b) 1.2.1 6 6 w-(iii)c (c) 1.2.3

1.2.3 1.2.3 1.2.3

2 2 2 1

2 2 1

2

w-(iii)a w-(iii)a w-(iii)a w-(iii)a

2. (a)(i) 1.1.10 2 2 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.1.10 2 2 w-(iii) a (b)(i) 1.1.6 2 2 w-(iii)-a (ii) 1.1.6 1 1 w-(iii) a (iii) 1.1.3 1 2 3 w-(iii) a (c)(i) 1.1.17 1 1 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.1.17 1 1 w-(iii) a (iii) 1.1.17 1 1 w-(iii) a

3. (a)(i) 1.1.12 2 2 w-(i),b (ii) 1.1.12 2 2 w-(i),b (iii) 1.1.13 1 2 3 w-(iii)a (iv) 1.1.13 3 3 w-(i),a

(b) 1.1.14 3 3 6 w-(iii) a

4. (a)(i) 1.2.7 1 1 2 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.2.8 1 2 3 w-(iii) a

(b) 1.2.10 1 2 3 w-(iii) a

5.(i) Math req 2 2 w-(i),a (ii) Math req 5 5 w-(i),a (iii) Math req 3 3 w-(iii) c

6. (a)(i) 1.4.4 1 1 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.4.4

1.4.5 2 2 w-(iii) a

(iii) 1.4.6 2 2 4 w-(iii) a (b)(i) 1.4.9 1 1 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.4.14 2 2 w-(iii) a

7.(i) 1.4.11 2 2 w-(i) b (ii) 1.4.11 2 2 w-(i) b (iii) 1.4.12 2 2 w-(iii) a

Totals 36 27 17 40 40

DRAFT


Mark Specification Grid Science: Physics Unit 1 Higher Specimen Paper

Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Standard D - C

Higher B - A*

H S W

1. (a)(i) 1.2.3 2 2 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.2.3 2 2 w-(iii) a (iii) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a (iv) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a (v) 1.2.3 1 1 (vi) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a (vii) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a

(b) 1.2.1 6 6 w-(iii)c

2. (a)(i) 1.1.6 2 1 1

w-(iii) a

(ii) 1.1.4 1 2 3 w-(iii) a (iii) 1.1.9 1 2 2 1 w-(iii) a

(b) 1.1.8 3 3 6 w-(iii) a

3. (a)(i) 1.1.13 3 3 w-(i),a (ii) 1.1.13 1 1

(b) 1.1.14 3 3 6 w-(iii) a

4 (a)(i) 1.2.7 1 1 2 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.2.8 1 2 3 w-(iii) a (b)(i) 1.2.10 1 2 3 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.2.7 1 3 4 w-(iii) a

(c) 1.2.9 4 4 w-(iii) a

5. (i) * 2 2 w-(ii) c (ii) Math req 5 5 w-(i),a (iii) Math req 3 3 w-(iii) c

6. (a)(i) 1.3.2 1 1 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.3.3 2 2 w-(iii) a (iii) 1.3.4 1 3 4 w-(iii) a (b)(i) 1.1.20 1 3 4 w-(iii) a (ii) 1.1.20 2 2 w-(iii) a

(iii) 1.1.21 4 4 w-(i) a w-(i) b

7. (a) 1.4.9 3 3 w-(iii) c (b)(i) 1.4.10 4 4 w-(iii) a

(ii) 1.4.14 1 1 w-(iii) a (c) 1.4.11 2 2 w-(i) a

(d) 1.4.15 2 2 w-(iii) a (e) 1.4.2 6 6 w-(iii) a

Totals 42 36 20 58 42

DRAFT


Mark Specification Grid Science: Physics Unit 2 Foundation Specimen paper

Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Low G - E

Standard D - C

H S W

1.(a) (i) 2.1.9 2 2 (ii) 2.1.9 2 2 (b) 2.1.11 2 2

(c) (i) 2.1.13 1 1 (ii) 2.1.13 6 6

2.(a)(i) 2.1.6 1 1 (ii) 2.1.6 2 2 (iii) 2.1.6 2 2

(b) (i) 2.1.5 2 2 (ii) 2.1.5 3 3

3.(a)(i) 2.1.1 2 2 4 (ii) 2.1.1 1 1

(b) (i) 2.1.2 1 1 (ii) 2.1.2 1 1 (iii) 2.1.2 2 2 (iv) 2.1.2 3 3

4.(a) Math req 2 2 w(ii)d (b)(i) Math req 5 5 w(iii)c (ii) Math req 2 2 w(iii)c (iii) Math req 1 1 w(iii)c

5(a) 2.2.15 1 1 (b) 2.2.10 2 2 (c) 2.2.10 2 2 (d) 2.2.5 1 2 3

6.(a) (i) 2.3.2 3 3 (ii) 2.3.4 1 1

(b)(i) 2.3.5 1 1 (ii) 2.3.5 2 2

(c) (i) Math req 2 2 w(i)c (ii) Math req 4 4 w(iii)c (iii) Math req 3 3 w(i)b

7.(a)(i) 2.2.32 1 1 (ii) 2.2.32 2 2

(b) (i) 2.2.35 1 1 (ii) 2.2.35 1 1 (iii) 2.2.35 1 1

(c) (i) 2.2.34 3 3 (ii) 2.2.34 1 1

8(a) 2.2.24 6 6 w(iv)a (b) 2.2.25 3 3 (c) 2.2.22 2 2

Totals 38 33 19 45 45

DRAFT


Mark Specification Grid Science: Physics Unit 2 Higher Specimen paper

Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Standard D - C

Higher B - A*

H S W

1 (a)(i) 2.1.3 2 2 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.1.3 3 3 w-(iii)a) (b) 2.1.9 3 3

(c)(i) 2.1.14 2 2 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.1.14 3 3 (iii) 2.1.14 2 2 w-(iii)a)

2(a)(i) 2.1.17 4 4 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.1.17 2 2 (iii) 2.1.17 3 3 w-(iii)a) (b) 2.1.16 6 6 w-(iii)a)

3 (a)(i) 2.1.6 3 3 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.1.2 1 2 3 w-(iii)a)

(b)(i) 2.1.5 4 4 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2 2 (c) 2.3.17 3 3 w-(iii)a)

4(a) Math req 2 2 w- (i)b) (b)(i) Math req 5 5 w- (i)b) (b)(ii) 2 2 (b)(iii) Math req 1 1 w- (i)b)

5 (a)(i) 2.2.18 1 3 4 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.2.10 1 1 2 w-(iii)a) (iii) 2.2.6

2.2.10 2 2 w-(iii)a)

(b) 2.2.10 3 3 w-(iii)a) (c)(i) 2.2.10 1 1 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.2.11 1 1 w-(iii)a) (iii) 2.2.12 1 1 w-(iii)a)

(d)(i) 2.2.19 1 1 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.2.19 1 1 w-(iii)a)

6(a) 2.2.22 2 2 w-(iii)a) (b)(i) 2.2.26 1 2 1 4 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.2.25 6 6 w-(iii)a) (c) 2.2.24 3 3 w-(iii)a)

7 (a)(i),(ii) 2.3.2 2 2 w-(iii)a) (iii) 2.3.1 1 1 w-(iii)a) (b) 2.3.12 2 2 w-(iii)a)

(c)(i) Math req 2 2 (w-(i)b) (ii) Math req 4 4 (w-(i)b) (iii) Math req 3 3 (w-(i)b)

8(a)(i) 2.2.32 1 1 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.2.32 1 1 w-(iii)a) (iii) 2.2.32 2 2 w-(iii)a)

(b)(i) 2.2.34 1 2 3 w-(iii)a) (ii) 2.2.34 3 3 w-(iii)a)

9(a) Math req 2 2 (w-(i)b) (b) Math req 3 3 (w-(i)b)

Totals 46 44 25 57 58

DRAFT


physics sams

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