pmp mastery mentorship 202 q & a pmp. collected by ......pmp mastery mentorship 202 q & a pmp....

PMP Mastery Mentorship

202 Q & A PMP. Collected By Mohamed Adel

1

Collected By Mohamed Adel

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1) A project manager analyzed the project’s communication requirements and

decided that 10 out of the 30 stakeholders in the project would only need

voicemail updates of certain information. This type of communication is:

A. Push communication

B. Pull communication

C. Interactive communication

D. On-demand communication

A - Use of voicemail is push communication. In this type of communication,

information is distributed to specific recipients who need to know the

information. However, this method does not certify that the information actually

reached, or was received by, the intended audience. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page

374]

Answer



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2) A project involved development of a high-speed, hard disk drive. As part of its

testing, the hard disk was subjected to continuous operation at a high speed and

an elevated temperature. At the end of the test, the hard disk was destroyed

beyond use. The cost of such testing is usually classified as:

A. Appraisal costs

B. Internal failure costs

C. Cost of nonconformance

D. Prevention costs

A - This type of testing is called destructive testing, and it is classified under

appraisal costs. Along with other tests and inspections, it helps in assessing the

quality of the product. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 282]

Answer



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3) You and your team are documenting requirements on your project to control

fatigue as people need to work more hours to keep up with the competition. You

decided to set up categories for the requirements on your project. Temporary

capabilities are an example of—

a. Stakeholder requirements

b. Transition requirements

c. Project requirements

d. Business requirements

B. Transition requirements, there are a number of different ways to categorize

requirements. This question is an example of transition and readiness

requirements. They are temporary capabilities needed to transition from the

Answer



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current or as is stated to the desired future state. Examples include data

conversion and training requirements. [Planning] PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 148]

4) Identification of new risks, reassessment of old risks, and closing of outdated

risks are part of the Monitor Risks process. How often should project risk

reassessment be scheduled?

A. It depends on how the project progresses relative to its objectives.

B. Reassessment is necessary at the 50 percent and 75 percent stages of project

completion.

C. Reassessment is necessary at the 25 percent, 50 percent, and 75 percent stages

of project completion.

D. Reassessment is necessary at the 20 percent, 40 percent, 60 percent and 80

percent stages of project completion

A -The Monitor Risks process is performed throughout the project. The number of

project risk reassessments scheduled depends on the progress of the project

relative to its objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453]

5) Which of the following is the process of communicating and working with

stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues as they occur,

and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement?

A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

C. Manage Communications

D. Monitor Communications

Answer

Answer



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A - Manage Stakeholder Engagement is the process of communicating and

working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues

as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement. [PMBOK 6th

edition, Page 523]

6) Rick has just been assigned as the project manager of a project to develop a

complex product. The project is in the Define Scope phase. Which of these tools

and techniques will Rick not use in this phase?

A. Systems analysis

B. Process analysis

C. Product breakdown

D. Value engineering

B - Process Analysis is a tool and technique used in the Manage Quality process

and not in the Define Scope process. The other choices are valid Product Analysis

techniques used during the Define Scope process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 153]

Answer



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7) You are working to collect the requirements for your project to eliminate the

possibility of later scope creep. You have a variety of tools and techniques you can

use. Assume you want to obtain early feedback on the requirements, and you

have decided the most appropriate tool and technique is—

a. Interviews

b. Prototypes

c. Brainstorming

d. Requirements management plan

Answer



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B. Prototypes are useful to obtain early feedback on requirements. They provide a

model of the expected product before it is built. Then, stakeholders can

experiment with the model for the final product instead of discussing abstract

requirements for it. This approach supports progressive elaboration with iterative

cycles of mock-ups, user experiments, feedback, and prototype revision.

[Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 147

8) Teams go through various stages of development. According to the Tuckman

ladder of development, the stage during which the least amount of work gets

done is usually the:

A. Storming phase

B. Forming phase

C. Norming phase

D. Performing phase

Resource Management Plan

Answer



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B - The forming phase is the phase where the team gets to know each other and

learns about the project. Teams are usually on their "best behavior" and little

tangible work gets accomplished. The project manager needs to guide the team

and move them through this phase into the performing phase. [PMBOK 6th

edition, Page 338

9) During which stage of risk planning are risks prioritized based on their relative

probability and impact?

A. Perform Qualitative risk analysis

B. Identify Risks

C. Perform Quantitative risk analysis

D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer



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A - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assesses the impact and likelihood of

identified risks. During this process, the risks are prioritized based on their relative

probability and impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 419]

01) With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced and highly

competitive global marketplace, where long-term scope is difficult to define, it is

becoming even more important to have a ____ for effective adoption and

tailoring of development practices to respond to the changing needs of the

environment.

A. Rigid management approach

B. Predefined detailed scope

C. Contextual framework

D. Black box approach

Answer

C - With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced, highly

competitive global marketplace where long term scope is difficult to define, it is

becoming even more important to have a contextual framework for effective

adoption and tailoring of development practices to respond to the changing

needs of the environment. Traditional, predictive and rigid methods are not

suitable for projects operating in an environment with a high degree of

uncertainty. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177

10) At the beginning of the project, a project manager realized the technical

expertise of the team was limited, a risk to the project. Midway through the

project, the project manager decided that this was no longer a risk and

considered it outdated. As part of which process would he do the risk

reassessment?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis



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B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C. Perform Risk Assessment

D. Monitor Risks

Answer

D - Risk reassessment is performed as part of the Monitor Risks process. Such

project risk reassessments should be regularly scheduled and may result in the

closure of outdated risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453]

12) As part of a strategy to handle negative risk, a project manager decided to

adopt less complex processes, conduct more tests, and choose a more stable

supplier. What strategy would this be classified as?

A. Acceptance

B. Transference

C. Mitigation

D. Avoidance

Answer

C - Actions such as adopting less complex processes, more testing, or choosing a

more stable supplier would be considered mitigation. These actions reduce the

probability and impact of risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443]

13) Bill is the project manager of an external project for a customer. The project is

expected to take about a year to complete. Six months into the project, the

customer informs Bill that he or she needs to scrap the project. During which of

the following processes would procedures be developed to handle early

termination of a project?

A. Develop Project Charter



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B. Close Project or Phase

C. Define Scope

D. Monitor Risks

Answer

B -The Close Project or Phase process establishes the procedures to investigate

and document the reasons for actions taken if a project is terminated before

completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 123]

14) During a discussion with the quality department, Dave, a project manager,

was told that as applied to projects, the terms “prevention” and “inspection” are

synonymous. However, his understanding of the terms is different. What would

you comment on this situation?

A. The project manager is correct. Prevention is about keeping errors out of the

process; inspection is about keeping errors out of the customer’s hands.

B. The project manager is correct. Inspection is about keeping errors out of the

process; prevention is about keeping errors out of the customer’s hands.

C. The project manager is wrong. Both inspection and prevention are about

keeping errors out of the customer’s hands. They are used in different contexts.

D. The project manager is wrong. Both inspection and prevention are about

keeping errors out of the process. They are used in different contexts.

Answer

A - The project manager is correct. Prevention is about keeping errors out of the

process, whereas inspection is about keeping errors out of the hands of the

customer. This is an important distinction, which the project management team

needs to be aware of. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274]

15) Mark is managing an airport construction project. He is currently identifying

his project stakeholders, and he has compiled a long list of stakeholders already.



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Managing expectations of every project stakeholder is not practical. What should

he do in this situation?

A. Project stakeholders should be prioritized based on their influence and

interest.

B. Stakeholder analysis should be outsourced.

C. Non-key stakeholders should be dropped from the stakeholder register.

D. Stakeholder management processes should not be followed for such complex

projects.

Answer

A - When the stakeholders list becomes unmanageable, the project stakeholders

should be prioritized to ensure the efficient use of effort and time to manage

their expectations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 512]

16) While preparing a resource management plan, a project manager designated

one of the senior programmers on the team to make decisions on whether the

quality of deliverables met the project's documented standards. Which of the

following aspects of a resource management plan does this address?

A. Competency

B. Responsibility

C. Authority

D. Role

Answer

C - Authority is the best choice. Authority is the right to apply project resources

and make decisions within the project. These decisions could include quality

acceptance, selection of the method for completing an activity, and how to

respond to project variances. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 318]



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17) LA project manager uses the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for

constructing a project schedule network and creates a network diagram for the

purpose. He decides to use the most common type of precedence relationship for

all activities. Which of the following relationships would he use?

A. Start-to-finish (SF)

B. Finish-to-finish (FF)

C. Start-to-start (SS)

D. Finish-to-start (FS)

Answer

D - Finish-to-start (FS) is the most common type of precedence relationship. In

contrast, the start-to-finish (SF) relationship is rarely used. [PM 6th, Page 190]

18) Sally, a project manager, was reconciling expenditure of funds with funding

limits on the commitment of funds for the project. She found a large variance

between the funding limits and planned expenditures. As a result, she decided to

reschedule work to level out the rate of expenditures. This is:

A. Funding limit reconciliation

B. Funding limit constraints

C. Funding limit expenditure

D. Funding limit appropriation

Answer

A - This is known as funding limit reconciliation. It can be accomplished by placing

imposed date constraints for work into the project schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition,

Page 253]



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19) A project manager used the services of a trained moderator during the Collect

Requirements process. Which of the following is likely to have required the

services of a trained moderator?

A. Interviews

B. Prototypes

C. Questionnaires

D. Focus groups

Answer

D - Focus groups bring together prequalified stakeholders and subject matter

experts to learn about their expectations for, and attitudes toward, a proposed

product, service or result. Typically, a trained moderator is employed to guide the

group through an interactive discussion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 142]

21) Kelly is part of a project management office (PMO). Her office is responsible

for the centralized and coordinated management of 18 projects. Each project has

its own project manager. Which of the following will not typically be a

responsibility of her PMO?

A. Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight

B. Development of a detailed description of each project and the product it

produces.

C. Managing shared resources across all the projects administered by the PMO

D. Developing and managing project policies

Answer

B - The primary function of a PMO is to support project managers in a variety of

ways. This may include developing and managing project policies, coaching,

mentoring, training, and oversight. This may also include management of

resources that are shared across the projects. However, development of a



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detailed description of each project would be a responsibility of the project

manager handling the project, not of the PMO. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 48]

20) Jessica is managing an office refurbishment project. All the project

stakeholders are identified and classified. The stakeholder engagement plan is

also approved. Jessica is managing a project for the first time, and she is relying

on the PMBOK guide as a reference to deliver an excellent project. Which of the

following processes would provide guidance to Jessica regarding how to execute

the approved stakeholder engagement plan?

A. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C. Identify Stakeholders

D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Answer

B - The question is asking about the Stakeholder Management process from the

executing process group. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process executes

the stakeholder engagement strategy developed during the Plan Stakeholder

Engagement process. The Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process deals with

making the necessary adjustments to the stakeholder engagement strategy.

[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523

22) Which of the following statements accurately describes how the completion

of project scope and the completion of product scope are measured?

A. The completion of project scope and product scope are both measured against

the product requirements.

B. The completion of project scope is measured against the project management

plan, and the completion of product scope is measured against the product

requirements.



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C. The completion of project scope is measured against the product requirements,

and the completion of product scope is measured against the project

management plan.

D. The completion of project scope and product scope are both measured against

the project management plan.

Answer

B - The completion of project scope is measured against the project management

plan, whereas the completion of product scope is measured against the product

requirements. The work of the project results in delivery of the specified product

scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131]

23) Bill and Jake are two team members in a project. They do not get along well

and are constantly involved in verbal conflicts. The project manager understands

the characteristics of conflict and the conflict management process and tries to

resolve the situation. Which of the following is not a correct statement?

A. Openness resolves conflict

B. Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives

C. Conflict is inevitable in a project environment.

D. The project manager is not responsible for conflict management.

Answer

D - Project team members are initially responsible for resolution of them conflicts.

If conflict escalates, the project manager should help resolve it. [PM 6th Page 348

24) You are planning to conduct the team-building portion of your new project

management training curriculum out-of-doors in the local park. You are limited to

scheduling the course at certain times of the year, and the best time for the

course to begin in mid-July. You are using the precedence diagramming method

for your schedule. In it, you can show relationships between tasks in four ways,

and the most common is—



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A. Finish-to-start

B. Finish-to-finish

C. Start-to-start

D. Start-to-finish

Answer

A. Finish-to-start. While many schedules use all four approaches, especially on

complex projects, the most common approach is finish to start. In it a successor

activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished. The start-to-finish

approach is rarely used, but you should recognize it could be used in case you

have an exam question about it. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK ®️ Guide, 2017, 190

25) Project schedule development is an iterative process. If the start and finish

dates are not realistic, the project probably will not finish as planned. You are

working with your team to define how to monitor any schedule changes. You

documented your decisions in which of the following?

A. Schedule change control procedures

B. Schedule management plan

C. Schedule risk plan

D. Service-level agreement

Answer

B. Schedule management plan is part of the overall project management plan.

Whether it is formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, it is based on

specific project needs. It is the output of the Plan Schedule Management process.

It Includes appropriate control thresholds. It establishes criteria and activities to

develop, maintain, and control the schedule. [Planning] PMBOK®️, 2017, 151



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26) You can use various estimating approaches to determine activity durations.

When you have a limited amount of information available about your project,

especially when in the early phases, the best approach to use is—

A. Bottom-up estimating

B. Analogous estimating

C. Reserve analysis

D. Parametric analysis

Answer

B. Analogous estimating is a tool and technique in Estimate Activity Durations.

Although limitations exist with all estimating approach, analogous estimating is

often used when there is a limited amount of information for the project. It uses

historical information from a similar activity or a project. It uses data from a

previous but similar project such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity

to estimate the same data or measure for a future project. It is considered as a

gross value estimating approach, which often is adjusted for known differences in

project complexity. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 200

27) You are working on identifying possible risks to your project to develop a

nutritional supplement. You want to develop a comprehensive list of risks that

can be addressed later through qualitative and quantitative risk analysis. A data

gathering technique used to identify risks is—

A. Documentation reviews

B. Probability and impact analysis

C. Prompt lists

D. Brainstorming

Answer



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D. Brainstorming is a frequently used data gathering technique for identifying risk.

It enables the project team to develop a list of potential risks relatively quickly.

Project team members, often with invited experts, possibly under the direction of

a facilitator, participate in the session. Traditional brainstorming sessions are free

form, or other approaches may be used. Categories of risks, such as in a RBS, can

be used as a framework. The identified risks should be described as brainstorming

may result in ideas that may not be completely formed. It is part of several data

gathering approaches as data gathering is a tool and technique in Identify Risks.


28) Assume you have prepared your risk management plan, identified possible

risks, analyzed them, and determined possible responses if they occur. Now it is

time to Implement Risk Responses. The benefit of this process is to—

A. Present a sequence of decision choices to decision makers

B. Ensure agreed-upon risk response are executed as planned.

C. Ensure actions to implement risks are only taken from people who are on the

team

D. Help take into account the attitudes of the decision makers toward risk

Answer

B. Ensure agreed-upon risk response are executed as planned the purpose of the

Implement Risk Response process is to implement agreed-upon risk responses.

The key benefit is it ensures these responses are executed as planned such that it

addresses overall project risk exposure, minimizes individual potential threats,

and maximizes project opportunities. [Executing] PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 449

29) The Identify Risks process involves determining which risks may impact a

project. It is considered an iterative process. What is the frequency of the

iteration?

A. Every month

B. Every two weeks



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C. The frequency of iteration will vary based on the situation.

D. Every week

Answer

C - Identify Risks is an iterative process as risks become known or evolve. The

frequency of iteration, and who participates in each cycle, will vary by the

situation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 411]

31) You are using an RBS to manage your risk categories. What process are you

performing?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Identify Risks

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer

A - You use an RBS to figure out and organize your risk categories even before you

start to identify them. Then you decompose the categories into individual risks as

part of Identify Risks. Pmbok pg. 405

31) A new project manager has just taken over a project that is 50 percent

complete. As part of the hand-over process, the outgoing project manager

provided the new project manager with a list of stakeholders that needed to be

managed. The list had been compiled at the start of the project. Which of the

following is true about stakeholders?

A. Stakeholder identification is usually performed when there are problems with

the project.

B. Stakeholder identification needs to happen at the start of each new phase of a

project



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C. Stakeholder identification is a continuous process and needs to happen all

through the project.

D. Stakeholder identification needs to happen at the start of the project

Answer

C - Stakeholder identification is a continuous process and can be quite difficult.

Failure to identify stakeholders can result in project overruns. The new project

manager can use the list of stakeholders provided by the outgoing project

manager as a starting point, but he or she will still need to perform his or her own

analysis to identify stakeholders during the rest of the project. [PMBOK 6th

edition, Page 507]

32) Working with your team to provide the basis for measuring and reporting

schedule progress, you agree to consider the—

a. Schedule data

b. Network diagram

c. Schedule baseline

d. Technical baseline

Answer

C - The schedule baseline is a key input to the Control Schedule process. It is

compared with actual results to determine if a change requires corrective or

preventive action. [Monitoring and Controlling] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ 224

33) Acceptance is a strategy adopted because it is not possible to eliminate all

risks from a project. This strategy indicates that the project management team

has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk. What

action does passive acceptance require?

A. Passive acceptance is no longer adopted in projects and is a poor project

management practice.



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B. Passive acceptance requires no action except to document the strategy and

come up with a risk management strategy.

C. Passive acceptance requires no action.

D. Passive acceptance requires no proactive action except periodic review of the

threat.

Answer

D - Acceptance is a strategy adopted because it is not possible to eliminate all

risks from a project. This strategy indicates that the project management team

has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk.

Passive acceptance requires no action except performing periodic review of the

threat. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443]

34) A buyer and seller set the rates for junior engineers, senior engineers,

architects, and other predefined roles. In what type of contract would this be

applicable?

A. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract

B. Fixed-price incentive contract

C. Fixed-price contract

D. Time and material contract

Answer

D - In time-and-materials contracts, the buyer and seller agree on unit labor rates

and the actual cost of materials. Both parties agree on specific hourly rates for

such categories as junior or senior engineers. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472]

35) “I cannot test the software until I code the software.” This expression

describes which of the following dependencies?

a. Internal

b. Rational



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c. Preferential

d. Mandatory or hard

Answer

D - Mandatory or hard dependencies may be required contractually or may be

inherent in the nature of the project work. Dependency determination and

integration is a tool and technique in the Sequence Activity process. They describe

a relationship in which the successor activity cannot be started because of

physical constraints until the predecessor activity has been finished. For example,

software cannot be tested until it has been developed (or coded). They may be

called hard logic or hard dependencies; however, technical dependencies may not

be mandatory. This distinction is important to remember. The project team

determines the dependencies that are mandatory as it sequences the activities.

However, these dependencies should not be confused with assigning constraints

in the scheduling tool. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 191

36) Your project schedule was approved. Management has now mandated that

the project be completed as soon as possible. However, you do not think it is

possible given resource constraints. In order to convince your management of

your need for additional resources, you decide to use—

a. Resource manipulation

b. Resource breakdown structure

c. Critical chain scheduling

d. Resource leveling

Answer

D - While resource leveling will often result in a project duration that is longer

than the preliminary schedule as the original critical path probably will change

and increase, it can also be used to get a schedule back on track by reassigning

activities from noncritical to critical path activities. It is a resource optimization

technique in the Develop Schedule process. Start and finish dates are adjusted



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based on resource constraints, and the goal is to balance demand with the

available supply of resources. It is used when scarce or critically required

resources are only available at certain times or in limited quantities, are over

allocated if the resource is assigned to two activities at the same time, or to keep

resource use at a constant level. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 211

37) The project manager for a construction project discovers that the local city

council may change the building code to allow adjoining properties to combine

their sewage systems. She knows that a competitor is about to break ground in

the adjacent lot and contacts him to discuss the possibility of having both projects

save costs by building a sewage system for the two projects. This is an example of

which strategy?

A. Mitigate

B. Share

C. Accept

D. Exploit

Answer

B - Sharing is when a project manager figures out a way to use an opportunity to

help not just her project but another project or person as well. Examples of

sharing actions include forming risk-sharing partnerships, teams, special-purpose

companies, or joint ventures PMBOK Pg. 444

38) An Agile team is working on Project XYZ. They encountered a critical problem

and are brainstorming to resolve the problem. What will be the most effective

way in resolving the problem?

a. Create an environment where mistakes are allowed

b. Create rewards program to the one solving the problem

c. Ask experts in the concerned field

d. Create environment where individuals can work on their own



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Answer

A - When we are allowed to make mistakes then we don’t feel threatened by the negative outcome. This helps in encouraging trying out different approaches to solve the problem.

39) In Agile, velocity helps to know how much team can accomplish in future

iterations. Which of the following is NOT true about velocity?

a. It measures team’s capacity for work per iteration

b. It varies the most during the first few iterations

c. It stabilizes after few iterations

d. It always increases with time as the team members get habitual of working with each other.

Answer

D - Velocity gets stabilized with time as team needs to maintain, refactor, and support already developed and deployed solutions. Moreover, sometimes team adds some improvement activities decided in retrospective meetings in the iteration which also let team pick up fewer story points for the iterations.

41) Project manager was setting up the agenda for the next project meeting. Few

members argued over one feature. Some said it should be included for detailed

discussion while others said it would be too early to go for detailed discussion.

Project manager decided to include it but mentioned that only high level

discussion would be done for this feature. Which conflict resolution technique is

being used by project manager?

a. Smoothing

b. Withdrawal



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c. Compromising

d. Forcing

Answer

C - Project Manager included viewpoints of both the parties but didn’t include it completely to satisfy both the parties up to a certain extent. This is an example of compromise.

41) Team is working on the project ABC. It encountered problem in an activity

with the free float. Due to this, its duration got extended by the project manager.

What is MOST likely to be affected in this situation?

a. Resource schedules

b. Project duration

c. Start date of the successor activity

d. Scope management plan

Answer

A - Since an activity with float will not affect the project duration as long as any delay is not greater than the float, choice B could not be best. Choice D cannot be best as this situation is not related to scope, just time. An activity with free float means it has time where it can be delayed without impacting the next activity. Therefore, choice C cannot be best. Any delay in when an activity is to be completed will most likely impact resources schedules.

41) A project manager is estimating project costs and needs to decide whether

the estimates will include direct costs only or include indirect costs, as well. In

which of the following phases does this decision need to take place?

A. Define Scope

B. Estimate Costs



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C. Plan Expenses

D. Determine Budget

Answer

B - This is done in the Estimate Costs process. The project manager works in

accordance with the organization's guidelines and decides whether the estimates

will be limited to direct project costs only or whether the estimates will also

include indirect costs. Indirect costs are those that cannot be traced to one

specific project, and are usually allocated equitably over multiple projects.

[PMBOK 6th edition, Page246]

42) Joe is the project manager of a large software project. When it’s time to

identify risks on his project, he contacts a team of experts and sends them a list of

questions to help them all come up with a list of risks and send it in. What

technique is Joe using?

A. SWOT

B. Ishikawa diagramming

C. Interviews

D. Brainstorming

Answer

C - Using the Interview technique, experts supply their opinions of risks for your

project so that they each get a chance to think about the project. Interview is a

formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to

them directly. It is typically performed by asking prepared and spontaneous

questions and recording the responses. Interviews are often conducted on an

individual basis between an interviewer and an interviewee, but may involve

multiple interviewers and/or multiple interviewees. Interviewing experienced

project participants, sponsors, other executives, and subject matter experts can

aid in identifying and defining the features and functions of the desired product

deliverables. Interviews are also useful for obtaining confidential information.



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43) After conducting a bidder conference, you receive an email from one of the

bidders requesting additional information. The information was neither included

in your request for proposal, nor did anyone ask for it during the bidder

conference. You realize the answer to this question is critical to understanding the

scope of the project. If the answer is not communicated to bidders, they cannot

size their teams accurately or estimate the total duration of the project. The

answer also greatly affects cost. However, the answer contains some proprietary

information that, if disclosed to a competitor, may reveal the future product

strategy of your company. Such a disclosure could be disastrous for a major

product launch you are planning next year. You decide to send the answer to all

the bidders, but you realize one of the bidders is also working closely with one of

your competitors on a similar project. What should you do?

A. Don’t send this information in writing; instead, telephone each bidding

company.

B. Send this information to all bidders except the bidder working with your

competitor.

C. Send this information to only the supplier who requested it.

D. Require all bidders to sign a nondisclosure agreement. You may then send the

information to each company that signed the NDA.

Answer

D - The best choice is to require all bidders to sign a non-disclosure agreement

(NDA) before sending them this additional information, and then provide the

additional information to each bidder that has signed an NDA. Project managers

are required to act fairly and provide equal access to information to all authorized

parties. Sending the information to only some of the bidding companies would

represent a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. [PMI

Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct]

44) During a project status meeting, a project manager presented sensitive

information related to the project. However, this information was not intended to



29



be available to the audience. Which of the following processes was done

incorrectly, resulting in the project manager communicating sensitive information

to the wrong audience?

A. Monitor Communications

B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C. Plan Communications Management

D. Identify Stakeholders

Answer

C - Deciding what information is relevant to an audience is an activity done in the

Plan Communications Management process. Improper communication planning

will lead to problems such as delays in message delivery or communication of

sensitive information to the wrong audience. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 366

45) A project manager created a resource histogram. On the histogram, some

bars extended beyond the maximum available hours. What does this usually

signify?

A. This means that the resources on those bars are being underused.

B. This means that a resource optimization strategy needs to be applied.

C. This means the resources are producing outputs at a rate faster than the

average rate.

D. This means that resources need to be reduced from the project.

Answer

B - If the bars in a resource histogram extend beyond the maximum available

hours, it means that a resource optimization strategy needs to be applied, such as

adding more resources or modifying the schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 220]



30



46) A project manager needs team members that report to a functional manager.

What technique is the project manager most likely to use to obtain these

resources?

A. Pre-assignment

B. Authority

C. Negotiation

D. Coercion

Answer

C - Staff assignments are negotiated on many projects. The project manager will

negotiate with functional managers to ensure that the project receives

competent staff in the required time frame. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 332]

47) Which of the following statements about project teams is incorrect?

A. The project management team is usually a team external to the project team.

B. The project management team is a subset of the project team.

C. For smaller projects, the entire team can share the project management

responsibilities.

D. For smaller projects, the project manager can solely administer project

management responsibilities.

Answer

A - The project management team is a subset of the project team.

[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 86]

48) You’re performing Identify Risks on a software project. Two of your team

members have spent half of the meeting arguing about whether or not a

particular risk is likely to happen on the project. You decide to table the

discussion, but you’re concerned that your team’s motivation is at risk. The next



31



item on the agenda is a discussion of a potential opportunity on the project in

which you may be able to purchase a component for much less than it would cost

to build. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to respond to an opportunity?

A. Exploit

B. Transfer

C. Share

D. Enhance

Answer

B - You wouldn’t want to transfer an opportunity to someone else! You always

want to find a way to use that opportunity for the good of the project. That’s why

the response strategies for opportunities are all about figuring out ways to use

the opportunity to improve your project (or another, in the case of sharing).

PMBOK Pg. 443

49) Risks that are caused by the response to another risk are called:

A. Residual risks

B. Secondary risks

C. Cumulative risks

D. Mitigated risks

Answer

B - A secondary risk is a risk that could happen because of your response to

another Risk. Pmbok pg. 722

50) What’s the main output of the Risk Management processes?

A. The Risk Management plan

B. The risk breakdown structure

C. Work performance information



32



D. The risk register and project documents updates

Answer

D - The processes of Risk Management are organized around creating the risk

register, and updating it as part of project documents updates.

51) A company is undergoing some changes due to which it decided to do some

new type of projects. However, it got request from one of its old customers for

the project which doesn't match with the new type of projects. What would be

the best way for the Project Manager in this case?

a. Decline the request

b. Consult PMO

c. Ask management for the project charter

d. Conduct cost-benefit analysis

Answer

B -The PMO determines whether a project supports the organization’s strategy and can authorize exceptions to projects.

52) Sara is working as the scrum master for her team. During her absence, senior

management asked team about the current project schedule and future plans.

Team prepared detailed task status and plans and shared with the senior

management. Senior Management liked it very much and asked team to share

these reports on regular basis. Sara got to know about it when she joined back.

What should she do in such scenario?

a. Appreciate the team and continue reporting the same way as senior

management liked it

b. Discuss with senior management and revoke the detailed plans

c. Track team performance against the plan and make necessary changes



33



d. Display the detailed plan to the whole team so that everyone is aware of the

status

Answer

B - Agile projects are change-driven. They do not follow detailed plans. Having detailed plans restrict agility and restrict necessary changes required.

53) Sheila is the project manager of a website development project. After a

detailed discussion with the project management team, she decides to create an

informal, broadly framed quality management plan. What would your comment

on this be?

A. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be formal but broadly

framed.

B. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be formal and highly

detailed.

C. This is fine. The project requirements determine the style and detail of the

quality management plan.

D. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be informal and highly

detailed.

Answer

C - The quality management plan may be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed. Its style and detail are determined by the requirements of the project as defined by the project management team. [PMBOK 6th Page 286]

54) A project manager was involved in preparation of the project charter for an

external project. One of the inputs to the project charter was a statement of work

(SOW). The SOW may have been received from the customer as part of any of the

following except:

A. As part of a request for information



34



B. As part of the business case

C. As part of a request for proposal

D. As part of a contract

Answer

B - The statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products or services

to be delivered by the project. For an external project, the SOW may be received

as part of a bid document such as the request for proposal, request for

information, request for bid or as part of a contract. It is usually not part of the

business case. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 477]

55) Team has been working on difficult issues 9n a critical project. During the

discussion, few members disagreed on how the work has to be done. Project

sponsor had to intervene to resolve the issue. During later phase, project

manager discovered that a particular task was not completed as it was intended

to be done. What did the project manager NOT do?

a) Ask team members responsible for the work to describe how the task would be

done

b) Ensure functional managers should be involved during development

c) Provide training to team members

d) Organize team building sessions

Answer

A - When the work is not straightforward and team members disagrees on how

the work should be done then it became very much important that after

agreement ask members responsible for the work to describe how they would

complete the work or resolve the issues in detail. This helps to make sure whole

team is on the same page.



35



56) To define the logical relationship among dependencies accurately, a project

manager is determining which ones require a lead or a lag. Which of the following

correctly describes leads or lags?

A. A lead allows a successor activity to be delayed.

B. A lag directs a delay in the predecessor activity.

C. A lag allows acceleration of the successor activity.

D. A lead allows an acceleration of the successor activity.

Answer

D - To define the logical relationship among dependencies accurately, the project

management team determines which ones require a lead or a lag. A lead allows

an acceleration of the successor activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192]

57) While working on your project, you identify a new risk at 50 percent project

completion. There is a very high probability the risk will occur on the project,

while at the same time, it is expected to have a low impact. Which of the

following mitigation strategies would you use?

a) You will add risk to the watch list

b) You will get insurance to cover the risk

c) You will eliminate the risk and impact

d) You will avoid the risk

Answer

A - Since the risk has a low impact, it is best to add the risk to the watch list and

see if it's impact will be greater down the road. Risks will always present

themselves on projects, you need to decide which one of them are important

enough to stop you from creating the final deliverable as required within the cost

and schedule. This is why you have a list of prioritized risks which you need to

address. It is not worth spending time and money on a risk with low impact.



36



58) Currently, there are 7 people in the project team. 2 more resources are added

later on in the project's life. What is the number of the additional channels of

communication?

A.21

B.15

C.36

D.9

Answer

B - Formula = [N (N-1)/2] First there were 7 members of the project team [7(7-

1)/2] = 21 Channels of Communication Then there were 9 members of the project

team [9(9-1)/2] = 36 Channels of Communication 36-21 = 15 additional channels

of communication.

59) Dina, the project manager of a hardware project, is performing a structured

review of the procurement process. She would like to examine each document

from the Plan Procurement Management process through the Control

Procurements process to identify failures. What tool should Dina use?

A. Procurement audits in the control procurements process

B. Performance reports in the conduct procurements process

C. Negotiated settlements in the control procurements process

D. Procurement audits in the conduct procurements process

Answer

A - A procurement audit is a tool in the Control Procurements process.

Procurement audits are carried out to identify successes and failures that warrant

recognition. When this tool is used, all procurement processes are thoroughly

checked, and corresponding documents are checked for problems. Therefore, the



37



correct answer is procurement audits in the Control Procurements process.


60) Erica is managing a kitchen tools manufacturing project, which is intended to

produce modern cooking ovens. This project is hugely important for the company

as well as for Erica‘s career. Although the project scope statement was well-

defined and requirements were gathered from stakeholders in the planning

phase, many design change requests have come in from customers during project

execution. Which of the following tasks must Erica perform to avoid scope creep

caused by uncontrollable changes?

A. Perform validate scope process and process all changes through the plan risk

responses process

B. Perform integrated change control process and process all changes through the

control quality process

C. Perform scope control and process all changes through the integrated change

control process

D. Perform scope control and process all changes through the validate scope

process

Answer

C - All scope changes must be controlled in a project through the Control Scope

process. However, scope control must also ensure that all changes requested by

customers go through the Perform Integrated Change

Control process. This way, scope creep can be avoided, and project changes can

be managed. Hence, Erica must perform scope control and process all changes

through the Integrated Change Control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168

61) Decomposition is a technique used for both WBS development and activity

definition. However, in Define Activities, decomposition—

a. The final output is described in terms of work packages in the WBS.



38



b. The final output is described as deliverables or tangible items.

c. The final output is described as activities.

d. Is used the same way in scope definition and activity definition.

Answer

C. The final output is described as activities, In the Create WBS process, the work

package is defined as the lowest level of the WBS to then estimate and manage

cost and duration. In the Define Activities process, the final output is described as

activities. It is a tool and technique in both processes as it divides and subdivides

the project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. Activities

represent the effort to create the work package in Create WBS. The best

approach is to involve team members in decomposition in both processes.


62) A schedule performance index of less than 1.0 indicates that the—

a. Project is running behind the monetary value of the work it planned to

accomplish

b. Earned value physically accomplished thus far is 100%

c. Project has experienced a permanent loss of time

d. Project may not be on schedule, but the project manager need not be

concerned

Answer

A. Project is running behind the monetary value of the work it planned to

accomplish, The SPI represents how much of the originally scheduled work has

been accomplished at a given period in time, thus providing the project team with

insight as to whether the project is on schedule. It is a measure of schedule

efficiency and is calculated by EV/PV. A SPI of 1 means the project is on schedule,

and the work that has been done to date is exactly the same as the work that was

planned. Other values show how much costs are over or under [as in this



39



example] the budgeted amount for the work planned. [Monitoring and

Controlling] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 226

63) You recently joined a new organization where you have been given the

responsibility of leading the project management office. What is the FIRST thing

you should do?

A .Talk to the main stakeholders to develop an understanding of the organization

and its projects.

B. Develop strong communication with your senior management

C. Review the historical documents

D. Immediately get involved in the projects so as not to waste time

Answer

A - Speaking directly to the stakeholders first will allow you to come up to speed

with the nature of the organization and a better understanding of the

stakeholder’s requirements.

64) Which of the following can include information such as: Source of the

requirements, Requirement identification number, and person assigned for

managing the requirement

A. Work Breakdown Structure

B. Project Scope Baseline

C. Requirements Traceability Matrix

D. Pareto Chart

Answer

C - The traceability requirement matrix includes all this information. It links the

objectives of the project with the requirements.



40



65) Assume you are working to sequence the activities in your schedule. You have

focused on the need for predecessors and successors for your tasks. Now, you

have finished, and you realize—

a. You have a fragment.

b. There can be multiple predecessors for some tasks.

c. Several identical or nearly identical series of activities are repeated throughout

the project.

d. There are too many successors.

Answer

B. There can be multiple predecessors for some tasks. The main output in

Sequence Activities is a project network diagram of the logical relationships or

dependencies in the schedule activities. A summary narrative can accompany th

diagram. You also may have multiple predecessors for a task or activity, which is

known as path convergence. Activities with multiple successors are known as path

divergence. In both of these situations, these activities or tasks are at greater risk.


66) Which of the following is so important that they should always be included on

the list of items under discussion at all team meetings.

A. Discussing project deadlines

B. Discussing project activities

C. Discussing the risks on the project

D. Devising ways to engage stakeholders on the project

Answer

C - It is of utmost importance to discuss risks at project meetings

67) One of your key suppliers for an important deliverable is constantly making

delays in submitting his work to your project. You decide to deal with the



41



situation when you have more time available from your current workload. You are

using the conflict resolution technique known as:

A.Compromising

B. Withdrawing

C. Smoothing

D. Postponing

Answer

B - This technique would be considered as Withdrawing since you are not dealing

with the situation directly at that time.

68) While working on your construction project, you come across environmental

risks that could negatively affect the project. It would be best to hire a consultant

to share insights and advice on tackling the challenges. Which contract type

should be used for hiring the consultant?

A. Cost plus Fixed Fee

B. Time and Material

C. Fixed Price

D. Cost plus Incentive Fee

Answer

B - The most appropriate contract type is the Time and Material contract since the

project is already under way and you have to hire someone in the middle of the

project without a procurement statement of work.

69) You’re managing a project to fulfill a military contract. Your project team is

assembled, and work has begun. Your government project officer informs you

that a supplier that you depend on has lost the contract to supply a critical part.

You consult your risk register and discover that you did not plan for this. What’s

the BEST way to handle this situation?



42



A. Consult the Probability and Impact matrix

B. Perform Quantitative and Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Recommend preventive actions

D. Look for a new supplier for the part

Answer

D - You’ve got an unplanned event that’s happened on your project. Is that a risk?

No. It’s a project problem, and you need to solve that problem. Your Probability

and Impact matrix won’t help, because the probability of this happening is

100%—it’s already happened. No amount of risk planning will prevent or mitigate

the risk. And there’s no sense in trying to take preventive actions, because there’s

no way you can prevent it. So the best you can do is start looking for a new part

supplier.

70) The scope of work in a project could not be clearly defined. There was also a

strong possibility that the scope would change during the course of the project.

Which type of contract would suit this type of situation?


B. Fixed-price contract

C. Cost-reimbursable contract

D. Fixed-price incentive contract

Answer

C - A cost-reimbursable contract gives the project flexibility to redirect a seller

whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely determined at the start of the

project and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort.


71) A member of your team informs you that she does not know which project is

the most important one out of the several projects she is working on. In a large



43



organization, who is responsible for determining the priorities between the

different projects?

A. The Team itself

B. The Project Manager of the team

C. The Project Management Team

D. PMO (Project Management Office)

Answer

D -The PMO is responsible for determining the priorities between projects.

72) A project manager is considering risk in a project. When does risk come into

play in a project?

A. During the SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) Analysis

B. During the Identify Risks phase

C. As soon as the Plan Risk Management phase begins

D. As soon as a project is conceived

Answer

D - Project risk exists in a project from the moment the project is conceived. The

risks are identified as part of specific processes, but the risks always exist.


73) Jackie is the project manager of a large project. During the Determine

Budget process, she identifies that contingency reserves need to be set up for

unplanned but potentially necessary changes that could result from realized risks

identified in the risk register. Which of the following is true about reserves?

A. Management Reserves are not a part of project cost baseline, but will be

included in the total budget for the project.



44



B. Contingency Reserves are not a part of project cost baseline, but will be

included in the total budget for the project

C. Both the Management Reserves and the Contingency Reserves are part of

project cost baseline, and they are also not included in the total budget for the

project

D. Both the Management Reserves and the Contingency Reserves are not part of

project cost baseline, but they are included in the total budget for the project

Answer

A - Management Reserves are not a part of the project cost baseline but will be

included in the total budget for the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 252]

74) You are meeting with your stakeholders to gather requirements for your

project. You are well aware that requirements to be gathered include both

product and project requirements. All the following tools can be used to gather,

define, and analyze project requirements from stakeholders except:

A. Surveys

B. Focus Groups

C. Decomposition

D. Prototypes

Answer

C - Both product and project requirements are gathered from stakeholders during

the Collect Requirements process. This effort is undertaken during project

planning. Focus groups, surveys, and prototypes are some of the tools used to

define and analyze requirements. Decomposition is used only to break down the

work and not to gather requirements. Therefore, decomposition is the correct

answer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 138, 158]

75) At the recent meeting, you discover that the customer is not satisfied with a

certain deliverable of the project. What is the Best thing to do?



45



A. Discuss with the team on what changes can be implemented

B. Develop another variation of the deliverable and present it to the customer

immediately

C. Tell the customer the deliverable is exactly in line with the scope defined for

the project

D. Ask the customer why they are not satisfied with the deliverable

Answer

D - You need to discover why the customer is not satisfied, the rest of the options

can be implemented after you determine the cause of dissatisfaction.

76) An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th.

The activity has a duration of four days. There are no non-workdays. From the

information given, what can be concluded about the activity?

a. Total float for the activity is nine days.

b. The early finish date of the activity is the end of the day on the 14th.

c. The late finish date is the 25th.

d. The activity can be completed in two days if the resources devoted to it are

doubled.

Answer

A - Total float for the activity is nine days, Total float or slack is computed by

subtracting the early start date from the late start date, or 19 – 10 = 9. To

compute the early finish date given a duration of 4, we would start counting the

activity on the morning of the 10th; therefore, the activity would be completed at

the end of day 13, not 14 (10, 11, 12, 13). If we started the activity on its late start

date on the morning of the 19th, we would finish at the end of day 22, not 25.

Insufficient information is provided to determine whether this activity can be

completed in 2 days if the resources are doubled. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️

Guide, 2017, 210–211



46



77) A project manager is highly Skeptical of his team members. He constantly

monitors their every move and doubts their performance. The project manager

can be considered to be a:

a. Functional Manager

b. Theory Y Manager

c. Maslow's motivational theory proponent

d. Theory X Manager

Answer

D - Theory X managers exhibit such behavior while Theory Y managers give more

empowerment and decision making authority to employees.

78) What is your analysis of a situation whereby the Earned Value of your project

is lesser than Planned Value and if the performance of the project were to

continue the same way?

A. The project will be behind schedule when it completes

B. The project will end up costing lesser than the original planned cost

C. The estimate at completion will be low compared to what was originally

planned

D. The project will perform ahead of the originally planned schedule

Answer

A - If EV is lesser than PV, the project will finish behind schedule.

79) The project team identifies a risk and shares information on it with the Project

Manager. After extensive discussions with the management, a strategy is

developed to deal with it. It is decided that it is in the best interest of the project

to allow the risk to happen. Which type of Risk Response Strategy is being used?

A. Share



47



B. Accept

C. Exploit

D. Enhance

Answer

C - Since the risk is an opportunity, it has been decided by the stakeholders that

they will exploit it, which refers to making changes to the project to ensure that

the risk occurs and the benefit from the opportunity is gained.

80) Regina the sponsor of a large publishing project, meets with all of the

stakeholders on the project to ask for their support in an upcoming testing event.

Which engagement level is he displaying?

A. Unaware

B. Resistant

C. Supportive

D. Leading

Answer

D -Since Regina is working to bring other stakeholders to support the project, he’s

in a leading engagement role.

81) You are the project manager of ABC project. Mid-way through the project a

key component was found defective. This was not planned for. The team met

after the event and managed to make the product work without the defective

component. This is an example of -

A. Risk mitigation

B. Transfer of risk

C. Workaround

D. Accepting the consequences passively.



48



Answer

C - This was an unplanned event that happened. Workaround refers to handling

of risk that has occurred but was not planned for workarounds are unplanned

responses developed to deal with the occurrence of unanticipated events or

problems on a project (or to deal with risks that had been accepted because of

unlikelihood of occurrence and/ or minimal impact.

82) A stakeholder in your company has a regular habit of requesting multiple

changes on projects. What is the ideal approach a project manager can take to

handle this situation at the beginning of the project?

A. Involve the stakeholder on the project as early as possible

B. Deny the stakeholders change requests since they could be harmful for the

project costs and schedule

C. Request the stakeholder’s manager to allocate him to a different project

D. Request the stakeholder to make fewer change requests

Answer

A - Most problems on projects arise because certain stakeholder’s requirements

were not fully taken into account at the beginning of the project. To avoid such a

situation, involve the stakeholder as soon as possible and get their requirements

so as to avoid changes later on during the projects life.

83) You are part of an expert committee deciding which project should be

implemented by your company. Your committee asks tough questions from the

project teams and helps decide which project your company should select. Which

project selection technique are you using?

A. Scoring Model

B. Committee Selection

C. Murder Board



49



D. Defined Benefit

Answer

C - Murder board is a process where a committee asks questions from project

representatives as part of the project selection process.)Murder Board ( It is a

panel of people who try to shoot down a new project. Participants in the panel

act as the devil’s advocate and try to claim negative aspects that will come with

the implementation of the project. Based on the results of the panel, if a project

can defend these negative aspects, it is selected for initiation.

84) Project managers should pay attention to critical and subcritical activities

when evaluating project time performance. One way to do this is to analyze 10

subcritical paths in order of ascending float. This approach is part of—

a. Variance analysis

b. Simulation

c. Earned value management

d. Trend analysis

Answer

A - Performance of variance analysis during Control Schedule is a tool and

technique that can be used. It focuses on variance analysis in planned versus

actual start and finish dates, planned versus actual durations, and variances in

float. Float variance is an essential planning component for evaluating project

time performance. It determines the cause and degree of variance relative to the

schedule baseline, estimates the implications of the variances for future work to

complete the project, and helps decide if corrective or preventive action is

needed. It may not be needed on some activities not on the critical path, but an

activity on the critical path may need immediate attention. [Monitoring and

Controlling] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 227



50



85) During the execution of a project, a large number of defects were discovered.

The project manager ensured that the issues, defect resolution, and action item

results were logged into a defects database. What would the defect database be

considered a part of?

A. Expert Judgment

B. Deliverables

C. Change Requests

D. Organizational Process Assets

Answer

D - Issue and defect management databases are considered part of the

organizational process assets. These databases typically contain historical issue

and defect status, control information, issue and defect resolution, and action

item results. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 39]

86) Several types of float are found in project networks. Float that is used by a

particular activity and does NOT affect the float in later activities is called—

a. Extra float

b. Free float

c. Total float

d. Expected float

Answer

B - Free float is defined as the amount of time an activity can be delayed without

delaying the early start of any immediately succeeding activities or violating a

schedule constraint. It is important to know the difference between zero total

float, positive total float, negative total float, and free float and be able to

recognize examples of all four types of float. [Planning]PMI®, PMBOK®, 2017, 210



51



87) You have just been made the Project Manager of the ABC project. You are

trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS

components. Which should be your first step to understand this?

A. Refer to the WBS dictionary

B. Refer to the scope statement

C. Refer to the Project charter

D. Contact the previous Project Manager

Answer

A - WBS dictionary is the best option. WBS Dictionary identifies all the

components used in the WBS. PMBOK Pg. 162

88) The scope of work in a project could not be clearly defined. There was also a

strong possibility that the scope would change during the course of the project.

Which type of contract would suit this type of situation?


B. Fixed-price contract

C. Cost-reimbursable contract

D. Fixed-price incentive contract

Answer

C - A cost-reimbursable contract gives the project flexibility to redirect a seller

whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely determined at the start of the

project and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort.


89) You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You

identify a dependency that the wheels must be designed and developed before

the assembly of the vehicle can be performed. This is an example of which type of

dependency?



52



A. External

B. Discretionary

C. Soft Logic

D. Mandatory

Answer

D - Mandatory dependency represents dependencies due to nature of work.

PMBOK pg. 191

90) A project manager is looking at a make-or-buy analysis as part of the

Procurement Management process. What type of costs should the project

manager consider for this analysis?

A. Direct costs

B. Indirect costs

C. Out-of-pocket costs

D. Both direct as well as indirect costs

Answer

D - The make-or-buy analysis needs to be as comprehensive as possible. Hence, it

should consider all possible costs, both direct and indirect. [PMBOK 6th, Page

473]

91) You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has

pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and optimistic

estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique?

A. 18 days

B. 25.5 days

C. 15 days

D. 16 days



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Answer

D - Mean for PERT is defined as (P+4M+O)/6 which comes out to be 16 days.

92) John is an excellent engineer. The management assumes that since he is a

good technical performer, he will be a good project manager too. Based upon

this, John was promoted to Project Manager. This is an example of

A. Halo Effect

B. Expectancy Theory

C. McGregor Theory of X and Y

D. Herzberg Theory

Answer

A - The behavior described is an illustration of Halo's effect. In project

management, the wrong perception to rate a team member high or low in all the

knowledge areas, based in a brilliant performance in some specific area is called

the “halo effect”. For example “If you have a good performance in the technical

areas you should be good in management tasks”.

93) You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You

identify a dependency that before the vehicle can be sold, it must be approved by

the Government regulatory authority. This is an example of which type of

dependency?

A. External

B. Discretionary

C. Soft Logic

D. Mandatory

Answer



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A - This is an example of dependency to an external (outside) body. External

dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-project

activities. These dependencies are usually outside of the project team’s control.

For example, the testing activity in a software project may be dependent on the

delivery of hardware from an external source, or governmental environmental

hearings may need to be held before site preparation can begin on a construction

project. The project management team determines which dependencies are

external during the process of sequencing the activities. Pmbok pg. 192

94) You are required to estimate the time to paint a large wall. You know it takes

two hours to paint one square foot of wall. The wall has an area of 30 square foot.

So you estimate that it will take 60 hours to paint the wall. Which estimation

model are you using?

A. Bottom-up

B. Parametric modeling

C. Analogous

D. Expert judgment

Answer

B - Parametric modeling is the best option. Parametric estimating is an estimating

technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on

historical data and project parameters. Parametric estimating uses a statistical

relationship between historical data and other variables (e.g., square footage in

construction) to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as cost,

budget, and duration. PMBOK pg. 200

95) You are the project manager of ABC project. One of the risks that has been

identifies is attrition of team members. Mid-way through the project you notice

that the morale and motivation of the team members is going down. You think

that this is a precursor to people leaving the organization. For this risk, low

motivation is an example of



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A. workaround

B. trigger

C. risk monitoring

D. risk planning

Answer

B - A risk trigger is an indication that the risk is about to occur or has occurred.

PMBOK pg. 417

96) You are the Project Manager for XYZ project. The scope of the project has

been completed. You receive a request for a new module to be developed as part

of this project. What should you do next?

A. You should approach the Project sponsor and ask her for a new module to be

developed as part of this project.

B. You should approach the Senior Management and ask them for a new module

to be developed as part of this project.

C. You should send the request to Change Control Board for approval.

D. Since the project scope is completed you should inform the customer that this

change cannot be done as part of the project.

Answer

D - As the scope is completed, the project is complete. Additional work should be

done as part of a new project.

97) Teresa i

pmp mastery mentorship 202 q & a pmp. collected by ......pmp mastery mentorship 202 q & a pmp....

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