practice test - des o'neill

GAMSAT PREPARATION COURSES

DIRECTOR DJ O’Neill B.Sc., B.A., M.Ed. CONSULTANTS J O’Neill B.A., B.App.Sc Dr CJ O’Neill M.B.B.S.(Hons) Dr DW O’Neill B.App.Sc.

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Des O'Neill's

Exam Crackers

Gamsat Guru

Gold Standard

Grad Med

Griffiths GamsatReview

Medired

Medprep

Ozimed


DIRECTOR DJ O’Neill B.Sc., B.A., M.Ed. CONSULTANTS J O’Neill B.A., B.App.Sc Dr CJ O’Neill M.B.B.S.(Hons) Dr DW O’Neill B.App.Sc. PO Box 2017 Ashgrove QLD 4060 Australia Ph 04 1966 7151 O/S Ph +614 1966 7151 www.gamsatprep.com.au [email protected]

Thank you for your inquiry about our Gamsat Preparation Courses. We have specialised in preparing candidates for GAMSAT in Australia since 1996. From 2003, we have offered our full pre-Gamsat preparation program as a Home Study Course to candidates world-wide. As the original providers of GAMSAT preparation, we are, by far, the most popular, the most respected and the most experienced means that candidates use for GAMSAT preparation. To help in your preparation for the forthcoming Gamsat, we recommend one of our discounted packages. Its resources are huge by any comparison ─ more than 1700 pages, 390 concept-building questions in science, 2200 multiple-choice questions arranged as full Gamsat tests or under their dominant thinking skills, almost 5 kg in weight. Successful Candidature We cannot give you truthful statistics on the success rate of our candidates in obtaining places at medical schools because privacy provisions since 2005 have precluded accurate collection of such data. Success rates in the ten years prior to that were exceptional and participation rates in our courses have risen by an average of 20% p.a. since then. We hope that you too will enjoy success. However, we can give you the results of a recent survey done by Paging Dr, an independent forum group, about which preparation course would be recommended by students. (Please note we have excluded the non-commercial companies from the results)

Des O’Neill’s GAMSAT Preparation Courses

Science-Revision Home Study Course Available throughout the year.

Writing Better Essays Courses

For those sitting the Australian Gamsat, corrections are available from 15 December to mid‐March Aim to send in your first essay by 15 January to get all six essay tasks (12 essays) finished, or by 15 February to finish three essay tasks (6 essays) before GAMSAT. For those sitting the UK September Gamsat, corrections are available from 15 of June to mid‐September. Aim to send in your first essay by 19 July to get all six essay tasks (12 essays) finished, or by 18 August to finish three essay tasks (6 essays) before GAMSAT.

Practising Humanities MCQs and Practising Science MCQs

Available throughout the year.

Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide and Perth Pre‐Gamsat Science Revision Attendance Courses

A weekend in January or early February Saturday and Sunday 9 am – 6pm.

Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne, Adelaide and Perth Pre‐Gamsat MCQs & Exam Courses

A weekend in February or early March Saturday 8:15 am – 5 pm; Sunday 9 am – 5 pm.


What Packages, Products and Courses do we offer?

Red Series

Science Revision Book

Green Series Practising

Humanities MCQs and Practising

Science MCQs Book

Pre-Gamsat MCQ Courses

Pre-Gamsat Science Revision Courses

Writing Better Essays Home-

Based (6 Essay Tasks)

Writing Better Essays

Home-Based (3 Essay Tasks)

Titanium Package

Gold Package

Platinum Package

(avail Mid-Feb)

Ruby Package (avail Mid-Feb)

Silver Home Study

Bronze Home Study

When will these courses or offers be available?


Des was the Multiple-choice Coordinator for the Queensland Core Skills Test. He has been a test-developer since 1991 and is one of a very small and elite group of test makers in Australia. As the major advisor to a Queensland Government agency on the purchase of test-materials from ACER, Des was privy to much of ACER’s creative test-development work over many years, learnt much from them and developed a respect and high regard for their expertise in test-development and candidate assessment. Des has a Bachelor of Science majoring in Physics and Mathematics, a Bachelor of Arts majoring in English, and a Masters in Education specialising in assessment. An author of eight published books, he is the leader of a team of more than twenty people, all specialists in their own areas, who will help you in their various ways on your progress into a career in Medicine, Dentistry, Optometry, Podiatry or Pharmacy. The preparation materials provided by Des O’Neill and his team are written in Australia specifically for Gamsat methods of testing and prepare you well for the task ahead.

Des O’Neill and his team


Success of our candidates

The historical record since 1996 shows that candidates who have done our courses have consistently filled between one-third and one-half of the relevant post-graduate places available at Australian Universities. If those who have done our course are visualised separately from the rest of the total candidature, you can easily see that those who neglect to do our courses have considerably worse odds for gaining entry. We are very proud of the number of candidates who do our courses and get scores sufficient for them to progress to interview and then on to medical, dentistry, optometry, podiatry and pharmacy schools. 354 of our candidates commenced the Graduate Medical Program in 2005. The total number of post-graduate medical places available in 2005 was 903 at eight participating universities. In the previous year 454 candidates attended our MCQs & Exam Course. Since then, privacy provisions no longer allow the collection of data that would indicate which candidates actually commenced the post-graduate medical program and any claims of more recent success-rates are simply not relevant. However, many candidates do let us know their results when they ask, soon after the results are released to them in May, for our suggestions as to which medical schools they should apply for. Today twelve medical schools, two dental schools, one optometry school, one podiatry school and one pharmacy school at Masters level accept graduates as candidates via Gamsat. The published number (May 2013) of places available to Australian/NZ candidates for post-graduate medicine in 2014 is 1564. However, only about 950 of those places are CSPs (Commonwealth Supported Places – previously called HECS Places) that require the standard student contribution of around $9,000 p.a. The remainder are either full-fee domestic places or are BMPs (Bonded Medical Places) which, in addition to the contribution of around $9,000 p.a., bond the student for four years. The nature of the bond restricts the bonded doctor’s practice of medicine at some future time to hospitals in certain geographically-defined locations. The conditions of the bond have changed over time and candidates are advised to do an internet search to find, and then read carefully, the current contract. Candidates who are aiming at a CSP need to be aware from the beginning that, with over 10,000 candidates now being reported as sitting the Gamsat, the hunt for CSPs is fiercely competitive. You should set your goals for a Gamsat score of 64 or better which should put you into the top 15% of this reasonably exclusive candidature. Overall scores at Gamsat range from about 34 to about 84 with the median around 56-58. They are not a percentage. The scores are not out of 100 and there is no such concept as a “pass”. Several of our candidates over the years have scored in the 90s for Section 3 (Science) with two exceptional candidates reporting scores in excess of 100.

We are very proud of the number of candidates who

do our courses and get scores sufficient for them to

progress to interview and then on to medical,

dentistry, optometry and pharmacy schools.


Des O’Neill’s preparation courses for GAMSAT

Worldwide

For Gamsat candidates worldwide including those in remote parts of Australia, our Home Study Package (more than 1700 pages) consists of: • our Prognostic Preparatory Test which is available for free • Writing Better Essays - a course of six lessons on essay writing which

includes 6 tasks (12 of your essays are corrected) or 3 tasks (6 of your essays are corrected)

• Science-Revision Course on Physical Chemistry, Organic Chemistry, Biochemistry and Physics, with 390 concept-building questions on Chemistry and Physics and 100 multiple-choice questions on Biology with full solutions to same, to guide your science revision

• Practising Humanities MCQs Course with 1140 statistically-stable multiple-choice questions and five Humanities practice tests (75 questions in each)

• Practising Science MCQs Course with 970 statistically-stable multiple-choice questions and four Science practice tests (110 questions in each). These are in addition to the 100 MCQs that are in the Science-Revision Course.

Australian Capital Cities

In Australia, in addition to the Home Study Courses above, we offer a Science-Revision Attendance Course on Chemistry and Physics and a MCQs & Exam Attendance Course which includes a full trial test. These are held in Brisbane, Sydney, Melbourne and Adelaide.

GAMSAT for Australian and Irish entry is held in March. GAMSAT for UK entry is held in September. Please check the official Gamsat Website to learn about your eligibility to sit Gamsat, to register to sit Gamsat, the validity of your Gamsat score for an application, and to make an application for admission.


Our packages work like this

You can pay by Visa or MasterCard online on the shopping cart or you can mail your order to us enclosing your Visa or MasterCard details or an Australian money order (available at the Post Office) or a cheque made out to Gamsat Preparation Courses. When you pay for the Titanium, Gold, Platinum, Ruby, Silver or Bronze package, you receive back by mail: Our current Science‐Revision Course book

Our current Practising Humanities MCQs Course book

Our current Practising Science MCQs Course book

Other relevant materials

The lessons and appropriate tasks for Writing Better Essays, together with peer essays for each task and the markers’ appraisals of these essays, all are dispatched as soon as possible and

Tickets to those courses included in the package.

Subsequent Emails: You send progressively your six essay tasks (Titanium, Platinum,Silver) or three essay tasks (Gold, Ruby, Bronze) by email.

Our returns by email each time include corrections as well as constructive criticism and advice on how to improve your essay writing skills.

Refunds There are no refunds for non-completed tasks of Writing Better Essays or for any courses after you have received the course materials. Because we experience an avalanche of essay tasks, there are deadlines for acceptance of each task. Also, for any candidate, our team will correct a maximum of one essay task per week. As this is a personalised course on essay writing, materials supplied and relevant feedback are only available as participants complete each of the separate tasks within the available time frame. A condition of participating in our courses is an acceptance by participants that Gamsat Preparation Courses accepts no legal liability for personal injury, property damage or loss of any kind. Despite the use of Gamsat in our trading name, our company is not connected with any of the Universities or with ACER.


Some recent emails received

I just wanted to let you know my excellent result from Gamsat and I am sure it’s all down to doing your course. This is my first time sitting Gamsat. I got an overall score of 75 and 81 for Section 3 which was the biggest surprise. I cannot praise your course highly enough and I will certainly recommend your course far and wide. Thanks again for sharing your insights.

Just wanted to say a big thank-you. 68 in Section II was much higher than I expected and also 64 in Science, again higher than I had expected.

I sat Gamsat last year as practice with virtually no preparation and got 63 overall. I enrolled in your Titanium Package in order to prepare for the real thing this year and achieved an overall score of 72 with a big improvement to 80 in the Science. I got 79 in the essays, my thanks to your WBE markers.

I improved my written communication score by a massive 13 points and my Science by 7 points. The course you offered was really valuable as were the resources and practice papers provided.

Thank you for all your courses and the preparation material you provided. It truly helped me achieve my best possible score (an overall 67 with 75 in Science).

Thank you for helping me so much with my preparation. I could not have received 67 without your courses. Thanks for all the effort you put into them.

Thank you for a great course. I believe it helped me greatly. I improved my overall score by 11 points this year. I undertook your Titanium Package and found it very helpful. I got a Gamsat score of 68.

I got an overall score of 67 and give credit to your weekend courses and especially to your essay writing course (scored 72).

Your essay course was amazing, hence the better results. Your MCQs are definitely Gamsat-level and thus I was not shocked by the degree of difficulty of the questions. Thank you so much for all your help.

I found your course comprehensive and extremely helpful in preparing for Gamsat. On the day, I found there were no surprises which to me is a reflection of how well your course and practice questions/essays mimic the real thing.


Thank you for your courses. I believe they were the key to boosting my science score up to 74 from 62 the previous year.

This year my Science improved from 75 to 86 thanks to your workbooks. I went through the Science section a number of times. I appreciate your help with my studies.

Thank you for your assistance and the excellent courses you have developed over the years. I attended the Science Revision and Exam technique courses. I found them well prepared, professionally run and most importantly, highly relevant and useful.

Thank you. Your course was invaluable to me and I believe it provided a fantastic set of resources, skills and hints for preparation. I doubt I could have passed without your inspired teaching. I came to you by referral and will gladly sing your praises too.

I wanted to say thanks for your excellent Gamsat programs in Science Prep and Multi-choice questions. I really enjoyed your courses, the way they were structured and the quality of the teaching.

The effort you (and I’m sure the many people involved behind the scenes) put in is amazing and much appreciated by many people. The past two times I have taken the test I got an overall score of 53. Jumping from this to 64 was amazing.

I was pleasantly surprised at my Gamsat results. Having not had a science background not even in school, such a strong result in the science section 64, was not really something I expected. I owe a big thanks to your courses.

I only started to learn the basics of Science in May last year and I would like to thank you for the invaluable assistance and teaching that was provided in your course. I’m sure I would not have a hope of applying for medical school if it was not for yourself and your team.

Some recent emails received


Preparing you for Section 2 of GAMSAT Writing Better Essays is a six lesson/tasks Home-based / Correspondence Course available from September to mid-March for those whose GAMSAT is in March (AU & IE) and from April to mid-September for those whose GAMSAT is in September (UK).

We recommend that you start this home-based correspondence course as soon as possible. You should complete, at the very least, three of the six tasks. Lessons in essay writing are an integral part of Writing Better Essays. These lessons teach the specific skills required for success in the Gamsat essay-writing section and help to hone skills that will permanently improve your ability to write well. This course is designed to give advice on essay writing at different levels as the six tasks are progressively completed. Submitted essays are marked and then the candidate is provided with constructive and positive feedback on how to improve their individual styles. The level of advice relates to the increasing ability of the candidate and opens new vistas on essay writing to help improve performance. In addition, markers’ commentaries on essays on the same topics by peers from previous years reinforce aspects of essay organisation and style. This home-based/correspondence course has become very popular. Our team manages to keep up with the demand each working day, marking, appraising and sending back the graded essays, the correction and the advice. Allocate at least 2 ½ hours per task to read our appraisal of your essays, our corrections and advice, the peer essays on the comments you chose, our next lesson on essay writing, and to write your next two essays. In GAMSAT, the two essays (Section 2) have the same overall value in your overall GAMSAT score as the 75 multiple-choice questions in Humanities (Section 1). Most Universities require that you get above a defined score in each of the three Sections of GAMSAT. Thus you need to do well on all three Sections of the test. We have a clear policy that we do not open attachments. For each task, send your typed essays together in the same email and in the body of that email. If possible, use medium size or 12-14 point Arial as the font in the email.

Writing Better Essays

The level of advice relates to the increasing ability of the candidate and opens new vistas on essay writing to help improve performance.


On our shopping cart the cost is given of Writing Better Essays for six lessons and six tasks or for six lessons and three tasks. Alternatively, you can incorporate these courses into a Titanium, Gold, Platinum or Ruby Attendance Package, or into a Silver or Bronze Home Study Package at a discount. If you are very late joining our courses, please check the website as we may be able to offer you an Express Marking Service even though it is past the usual time to start our Writing Better Essays course. There will be a small extra charge for this priority marking service. You can purchase our writing better essays courses here:

For each task: • your essays are graded, • constructive criticism

and advice are given, • there is a further lesson

in essay writing, and • peer essays and their

marker’s appraisals (from previous cohorts) are supplied.


Our aim in our Writing Better Essays Course is to enable you to write two good essays within a single hour. These two essays are worth one-quarter of your overall Gamsat mark. Our Complete Writing Better Essays Course consists of 6 Lessons and 6 Tasks and our Short Course has 6 Lessons and 3 Tasks. Essay tasks are accepted for appraisal in the three months just prior to your Gamsat (from 15 December onwards for Gamsat AU/IE and from 15 June onwards for Gamsat UK). You will receive your first essay task and instructions on how to complete it when the fee is paid. Here is a sample of the first

WRITING BETTER ESSAYS Home Study Session 1

Part A: Preliminary Ideas

The criteria for marking: What does the task of writing essays for Gamsat entail and how much should you write?


Part B: The Expository Essay

What is an expository essay? How to establish a point of view


Part C: Planning an expository essay

In regard to planning, a minimal plan could be: … For those who like mnemonics, maybe these will help...


Part D: Writing an expository essay

Step by step instruction on how to write the first expository essay. Parts E, F and G then take you through the same steps to guide you to write the first discursive essay.


Comment: Loneliness — the most terrible poverty Discursive, personal, reflective, somewhat pensive The inherent capacity of human beings to receive and give love so selflessly never ceases to amaze me. It is ingrained within each and every one of us, and I certainly could not imagine passing through life in loneliness, devoid of human companionship and the belief that my presence is unvalued amongst my loved ones. I think it is quite easy in today’s high-octane, ambitious, career-driven society to... (and so on) Marker’s appraisal: Loneliness — the most terrible poverty is a sensitive and moving piece of writing. Using a graphic description drawn from her own experience of working in a home for the abandoned, the writer is able to present her insights into the devastating effects of loneliness on human beings. Her compassion is evident as is the fact that she has more than a superficial understanding of the topic. Her use of her current experiences in working with the elderly forms a further framework for her reflections. Subsequent lessons teach you how to improve the first and final paragraphs of your essay, how to unify the ideas in each of the paragraphs, how to connect your paragraphs, how to vary your sentence structures and the effects that this has, and so on. After each lesson you do a task of writing two essays, a task similar to what you will have to do in Section 2 of Gamsat. Each essay will be marked and graded according to the criteria used at Gamsat, any necessary corrections will be noted and positive suggestions made. At each task you will be provided with a similar quantity of peer essays, all with markers’ appraisals.

We recommend that you send your first essay task to us for correction by email by 15 January for Australian/Irish Gamsat or by 19 July if you are sitting for the UK Gamsat.

You must submit your tasks by the deadlines given below for your essay task to be marked. If you miss a deadline, move to the next task.

Recommended date Deadline date to aim for for acceptance AU/IE UK AU/IE UK Task 1 15 January / 19 July 5 February / 5 Aug Task 2 26 January / 29 July 13 February / 12 Aug Task 3 6 February / 8 Aug 21 February / 19 Aug Task 4 17 February / 18 Aug 1 March / 26 Aug Task 5 28 February / 28 Aug 8 March / 2 Sept Task 6 11 March / 7 Sept 15 March / 9 Sept

Finally there are 24 peer essays written by past students, comparable to the one below and on your E1, all with markers’ appraisals, which ensures that you receive essays on the comment(s) that you have chosen.


Providing you with a clear pathway through the maze of concepts and terminology that you will need in order to understand the materials in section 3 of GAMSAT

At GAMSAT, knowledge of certain areas of science is presumed. Thus test developers can use appropriate terms and concepts and expect that you will be able to understand them. They can write questions that use conceptualisations, structures, and jargon from First Year University courses in Chemistry and Biology as well as from all the topics of Year 12 Physics. Via the results of thousands of GAMSAT candidates on our trial tests from 1996 onwards, we have identified areas of science that candidates need to relearn or revise. These major areas of General and Human Biology, Physical & Organic Chemistry, Biochemistry and Physics are the basis of our Science-Revision Course. Our Science Summary outlines in detail those areas of science that we consider are prerequisite knowledge for GAMSAT and that forms the basis of our Science-Revision Course. It also gives a list of suitable reference books. GAMSAT Preparation Courses has condensed the study matter so that candidates can prepare at their own pace with all the essential material at their disposal. Our teaching style makes science both interesting and memorable with illustrative anecdotes and applications interspersed to ensure excellent recall of complex concepts. Our specialist session leaders, for chemistry and physics, tie concepts together and relate them to applications and experiences in the real world. Our science teaching lives. The course will fill gaps in knowledge for some while refreshing connections between topics for others. Des O’Neill’s Science-Revision Course will supplement your own revision in areas that are conceptually difficult. We provide a comprehensive book that will help you identify and study the areas of science that we consider important in your preparation for GAMSAT. These copyrighted materials form an integral part of the attendance sessions. As well as 390 concept-building questions on Chemistry and Physics, we offer you in this book a collection of 100 statistically-stable multiple-choice questions on Biology at GAMSAT standard. All of our questions come with full solutions.

Science Revision Course

The contact time of the Science-Revision Attendance Course is 16 hours (Saturday and Sunday 9am to 6pm – not counting meal breaks/homework).

The full cost of the Science-Revision Attendance Course is listed on our shopping cart.

The Science-Revision Home Study Course price is listed on our shopping cart.

Alternatively, you can incorporate this Science Revision Attendance Course into a Titanium or Gold Attendance Package at a discount, or this Science-Revision Home Study Course into a Platinum or Ruby Attendance Package or a Silver or Bronze Home Study Package at a discount.

The same Science-Revision book is used for the Science-Revision Home Study Course and for the corresponding Attendance Course. The book is sent to you when you enrol so that you can pre-study from it before attending the Science-Revision Course in Australia in January or early February.


Preparing you for GAMSAT-style multiple-choice questions in Sections 1 and 3 of GAMSAT Des O’Neill’s Pre-Gamsat MCQs & Exam Course is the culminating segment of your preparation for GAMSAT. It takes you through the final stage of your GAMSAT preparation. Candidates from previous years insist that this is the course that all serious candidates should take and report that Des O’Neill’s MCQs & Exam Course is “the best” preparation for the Gamsat experience. This course focuses on the thinking-skills that are the founda-tion of the GAMSAT testing process It provides you with our valuable and unique set of statistically-stable humanities and science multiple-choice questions based around thinking skills. (A statistical process, based on perform-ance on these questions by a population of peers, has been used to eliminate all the confusing and non-working questions so that what remains, as this unique set, is of exceptional quality) The attendance course infuses test-taking strategies and time-management skills into practice sessions and gives, via the trial test (Attendance) or the practice tests (Attendance and Home Study), the experience of a full GAMSAT exam in a single day. Pat-terns of testing and pathways to tackle MCQs are clarified. From your results in the trial and practice tests, you will obtain a personal profile of your strengths and derive, from that profile, your own Personal Strategy for Tackling GAMSAT. You will come to understand how you should spend your remaining preparation time and how you should personally prioritise your efforts within the forthcoming GAMSAT in order to achieve at your competitive best. At the Attendance Course, you will access more than 2400 statis-tically-stable Gamsat-style multiple-choice questions. 2200 of these are in our Practicing Humanities and Science MCQs books which have guides to their answers (humanities) and full solutions (science).

MCQs & Exam Course

The contact time is 14 hours (8:15 am – 5 pm on Saturday and 9 am to 5 pm on Sunday).

The full cost of the MCQs & exam Attendance Course which includes both books below is listed on our shopping cart.

However each book can be bought separately:

The Home Study Practicing Humanities MCQs Course cost is given on our shopping cart.

The Home Study Practicing Science MCQs Course cost is given on our shopping cart.

Alternatively, you can incorporate these courses into a Titanium, Gold, Platinum or Ruby Attendance Package, or into a Silver or Bronze Home Study Package.


Interview Workshops are held in prior to the Australian Medical School Interviews in August/September.

A choice of Interview-preparation Workshops will be offered to those who take one of our Pre-Gamsat courses. The cost per person of these five-hour small-groups Interview Workshops will be listed on our shopping cart. Our mentoring thus continues over a full year. After you have received your Gamsat results in May and made your application for Medical and/or Dentistry School by the due date, you will be sent a reminder about our Interview Workshops. Payment for the workshop can be made online at that time or mailed to us. In our five-hour Post-Gamsat Interview Workshop, every participant has a full practice interview based on the criteria for the university to which they have been called for interview. As well, each takes on a role of interviewer to gain a perspective from the other side of the table. There are group-learning sessions as well as recommendations for a variety of preparatory readings and personalised tasks.

Interview Workshops

For Information about GAMSAT Between mid-October to January • Visit the Gamsat website http://www.gamsat.acer.edu.au

and download the GAMSAT Information Booklet • Contact the Australian Council for Education Research

with any enquiries about the test itself. E: [email protected]

• By the date required (usually in January), enrol for GAMSAT via

http://www.gamsat.acer.edu.au On the Gamsat Saturday in March, sit GAMSAT.

The contact time is 5 hours.

The full cost of the Interview Workshop is listed on our shopping cart.

APPENDIX

Prognostic Test

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Des O’Neill’sPrognostic

Preparatory Test

This test is designed to give you an indication of your current standard in answering multiple-choice questions at the Gamsat standard. This collection will also give you an insight into thediversity of the multiple-choice questions that are in our Practising Humanities and ScienceMCQs books.

Do not open this test paper until you have 75 minutes or more to devote to working this test.It will ruin its effectiveness if you sneak a peek at it before you start.

Directions

1 Time allowed: No perusal time but 75 minutes for recording your answers.

2 For each question there are four alternative responses represented by theletters A, B, C, D. Choose one of these as your answer.

3 You may attempt the units in any order.

4 Towards the end of the test make sure you have an answer recorded for everyquestion even if you need to take more than 75 minutes. There are nopenalties for incorrect answers.

© Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses www.gamsatprep.com.au™

Phone (+614) 1966 7151 [email protected]

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Unit 1

A Small Reflection

(For My Daughter)

Each morning she constructs mosaics,weaves words in a web to net the day.We stitch stories, our small semantics.‘Each question has an answer,’ I say.

5 I know, in truth, we make rough guesses:there’s no finished map of the terrain.All discovery is a functionof individual choice and pain.

For now, I watch her scatter puddles;10 I reprove, urge, kiss, the common things,

dwell upon her daily adventures,discuss why it is a magpie sings.

But what can I bequeath for later?Hardly any justified belief,

15 a clutch of strongly held opinions,a few theorems for comic relief.

She kicks water at the autumn sun,as it arcs across this pristine day.I know she will soon assume a world

20 beyond all that I can guess or say.

! Rod Moran

Question 1When speaking of his daughter, the poet (stanza 1, line 4) says, ‘Each question has an answer’. Yet in later stanzas uncertainty is evident in responding to the unknowns of life.In which of the following stanzas is this uncertainty of the poet least evident?A stanza 2 C stanza 4B stanza 3 D stanza 5

Question 2‘She kicks water at the autumn sun,as it arcs across this pristine day.’ (lines 17–18)The obvious meaning of these two lines is that of a young girl playing with water during the day.Encrusted on this, however, is a deeper meaning.Which of the following best encapsulates this deeper meaning?A a disposition inclined towards play rather than grim realityB a clear perception of innocence in the presence of unlimited powerC a majestic presence, soon to depart, of little influence on a child’s lifeD a view of life unaware of the power of others or of forthcoming challenges

© Questions Desmond J O’Neill Des O’Neill’s Gamsat Preparation Courses www.gamsatprep.com.au™


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Question 3In lines 1–3, the poet marvels most atA the increasing vocabulary of young children.B his daughter’s ability to fit together wooden puzzles.C his child’s encapsulation of experiences into language.D the ability of humans to put words together to make speech.

Question 4Consider the entire poem. Which of the following, as expressed or implied by the poet, best gives theanswer to his question: ‘But what can I bequeath for later?’A ‘there’s no finished map of the terrain.

All discovery is a functionof individual choice and pain.’ (lines 6–8)

B ‘... her daily adventures’ (line 11)C ‘Hardly any justified belief,

a clutch of strongly held opinions,a few theorems for comic relief.’ (lines 14–16)

D ‘... a worldbeyond all that I can guess or say.’ (lines 19–20)

Unit 2

Question 5The cartoonist isA in admiration of the suggestion to send the money back to where it came from.B making fun of the level of initiative among the underprivileged.C showing that luck is often the saviour of the less fortunate.D contrasting the intelligence levels of the two men.



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Unit 3

Ethanol, a primary alcohol, in the presence of sulfuric acid reacts with itself to form diethyl ether.

3 2A molecule of ethanol CH CH OH is first protonated by the sulfuric acid catalyst to form

2 2 3H O CH CH .+

Dehydration and the reformation of the acid catalyst then takes place between this carbocation andanother ethanol molecule

3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 3CH CH OH + H O CH CH ÷ CH CH OCH CH + H O + +

Question 6

3 2 3 2 2A mixture of ethanol CH CH OH and 1-propanol CH CH CH OH is treated with sulfuric acid. How many ethers are produced and how many of these are symmetrical?

Produced SymmetricalA 2 2B 3 1C 3 2D 4 2

The following additional information relates to questions 7 – 10.

While synthesis of symmetrical ethers can be achieved by dehydration of an appropriate alcohol, highyield production of non-symmetrical ethers is often achieved from an alkoxide ion and an appropriatehalide. Methyl and primary halides work best. The complex segment of the ether can reside in thealkoxide. For example, isopropoxide ion and iodomethane react to form isopropyl methyl ether.

3 2 3 3 2 3(CH ) CHO + CH I ÷ (CH ) CHOCH + I– –

If secondary or tertiary segments are attached to the reacting halide, an elimination reaction is likelyto occur and an alkene, rather than an ether, is likely to be produced.

Consider the following pairs of reactants.



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Question 7How many of these three pairs of reactants are likely to give a high yield of an ether?A 0 C 2B 1 D 3

Question 8How many of these three pairs of reactants will yield symmetrical ethers?A 0 C 2B 1 D 3

Question 9

2 4How many ethers are produced as a result of this reaction in the presence of H SO ?

3 2 2 3 2 3 2 2CH CH CH O + CH CH Br + CH CH CH Cl ÷–

A 1 C 4B 2 D 6

Question 10Ethers can be broken back into an alcohol and a halide by reaction with aqueous HI by a processwhich reverses the synthesis process. Which of the following reactions are likely to achieve the highest yields?

A 1 and 3 C 2 and 3B 1 and 4 D 2 and 4

Unit 4

Question 11Both ends of the tube shown are sealed and the density of the enclosed liquid is ñ . Arm M has twice the cross-sectional area of arm N.

MThe pressure of the gas P is given by

NA P + ½ñgy

NB P + 2ñgy

NC P – ñgy

ND P + ñgy



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Unit 5

Question 12An amateur fisherman tests out the buoyancy of his runabout (boat) by floating it in a backyardswimming pool. While sitting in the boat, he carefully lifts a heavy anchor out of the boat and gentlylowers it into the pool. Which of the following happens?

When he lifts the anchor, the When he puts the anchor in the pool,water level relative to the boat the water level in the pool

A goes down. falls.B goes down. rises.C stays the same. rises.D stays the same. falls.

Unit 6

Question 13When all the ‘sand’ is in the bottom of a large ‘hour-glass type’ egg-timer, the egg-timer is invertedand put onto the pan of a sensitive analytic balance. The balance has a digital readout to manydecimal places.As the sand falls from the top of the egg-timer to the bottom, the hill of sand in the bottom graduallygets bigger and the reservoir of sand in the top of the egg-timer is gradually depleted. While this ishappening, the value of the readout on the analytical balance changes.Which of the following is least likely to affect the value of this readout?A the distance the sand fallsB the mass of the sand that is fallingC the speed generated by the sand as it fallsD the mass of sand in the bottom of the egg-timer

Unit 7

A patient’s blood pressure is taken by wrapping an inflatable cuff around the upper arm of the patientand increasing the pressure until the blood flow through the artery becomes turbulent. When a fluidflow becomes turbulent, the fluid loses energy as sound as well as in other ways. On hearing thesound, the doctor slowly increases the pressure until the sound ceases. This indicates that the bloodflow has stopped. The pressure required to stop the flow is called systolic pressure and correspondsto the pressure during ventricular contraction.

The cuff is then gradually deflated until the blood begins to flow, without turbulence, through theartery. The pressure in the cuff at this point is called the diastolic pressure and corresponds to theresidual pressure in the artery between ventricular contractions.

Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle of the heartinto the systemic circulation system. It is measured as the product of the pulse rate (number of beatsper minute) and the stroke volume (volume per contraction).



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During strenuous exercise, respiration in the muscles is initially aerobic. But as the oxygen in themuscles becomes depleted, lactic acid builds up as a waste product of anaerobic respiration. Theremoval of this lactic acid from the muscles is directly related to that person’s cardiac output. Themuscles also suffer temporary damage as a result of exercise. This damage can be assessed in termsof a CK value that can be measured via a blood test.

Grant is a professional swimmer. Norm keeps a dog and gets his exercise by looking after it. Robinis a sprightly old lady with no obvious circulation problems who gets her exercise by doing hershopping. Grant, Norm and Robin each do 30 minutes of their own exercise. Grant is doingrepetitions of 100 m sprints followed by 20 second breaks. Norm is out for a stroll with his dog.Robin is window shopping in a suburban shopping centre. Their changes in blood pressure, pulse rateand CH value as a result of this exercise are shown in the figure.

Question 14The ratio of the rise in systolic pressure of Norm to Grant is approximatelyA 5:3 . C 11:8 .B 5:4 . D 4:1 .

Question 15In which of the following scenarios will the discharge of lactic acid from the muscles be most rapid?A Grant immediately after his 30 minutes exercise.B Grant 2 minutes after his 30 minutes exercise.C Robin immediately after her 30 minutes exercise.D Robin 2 minutes after her 30 minutes exercise.

Question 16After his exercise with the dog, Norm then drops in for a swim interrupting Grant’s repetitions. Grantand Norm swim together for four minutes. Norm is swimming as fast as he can; Grant swims alongwith him at Norm’s pace. Which of the following graphs best indicates the change in CK values ofGrant and Norm during this four minutes and in the first two minutes following this swim.



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Unit 8

The three figures below show different sexual life cycles that apply to particular groups of life forms.n represents a base number on which the number of chromosomes at each stage in the cycle can becalculated.

During meiosis the 2n chromosomes split in a manner that results in genetic variability. There are 2n

possible random assortments of chromosomes that can result from meiosis.

Question 17In each of the cycles shown, there are 2n chromosomes presentA in all cells as a result of mitosis. C in some cells as a result of meiosis.B in all cells as a result of meiosis. D in some cells as a result of fertilisation.

Question 18Which of the following describes a major benefit of sexual reproduction?A Despite chromosomal variation, all organisms maintain their ecological status in a particular

environment.B The variation resulting from meiosis underlies the adaptability of these organisms to

environmental change.C Increasing dominance of a species is dependent on variability in the results of sexual activity.D The number of chromosomes remains constant although their content is variable.

Question 19A cell contains 3 pairs of chromosomes and undergoes meiosis. How many possible combinations of chromosomes are there in each cell produced by meiosis?A 3 C 8B 6 D 9

Question 20Cloning of plants has become common practice over the past twenty years. The growing part of aplant is excised and placed in a ‘growing medium’ where it is vibrated randomly from time to time.The growing point loses its sense of direction and an undifferentiated mass of growing tissue results.This is shaved into tiny pieces each of which, given the right environment, can grow into a plant ofthe same chromosomal nature as the original plant. The process being capitalised on here isA meiosis.B zygote formation.C mitosis to form multicellular sporophytes.D mitosis to form multicellular gametophytes.



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Unit 9

In Shakespeare’s play Macbeth, Macbeth and Lady Macbeth have planned to assassinate both KingMalcolm and his favourite, Duncan, while they are staying overnight in Macbeth’s castle. While theCourt are at supper, the conspirators meet in another room of the castle.

Passage 1

Enter Lady Macbeth

Macbeth How now! what news?

Lady M. He has almost supp’d. W hy have you left the chamber?

Macbeth Hath he ask’d for me?

Lady M. Know you not, he has. 5

Macbeth W e will proceed no further in this business:

He hath honour’d me of late; and I have bought

Golden opinions from all sorts of people,

W hich would be worn now in their newest gloss,

Not cast aside so soon. 10

Lady M. W as the hope drunk,

W herein you dress’d yourself? Hath it slept since?

And wakes it now, to look so green and pale

At what it did so freely? From this time

Such I account thy love. Art thou afeard 15

To be the same in thine own act and valour,

As thou art in desire? W ould’st thou have that

W hich thou esteem’st the ornament of life,

Or live a coward in thine own esteem,

Letting ‘I dare not’ wait upon ‘I would’, 20

Like the poor cat in the adage?

Macbeth Pr’ythee, peace.

I dare do all that may become a man;W ho dares do more, is none.

Lady M. W hat beast was’t then, 25

That made you break this enterprise with me?

W hen you durst do it, then you were a man;

And, to be more than what you were, you would

Be so much more the man. Nor time, nor place,

Did then adhere, and yet you would make both; 30

They have made themselves, and that their fitness now

Does unmake you.

Macbeth If we should fail?

Lady M. W e fail?

But screw your courage to the sticking-place, 35

And we’ll not fail.

Macbeth I am then settled, and bend up

Each corporal agent to this terrible feat.

Away, and mock the time with fairest show:

False face must hide what the false heart doth know. 40

Question 21Which of the following is the most appropriate implication of ‘he has’ in line 5?The King hasA requested that Macbeth return into his presence.B finished his meal and may surprise their meeting. C noticed Macbeth’s absence and become suspicious.D uncovered their plot and they should conspire no more.



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Question 22In lines 7 – 10, Macbeth is concerned most about hisA honour. C destiny.B loyalty. D reputation.

In the historical novel Macbeth the King by Nigel Tranter, Duncan poisoned Macbeth to clearDuncan’s way to the throne of Scotland. But Macbeth recovered. During the following winter,Duncan poisoned King Malcolm, summoned Macbeth, Mormaor of Moray, to the isolated island ofIona for the King’s burial, did not go himself but instead called most of the other Mormaors (rulersof various Scottish districts) to Scone. Passage 2 (from the novel) cites an exchange betweenMacbeth and Gruoch (Lady Macbeth) immediately on Macbeth’s arrival home from the burial.

Passage 2

‘My dear’, she said, ‘Duncan has deceived and wronged you once more. He held his Council

of Mormaors at Scone, whilst you were at Iona, and was appointed and enthroned King of

Scots, on the Stone, the next day.

He looked away and away. ‘So-o-o!’ he said at length. ‘I should have guessed. That is

5 Duncan, yes. It was all a ruse. How does one deal with such a man? Ah, well — it settles that

problem, at least!’

‘That crown should have been yours, my heart!’

‘Scarcely that. Duncan is son of the elder sister. Could have been mine, shall we say? Had

I desired it!’

10 ‘Should have been,’ she insisted. ‘through me, your wife. I had more right to it than had

Malcolm. Certainly more than Duncan. I should be Queen. Not Queen Consort, but Queen.’

He looked at her searchingly. ‘And did you want that, my dear?’

She flung herself into his arms. ‘God knows!’ she sobbed. ‘God knows — for I do not! But,

but...that is what should have been. For you. To think of that Duncan, King! Yes — I wish it!

15 I wish it!’ she gulped. ‘Your dream. Do not forget your dream. They [the witches] said — I see

the Mormaor of Moray. I see the King!’

Troubled he smoothed her dark hair. ‘It was but a dream, lass. And we are happy here, are

we not? Happier, I swear, than on any throne.’

‘Perhaps. Yes — we are. But ... can we deny our blood, our destiny?’

20 He did not answer.

‘You will accept it, then? Accept this wickedness? Do nothing?’

‘W hat could I do? Even if I desired it? It is too late. He is the King now, crowned and seated

on the Stone of Destiny. Nothing can change that. The thing is done!’

He brushed her hair. ‘Hush you, woman. And forget Duncan the King and all others who

25 would come between us. You have Macbeth, for better or worse. And I have Gruoch. And I,

for one, am content.’

Question 23Gruoch claims to be the rightful heir because sheA was closer in succession than Malcolm.B now has a husband and can claim the throne.C was next in succession once Malcolm was dead.D believes in witchcraft and the validity of Macbeth’s dream.

Question 24An acceptance of natural order was prevalent in Shakespearean times. Natural order means thatpeople accept their place in life and live accordingly.Which of the following lines is based most on this concept?A Lines 1 – 3 Duncan ... Scots.B Lines 8 – 9 Duncan ... it.C Lines 15 – 16 Your ... King.D Line 19 But ... destiny.



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Question 25If passage 2 was rewritten as a stage-play, what gesture would best interpret ‘He looked away andaway. ‘So-o-o!’ ’ (line 4)?A wander the stage and moan C turn aside from Gruoch and sighB stand and stare at the audience D draw sword and throw hands in the air

Question 26In view of the content of both passages, what is the most likely meaning of ‘the ornament of life’(line 18, passage 1)?A courage C one’s own view of oneselfB the crown of Scotland D the assassination of a tyrant

Question 27Which of the following best describes the difference in characterisation of Macbeth between the twopassages?Macbeth isA disloyal to Malcolm (passage 1) but (passage 2) loyal to Duncan.B cowardly to act (passage 1) but (passage 2) cowardly in not acting.C fickle in his self-image (passage 1) but (passage 2) constant to his self-image.D still in command of his destiny (passage 1) but (passage 2) has lost control of his destiny.

Unit 10

The structure below represents one of several dozen known prostaglandins.

Question 28How many chiral carbons are there in this prostaglandin?A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6

Question 29How many cis-trans isomers of this prostaglandin are possible?A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16



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Unit 11

NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) include a variety of different agents of differentchemical classes. Most of these drugs have three major types of effects:

• Anti-inflammatory effects: modification of the inflammatory reaction• Analgesic effect: reduction of certain sorts of pains• Antipyretic effect: lowering a raised temperature

In general, all of these effects are related to the primary action of the drugs — irreversible inhibitionof arachidonate cyclo-oxygenase and thus inhibition of the production of prostaglandins andthromboxanes.

There are two types of cyclo-oxygenase (COX), namely COX-1 and COX-2.

COX-1 is a constitutive enzyme expressed in most tissues, including blood platelets (involved inblood clotting), and is involved in cell-cell signalling and in tissue homeostasis.

COX-2 is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated and is believed to be the enzyme thatproduces the prostanoid mediators of inflammation.

Most NSAIDs in current use are inhibitors of both of these isoenzymes, though they vary in thedegree of inhibition of each.

The diagram below illustrates the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.

Question 30In which of the following instances would an NSAID be useful?A in the event of a fever C in the event of hypothermiaB in the event of numbness D in the event of haemorrhage



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Question 31What is the mechanism of action of the NSAID indomethacin?A to inhibit arachidonic acid C to inhibit blood plateletsB to inhibit cyclo-oxygenase D to inhibit arachidonate

Question 32Which of the following cannot be deduced from the information given?A Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to a reduction in oedema.B Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase does not affect blood clotting ability.C Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to changes in blood pressure.D Inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase may lead to impaired blood clotting ability.

Question 33Piroxicam inhibits COX-2 exclusively. Which of the following might be expected if piroxicam isadministered?A diminished inflammationB activation of inflammatory cellsC a rise in prostaglandin productionD a rise in the production of prostanoid inflammatory mediators

Question 34Hansel’s body is unable to produce cyclo-oxygenase. What might be expected if he takes the NSAIDibuprofen?A a reduction in prostacyclin-induced vasodilationB an increase in prostacyclin-induced vasodilation

2C an increase in thromboxane A induced vasoconstrictionD no change in prostaglandin-induced blood vessel diameter

Unit 12

Question 35‘She has lost the art of conversation, but not, unfortunately, the power of speech.’ ! GB Shaw

Which of the following quotations is most alike in meaning to that above of GB Shaw?A ‘Some persons talk simply because they think sound is more manageable than silence’

! M Halsey

B ‘The really important things are said over cocktails and are never done’ ! PF Drucker

C ‘That is the happiest conversation where there is no competition, no vanity, but a calmexchange of sentiments’ ! S Johnson

D ‘He has occasional flashes of silence that make his conversation perfectly delightful’ ! S Smith

Question 36Which two of the following quotations are most alike in meaning?I ‘Nothing has a stronger influence on their environment, and especially on their children, than

the unlived lives of the parents’ ! C Jung

II ‘Do not mistake a child for his symptom’ ! E Erikson

III ‘Children have more need of models than of critics’ ! J Joubert

IV ‘Children have never been very good at listening to their elders, but they have never failedto imitate them’ ! J Baldwin

A I & II C I & IVB III & IV D II & III



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Unit 13

The following extract is from an article by Geoffrey Wheatcroft.

Although only a small, and steadily decreasing, minority of Zionist settlers or1

Israelis ever lived on one, “kibbutz” or “collective” in Hebrew was the essence of the2

socialist-Zionist ideal of collectivism and egalitarianism. Its appeal extended farbeyond the Zionist movement. Anyone of a certain age brought up in a progressive

5 home, Jewish or not, will remember the aura surrounding the very name.

For young people from western countries, a summer on a kibbutz was a rite ofpassage, and even Jews on the left who were detached from Zionism revered thekibbutz ideal. With all his mixed feelings about Israel, Noam Chomsky continues tospeak affectionately of the kibbutz, and EJ Hobsbawm has said, quite correctly as

10 well as presumably with some degree of admiration, that the kibbutz was a purer formof collective society than anything ever achieved in Soviet Russia.

Such fondness always involved a degree of evasion.

Those who live in kibbutzim always denied they were colonial, insisting they wereprogressive, socialist and indeed anti-colonial. That is not how it seemed to

15 Palestinians, or to a radical like Israel Shahak, a “non-Zionist Israeli”. He says theofficial left of Labour, unions and kibbutzim excelled in the pretence that there needbe no conflict between a Zionist state and Palestinians, but were the first todiscriminate against Arabs.

Those who live in the kibbutz today are less enthusiastic about the old principles of20 communal living and payment according to need rather than status. Shalom Nakar,

an Iraqi-born member of the Mishmar David kibbutz, complains that “there is moreego and less togetherness, less and less social life together, fewer people come tocommittees to discuss important things. They prefer to watch television.” That is apretty good description of society anywhere in the industrial or post-industrial west

25 of which Israel is a part.

And yet this goes way beyond the triumph of television, consumer society or capitalistgreed... Such collectives are passing out of fashion across the world. Equality andfraternity have everywhere given way to the pursuit of individual fulfilment. Maybein a generation’s time there will be a few kibbutzim. But they will be relics of another

30 age, and of an idea whose time has come and gone.

Notes: Zionist: A movement aimed at the reestablishment of a Jewish nation in Palestine1

Israelis: Citizens of the nation Israel, founded in Palestine in 19482

Question 37Wheatcroft claims that the word kibbutz had a mystical character amongA all enlightened people.B those seeking a permanent Jewish State.C the offspring of a particular generation of forward-looking parents.D native-born Israelis brought up in enlightened family environments.



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Question 38EJ Hobsbawm’s statement that ‘the kibbutz was a purer form of collective society than anything everachieved in Soviet Russia’ (lines 10–11) is regarded by the author asA an accurate representation of the situation.B a judgement spurred on by zeal for the cause.C backing for the author’s own high regard of these collectives.D an example of unqualified support for the kibbutz movement.

Question 39Wheatcroft’s use of the word ‘colonial’ in line 13 implies a colonyA that is spawned by a mother country.B destined to regain their true status in their homeland.C where all who live in the area share the same egalitarian ideals.D whose adherents enforced their rights over the native inhabitants.

Question 40Wheatcroft implies that the kibbutz movement was an offshoot ofA right wing Zionism. C the politically ambivalent.B left wing Zionism. D socialists, Jewish or not.

Question 41Of the following, who was least fond of kibbutzism?A Noam Chomsky C EJ HobsbawmB Israel Shahak D Shalom Nakar

Question 42Wheatcroft’s summing up of modern western life implies thatA consumerism and capitalism have paved the way for the dominance of TV in our lives.B selfishness has become fashionable and acceptable.C equality and fraternity will rise as ideals again.D personal achievement is the current ideal.

Unit 14

In designing traffic signals, it is necessary to allow the orange light (between green and red) to remainon long enough so that the driver who is too close to the intersection to stop when the lights changefrom green to orange can pass completely through the intersection before the light turns red.Where

u is the speed of the vehicle (m/s)D is the width of the intersection,t is the driver’s reaction time, anda is a reasonable rate of deceleration for a vehicle in such circumstances (a is negative)

it can be shown that the light should remain on orange for a total time of t – u/2a + D/u .

Question 43The speed limit near an intersection is 60 kph and the width of the intersection is 15 m.A reasonable value for t is 0.5 sec and for a is –4 m/s .2

The time that the light should remain orange is closest toA 0.6 sec . B 3.4 sec . C 5.2 sec . D 8.3 sec .



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Question 44A car is approaching an intersection and is a distance d from the intersection when the light changesfrom green to orange. It is able to stop before entering the intersection. In terms of u, t and a asdefined above, which of the following is the expression for the smallest value of d?A ut – ½ at B ut + ½ at C ut – ½ u /a D ut + ½ u /a 2 2 2 2

Question 45In time, development overtakes the region around a 15 m wide intersection and an old people’s homeand a primary school open in the immediate area. The old people have restricted licences to drivevehicles between 9:30 am and 3:30 pm only; their reaction times are longer than average. Theintersection is within the ‘school zone’ where the speed limit drops from 60 kph to 40 kph between8:30 am and 9:30 am and between 2:30 pm and 3:30 pm.The following symbols are allocated to the total time that the orange light should remain on:

w between 8:30 am and 9:30 amx between 9:30 am and 2:30 pmy between 2:30 pm and 3:30 pmz at all other times.

Which of the following must be true?A x > y and w > z C y > w and x > zB y > z and w > x D y > x > w > z

Unit 15[C] [D]c d

For the equation aA + bB º cC + dD a reaction quotient (Q) is defined Q =[A] [B]a b

where [A], [B], [C] and [D] are the concentrations of A, B, C and D respectively at any time duringthe reaction and a, b, c and d are appropriate constants.

If G represents the free energy of the system at any stage during a reaction, ÄG represents the changethat has occurred from their initial states to this stage during the reaction.If the reactants are completely converted into products ÄG is written as ÄGE. However, this rarelyoccurs and an equilibrium of products and reactants is often the outcome of a reaction. Thisequilibrium depends on the temperature (T) in Kelvin.These quantities are related to the Gas Constant (R) by the equation

ÄG = ÄGE + RT.lnQThis change in free energy ÄG can also be expressed in terms of the change in enthalpy ÄH and thechange in entropy ÄS at any particular temperature T by

ÄG = ÄH – T.ÄS

If A, B, C and D are supplied for a reaction in such concentrations, after mixing, that ÄG = 0, theyare already at the concentrations required for equilibrium and Q is given the symbol K where K iscalled the equilibrium constant.

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Question 46If A, B, C and D are supplied for a reaction in such concentrations, after mixing, that ÄG = 0,A T will change.B ÄS will increase causing ÄH to increase.C ÄS will decrease causing ÄH to decrease.D ÄH and ÄS will be zero and T will remain constant.

Question 47If only the reactants, A and B, are supplied for a reaction and their total free energy, as supplied, isgreater than the total free energy of the resultant amounts of product C and D if the reaction proceedsto conclusion,A ÄGE will be negative and initially Q < K .B ÄGE will be negative and initially Q > K .C ÄGE will be positive and initially Q < K .D ÄGE will be positive and initially Q > K .

The following additional information relates to questions 48 – 49.

Conceptually if ÄG = 0 , the equationÄG = ÄGE + RT.lnQ

implies that ÄGE = –RT.lnKThis equation relates the equilibrium constant of any reaction to the difference in free energy of totalreactants and total products.

Question 48

2 2 pFor a reaction between C H and oxygen at 25 EC, K = 10 . This implies that429

A ÄGE > 0 and, at equilibrium, products are favoured over reactants.B ÄGE > 0 and, at equilibrium, reactants are favoured over products.C ÄGE < 0 and, at equilibrium, products are favoured over reactants.D ÄGE < 0 and, at equilibrium, reactants are favoured over products.

Question 49

2 4 2 2 6 pIn the reaction C H + H º C H K = 5 x 10 at 25 EC.17

Given that R = 8.314 and that ln(5 x 10 ) = 40.761, which of the following is closest to the value17

of ÄGE for this reaction at 25 EC?A –8 kJ/mole B –100 kJ/mole C 80000 kJ/mole D 100000 kJ/mole

The following additional information relates to question 50.

Since ÄGE = –RT.lnK it is clear that K depends on T as well as on the value and sign of ÄGE.

T1 1If K at temperature T is known and the standard change in enthalpy ÄHE is also known, the

T2 2equilibrium constant K at any other temperature T can be calculated using the van’t Hoff equation

T2 K ÄHE 1 1ln( ) = ( – )

T1 1 2 K R T T

Question 50When a reaction is exothermic, ÄHE < 0. When endothermic, ÄHE > 0.

1 2If T > T , the van’t Hoff equation implies that if endothermic

T2 T1 T2 T1 T2 T1A or exothermic K > K C K > K and if exothermic K < K

T2 T1 T2 T1 T2 T1B or exothermic K < K D K < K and if exothermic K > K



xviii

Try to get this test done in 75 minutes but, by all means, allow yourself as much timeas you need to answer all the questions.

Nonetheless, note the time you take and make allowance for this when you interpretyour results.

Time taken: minutes

Apart from the ‘thinking skills’ that are tested in Gamsat,there are four recognisable practical skills that help youachieve good marks in MCQs. These are• the rate of uptake of text• recognition of what the question is actually asking• relating the question to segments of the passage• choosing as the answer that option which neither overstates nor understates the desired response.

The last three of these can be improved by practisingtrialed units from which all the statistically unreliable/ambiguous questions have been thrown away. Apart fromACER, we are the only group that has developed a bankof such questions at this level but you have to do ourcourses to gain access to them.

Nonetheless, you can improve your rate of uptake of text,that is the amount of time and effort it takes you to readand absorb the stimulus material, by yourself.

Because of the complexity of the material in Gamsat, thisskill is not ‘speed-reading’. Improving your uptake of textrequires that you read somewhat complex text on aregular basis, and develop the ability to absorb itefficiently.

We recommend that you read each day the opinion(feature) articles in one of the better newspapers. Thesearticles are usually found on the page/e-tab entitledOpinion. Each of the newspapers caters for a segment ofthe community and has its own level of language. Forthis purpose, we recommend The Times and TheGuardian in UK and The Age, The Australian and TheSydney Morning Herald in Australia. When, after awhile, you have had enough of the same writers and theiropinions, switch to another paper.

Reading opinion articles on a regular basis will enlivenyou to the implications of current affairs, will confrontyou with alternative opinions, improve your level ofvocabulary and help you understand the implications ofthe ways in which words can be used.



APPENDIX APPENDIX

Solutions to the Prognostic Test



Des O’Neill’s Prognostic Preparatory Test

Answers (H for Humanities; S for Science)

1–H B 11–S D 21–H A 31–S B 41–H B

2–H D 12–S D 22–H D 32–S B 42–H D

3–H C 13–S D 23–H A 33–S A 43–S B

4–H A 14–S A 24–H D 34–S D 44–S C

5–H B 15–S A 25–H C 35–H A 45–S C

6–S C 16–S B 26–H B 36–H B 46–S D

7–S C 17–S D 27–H C 37–H C 47–S A

8–S A 18–S B 28–S C 38–H A 48–S C

9–S B 19–S C 29–S B 39–H D 49–S B

10–S A 20–S C 30–S A 40–H B 50–S D

Guides to the Answers

1 In stanza three — For now... — the author is positive about the smaller things of daily life,the interchanges, the adventures, the seeking of answers. Uncertainty is least evident in stanzathree and B is the key.

2 The girl does not appreciate the importance of the sun or how wonderful is the day. Nor canshe see the events that will bring her to a consideration of matters currently beyond the reachof the poet. D is the best of the options and is the key.

3 A, C and D are all possible answers but the poet marvels most at the child’s growing abilityto translate experience into words. The key is C.

4 The poet realises that there is little that he can bequeath to his daughter — little by way ofphilosophy or ethics and that she will encounter a world beyond his experience. It is a worldthat she needs to navigate herself. The key is A.

5 The cartoonist wrote the captions and drew the figures. The willingness of one of thecharacters to take a chance with the money in the hope of receiving more without having towork for it indicates a level of behaviour that is often associated with deprivation caused bysuch a lack of initiative. The key is B.

6 As a result of intermediate carbocations, the following products are formed:

3 2 2 3CH CH OCH CH

3 2 2 2 3CH CH OCH CH CH

3 2 2 2 3CH CH CH OCH CH

3 2 2 2 2 3CH CH CH OCH CH CHThe first and fourth of these are symmetrical. The second and third are identical. Thus, only three products are formed of which two are symmetrical. The key is C.



7 The stimulus says that, to obtain a high yield of an ether, the halide needs to be methyl orprimary. The first and third pair of reactants fit this requirement. In the second pair, the halideis tertiary and an alkene is the likely result. C is the key.

8 None of the pairs will yield a symmetrical ether. A is the key.

9 The alkoxide will react with each of the primary halides. Dipropyl ether and ethyl propyl

2 4ether will be formed. The presence of H SO will not cause any further reaction. B is the key.

10 The reversion of the synthesis process should yield the reactants of that process. In thatprocess, the halide was methyl or primary and the alcohol possibly more complex. Equation 1 yields a primary halide and equation 3 a methyl halide. These are the more likelyyields. The key is A.

11 Pressure is force per unit area. If the area is doubled, the force is doubled but the pressureremains the same. The cross-sectional area of the tube is irrelevant in this question. Thepressure (along the lower horizontal line) at any depth in a fluid is constant. Thus, the

M Npressure P is the pressure P plus the pressure ñgy from the height y of the liquid.The key is D.

12 When he lifts the anchor, there is no change in the downward force of the boat on the water.The weight of the anchor in now acting through the fisherman onto the boat instead ofdirectly onto the boat. So the water level relative to the boat stays the same.When the anchor was in the boat, the boat had to displace an amount of water equal to theweight of the anchor. However, when the anchor is put into the water, it will displace onlyan amount of water equal to the volume of the anchor. As the density of water is less than thedensity of the anchor (an anchor sinks), the boat will rise. This will cause the level of thewater in the pool to fall. Thus, D is the key.

13 The mass of the egg-timer and its ‘sand’ remains unchanged throughout. However, as the‘sand’ falls, it gains energy from the gravitational field. When the sand lands in the lowercontainer, the release of this energy will provide an extra force on the pan which will registeras an increase in mass. This force depends on the energy (½mv ) that the sand gets from the gravitational field. It2

thus depends on the mass of the sand that is falling, B, and its speed, C. But the speedgenerated depends on the distance that the sand falls, A. Thus A, B and C are all directlyinvolved. Although the configuration (shape) of the sand in the bottom of the egg-timer will have aneffect on the distance the sand falls, the actual mass of the sand will not. The key is D.

14 Norm’s rise in systolic pressure is 50 corresponding to a rise from 170 to 220. Grant’scorresponding rise in systolic pressure is 160 – 130 = 30. The ratio is 5:3. A is the key.

15 Robin has no obvious circulation problems and Robin’s exercise is such that lactic acidbuildup is unlikely. On the other hand, Grant will have built up some lactic acid during his30 minutes exercise. He can also be expected to have a high cardiac output. His pulse rate ishighest at 30 minutes and at that time his cardiac output will be at its highest and thedischarge of lactic acid will be most rapid. The key is A.

16 Grant has a higher value for CK than Norm because Grant exercises more frequently andmore strenuously. However, as shown in the initial graph, the rate of build up in CK values(the slope of the graph) in Norm’s muscles is greater than in Grant’s. On the other hand,Grant’s rate of recovery is faster than Norm’s. The key to this question is the option thatshows Norm’s graph with a greater positive slope during exercise and Grant’s graph with thegreater negative slope during recovery. B is the key.



17 In all cases zygotes containing 2n chromosomes form as a result of fertilisation. ‘Some’ ispart of ‘all’; thus D is the key.

18 A is in conflict with evolutionary theory. In C, there is no guarantee that variability in a singlespecies will increase its dominance over other species. D is true but is not a benefit. B is abenefit and is the key.

19 There are 2 combinations. In this case n = 3 and 2 = 8. C is the key.n 3

20 The process at all stages is the production of identical plant cells which is mitosis to formmulticellular sporophytes as shown in the third figure. The key is C.

21 ‘He has’ is in reply to Macbeth’s ‘Hath he ask’d for me?’. The key is A.

22 ‘I have bought golden opinions from all sorts of people’ (lines 7–8) indicate that Macbeth ishappy with his current reputation. The key is D.

23 Lines 10–11: ‘I had more right to it than had Malcolm’ points to A as the key.

24 ‘Can we deny...our destiny’ in line 19 calls in the natural order that Macbeth through Gruochshould have been King. The key is D.

25 Macbeth needed time to absorb the news of Duncan’s ruse and his own disadvantage. Heneeded to be alone with his thoughts for that moment. The key is C.

26 Given the sense of natural order and the right of Macbeth (passage 2) to the throne, theanswer of being crowned King of Scotland (B) is the key.

27 In passage 1, Macbeth vacillates between murdering Malcolm and Duncan and his currentreputation and status. In passage 2, Macbeth is more content in himself and in his relationshipwith his wife. The key is C.

28 A chiral centre needs four different attachments. There are five chiral centres. The key is C.

29 There are two double bonds. Each double bond is capable of cis-trans isomerism. The numberof isomers is thus 2 . The key is B.2

30 NSAIDs are antipyretics (they reduce temperature). Therefore, in the event of a fever, anNSAID would be useful as it would aid in lowering the body temperature. The key is A.

31 We are told in the question that indomethacin is an NSAID. The passage states, within thethird paragraph (In general...), that NSAIDs work through the “...irreversible inhibition ofarachidonate cyclo-oxygenase...”. The key is B.



32 The diagram indicates that cyclo-oxygenase potentiates oedema, therefore without cyclo-oxygenase, oedema would be expected to decline. Therefore A is a satisfactory deduction.The diagram states that cyclo-oxygenase leads to the production of prostacyclins andthromboxanes, each of which, though in different ways, impacts on blood clotting. ThereforeD is true and B is false.The diagram also states that cyclo-oxygenase leads to the production of prostacyclin andthromboxanes, which cause vasodilation and vasoconstriction. Since changing the diameterof blood vessels causes a change in blood pressure, option C would also be true. The key isB.

33 The passage states that “COX-2 is induced in inflammatory cells when they are activated andis believed to be the enzyme that produces the prostanoid mediators of inflammation.”Piroxicam inhibits COX-2. Therefore, it would be expected that prostanoid mediators ofinflammation would not be produced and thus inflammation would be diminished. The keyis A.B and D would be incorrect because each opposes this line of reasoning. C would be incorrectbecause piroxicam inhibits cyclo-oxygenase; consequently, prostaglandin production wouldbe reduced.

34 If Hansel’s body is unable to produce cyclo-oxygenase, then the pathway cannot proceedbeyond the arachidonic acid step. Administering an NSAID would be pointless because thereis no cyclo-oxygenase to inhibit. Thus, there would be no change in blood vessel diameterthat is prostaglandin-induced. The key is D.

35 The point of the quotation from Shaw is that the lady does not communicate with others buttalks to the point of monopolising the interchange. This is often the case when peopleperceive that gaps in dialogue are difficult and that it is obligatory to continue talking evenif there is little interchange taking place. The key is A.

36 Both III and IV concentrate on the fact that children model their behaviour on that of adults.No other pair given in the options are as alike in meaning. The key is B.

37 Lines 4–5: ‘Anyone of a certain age brought up in a progressive home, Jewish or not, willremember the aura surrounding the very name.’ C is the key.

38 The author says (lines 9–10) ‘Hobsbawm has said, quite correctly as well as presumably withsome degree of admiration’ (but not ‘zeal’). A is the key.

39 Wheatcroft claims that the Palestinians were discriminated against (line 18) by thecolonialists who, by implication, enjoyed more privileges than the native Arabs. D is the key.

40 ‘Even Jews on the left who were detached from Zionism’ (line 7) and ‘the official left ofLabour, unions and kibbutzim excelled in the pretence that there need be no conflict betweena Zionist state and Palestinians’ (lines 15–17) indicate B as the key.

41 Shahak (lines 15–18) claims kibbutzniks ‘excelled in the pretence that there need be noconflict between a Zionist state and Palestinians, but were the first to discriminate againstArabs’. The others speak affectionately (line 9), show admiration (line 10), or complain (line21) about the people but not about the kibbutz itself. B is the key.

42 Line 28: ‘have everywhere given way to the pursuit of individual fulfilment’ points to D asthe key.

43 To get to the correct units, we need to change kilometres per hour (kph) to metres per second(m/s). Substituting t = ½ , u = 60 x 1000/3600, a = –4, D = 15 in the formula t – u/2a + D/uyields a time of 3.48 sec. The key is B.



44 The car travels for time t at speed u before the driver reacts and travels a distance of ut in thistime. It then comes to rest according to the equation v = 0 = u + 2as. The distance it travels2 2

while decelerating is thus – u /2a. 2

So the total distance travelled is ut – u /2a. The key is C. (Note that a is negative.) 2

45 The presence of the terms u/a and D/u make the relationship of w, x, y, and z with u notlinear. The best that can be said to be true is that when (a) the speed limit is 40 kph and (b)the old people, with longer reaction times, are driving cars, namely 2:30 pm to 3:30 pm, the‘orange light time’ should be longer. That is, y > w. Similarly, when the speed limit is 60 kph, the ‘orange light time’ needs to be greater whenthe old people are driving than when they are not. So x > z. Thus, C is the key.

46 Mixing increases the entropy but the question implies that A, B, C and D are at theirequilibrium concentrations for ÄG to be zero AFTER MIXING. So, the entropy does notchange anymore and ÄS = 0.The stimulus states that the formula ÄG = ÄH – T.ÄS is applicable only at constant T.So ÄG = 0 and ÄS = 0 implies that ÄH = 0 and D is the key.

47 The graph indicates that G for the reactants is greater than G for the products. Thus ÄGE isnegative. Initially Q is zero because [C] and [D] are zero. K is always positive because theconcentrations at equilibrium, small or large, are always positive. Therefore, initially Q < K and A is the key.

48 From the negative sign in the equation ÄGE = –RT.lnKÄGE < 0 for this reaction because K is positive.

[C] [D]c d

If K is very large (10 ), at equilibrium the numerator in Q = K =429

[A] [B]a b

must be very large compared to [A] and [B]. So products are favoured over reactants.C is the key.

49 ÄGE = –RT.lnK= – 8.314 x 298 x ln(5 x 10 )17

. – 8 x 300 x 40= – 96000

Although the units are not specified in the question, a negative sign is required in the answer.Thus, the answer must be chosen from A and B. –100 kJ is closest to –96 kJ or even numerically to –96000 and B is the key.

1 250 Because T > T , 1 1 1 1 – is certainly negative, just as – is negative.

1 2T T 60 5

So if ÄHE is negative (exothermic), then

T2 Kln( ) = some positive value

T1 K

T2 T1and K > K .

Similarly, if ÄHE is positive (endothermic), then

T2 Kln( ) = some negative value

T1 K

T2 T1and K < K .D is the key.



Interpreting your scores

Add up the total correct out of 20 for those questions designated as H for Humanities.Add up the total correct out of 30 for those questions designated as S for Science.

Use the following table to establish your grades in Humanities and Science.

Humanities Science

19–20 A2 28–30 A2

18 A1 25–27 A1

17 B5 23–24 B5

16 B4 22 B4

15 B3 21 B3

14 B2 20 B2

13 B1 19 B1

12 C1 17–18 C1

11 C2 16 C2

10 C3 14–15 C3

9 C4 13 C4

8 C5 11–12 C5

5–7 D1 6–10 D1

0–4 D2 0–5 D2

Our interpretation of the grades for candidates to Australian Universities is as follows: A or B4 or B5 If your result at GAMSAT matches this result in all three sections, granted a

reasonable interview, you should get in. B1 to B3 If you are still in this group in all three sections after you and everyone else

who takes our courses have prepared for and sat GAMSAT, you are likely toget to interview.

C Those at the very top of this group at GAMSAT are likely to get to interview.D You have to work hard if you are to make it.

The scores you have achieved on this test do give a reasonable prognosis but don’t try to invent firmpredictions, good or bad, of your score at GAMSAT. You really do need to prepare. So choose fromour offerings those courses you think you will benefit from. We will give you on-going help anddirection and powerful resources but you have to be self-motivated and proactive enough to do a heapof preparation yourself as well.

Science Summary


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Science Summary for our Pre-Gamsat Science-Revision Course

It is expected that candidates for GAMSAT will have familiarity with the subjectmatter at First Year equivalent for Chemistry and Biology and at A-Level or Year 12equivalent for Physics. The following list is not intended to be exhaustive, nordefinitive; however, it is indicative of the topics around which questions for thescience-based paper of GAMSAT have been based. Candidates should ensure that theterminology, concepts and procedures within the topics listed are familiar and thatprocesses, both mental and physical, and formulae are thoroughly conceptualised.

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Physical Chemistry

BondingIons and ionic bonding, lattice enthalpies, hydrogen bonding, covalent bonds, octet rule, shared electrons, double and triple bondsAddition equations; resonance structures, substitution equations

Solution chemistry

spIons in solution, molarity, molality, mole fraction, solubility, concentration, saturation, solubility product KEffect of temperature on solubility of solids and of pressure on solubility of gasesRaoult’s law, BP & MP elevation/depression, osmosis & osmotic pressure, colloids

ReactionsOxidation/reduction, activity series, balancing equations, use of half-reactions

GasesBoyle’s, Charles’ and ideal gas laws, Avogadro’s law, STP, Dalton’s law of partial pressures, diffusion and effusion of gases, Graham’s lawVan der Waals forces and the real gas equation, kinetic theory of gases, Maxwell’s distribution of gaseous molecular speeds

Phases and phase equilibriaMelting, vaporising, subliming, phase diagrams, triple point, latent heatIon and dipole interaction and effects on MP & BP, vapour pressure, distillation, surface tension, capillary action

Reaction ratesFirst order and second order reactions, half-life of reactions, rate effects of catalysts/enzymesActivation energy, Arrhenius behaviour and rate dependence on temperature, reaction paths and rate-determining steps

Chemical equilibriumEquilibrium constant in terms of concentrations or partial pressures, reaction quotient, Le Chatelier’s principleEffects of changes in concentration on equilibria, effects of pressure and temperature on equilibria

Acids and bases

w a bArrhenius acids and bases, Brønsted!Lowry acids and bases, conjugate bases, conjugate acids, pH, pOH, pK , pK , pKTitrations, indicators, pH curves, titrations between strong/weak acids and strong/weak basesCommon ion effect, buffer solutions, Henderson!Hasselbalch equation, buffer capacity

Thermodynamics and thermochemistryEnthalpy and the first law of thermodynamics, endothermic and exothermic reactions, Hess’s lawEntropy, Boltzmann’s constant, standard molar entropies, the second law of thermodynamicsStandard free energies of formation and reaction

ElectrochemistryGalvanic cells, standard reduction potentials and the electrochemical series, standard cell potential, Faraday’s constant, Nernst equationElectrolysis, electroplating, electrochemical corrosion

Nuclear chemistryQuanta, photons, Planck’s constant, Balmerÿ series, Rydberg constantRadioactivity, decay and half-life, á and ß particles, ã rays, use of radioactive isotopes, isotopic datingNuclear fission and nuclear fusion, nuclear reactions, nuclear binding energy

Organic Chemistry & BiochemistryIUPAC systemRules for naming organic compounds (leading to interpreting names in order to determine structures)

Alkanes and cycloalkanes, alkenes and alkynesPhysical and chemical properties of each group, Addition polymers

Aromatic compoundsNitration, sulfonation, halogenation, benzene derivatives, fused rings

ResonanceResonance forms, resonance hybrids, stability, contribution of resonance forms to the resonance hybrid

Reaction mechanismsAddition reactions, Markovnikov’s rule

N NSubstitution reactions, S 1 and S 2 reactions, suitable targets and neucleophilesE1 and E2 elimination reactions, Aldol condensation

AlcoholsDehydration to give an alkene, dehydration to give an etherOxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde to carboxylic acid, oxidation of secondary alcohol to ketoneAcidic nature of phenols, physical properties of alcohols and phenols

Ethers, thiols (mercaptans), thioethers (sulfides), disulfides, alkyl and aryl halides

Aldehydes & ketones — linking to carbohydratesIntermolecular hydrogen bonding, polarity, bonding with water, Tollen’s and Benedict’s tests for aldehydesSubstitution reactions to form acetals, ketals, reduction to alcohols, keto-enol tautomerism

Carboxylic acids Hydrogen bonding, carboxylic acid salts, acetic acid, oxalic acid, lactic acid, citric acid

Carboxylic esters — linking to lipidsHydrogen bonding, esterification from acid and alcohol by dehydrationHydrolysis of carboxylic esters by acid or base catalysts, esters and anhydrides of phosphoric acid

AminesBonding of hydrogen to nitrogen, dissolve to form ions, separation of amine salts via low pH solutions

Amides & amino acids — linking to proteins as polyamino acidsHydrolysis of amides by acid or base catalysts, hydrolysis of amides by enzymes catalystsAmino acids: 19 common L-forms and glycine; ionic nature (zwitterions), act as buffers

IsomersConstitutional isomers: Different carbon skeletons, different functional groups, different positions of the same functional groupStereoisomers: Fischer projections, chirality, both R & S and D & L enantiomers

cis & trans diastereoisomers in alkenes and in cyclic compounds, E & Z configurations

Spectrometry and spectroscopyMass spectrometry, infra-red spectroscopy, ultra-violet & visible-light spectroscopy, NMR spectroscopy

Carbohydrates — linking to aldehydes and ketonesMonosaccharides: á & â, D-glucose

á & â, D-mannose, D-galactoseâ-D-ribose, á-D-fructose

Disaccharides: maltose — two á-D-glucose ringslactose — â-D-galactose & â-D-glucosesucrose — á-D-glucose & â-D-fructose

Polysaccharides: starch — á-D-glucoseglycogen — á-D-glucosecellulose — â-D-glucose

Proteins — linking to amino acidsPolyaminoacids: peptides, polypeptides, proteinsProteins: solubility, isoelectric points, zwitterions; primary structure (disulfide linkages), secondary structure (á-helix, â-pleated sheet,triple helix of collagen, hydrogen bonding between CO and NH groups), tertiary structure (disulfide bridges, hydrogen bond bridges, saltbridges, hydrophobic interactions), quaternary structureEnzymes: rate of enzymic activity—enzyme and substrate concentrations, temperature, pH, action of inhibitors; mechanisms of enzymeactivity; cofactors, regulatory sites, feedback inhibition

Lipids — linking to carboxylic estersFats: esters based on glycerol; triglycerides, saturated/unsaturated fats; hydrogenation; saponification; lipid bilayersComplex lipids: phosphoglycerides, particularly lecithin, sphingolipids, glycolipids, particularly the cerebrosidesSteroids: HDL and LDL cholesterol; aldosterone; cortisol and cortisone; testosterone, oestradiol and progesterone

Physics

Translational motionF=ma, velocity equations, circular motion, friction, motion under gravity alone, projectile motion, gravitational force

EquilibriumAddition of vectors and components of vectors, forces in statics, forces in pulley systems/muscles, mechanical advantage

Momentum, work, energy, powerImpulse, change in momentum, work, change in energy, kinetic energy, gravitational potential energyHooke’s law and elastic potential energy, power as the rate of doing work

Waves and periodic motionTransverse and longitudinal waves, v = f.ë , refection of waves, Huygens’s principle, phase, refraction, diffraction, interferencePeriodic motion and, in particular, simple harmonic motion, relationship between simple harmonic motion and circular motion

LightLaws of reflection, plane and curved mirrors, mirror equationRefraction, refractive index, Snell’s law, total internal reflection, optical fibres, concave and convex lenses, lens equation, optical instrumentsOverlapping diffraction and interference patterns

SoundTransmission and relative speed of sound in solids/liquids/gasesTwo source interference, Doppler effect, harmonics and resonance in pipes and strings

Solids, liquids and gasesDensity and specific gravity, Archimedes principleHydrostatic pressure, continuity equation, Bernoulli’s equation, viscosity, elasticity

ElectrostaticsCharges on insulators, electric fields and field strengthCoulomb’s law, electric potential energy, potential difference

Electric currentBatteries, resistors, current, voltage, resistance, power, Ohm’s law, Kirchoff’s lawsParallel plate capacitors, series and parallel connections of cells, resistors and capacitors

ElectromagnetismMagnets and magnetic fields, magnetic effects of electricity, solenoids, force on a conductor in a magnetic field, electric motors, electric metersCoils moving in magnetic fields, Faraday’s law, transformers, electric generators

Electromagnetic radiation, atomic and nuclear physicsPhotoelectric effect, X-rays, photon movement and Compton scattering, wave/particle duality, quantum energy levelsRadioactive decay, á and ß particles, ã rays, half-life, isotopes

Biology

Note: Biology is a diverse area of knowledge and ‘First Year Biology’ is not necessarily a meaningful set. However, one semester of cell biology,including some appropriate biochemistry, is usual; many students then continue with genetics or with human anatomy/physiology. The key areas are cell biology, with its associated biochemistry, cellular reproduction and genetics, and homeostasis.

Cell Biology and BiochemistryStructure of animal and plant cellsPlasma membrane, nuclear envelope, chromatin, nucleolus, ribosomes, rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, mitochondria,microfilaments, microtubules, peroxisome (or microbody), as well as cell wall, plasmodesmata, plastids, chloroplasts, vacuole, tonoplast, centrioles,lysosome, cilia and flagella

Fluid mosaic model of membranesSelective permeability, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, active transport, the sodium-potassium pump, the proton pumpExocytosis, endocytosis

Nucleic acids, genetic codes & protein synthesisRNA and DNA, bases, nucleotides, primary and secondary structure of DNA, DNA replication, mRNA, tRNA and rRNATranscription and translation of genetic codes, genes and gene regulation

Cellular respiration (biochemical approach)Glycolysis, â-oxidation of fatty acids, citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation, chemiosmosis

2ATP synthesis: AMP, ADP, ATP, NAD , FAD, NADH, FADH , acetal CoA+

Pentose phosphate pathway, ascorbic acid pathway, gluconeogenesisGlycogen metabolism, formation of ketone bodies, oxidation of amino acids, urea cycle

PhotosynthesisChloroplasts, light reactions, Calvin-Benson cycle, photooxidation of chlorophyll, cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation

3 4Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts and mitochondria, C , C and CAM pathways

Cellular Reproduction and GeneticsCellular reproduction and embyrogenesisEukaryotic chromosomes, the cell cycle, comparison between mitosis and meiosis, fertilisation, cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis

Inheritance and genetic codesMendel’s laws, dominance, recessiveness, chromosomes and genetic variation, incomplete dominance in genesCodominance, multiple alleles, inheritance of traits and disorders, genotypes and phenotypes, pleiotropy, epistasis, pedigree analysisLinked genes, crossing-over, sex linked traits, mutations of genes

Human BiologyMusculoskeletal systemSkeletal system, bone tissue and formation, cartilage, calcium regulation, axial and appendicular skeleton, joints and movement, disorders/diseasesMuscular system and muscle tissue, functions and properties, disorders/diseases

Human digestive systemNutrition and nutritional disorders, digestion in mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, disorders/diseasesStructure and functions of pancreas, liver and gall bladder, disorders/diseases

Circulatory systemComponents of blood including erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, plasma, haemoglobin and their functions

2 2Blood groups, antigens and antibodies, blood vessels, blood flow, materials transported including carriage of O and CO , disorders/diseasesStructure and action of the heart, blood pressure, circulation, disorders/diseases

Respiratory systemNose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoliStructure and function of lungs, the control of respiratory gases, gas exchange to circulatory system, disorders/diseases

Urinary systemHomeostasis, structure and functions of kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder, disorders/diseasesGlomerular filtration, selective reabsorption of solutes, reabsorption and regulation of water, regulation of salt

Nervous systemCentral nervous system, structure and properties of neurones, neuroglia, meninges, cerebrospinal fluidBrain, spinal cord, visceral nerves, disorders/diseasesPeripheral, autonomic, sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, disorders/diseases

Reproductive systemFemale reproductive system, disorders/diseases, male reproductive system, disorders/diseasesSexually transmitted diseases, methods of birth control

Endocrine systemHypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pineal and thymus glands, disorders/diseasesMajor hormones, stress reactions, growth regulation

Disease prevention and the immune systemNon-specific and specific defence mechanisms, antibodies, immunity, allergies, lymphatic system, lymph nodes, effector cells, disorders/diseases

HomeostasisPositive and negative feedback

ReferencesYou may wish to refer Google or to textbooks to round out some of the topics of our 556 page book of science notes. The references with which you are most familiar are probably the best for you. Nonetheless, for those who have beenaway from science studies for some time, the books on the following list are recommended. You may wish to view theasterisked texts first.

Organic Chemistry *McMurry Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry Thomson Brooks/ColeBrown, Foote & Iverson Organic Chemistry Thomson Brooks/Cole

Physical Chemistry *Zumdahl Chemical Principles Houghton Mifflin CoSilverberg Chemistry McGraw-Hill

Biochemistry *Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry WH Freeman & CoBerg, Tymoczko & Stryer Biochemistry WH Freeman & Co

Physics *Giancoli Physics Pearson Prentice HallGeneral Biology *Campbell and Reece Biology Benjamin/Cummings

Knox, Ladiges, Evans, Saint Biology McGraw-HillHuman Biology *Tortora and Grabowski Principles of Anatomy and Physiology John Wiley and Sons Inc

Phillips and Chilton A-Level Biology Oxford University Press


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