WWW.JAGRANJOSH.COM PRACTICE SET FOR IBPS CLERK

RECRUITMENT 2012-13

TABLE OF CONTENTS

Practice Set ..................................................................................................................................... 3

Test – I ......................................................................................................................................... 3

General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry) ......................................... 3

Test – II ...................................................................................................................................... 10

English Language ................................................................................................................... 10

Test - III ...................................................................................................................................... 19

Numerical Ability ................................................................................................................... 19

Test - IV ..................................................................................................................................... 28

Reasoning .............................................................................................................................. 28

Test - V ...................................................................................................................................... 37

Computer Knowledge ........................................................................................................... 37

Answers ..................................................................................................................................... 44

Solution and Explanation .......................................................................................................... 47

PRACTICE SET

TEST – I

GENERAL AWARENESS (WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO BANKING INDUSTRY)

1. Who is the author of the novel ‘The White Tiger’? (a) Paul Krugman (b) Arvind Adiga (c) Jhumpa Lahiri (d) Steve Waugh

2. ______ is not the member of IBSA? (a) India (b) Bangladesh (c) South Africa (d) Brazil

3. Who is the author of the book ‘Straight from the heart’? (a) M.S.Dhoni (b) Kapil Dev (c) Saurabh Ganguly (d) Sachin Tendulkar

4. Which book is not written by Chetan Bhagat? (a) A House for Mr. Biswas (b) The 3 Mistakes of my life (c) 5 Point Someone (d) A Bend in the River

5. Which Country experimented with the first mirror landing system? (a) Japan (b) England (c) USA (d) France

6. Who won the Best Actor Award in the 59th National Film Awards 2011? (a) Ranveer Kapoor (b) Girish Kulkarni (c) Salman Khan (d) Shahrukh Khan

7. Who won the Miss India Earth Title in Pantaloon Femina Miss India 2012?

(a) Vanya Mishra (b) Rochelle Maria (c) Prachi Mishra (d) Gargi Gupta

8. The winner of Asia Cup of Cricket 2012 is: (a) Bangladesh (b) Pakistan (c) Australia (d) India

9. The Country which has accepted UN peace plan to end violence in the Country is: (a) Iraq (b) Jordan (c) Syria (d) Yeman

10. The Indian tennis players who won the ATP Dubai Open 2012 are: (a) Mahesh Bhupathi and Sania Mirza (b) Mahesh Bhupathi and Leander Paes (c) Leander Paes and Sania Mirza (d) Mahesh Bhupathi and Rohan Bhopana

11. Identify the person with the help of the following clues. (i) He is the Rajya Sabha MP from West Bengal. (ii) He is a TV quiz host by profession. (iii) He became the first Anglo Indian to vote in Presidential Elections in India. (iv) He is a Trinamool Congress leader (a) Derek o’ Brian (b) Andy Chraine (c) John Adams (d) Subramanian Swamy

12. Name the person who was appointed as the new chairman of the High Level Committee on Financing Infrastructure on 16 July 2012. (a) Deepak Parekh (b) Adi Godrej (c) KP Singh (d) None of these

13. The Appointment Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on 16 July 2012 decided to appoint Arun Mishra as the Chief of Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). Name the personwho was replaced by him to the top post? (a) EK Bharatbhushan (b) Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi (c) Rahul Khullar

(d) None of the above

14. The Union Human Resource Development Ministry on 13 July 2012 agreed to set up two central universities in Bihar. The two universities will be opened in which of the two following towns of the state? (a) Bhagalpur, Patna (b) Patna, Munger (c) Motihari, Gaya (d) Patna, Siwan

15. Which of these is NOT a monetary policy tool? (a) Discount Rate (b) Open Market Operations (c) Balance Accounts (d) Reserve Requirements

16. Federal Reserve Board of Governors members are appointed by the ____________ and confirmed by the ______________. (a) President; Senate (b) Treasury; Congress (c) Federal Reserve Presidents; Treasury (d) Public; House of Representatives

17. NTC is the abbreviation of which organization in India: (a) National Tea Company (b) National Tea Corporation (c) National Textile Corporation (d) National Tobacco Company

18. Which is the deepest lake of the world? (a) Vembanad (b) Baikal (c) Nyasa (d) Chilka

19. In which year was the first recorded Olympic Games held? (a) 666 BC (b) 676 BC (c) 776 BC (d) 766 BC

20. Which one of the following statements is wrong? (a) Maria Yuryevna Sharapova won French Open 2012 on 9 June 2012 (b) She defeated Saria Erani of Italy

(c) This was Sharapova’s first French open title (d) Sharapova with winning the French Open Title completed her career grand slam

21. Name the Captain of India’s Under-19 team under whose captaincy India won the U-19 world cup final 2012. (a) Prashant Chopra (b) Akshdeep Nath (c) Sandipan Das (d) Unmukt Chand

22. Inauguration of the London Paralympic games was done by whom. (a) Prince Charles (b) Queen Elizabeth (c) Barack Hussein Obama (d) David Cameron

23. Winner team for 23rd Federation Cup National Throw ball Championship: (a) J&K (b) Manipur (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Delhi

24. What is the meaning of Bad loans in banking terminology? (a) NPAs (b) Prime Asset (c) Prime Loans (d) None of these

25. A new strain of rice developed by the scientists, which can enhance the productivity in the soil that lacks a nutrient content. Name the nutrient, lack of which effects crop yield. (a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen (c) Phosphorous (d) Carbon

26. Name the two planets that came together in the Western sky on 15 August 2012 after sunset. (a) Mars and Saturn (b) Earth and Mars (c) Jupiter and Saturn (d) Venus and Earth

27. Name the NASA’s Robot that has recently touched the surface of Mars (a) Rover Curiosity (b) Gale Crater (c) Martian home (d) Calif

28. Which Indian University signed an agreement for establishing a centre for earthquake and hydrological studies with Hyderabad based NGRI (National Geophysical Research Institute) on August 15, 2012? (a) University of Kerala (b) University of West Bengal (c) University of Kashmir (d) University of Assam

29. On 25 August 2012, the ballistic missile "Prithvi II" was successfully launched from the test range off Odisha Coast. Which type of missile is Prithvi II? (a) Air-to-air missile (b) Surface-to-air missile (c) Surface-to-surface missile (d) Air-to-surface missile

30. Who is the author of the book ‘Half of Life’? (a) V.V. Giri (b) V.S. Naipaul (c) Salman Rushdie (d) Pt Ravishankar

31. Which of the following day is observed as ‘National Consumer Day’ in India? (a) 24th October (b) 22nd December (c) 24th December (d) 20th March

32. Who among the following won the Dadasaheb Phalke award in 2011? (a) Soumitra Chatterjee (b) Manoj Kumar (c) Manna Dey (d) Shyam Benegal

33. Which Constitutional right is not a fundamental right? (a) Right to life (b) Right to equality (c) Right to freedom (d) Right to property

34. Monopoly is a form of market where there is (a) Small number of markets (b) Large number of markets (c) A single firm controlling the market (d) None of these

35. Shape of the total fixed cost curve is

(a) Vertical (b) Horizontal (c) A curve (d) None of these

36. What is the currency of Switzerland? (a) Maloti (b) Emalangeni (c) Metical (d) Dobra

37. _______ has the most favorable sex ratio. (a) Finland (b) Switzerland (c) The Netherlands (d) Sweden

38. National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX) is located in : (a) Jaipur (b) Kolkata (c) Hyderabad (d) Mumbai (e) New Delhi

39. Which of the following public sector bank has appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman (a) Bank of Baroda (b) Allahabad Bank (c) State Bank of Maharashtra (d) Syndicate Bank

40. Naresh Goyal is the chairman of ______ (a) Jet Airways (b) Indigo Airlines (c) Air India (d) Go Indigo

TEST – II

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.41-55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The structure and operations of banks have undergone a rapid transformation in recent years. Consequent upon the revolution in information technology and the associated increase in competition financial intermediaries have become increasingly global in geographical coverage and universal in the financial operations, encompassing a wide range of activities including banking, securities markets activities and insurance. In the face of widespread concerns about declining profitability of banks, the Basel capital adequacy norms were enacted.

Although the Basel norms helped to arrest the erosion of banks' capital ratios, concerns were raised regarding the mere applicability of baseline capital ratios in the changed environment of operation. The blurring of both functional as well as national divisions among the financial intermediaries, and the speed and complexity of adjustment, made it difficult for regulators to keep up with the growing pace change. In particular the rule of 'one-size- fits-all' aspect of the capital adequacy ratio was the subject of intense debate. Recent banking crisis only emphasized the point that baseline capital adequacy norms wee not adequate to hedge against failures. In response to the same, the Basel Committee on Banks' Supervision came out with the new Consultative Paper on Capital Adequacy. It invited suggestions from the policyrnakers, academia and other institutes all over the world. After taking into consideration manifold suggestions of the various organisations, the second Consultative Paper on Capital Adequacy was released.

The Accord rests on three pillars; the first pillar of minimum capital requirement, the second pillar of supervisory review process and the third pillar of market discipline. The first pillar sets out the minimum capital requirements. The new framework maintains both the current definition of capital and the minimum requirement of 8% of capital to risk-weighted assets. The revised Accord will be extended on a consolidation basis to holding companies of banking groups. The Accord stresses upon the improvement in measurement of risks. The credit risk measurement methods have been made more elaborate than those in the existing Accord. The new framework also emphasises the measurement of operational risk. For measuring credit risk, two options have been proposed. The first is the standardised approach and the second is the internal rating based approach. Under the standardized approach, the existing approach for credit risk remains conceptually the same, but the risk-weights have been enlarged to encompass exposures to a broad category of borrowers with reference to the rating provided by rating agencies.

41. What necessitated the creation of Basel capital adequacy norms? (a) To study the profitability pattern in the banks. (b) The banks wanted its capital reserve ratios to be kept above 8%.

(c) Regulatory body of the banks wanted to have uniform policy. (d) Corporate buyers compelled the lending institutions to do so. (e) None of these

42. Which of the following factors are responsible for rapid transformation in banks in recent years? (a) The forces of privatization and international players have compelled the banks to do so. (b) Control from regulators has become meaningless for the banks to survive. (c) Sudden upsurge in economy. (d) The competition has increased and information technology has undergone a sea change. (e) None of these

43. According to the passage activities encompassed by banks are: (a) insurance, housing finance and low cost funds. (b) market discipline, profit maximization and priority sector banking. (c) securities markets, insurance and banking. (d) geographical coverage, universalization and transformation. (e) None of these

44. The main features of the standardised approach are: (a) the credit risk management should encompass large corporate borrowers. (b) the borrowers should not have more than 8% risk weighted assets. (c) banks capital reserve ratios should be strictly maintained. (d) the risk weights should take into consideration the rating of rating agencies. (e) None of these.

45. The consultative paper of Basel Committee was a result of: (a) three pillar accord of academic institutes. (b) contribution from international policy makers, academicians and institutions. (c) failure of structures and operations of banks in the world. (d) erosion of banks' fixed assets owing to global competition. (e) None of these

46. How did Basel norms help the Bank? (a) It changed the environment of operations. (b) The decline in capital ratios was arrested. (c) The banks could successfully keep market discipline. (d) It did not erode the quality of risk measurement. (e) None of these

47. Emphasis on operational risk measurement was the main feature of: (a) theory of three pillars risk management. (b) first consultative paper on capital adequacy. (c) second consultative paper on capital adequacy. (d) Basel capital adequacy norms. (e) None of these

48. Which of the following difficulties was faced by regulators on prescription of Basel norms? (a) The regulators could not keep up with growing pace of change. (b) There was no provision for risk measurement. (c) The minimum requirement of 8% of capital could not be met. (d) The supervisory review process could not be carried out. (e) None of these

49. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation of second consultative paper on capital adequacy? (a) The minimum capital requirement for a bank has been prescribed. (b) Universal financial operations are permitted within limited geographical coverage. (c) The supervisory review should be more comprehensive. (d) The market discipline has to be observed by each bank. (e) None of these

50. According to passage factor(s) responsible for declining profitability in banks was/were: A. cut-throat competition and technology revolution. B. globalisation of financial intermediaries. C. privatisation of insurance. (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Both A and B (d) Both B and C (e) Neither A nor B

Directions (Q. 51- 53): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. Elaborate (a) precise (b) discernible (c) explanatory (d) enumerate (e) implicit

52. Options (a) alternatives (b) distracters (c) answers (d) paths (e) directions

53. Erosion (a) loss (b) depletion (c) assets

(d) replenishment (e) reclamation

Directions (Q.54-55): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. Accord (a) summit (b) record (c) disagreement (d) difference (e) withdrawal

55. Manifold (a) single (b) alone (c) lonely (d) isolated (e) multiple

Directions (Q.56-60) Which of the phrase (a),(b),(c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.

56. Ramesh told me that he was already sold out his car. (a) has sold already (b) had already sold (c) were already selling (d) have already been sold (e) No correction

57. What does it matter most is the quality of the work that we do in office (a) what matters most (b) what it matters more (c) what matters it most (d) what does it matter more (e) No correction

58. If you would have seen the thief, you would have caught him. (a) if you would see (b) had you seen (c) if you have had seen (d) had you been seen (e) No Correction

59. We have watched this dull film since lunchtime. Let’s switch over to the other channel.

(a) are watching (b) were watching (c) have been watching (d) had been watching (e) No correction

60. I needn’t got up early yesterday morning, so I stayed in bed till 7o’ clock (a) needn’t get up (b) didn’t need to get up (c) needn’t have got up (d) shouldn’t have got up (e) No correction

Directions (Q.61-65): In each question below a sentence with four words printed with bold type is given. These are lettered as (1), (2), and (3). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (4) i.e,‘All correct’ as your answer.

61. Mr. Sunil Pawar, our representative, he will attend meeting on our behalf. All correct. (a) (b) (c) (d)

62. The party chief made it a point to state that the Prime Minister and the Union Home (a) (b)

Minister should also come and they see what his party men has seen. All correct (c) (d)

63. The student answered to the question asked by the inspector of school. All correct. (a) (b) (c) (d)

64. The ultimate problem of physics is to reduce matter by analysis to its lowest condition of (a) (b) (c)

divisibility. All correct. (d)

65. The principal indicated that the issues of improved quality of teaching in the college were (a) (b) (c) high in his of priorities. All correct

(d)

Directions ( Q.66-70) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) History says that Socrates, (B) who were standing around him (C) as he drank it (D) when he was given the cup of hemlock,

(E) continued to talk to the friends

66. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E)

67. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E)

68. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E)

69. Which of the following is the LAST (SIXTH) after rearrangement? (a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E)

70. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (a) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (e) (E)

Directions (Q.71-75) Read each sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore error of punctuation if any.)

71. Jitesh was unanimously/elected/ the General Security/ of our Association./ No error. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

72. This short story /should not exceed/ more than/ four hundred words. / No error. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

73. Neither Mr Ram /nor Mr Mohan /were able to give me /any advice/. No error.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

74. She told me that her brother might have done much better/ at the quiz competition last (a) (b)

year / had he not given so much time/ to the student union./No error. (c) (d) (e)

75. The Principal advised the student/ who had failed in the examination twice/ that not to (a) (b) (c)

attempting it again/ until he had time to prepare for it properly./No error. (d) (e)

Directions (Q.76-80): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Experts are beginning to suspect that one of the major 76 of crime in modern cities is the actual design of the city. Oscar Newman, a professor of architecture, in his book titled

"Defensible Space" has 77 the results of this research on this question. The effect of environment 78 crime 'is twofold. Prof. Newman's research shows that some buildings may encourage people not only to interfere but to allow crimes to 79 in crowded apartments in a huge block brings people physically together but isolate them 80.People living in what is accidentally one building with a common entry- fell isolated Within their own apartments. They are unconcerned with their neighbors.

76. (a) Expositions (b) Causes (c) Theories (d) Results

77. (a) Published (b) Printed (c) Predicted (d) Pasted

78. (a) On (b) In (c) Over (d) About

79. (a) Witness (b) Show (c) Appear (d) Happen

80. (a) Spiritually (b) Cognitively (c) Intellectually (d) Mentally

TEST - III

NUMERICAL ABILITY

Directions: What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. (256)0.16 × (16)0.18 =?

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 64 (d) 1.05 (e) None of these

82. If 𝑥

𝑦 =

4

3 , then

𝑥2+𝑦2

𝑥2−𝑦2 = ?

(a) 16

7

(b) 17

7

(c) 11

7

(d) 25

7

(e) None of these

83. If 𝑎

4 =

𝑏

12 =

𝑐

8 , then

𝑎+𝑏+𝑐

𝑐 = ?

(a) 3.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) None of these

84. 40963

=?

(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 22 (d) 16 (e) None of these

85. (123)2.5 – (123)? = 123

(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 1.5

86. 4899×999 =? (a) 4894101 (b) 4894100 (c) 4899983 (d) 4657890

87. 0.000121 = ? (a) 0.0011 (b) 0.011 (c) 0.00011 (d) 0.11

88. 45% of 600 + 20% of 200 = ? (a) 310 (b) 315 (c) 312 (d) None of these

89. 7200÷24÷12 = ? (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) 25

90. 112 + ? = 146

(a) 624 (b) 625 (c) 626 (d) None of these

91. 600 ÷ 24 × 4800 ÷ 6 = ? (a) 20,000 (b) 20,200 (c) 21,000 (d) 22,000

92. 5

8 of

9

5 of

4

3 of 80 = ?

(a) 160 (b) 150 (c) 140 (d) 120

93. 1125.25 +720.30 + 203.45 = ? (a) 2049.50 (b) 2049

(c) 2049.10 (d) None of these

94. 1201×1201= ? (a) 1442401 (b) 1600000 (c) 1234567 (d) 1587690

95. (0.7×0.7×0.7- 0.6×0.6×0.6) ÷ (0.7×0.7+0.6×0.6+0.7×0.6) =? (a) 0.1 (b) 1 (c) 1.3 (d) 1.1

96. The product of 10% of a positive number and 5 % of the same number is 0.125. What is the half of that number?(a) 2.5 (b) 2.7 (c) 3 (d) 5

97. Monami walks 1.40 km in two weeks by walking an equal distance per day. How many meters does she walk per day? (a) 110 m (b) 90 m (c) 99 m (d) 100 m

98. A 480 meter long train crosses a platform in 240 seconds. What is the speed of the train? (a) 4 m/ s (b) 2 m / s (c) 3 m / s (d) Cannot be determined

99. What would be the area of the circle whose diameter is 28 cm? (a) 616 Sq cm (b) 625 Sq cm (c) 600 Sq cm (d) 605 Sq cm

100. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation? ?

56 =

2.6

0.13

(a) 1111

(b) 1110 (c) 1120 (d) 1130

101. The sum of the two numbers is 35 and their product is 250.What is the sum of the reciprocals of these numbers.

(a) 6

25

(b) 4

25

(c) 9

50

(d) 7

50

102. The maximum number of girls among them 2923 bags and 3239 eyeliners can be distributed in such a way that each student gets the same number of bags and eyeliners.

(a) 80 (b) 79 (c) 78 (d) 81

103. Which of the following fractions is less than 8

9 and greater than

1

2 ?

(a) 7

8

(b) 11

12

(c) 1

4

(d) 9

10

104. The value of 4.8×0.54×2.50

0.9×0.06×0.5 is:

(a) 200 (b) 240 (c) 300 (d) 280

105. The price of 8 chairs is equal to that of 2 tables. The price of 12 chairs and 2 tables together is 4000.The total price of 10 chairs and 1 table is:

(a) 2700 (b) 2800 (c) 1900 (d) 2870

106. If 30% of (x-y) = 20% of (x + y), then what percent of x is y ? (a) 25 (b) 20

(c) 30 (d) 24

107. 8.5 can be expressed in terms of percentage as: (a) 750 (b) 849 (c) 8.5 (d) 850

108. A news paper seller had some news papers. He sells 80% news papers and still has 400 news papers. Originally he had:

(a) 2000 (b) 1299 (c) 2200 (d) 3000

109. Nitin and Vivek can do a work in 12 days, Vivek and Vikas in 15 days, Vikas and Nitin in 20 days. If Nitin, Vivek and Vikas work together, they will complete the work in :

(a) 5 days (b) 10 days

(c) 47

6 days

(d) 15 days

110. In a metro the ratio of the no of male and female is 8:5.If there are 160 female, the total no of passengers in a metro is:

(a) 416 (b) 260 (c) 250 (d) 100

111. Ram , Shyam and Mohan hired a taxi for Rs. 850 and used it for 5, 9 and 11 hours respectively. Hired charges paid by Mohan is:

(a) 374 (b) 375 (c) 280 (d) 290

112. 42 men complete a piece of work in 12 days. In how many days will 21 men complete the same work?

(a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) 19

113. Aashu and vasu can do a work in 10 days, vasu and ganesh can do the same work in 15 days, Ganesh and Aashu in 20 days.If Aashu, Vasu and Ganesh work together, they will complete the work in:

(a) 13

120

(b) 110

13

(c) 120

13

(d) 120

114. Akash is walking at a rate of 4 km/hr crosses a bridge in 24 minutes. The length of the bridge (in meters) is:

(a) 1606 (b) 1600 (c) 1680 (d) 1499

115. In what time will a train 150 m long cross a tower, if its speed be 180 km/hr:(a) 3.5 Sec. (b) 3 Sec. (c) 4 Sec. (d) 4.5 Sec.

Directions (Q 116-120): The following pie chart shows the spending of an Engineering

Institute on various branches during a particular year. Study the pie chart carefully and

answers the questions given bellow.

116. What percent of the total Spending is spent on Textile Engineering? (a) 25% (b) 45% (c) 12.5% (d) 23.5%

117. How much percent less is spent on Computer Science than that on Chemical ? (a) 27 %

(b) 331

3 %

(c) 371

2 %

(d) 222

9 %

118. How much percent more is spent on Civil than that on Mechanical branch ? (a) 75%

Civil, 63°

Computer Science, 54°

Others, 31°

Mechanical, 36°

Textile, 45°

Elecrical, 50°

Chemical, 81°

Branches Of Engineering

(b) 37.5% (c) 27% (d) 35%

119. If the total amount spent on different branches of engineering during the year was 4 crores, the amount spent on Chemical and Civil together was:

(a) 1.5 Crores (b) 1.6 Crores (c) 1.8 Crores (d) 1.9 Crores

120. If the total amount spent on Different branches during the year was 3,60,00,000, the amount spent on Electrical branch exceeds that on Textile engineering Branch by :

(a) 4,95,800 (b) 4,90,000 (c) 5,00,000 (d) 5,19,800

TEST - IV

REASONING

Directions (Q.121 -125) There is a certain relation between two given words of one side of :: and one word is given on another side of:: while another word is to be found from the given alternatives having the same relation with this word as the given pair has .select the best alternatives.

121. Square: Perimeter:: Circle : ? (a) Area (b) Radius (c) Volume (d) Circumference

122. Teacher: Students:: Doctor: ? (a) Medicine (b) Hospital (c) Patient (d) Operation

123. Taj-Mahal: ? :: Jama Masjid:Delhi (a) Bombay (b) Gwalior (c) Agra (d) Mathura

124. Movie: Entertainment:: Temple :? (a) Donation (b) Worship (c) Devotion (d) None of these

125. Book:? :: Candle: Wax (a) Pencil (b) Notes (c) Paper (d) Fevicol

Directions (Q.126-130): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

126. (a) December (b) February (c) March (d) May

127. (a) Roof (b) window (c) Door (d) House

128. (a) Eyes (b) Nose (c) Fingers (d) Lips

129. (a) Magazine (b) Autobiography (c) Novel (d) News Paper

130. (a) Furniture (b) Table (c) Chair (d) Bed

131. How many 3’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 5 and immediately preceded by 9? 2 4 3 1 5 9 3 5 8 9 3 4 6 2 9 3 5 8 1 9 3 5 1 2 3 9

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

132. If the number is greater than 4 but less than 9 and it is greater than 7 but less than 11.The number is

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

133. If ‘ a’ means ‘Plus’ ‘b’ means ‘minus’, c means ‘divided by’ and ‘d’ means ‘multiplied by’ then 10 a 12 c 8 d 4 b 5 = ?

(a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 14

134. Pointing to a man, Ram said, I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son. Whose photograph was it?

(a) His nephew’s (b) His father’s (c) His own (d) His Son’s

135. If COMMON is written as OCMMNO in a certain code, how would SPIDER is written in that code?

(a) PSDIRE (b) PSDRIE (c) PSDERI (d) PSDIER

Directions (136-140): Choose the number which is different from others in the group.

136. (a) 36 (b) 125 (c) 144 (d) 121

137. (a) 24 (b) 35 (c) 48 (d) 64

138. (a) 39 (b) 83 (c) 51 (d) 21

139. (a) 410 (b) 230 (c) 140 (d) 330

140. (a) 413 (b) 515 (c) 523 (d) 615

Directions (141-145): Choose the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions:

141. (a) 21-49 (b) 24-64 (c) 25-54 (d) 81-36

142. (a) 23-28 (b) 34-36 (c) 58-59 (d) 59-49

143. (a) 13-31 (b) 36-63 (c) 52-25 (d) 53-25

144. (a) 4-17 (b) 6-37 (c) 8-65 (d) 7-48

145. (a) 98-46 (b) 89-37 (c) 70-18 (d) 69-20

Directions(Q .146-150) Find the missing character in each of the following question:

146. 2

3 1

8 64

? 4 9

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 6

147.

(a) 215 (b) 216 (c) 156 (d) 175

148.

12 11 10 9 8 7

23 19 ?

1 27

? 125

64 8

(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 13

149. If Z=1, CAT =57, then SUN =? (a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27

150.

5 4 3 5 6 5

81 64 ?

(a) 122 (b) 124 (c) 121 (d) 111

151. How many triangles are there in the given diagram?

(a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 16 (d) 15

152. At a certain film festival eight films will be shown J. K. L. M. N. P. Q and R. The order of the showings must meet the following conditions: N is shown before L. J is shown third. Q is shown fifth. If N is shown immediately after P, then P could be shown

(a) Third (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Sixth

153. Sujit travelled 15 km to the west. then turned right and travelled 8 km .He turned left and travelled 9 km. then turned back and travelled 13km. Then he turned right and travelled 8 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(a) 17 km (b) 9 km (c) 11 km (d) 7km

154. Gopal started walking 2 km straight from his school. Then he turned right and walked 1 km. Again he turned right and walked 1 km to reach his house. If his house is south-east from his school, then in which direction did Gopal start walking from the school?

(a) East" (b) West (c) South (d) North

155. In a telephone directory, which of the following name will appear in the last?

(a) Vijay (b) Vijayesh (c) Vikas (d) Vikrant

Directions (Q.156-160) There are two shapes on the left of the page that are related in a certain way. Choose one of the four shapes that is related to the third shape in the same way as the first two shapes. Select the right option.

156.

: :: : ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

157.

: :: : ? :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

158.

: : : : ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

159.

: :: : ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

160.

: :: ? :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

TEST - V

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

161. What is the shortcut key to select all in MS-Excel? (a) Ctrl + S (b) Ctrl + A (c) Alt + A (d) Alt + S

162. ________ is not a storage medium. (a) CD (b) DVD (c) Hard disk (d) Monitor

163. Which part of the Computer performs arithmetical calculations?(a) Monitor (b) Memory (c) ALU (d) CPU

164. OCR stands for: (a) Optical Character Recognition (b) Original Coding Recognizer (c) Original Character Reader (d) Optional Coding Recognizer

165. What is the first step in the transaction cycle? (a) Data transfer (b) Data entry (c) Audit (d) None of these

166. What is Output? (a) Processor takes from the user (b) The user gives to the processor (c) The processor gets from the user (d) The processor gives to the user

167. Help menu is available at button (a) Start (b) Turf off (c) End (d) Restart

168. Short cut Key to open a new database is (a) Ctrl+ N (b) Ctrl + S (c) Ctrl + Z (d) Ctrl + V

169. Short cut Key to open an existing database is (a) Ctrl+ N (b) Ctrl + O (c) Ctrl + Z (d) Ctrl + V

170. Short Cut Key to quit Microsoft Access (a) Alt + F5 (b) Alt + F4 (c) Alt + F2 (d) Alt + F1

171. A pixel is a (a) Picture element or dot on a screen. (b) Point of ink on a laser printed page. (c) Point of ink on an ink jet-printed page. (d) None of these

172. Which is the correct format to save the web pages? (a) html:// (b) http:// (c) HTML (d) URL

173. ‘WWW stands for: (a) World Wide Web (b) World Work Web (c) Work Wide Web (d) Work White Web

174. How we can measure the display size of a monitor (a) Diagonally (b) Vertically (c) Horizontally (d) None of these

175. LCD stands for: (a) Liquid Crystal Display (b) Legal Crystal Display (c) Liquid Computer Display

(d) Local Crystal Display

176. Which algorithm is used for data integrity? (a) SED (b) AES (c) MD5 (d) None of these

177. Which is not a form of Biometrics? (a) Fingerprint (b) Retina scan (c) Password (d) None of these

178. _____ is called the permanent memory in computer. (a) DVD (b) RAM (c) ROM (d) CPU

179. What type of device is a 31/2 inch floppy drive? (a) Input (b) Output (c) Software (d) Storage (e) None of these

180. Each cell in a Microsoft Office Excel documents is referred to by its cell address, which is the:

(a) Cell’s column label and worksheet tab name (b) Cell’s column label (c) Cell’s row label (d) Cell’s row and column labels (e) Cell’s contents

181. The access method used for magnetic tape is . (a) Sequential (b) Direct (c) None of the above (d) Random (e) All

182. The difference between memory and storage is that the memory is and storage is (a) Permanent, temporary (b) Slow, fast (c) Temporary, permanent

(d) None of the above (e) All

183. Which of the following devices can be used to directly input printed text (a) OMR (b) OCR (c) MICR (d) None of the above (e) All

184. A floppy disk contains (a) Sector Only (b) Both circular tracks and sectors (c) Circular tracks only (d) None of the above (e) All

185. CD-ROM is a (a) Memory register (b) Semiconductor memory (c) Magnetic memory (d) None of the above (e) All

186. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device (a) PROM (b) Magnetic tape (c) Floppy disk (d) None of the above (e) All

187. Operating system is (a) A collection of input-output devices (b) A collection of software routines (c) A collection of hardware components (d) None of the above (e) All

188. Operating system (a) Provides a layered, user-friendly interface (b) Link a program with subroutines it references (c) Enables a programmer to draw a flowchart (d) None of the above (e) All

189. Modem stands for

(a) Modulator demodulator (b) Mainframe operating device memory (c) A type of secondary memory (d) None of the above (e) All

190. Wide area networks (WANs) always require (a) High speed processors (b) Same type (c) High bandwidth communication source link (d) None of the above (e) All

191. Bug means (a) A difficult syntax error in a program (b) A logical error in a program (c) Documenting programs using an efficient documentation too (d) None of the above (e) All

192. C is- (a) A low level language (b) A third generation high level language (c) A machine language (d) None of the above (e) An assembly language

193. The communication line between the CPU, memory and peripherals is called a (a) Bus (b) Media (c) Wire (d) Line (e) None of these

194. One thousand bytes represent a (a) Terabyte (b) Kilobyte (c) Gigabyte (d) Megabyte (e) None of the above

195. A step by step procedure used to solve a problem is called (a) Software (b) Algorithm (c) Operating system (d) Application system

(e) None of the above

196. The errors that cannot be pointed out by the compiler are (a) Syntax errors (b) Bug (c) Semantic errors (d) Logical errors

197. WAN hardware includes (a) EDF (b) FTP (c) Multiplexors and routers (d) None of the above (e) Bridger and modems

198. The central Processing Unit: (a) Is operated from the control panel. (b) Controls the auxiliary storage unit (c) Is controlled by the input data entering the system (d) None of these (e) Controls all input, output and processing.

199. Which of the following is not hardware: (a) Magnetic tape (b) VDU terminal (c) Assembler (d) None of these (e) Printer

200. Pick out the wrong definition: (a) Control unit-heart of a computer. (b) COBOL-a language used for business data processing (c) Access time-time needed to access the output (d) None of these (e) EDP-acronym for Electronic Data Processing

ANSWERS

1 (b)

51 (a)

101 (d)

151 (b)

2 (b)

52 (a)

102 (b)

152 (d)

3 (b)

53 (b)

103 (a)

153 (c)

4 (d)

54 (c)

104 (b)

154 (b)

5 (a)

55 (a)

105 (b)

155 (a)

6 (b)

56 (b)

106 (b)

156 (c)

7 (c)

57 (a)

107 (d)

157 (c)

8 (b)

58 (b)

108 (a)

158 (b)

9 (c)

59 (c)

109 (b)

159 (c)

10 (d)

60 (b)

110 (a)

160 (a)

11 (a)

61 (b)

111 (a)

161 (b)

12 (a)

62 (c)

112 (a)

162 (d)

13 (a)

63 (a)

113 (c)

163 (c)

14 (c)

64 (b)

114 (b)

164 (a)

15 (c)

65 (c)

115 (b)

165 (b)

16 (a)

66 (c)

116 (a)

166 (d)

17 (c)

67 (e)

117 (b)

167 (a)

18 (b)

68 (b)

118 (a)

168 (a)

19 (c)

69 (b)

119 (b)

169 (b)

20 (d)

70 (a)

120 (c)

170 (b)

21 (d)

71 (e)

121 (d)

171 (a)

22 (b)

72 (e)

122 (c)

172 (c)

23 (d)

73 (c)

123 (c)

173 (a)

24 (a)

74 (c)

124 (b)

174 (c)

25 (c)

75 (c)

125 (c)

175 (a)

26 (a)

76 (b)

126 (b)

176 (c)

27 (a)

77 (a)

127 (d)

177 (c)

28 (c)

78 (a)

128 (c)

178 (c)

29 (c)

79 (d)

129 (d)

179 (d)

30 (b)

80 (d)

130 (a)

180 (d)

31 (c)

81 (a)

131 (b)

181 (d)

32 (a)

82 (d)

132 (d)

182 (b)

33 (d)

83 (d)

133 (b)

183 (e)

34 (c)

84 (d)

134 (d)

184 (b)

35 (b)

85 (d)

135 (a)

185 (a)

36 (b)

86 (a)

136 (b)

186 (a)

37 (d)

87 (b)

137 (d)

187 (d)

38 (d)

88 (a)

138 (b)

188 (b)

39 (d)

89 (d)

139 (d)

189 (a)

40 (a)

90 (b)

140 (b)

190 (e)

41 (e)

91 (a)

141 (c)

191 (a)

42 (d)

92 (d)

142 (d)

192 (e)

43 (c)

93 (b)

143 (d)

193 (a)

44 (a)

94 (a)

144 (d)

194 (b)

45 (c)

95 (a)

145 (d)

195 (b)

46 (c)

96 (a)

146 (b)

196 (c)

47 (a)

97 (d)

147 (b)

197 (e)

48 (a)

98 (d)

148 (b)

198 (e)

49 (b)

99 (a)

149 (c)

199 (b)

50 (c)

100 (c)

150 (c)

200 (d)

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION

81. (a): (256)0.16 × (16)0.18 = (162)0.16 × (16)0.18 =161

2 = 8

82. (d): If 𝑥

𝑦 =

4

3 , then

𝑥2+𝑦2

𝑥2−𝑦2 =

(𝑥

𝑦)2+1

(𝑥

𝑦)2−1

= (

4

3)2+1

(4

3)2−1

= 25

7.

83. (d): 𝑎

4 =

𝑏

12 =

𝑐

8 = k a=4k, b = 12k, c= 8k

𝑎+𝑏+𝑐

𝑐 =

4𝑘+12𝐾+8𝐾

8𝑘 = 3.

84. (d): 40963

= 16 × 16 × 163

= 16

85. (d): (123)2.5 – (123)? = 123 2.5 -x = 1 x = 1.5

86. (a)

87. (b)

88. (a): 45

100 × 600 +

20

100 × 200 = 310 .

89. (d): 7200 ÷ 24 ÷12 = 7200

24×12 =25.

90. (b): 112 + ? = 146 112 + 625 = 146

91. (a): 600 ÷ 24 × 4800 ÷ 6 = 600

24 ×

4800

6 = 20,000

92. (d): 5

8 of

9

5 of

4

3 of 80 =

5

8 ×

9

5 ×

4

3 × 80 = 120.

93. (b):1125.25 +720.30 + 203.45 = 2049

94. (a):1201×1201= (1200 + 1)2 = (1200)2 +1 + 2 ×1200 × 1=14,42,401

95. (0.7×0.7×0.7- 0.6×0.6×0.6) ÷ (0.7×0.7+0.6×0.6+0.7×0.6)

={ (0.7 – 0.6) ((0.7×0.7+0.6×0.6+0.7×0.6)} ÷ (0.7×0.7+0.6×0.6+0.7×0.6) = 0.1.

96. (a): Let the positive number be x then 10 𝑥

100 ×

5 𝑥

100 = 0.125 𝑥2 =25 x = 5

𝑥

2 = 2.5.

97. (d): 1.40 km = 1400 m. Total number of days = 7×2 = 14 days. Now per day distance covered

by Monami = 1400

14 = 100 m.

98. (d): It cannot be determined because the length of the platform is not given.

99. (a): Diameter = 28 cm, then radius = 14cm

Now, Area = π r2 =22

7 × 14× 14= 616 Sq cm

100. (c): ?

56 =

2.6

0.13 ? =

2.6 ×56

0.13 ? = 1120.

101. (d): Let a and b be two numbers, then

a+b =35 – (1)

ab = 250 – (2).

Now divide equation no.(1) by equation no.(2)

1

𝑎 +

1

𝑏 =

7

50

102. (b): Required number = H.C.F. of 3239 and 2923 = 79.

103. (a)

104. (b)

105. (b): If the price of 1 Chair = c Rs. and price of 1 Table= t R.

Given that,

8c = 2t – (1)

12c+2t = 4000 – (2).

From (1) and (2)

c = 200 Rs. and t = 800 Rs. Now,

10c + 1 t = 2800 Rs.

106. (b): 3x- 2y = 2x +2y x = 5y 20% of x = y.

107. (d)

108. (a): Suppose the total number of News Papers = x, then

80% of x + 400 = x x = 2000.

109. (b)

110. (a): Given that, No .ofMale Passenger

No .of Female passenger s=

8𝑥

5𝑥 ,

Then, 5x = 160 x = 32.

Now, Required number = 8x +5x = 416.

111. (a): Ram : Shyam :Mohan = 5 : 9 : 11

Hired charges paid by Mohan = Rs.( 850 ×11

25) = Rs. 374.

112. (a)

113. (c)

114. (b): Speed = 4 km / hr = 4 × 5

18 m /s, time = 24 minutes = (24 × 60) seconds = 1440 s.

Now speed = Distance

Time Distance (length of the train)= (

20

18 × 1440) m = 1600 m.

121. (d): Second word is the measure of the boundary of first word.

122. (c): Teacher delivers lecture to his students. Similarly, Doctor gives medicine to his patients.

123. (c): Jama Masjid is situated in Delhi and Similarly Taj Mahal is situated at Agra.

124. (b): One goes to a Movie for Entertainment and to a temple for worship.

125. (c): First is made from the second

126. (b): All except February month have 31 days.

127. (d): All others are parts of a house

128. (c):All except Fingers are parts of the face.

129. (d):Among all newspaper is the only source of daily news to the people

130. (a): All others are types of Furniture

131. (b): 2 4 3 1 5 9 3 5 8 9 3 4 6 2 9 3 5 8 1 9 3 5 1 2 3 9

132. (d): if the number is x, then according to the given condition

4< x < 9,7< x < 117<x<9 x = 8.

133. (b): 10 a 12 c 8 d 4 b 5 = 10+12÷8×4 – 5 = 11

134. (d): That was his son’s picture

135. (a): The word is divided into groups of two letters each and then they have written in the reverse order.

136. (b): All except 125 are square values of 6, 12 and 11 respectively.

137. (d): All except 64 have the relationship x (x+2).

138. (b): In this group, 83 is the only prime number.

139. (d): Total of all the digits in each number, except 330 is 5.

146. (b): The relationship is 2 × 2 =4, 3 × 3 =9, 8 × 8 =64, similarly 1 × 1 =1.

147. (b): The relationship is x3 and (x + 1)3

148. (b): The relationship is 12+11=23, 10+9 = 19, similarly 8+7 = 15.

149. (d): Clearly, each letter is assigned a numerical denoting its position from the end of the English alphabet i. e. A = 26, B = 25,..,Z=1.Then SUN=S+U+N = 8+6+13=27.

150. (c) The relationship is 5+4 = 9 and 92 = 81, 3+5 = 8 and 82 = 64, similarly 6+5 = 11 and 112 = 121.