pre-medical : leader & achiever coursekotacsat.allen.ac.in/kota2017/document/test/... ·...

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET(UG)

TEST DATE : 26 - 03 - 2018

*1001CMD305417032*Paper Code

(1001CMD305417032)

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS-02

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper code and YourForm No.

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1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the

correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall beremoved from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3180720

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answeris harmful.

1

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of

Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2018

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

Important Instructions /

PHASE : MLI,MLK,MLM,MAZH,MAZI,MAZJ,MAZX,MAZY & MAP

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2017 - 2018)

Hin

di

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLI, MLK, MLM, MAZH,MAZI, MAZJ, MAZX, MAZY & MAP)

PHYSICS : Properties of matter and Fluid Mechanics

Thermal Physics-I (Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer)

Thermal Physics-II (Behavior of Perfect Gases and KTG,

Thermodynamics)

Oscillations (SHM, damped and forced oscillations &

Resonance)

Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect

CHEMISTRY : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Hydrogen

s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals)

p–Block Elements (Group - 13 & 14)

p–Block Elements (Group - 15, 16, 17 & 18)

The d and f-block Elements

BIOLOGY : Plant Physiology : (i) Transport in Plants (ii) Mineral Nutrition

(iii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (iv) Respiration in Plants

(v) Plant Growth and Development, Enzyme

Human Physiology : (i) Digestion and Absorption

(ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and

circulation

(iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination

(v) Locomotion and Movement

(vi) Neural Control and Coordination, Eye & Ear

(vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration

ALLEN NEET TEST DATE : 26 - 03 - 2018

SYLLABUS – 2

Leader & Achiever Course/Phase-MLI,MLK,MLM,MAZH,MAZI,MAZJ,MAZX,MAZY & MAP/26-03-2018

H-1/311001CMD305417032

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. When an elastic material with Young's modulus

Y is subjected to a stretching stress S, the elastic

energy stored per unit volume of the material is

(1) YS

2(2)

2S Y

2(3)

2S

2Y(4)

S

2Y

2. An aluminium sphere of 20 cm diameter is

heated from 0°C to 100°C. Its volume changes

by (given that coefficient of linear expansion

for aluminium Al

= 23 × 10–6/°C) :-

(1) 28.9 cc (2) 2.89 cc (3) 9.28 cc (4) 49.8 cc

3. For a monoatomic gas, the work done at

constant pressure is W. The heat supplied at

constant volume for the same rise in temperature

of the gas is :-

(1) W2

(2) 32

W (3) 52

W (4) W

4. Two pendulums of time period 3 s and 7s

respectively start oscillating simultaneously

from two opposite extreme positions. After

how much least time they will be in phase

(1) 21

s8

(2) 21

s4

(3) 21

s2

(4) 21

s10

5. A 20 cm long string having a mass of 1.0 g,

is fixed at both the ends. The tension in thestring is 0.5 N. The string is set into vibrationsusing an external vibrator of frequency100 Hz. Find the separation (in cm) betweenthe successive nodes on the string.(1) 10 cm (2) 5 cm (3) 2.5 cm (4) 7.5 cm

6. A spherical ball of radius R is falling in a viscous

fluid of viscosity with a velocity v. The retarding

viscous force acting on the spherical ball is :

(1) directly proportional to R but inversely

proportional to v

(2) directly proportional to both radius R and

velocity v

(3) inversely proportional to both radius R and

velocity v

(4) inversely proportional to R but directly

proportional to velocity v

1. Y S,

(1) YS

2(2)

2S Y

2(3)

2S

2Y(4)

S

2Y

2. 20 cm 0°C

100°C

(

Al = 23 × 10–6/°C) :-

(1) 28.9 cc (2) 2.89 cc (3) 9.28 cc (4) 49.8 cc

3. W

:-

(1) W2

(2) 32

W (3) 52

W (4) W

4. 3 s 7s

(1) 21

s8

(2) 21

s4

(3) 21

s2

(4) 21

s10

5. 20 cm 1.0 g 0.5 N 100 Hz (vibrator) (cm ) (1) 10 cm (2) 5 cm (3) 2.5 cm (4) 7.5 cm

6. R

v

(1) R v

(2) R v

(3) R v

(4) R v

1001CMD305417032H-2/31

Target : Pre-Medical 2018/Major/26-03-2018

7. A tap supplies water at 10°C and another tap

at 100°C. How much hot water must be taken

so that we get 20 kg water at 35°C?

(1) 7.2 kg (2) 10 kg

(3) 5.6 kg (4) 14.4 kg

8. In order to increase the temperature of the gas

filled in a closed vassel by 0.5° C its pressure

is increased by 2%. The initial temperature of

the gas is :-

(1) 250° C (2) 250 K

(3) 25 K (4) 25° C

9. In which of the following case frequency of

spring-block system will be same as 1 K2 m

(1) if placed on accelerated elevator

(2) if dipped in non-viscous liquid completely

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) Neither (1) nor (2)

10. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open

organ pipe contain gases of densities 1 and

2

respectively. The compressibility of gases are

equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are

vibrating in their first overtone with same

frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is

(1) 3

L(2)

3

L4

(3) 2

1

3

L4

(4)

1

2

3

L4

11. A stone of relative density K is released from

rest on the surface of a lake. If viscous effects

are ignored, he stone sinks in water with an

acceleration of

(1) g(1 K) (2) g(1 + K)

(3) 1

g 1K

(4)

1g 1

K

7. 10°C 100°C

35°C

20

(1) 7.2 (2) 10

(3) 5.6 (4) 14.4

8. 0.5° C

2%

(1) 250° C (2) 250 K

(3) 25 K (4) 25° C

9.

1 K2 m

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) (2)

(4) (1) (2)

10. L

1

2

:–

(1) 3

L(2)

3

L4

(3) 2

1

3

L4

(4)

1

2

3

L4

11. K

?

(1) g(1 K) (2) g(1 + K)

(3) 1

g 1K

(4)

1g 1

K


H-3/311001CMD305417032

12. The pressure temperature (P-T) phase diagram

shown below corresponds to the :-

(1) Curve of fusion of solids that expand on

solidification

(2) Curve of sublimation of solids that directly

go over to the vapour phase

(3) Curve of fusion of solids that contract on

solidification

(4) Curve of fusion of solids that do not change

in volume upon solidification

13. In the indicator diagram fig. shown of carnot

cycle Ta, Tb, Tc, Td represent temperature of gas

at A, B, C, D respectively. Which of the

following is correct relation :–

(1) Ta = Tb = Tc = Td (2) Ta = Tc, Tb = Td

(3) Ta = Td, Tc = Tb (4) Ta = Tb, Tc = Td

14. Find the angular frequency (in rad/s) of massM when displaced from its equilibrium positionand then released for the system shown infigure. Consider pulley and string to be ideal.

[Given : M = 25 kg & k = 100 N/m]

Pulley

M

InextensibleString

\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\

spring withspring constant 'k'

(1) 1 (2) 1/2

(3) 4 (4) 2

12. (P-T) (Phase)

(1) (Curve of fusion) (Solidification)

(2)

(3) (4)

13. Ta, Tb, Tc, Td

A, B, C, D

(1) Ta = Tb = Tc = Td (2) Ta = Tc, Tb = Td

(3) Ta = Td, Tc = Tb (4) Ta = Tb, Tc = Td

14. M

M

[ : M = 25 kg k = 100 N/m]

Pulley

M

\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\

spring withspring constant 'k'

(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 4 (4) 2

Key Filling

1001CMD305417032H-4/31


15. A police car with a siren of frequency 8 kHz is

moving with uniform velocity 36 km/hr

towards a tall building which reflects the sound

waves. The speed of sound in air is 320 m/s.

The frequency of the siren heard by the car driver

is

(1) 8.50 kHz (2) 8.25 kHz

(3) 7.75 kHz (4) 7.50 kHz

16. The total area of cross-section is 0.25m2.If the

blood is flowing at the rate of 100cm3/sec, then

the average velocity of flow of blood through

the capillaries is :

(1) 0.4 mm/sec (2) 4 mm/sec

(3) 25 mm/sec (4) 400 mm/sec

17. A 2 kg copper block is heated to 500°C

and then it is placed on a large block of ice at

0°C. If the specific heat capacity of copper is

400 J/kg/°C and latent heat of fusion of water is

3.5 × 105 J/kg. The amount of ice that can melt

is

(1) (7/8) kg (2) (7/5) kg

(3) (8/7) kg (4) (5/7) kg

18. With increasing atomicity of a gas, the value

of thermodynamics constant

CC

P

V

(1) Decrease

(2) Increase

(3) Remains constant

(4) Negative after increases

19. A tunnel is drilled along the diameter of the earth.

A particle executes S.H.M. in this tunnel and another

particle performs uniform circular motion along the

orbit near earth’s surface. The two particles start their

journey simultaneously from one end of the tunnel.

(1) they will reach the other end of tunnel

simultaneously(2) when the particle reaches the other end of

the tunnel, the first particle will cover onefourth of the circle

(3) when the particle reaches the other end ofthe tunnel, the first particle will cover

complete circle(4) when the particle reaches the other end of

the tunnel, the first particle will cover threefourth of the circle

15. 8 kHz

36 km/hr320 m/s

(1) 8.50 kHz (2) 8.25 kHz

(3) 7.75 kHz (4) 7.50 kHz

16. 0.252

1003/

(capillaries)

(1) 0.4 / (2) 4 /

(3) 25 / (4) 400 /

17. 2 kg 500°C

0°C

400 J/kg/°C

3.5 × 105 J/kg

:

(1) (7/8) kg (2) (7/5) kg

(3) (8/7) kg (4) (5/7) kg

18.

CC

P

V

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-5/311001CMD305417032

20. If 1 and

2 are the lengths of air column for the

first and second resonance when a tuning fork

of frequency n is sounded on a resonance tube,

then the distance of the displacement antinode

from the top end of the resonance tube is:

(1) 2(2 –

1) (2)

2

1(2

1 –

2)

(3) 2 13

2

(4)

2 1

2

21. A cube made of material having a density of

0.9×103kg/m3 floats between water and a liquid

of density 0.7×103kg/m3, which is immiscible

with water. Part of the cube is immersed in water:-

(Assume water is below the liquid and cube is

completely submerged)

(1) 1

3(2)

2

3(3)

3

4(4)

3

7

22. A long metallic bar is carrying heat from one

of its ends to the other end under steady-state.

The variation of temperature along the length

x of the bar from its hot end is best described

by which of the following graphs :-

(1) x

(2) x

(3) x

(4) x

23. The velocities of three molecules are 3V, 4V

and 5V respectively. Their rms speed will be:-

(1) 503

V (2) 3

50V

(3) 503

V (4) 350

V

24. The potential energy of a particle executing

SHM changes from maximum to minimum in

5 s. Then the time period of SHM is :

(1) 5 s (2) 10 s (3) 15 s (4) 20 s

20. n

1

2

(1) 2(2 –

1) (2)

2

1(2

1 –

2)

(3) 2 13

2

(4)

2 1

2

21. 0.9×103/3

0.7×103/3

?

()

(1) 1

3(2)

2

3(3)

3

4(4)

3

7

22.

x

:-

(1) x

(2) x

(3) x

(4) x

23. 3V, 4V 5V

(1) 503

V (2) 3

50V

(3) 503

V (4) 350

V

24. 5 (1) 5 s (2) 10 s (3) 15 s (4) 20 s

1001CMD305417032H-6/31


25. A siren can be made from a rotating flat disc,which has regularly spaced holes punchedthrough it along a circle concentric with theaxis of rotation. An air nozzle is directedagainst the disc. Each time a hole passes thenozzle, a puff of air is released to generate awave. Sound to what frequency will beproduced by disc containing 72 holes androtating at 1800 rev./min.?

(1) 72 × 1800 Hz (2) 72 × 1800 × 60 Hz

(3) 2160 Hz (4) 72 Hz

26. A piece of ice is floating in a jar containing

water.When the ice melts, the temperature of

water falls 4°C to 1°C.Then, the level of water :

(1) rises (2) falls

(3) unchanged (4) none of these

27. Two walls of thicknesses d1 and d

2 and thermal

conductivities k1 and k

2 are in contact. In the

steady state, if the temperatures at the outer

surfaces are 1T and 2T , the temperature at the

common wall is

(1)1221

122211

dkdk

dTkdTk

(2)

21

2211

dd

dkTk

(3) 2121

2211 TTTT

dkdk

(4)

2211

222111

dkdk

TdkTdk

28. The dimension of the universal gas constant ‘R’

is :- (Symbol has their usual meaning)

(1) M1L2T–3 mol–1 (2) M1L2T–2 mol–1K–1

(3) M1L1T–2 mol–1K (4) None

29. Two SHM’s, y1 =Asint & y

2 = Acost are

superimposed on a particle of mass m. Total

mechanical energy of particle is

(1) 2 21m A

2(2) 2 2m A

(3) 2 21m A

4(4) zero

30. In a sine wave, the position of different

particles at time t = 0 is shown in the figure.

the equation for this wave if it is travelling

along positive x-axis can be:

x

y

(1) y = A sin (t – kx) (2) y = A sin (kx – t)

(3) y = A cos (t – kx) (4) y = A cos (kx – t)

25. (Nozzle) (Puff) 72 1800

(1) 72 × 1800 Hz (2) 72 × 1800 × 60 Hz

(3) 2160 Hz (4) 72 Hz

26. 4°C 1°C :(1) (2) (3) (4)

27. 1k 2k

1d 2d

1T 2T

(1)1221

122211

dkdk

dTkdTk

(2)

21

2211

dd

dkTk

(3) 2121

2211 TTTT

dkdk

(4)

2211

222111

dkdk

TdkTdk

28. ‘R’ :- (

)

(1) M1L2T–3 mol–1 (2) M1L2T–2 mol–1K–1

(3) M1L1T–2 mol–1K (4)

29. m y1 =Asint

y2 = Acost

(1) 2 21m A

2(2) 2 2m A

(3) 2 21m A

4(4)

30. t = 0

x-

x

y

(1) y = A sin (t – kx) (2) y = A sin (kx – t)

(3) y = A cos (t – kx) (4) y = A cos (kx – t)


H-7/311001CMD305417032

31. When a capillary tube is dipped in a water, the

capillary rise is h1, when the inner surface is

coated with wax, the capillary rise is h2, then :

(1) h1 = h2 (2) h1 < h2

(3) h1 > h

2(4) none of these

32. The temperature of a liquid drops from K365

to 361 K in 2 minutes. Find the time during

which temperature of the liquid drops from

K344 to K342 . Temperature of room is K293

(1) 84 sec (2) 72 sec

(3) 66 sec (4) 60 sec

33. One mole of a gas is heated at constant pressure

through 1K work done by the gas is:–

(1) 1 Joule (2) 1R

Joule

(3) R Joule (4) None of these

34. Maximum speed of a particle in simple

harmonic motion is vmax. Then average speed

of a particle in one complete oscillation is equal

to :

(1) maxv

2(2)

maxv

(3) maxv

2

(4)

max2v

35. The tuning forks of frequencies n

1 and n

2

produces n beats per second. If n2 and n are

known, n1 may be given by

(1)2

2n

nn (2) n

2n

(3) n2 ± n (4)

22

n– n

n

36. A circular wire frame of radius R is dipped in

a soap solution of surface tension .When it is

taken out, a thin soap film is formed inside the

frame. Work done per unit change in radius at

this instant equal to

(1) R (2) 2R

(3) 4R (4) 8R

31. h

1 (coated with wax) h2 :(1) h1 = h2 (2) h1 < h2

(3) h1 > h2 (4)

32. 365K K361 2

K344 K342

K293

(1) 84 (2) 72

(3) 66 (4) 60

33. 1K

(1) 1 (2) 1R

(3) R (4)

34. vmax

(1) maxv

2(2)

maxv

(3) maxv

2

(4)

max2v

35. n1 n

2 n

n2 n n

2

(1)2

2n

nn (2) n

2n

(3) n2 ± n (4)

22

n– n

n

36. R

(1) R (2) 2R

(3) 4R (4) 8R

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

1001CMD305417032H-8/31


37. For a small temperature difference between the

body and the surroundings the relation between

the rate of loss heat R and the temperature of

the body is depicted by :

(1)

R

O

(2)

R

O

(3)

R

O

(4)

R

O

38. The internal energy of a system in adiabatic

expansion –

(1) Decreases

(2) Increases

(3) Remains unchanged

(4) Nothing can be said

39. A sonometer wire of length 1.5m is made of

steel. The tension in it produces an elastic

strain of 1%. What is the fundamental

frequency of steel if density and elasticity of

steel are 8.8 × 103 kg/m3 and 2.2 × 1011 N/m2

respectively ?

(1) 188.5 Hz

(2) 178.2 Hz

(3) 200.5 Hz

(4) 166.67 Hz

40. The frequency of the fundamental note in an

organ pipe is 240 Hz. On blowing air,

frequencies 720 Hz and 1200 Hz are heard.

this indicates that organ pipe is:

(1) a pipe closed at one end

(2) A pipe open at both ends

(3) Closed at both ends

(4) Having hole like flute

37.

R

(1)

R

O

(2)

R

O

(3)

R

O

(4)

R

O

38. –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39. 1.5m

1%

8.8 × 103 kg/m3

2.2 × 1011 N/m2

(1) 188.5 Hz

(2) 178.2 Hz

(3) 200.5 Hz

(4) 166.67 Hz

40. 240

720 1200

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-9/311001CMD305417032

41. If T is the surface tension of a liquid, the

energy needed to break a liquid drop of radius

R into 64 drops, is

(1) 6R2T

(2) R2T

(3) 12R2T

(4) 8R2T

42. One end of a copper rod of length m0.1 and

area of cross-section 2310 m is immersed in

boiling water and the other end in ice. If the

coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper

is Csmcal o--/92 and the latent heat of ice is

kgcal /108 4 , then the amount of ice which will

melt in one minute is

(1) kg3102.9

(2) kg3108

(3) kg3109.6

(4) kg3104.5

43. The average momentum of molecules of a gas

at TK is :- (m = Mass of molecule)

(1) m × (rms velocity)

(2) m × (Average speed)

(3) m × (Most porbable speed)

(4) Zero

44. An observer moves towards a stationary

source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of

the velocity of sound. what is the percentage

increase in the apparent frequency ?

(1) zero

(2) 0.5%

(3) 5%

(4) 20%

45. Two identical strings of same material, same

diameter and same length are in unison when

stretched by same tension. If the tension on the

string is increased by 21%. the number of beats

heared per second is 10. The frequency of note

(in hertz) when two strings are in unison is

(1) 210 (2) 200

(3) 110 (4) 100

41. T R

64

(1) 6R2T

(2) R2T

(3) 12R2T

(4) 8R2T

42. m0.1 2310 m

Csmcal o/92 kgcal /108 4

1

(1) kg3102.9

(2) kg3108

(3) kg3109.6

(4) kg3104.5

43. TK

(m = ) :-

(1) m ×

(2) m ×

(3) m ×

(4) 44.

1/5

?

(1)

(2) 0.5%

(3) 5%

(4) 20%

45.

21%

10

(1) 210 (2) 200

(3) 110 (4) 100

1001CMD305417032H-10/31


46. Which one of the following characteristics of the

transition metals is associated with their catalytic

activity :-

(1) High enthalpy of atomization

(2) Paramagnetic behavior

(3) Colour of hydrated ions

(4) Variable oxidation states

47. Which one would give H2O

2 on adding HCl ?

(1) MnO2

(2) PbO2

(3) BaO (4) None of these

48. Which of the following acid is normally handled

in metal apparatus made of Cu because it attacks

on glass :-

(1) HF (2) HCl

(3) HNO3(4) Chromic acid

49. For an element having only one valence shell

electron, which of the following difference will

have the maximum value :-

(1) IE2 – IE1 (2) IE3 – IE2

(3) IE3 – IE1 (4) None of these

50. sp3d3 hybridisation of IF7 can be acheived in :-

(1) In ground state (2) In Ist excited state

(3) In 3rd excited state (4) Both (1) and (3)

51. The yellow colour of chromates changes to orange

on acidification due to formation of–

(1) Cr3+ (2) Cr2O

3

(3) Cr2O

72– (4) CrO

4–

52. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay

process, the products that are recycled are

(1) CO2 and NH

3(2) CO

2 and NH

4Cl

(3) NaCl and CaO (4) CaCl2 and CaO

53. Acidified K2Cr2O7 turns green by :

(1) CO2(2) SO

3

(3) SO2

(4) HNO3

54. Which of the following order is Incorrect ?

(1) F < Cl < Br < I size

(2) Cl > F > Br > I electron affinity

(3) Mg2+ < Na+ < F < O2– size

(4) O2– > O > O Electronegativity

55. Point out dissimilarity in BeCl2 and C

2H

2 :-

(1) Hybridisation state of C and Be are same

(2) Geometry of C2H2 and BeCl2 is linear

(3) The ratio [s : p] character in C and Be is same

(4) There is only one bond of 180° in C2H

2 and

BeCl2

46.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 47. HCl H2O2

(1) MnO2

(2) PbO2

(3) BaO (4) 48.

:-

(1) HF (2) HCl

(3) HNO3

(4) Chromic acid

49.

(1) IE2 – IE1 (2) IE3 – IE2

(3) IE3 – IE1 (4) 50. IF7 sp3d3 :-

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3)

51. (1) Cr3+ (2) Cr

2O

3

(3) Cr2O

72– (4) CrO

4–

52. (1) CO

2 NH

3(2) CO

2 NH

4Cl

(3) NaCl CaO (4) CaCl2 CaO

53. K2Cr2O7 :(1) CO2

(2) SO3

(3) SO2

(4) HNO3

54 :-(1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) Cl > F > Br > I (3) Mg2+ < Na+ < F < O2– (4) O2– > O > O

55. BeCl2 C

2H

2 :-

(1) C Be (2) C2H2 BeCl2 (3) C Be [s : p] (4) C

2H

2 BeCl

2 180°

Take it Easy and Make it Easy


H-11/311001CMD305417032

56. Which element is not common in gun metal and

bell metal :-

(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Sn (4) Ni

57. At anode in the electrolysis of fused NaCl :

(1) Na+ is oxidised (2) Cl— is oxidised

(3) Cl— is reduced (4) Na+ is reduced

58. In which of the following species hybridisation of

central atom does not change due to back bonding:-

(1) H3BO3 (2) BF3

(3) PF3 (4) All

59. Which of the following oxides is a basic oxide

(1) CaO (2) SiO2

(3) SnO2

(4) CrO3

60. Which of the following order is/are correct about

the bond angle.

(1) OF2 > H

2O < Cl

2O > ClO

2

(2) COF2<COCl

2<COBr

2<COI

2(X–C–X–Bond angle)

(3) PH3 > PF

3

(4) KrF4 > XeF

4

61. Number of identical Cr–O bonds in dichromate

ion Cr2O72– is :-

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

62. Hardest s-block metal is :-

(1) Li (2) Na

(3) Mg (4) Be

63. Which of the following produce two types of

oxyacid when completely reacts with water :-

(1) SF4

(2) BCl3

(3) Mn2O

7(4) N

2O

4

64. Which is the correct order of electronegativities:-

(1) F > N < O > C (2) F > N > O > C

(3) F > N < O < C (4) F > N > O < C

65. Which of the following is/are correct order :-

(A) Thermal stability = BeSO4 < MgSO

4 < CaSO

4

< SrSO4

(B) Melting point = NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl

(C) Solubility = LiOH < NaOH

(D) Lattice energy = KF > KCl > KBr > KI

(1) A and B (2) B and D

(3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C and D

66. Which of the following reaction gives laughing

gas?

(1) Cu + Conc. HNO3

(2) Zn + very dil. HNO3

(3) Zn + dil. HNO3

(4) Cu + dil. HNO3

56. :-(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Sn (4) Ni

57. NaCl (1) Na+ (2) Cl— (3) Cl— (4) Na+

58. :-(1) H3BO3 (2) BF3

(3) PF3 (4) 59.

(1) CaO (2) SiO2

(3) SnO2

(4) CrO3

60.

(1) OF2 > H

2O < Cl

2O > ClO

2

(2) COF2<COCl

2<COBr

2<COI

2(X–C–X–)

(3) PH3 > PF

3

(4) KrF4 > XeF

4

61. Cr2O72– Cr–O :-

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 8

62. s- :-(1) Li (2) Na

(3) Mg (4) Be

63. (1) SF4 (2) BCl3

(3) Mn2O7 (4) N2O4

64. :-(1) F > N < O > C (2) F > N > O > C

(3) F > N < O < C (4) F > N > O < C

65. :-(A) = BeSO

4 < MgSO

4 < CaSO

4

< SrSO4

(B) = NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl

(C) = LiOH < NaOH

(D) = KF > KCl > KBr > KI

(1) A B (2) B D(3) A, B D (4) A, B, C D

66.

(1) Cu + Conc. HNO3

(2) Zn + very dil. HNO3

(3) Zn + dil. HNO3

(4) Cu + dil. HNO3

1001CMD305417032H-12/31


67. When Mg is heated with steam it burns brilliantly

producing :-

(1) Mg(OH)2(2) MgO and H

2

(3) MgO and O2

(4) MgO and O3

68. Which of the following compound does not

undergoes hydrolysis ?

(1) BCl3

(2) NCl3

(3) NF3

(4) AsCl3

69. Which order is correct :

(1) B2O3 > CO2 > N2O5 (Acidic)

(2) BeO > MgO > Al2O

3 (Basic)

(3) CaO > ZnO > K2O (Basic)

(4) CO2 > B2O3 > Al2O3 (Acidic)

70. AgI is yellow due to :-

(1) Covalent character(2) Ionic character(3) Non Polar(4) Low polarisation of anion

71. Incorrect match is :-

(1) Permuitit Hydrated silicates of Na and Al

(2) Calgon Sodium Hexameta phsophate

(3) BeH2.MgH2 Covalent polymeric hydride

(4) Hydrolith electron dificient hydride

72. Which hydroxide is amphoteric in nature :-

(1) Be(OH)2 (2) Al(OH)3

(3) 1 and 2 both (4) None

73. P4O10 reacts with HNO3 to give :-

(1) N2O, H

3PO

2(2) N

2O

3, H

3PO

4

(3) NO2, HPO

3(4) N

2O

5, HPO

3

74. Both Fe(OH)3 and Al2O3 will dissolve in :

(1) HCl (2) NaOH

(3) Both (4) None

75. Correct energy order of molecular orbitals for N2

is ?(1) (2py) < (2pz) < (*2px) (*2py)(2) (2py) > (2pz) > (*2px) (*2py)(3) (2py) < (2pz) > (*2px) (*2py)(4) (2py) > (2pz) < (*2px) (*2py)

76. Which substance does not speed up decomposition

of H2O

2 :-

(1) Glycerol (2) Pt

(3) Gold (4) MnO

77. Plaster of paris is hardened by :-

(1) Liberating CO2

(2) Giving out water

(3) Combining with water

(4) Changing into CaCO3

67. Mg :-(1) Mg(OH)2

(2) MgO H2

(3) MgO O2

(4) MgO O3

68. (1) BCl

3(2) NCl

3(3) NF

3(4) AsCl

3

69. (1) B2O3 > CO2 > N2O5 ()

(2) BeO > MgO > Al2O

3 ()

(3) CaO > ZnO > K2O ()

(4) CO2 > B2O3 > Al2O3 ()

70. AgI :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

71. :-(1) Na Al (2) (3) BeH2.MgH2 (4) e–

72. :-(1) Be(OH)2 (2) Al(OH)3

(3) 1 2 (4) 73. P4O10 HNO3 :-

(1) N2O, H3PO2 (2) N2O3, H3PO4

(3) NO2, HPO

3(4) N

2O

5, HPO

3

74. Fe(OH)3 Al

2O

3

(1) HCl (2) NaOH

(3) Both (4) 75. N2

(1) (2py) < (2pz) < (*2px) (*2py)(2) (2py) > (2pz) > (*2px) (*2py)(3) (2py) < (2pz) > (*2px) (*2py)(4) (2py) > (2pz) < (*2px) (*2py)

76. H2O

2

:-(1) (2) Pt

(3) (4) MnO

77. :-(1) CO2 (2) (3) (4) CaCO3


H-13/311001CMD305417032

78. Borax is ?

(1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O

(2) Na2[B

4O

4(OH)

6].7H

2O

(3) Na2[B

4O

3(OH)

8].6H

2O

(4) None

79. 5d transition series metals are mostly less Reactive

metals due to :

(1) High value of atomic radius

(2) High value of atomic volume

(3) High value of ionisation energy

(4) Low value of ionisation energy

80. Which set contain molecules with = 0 :

(1) SF4,

Cl

Cl

, benzene

(2) Borazine,

OH

OH

, BF3

(3) ClF3, SiF

4, SO

3

(4) Borazine,

Cl

Cl Cl

, SO3

81. The "Hydride Gap" is shown by elements of group:-

(1) 3, 4, 5 (2) 4, 5, 6

(3) 5, 6, 7 (4) 7, 8, 9

82. The following compounds have been arranged in

order of their increasing thermal stabilities.

Identify the correct order.

I. K2CO

3II. MgCO

3III. CaCO

3 IV. BeCO

3

(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I

(3) IV < II < I < III (4) II < IV < III < I

83. Which of the following is incorrect for H3BO3

(1) It has a layer structure in which H3BO3 units

are joined by hydrogen bonds

(2) It is obtained by treating borax with conc.

H2SO4

(3) It does not act as a proton donor but acts as

an acid by accepting hydroxyl ions

(4) None of these

78. ?(1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4] . 8H2O

(2) Na2[B

4O

4(OH)

6] . 7H

2O

(3) Na2[B

4O

3(OH)

8] . 6H

2O

(4) None

79. 5d :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

80. set = 0 :

(1) SF4,

Cl

Cl

,

(2) ,

OH

OH

, BF3

(3) ClF3, SiF

4, SO

3

(4) ,

Cl

Cl Cl

, SO3

81. :-(1) 3, 4, 5 (2) 4, 5, 6

(3) 5, 6, 7 (4) 7, 8, 9

82. I. K

2CO

3II. MgCO

3III. CaCO

3 IV. BeCO

3

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < II < III < I

(3) IV < II < I < III

(4) II < IV < III < I

83. H3BO

3 :-

(1) H3BO

3

H- (2) H

2SO

4

(3)

(4)

1001CMD305417032H-14/31


84. Which p-orbitals overlapping would give the

strongest bond?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

85. The hybridisation of central atom will change

when :-

(1) NH3 combines with H+

(2) BF3 combines with F

(3) NH3 forms NH2

(4) H2O combines with H+

86. Hydrolysis of peroxodisulphate gives :-

(1) H2O (2) H2

(3) H2O2 (4) D2

87. Electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl gives :-

(1) Na and Cl2 (2) Na, Cl2 and H2

(3) NaOH and Cl2 (4) NaOH, Cl2 and H2

88. If A has the electronic configuration of 1s22s22p3

then which of the following statement is correct:-

(1) IE1 of A is negative

(2) IE1 of A is equal to IE1 of A

(3) IE2 = IE3 for above element

(4) All are correct

89. Which of following has planar structure :-

(1) XeO2F2 (2) XeF4

(3) XeO4 (4) XeO3F2

90. Total number of oxygen atom(s) which act(s) as

bridge between any two silicon atoms in a mineral

with composition MM'Si3O

x is :

(M = divalent Metal ion, M' = tetravalent metal ion)

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 6 (4) 2

84. p- :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

85. :-(1) NH3

H+ (2) BF

3 F

(3) NH3 NH2

(4) H2O H+ 86. :-

(1) H2O (2) H2

(3) H2O2 (4) D2

87. NaCl :-(1) Na Cl2 (2) Na, Cl2 H2

(3) NaOH Cl2 (4) NaOH, Cl2 H2

88. A 1s22s22p3 :-(1) A IE1 (2) A IE1, A

– IE1 (3) IE2 = IE3

(4) 89. :-

(1) XeO2F2 (2) XeF4

(3) XeO4 (4) XeO3F2

90. MM'Si3O

x

:

(M = divalent Metal ion, M' = tetravalent metal ion)

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 6 (4) 2


H-15/311001CMD305417032

91. During fermentation the final electron acceptor

is :-

(1) H2O

(2) Other external substrate

(3) Organic intermediate

(4) Oxygen

92. Opening of stomata is due to :-

(1) Radial arrangement of microfibril in inner

wall of guard cell

(2) RuBisCo

(3) Change in turgidity of guard cell

(4) (1) & (3) both

93. Transport protein

A

AB

AB

III

I

II

On the basis of the above diagram find the correct

match :-

I II III

1 . Sym port An tipo rt Un ipo rt

2 . U n ipo rt Sym port A n tipo rt

3 . U n ipo rt An tipo rt Sym port

4 . U n ipo rt Sim p le d iffu sion Sym port

94. The physical property of water like cohesion,

adhesion and surface tension give water :

(1) Low capillarity and low tensile strength

(2) High capillarity and low tensile strength

(3) High capillarity and high tensile strength

(4) Low capillrity and high tensile strength

95. Vitamin which induces the maturation of

R.B.C :-

(1) B12 (2) D (3) A (4) B2

96. In human, lungs are covered by :-

(1) Periosteum (2) Pericardium

(3) Pleural sac (4) Perichondrium

91. :-

(1) H2O

(2)

(3)

(4) 92. :-

(1)

(2) (3) (4) (1) (3)

93.

A

AB

AB

III

I

II

:-

I II III

1 . fleiksV Z , UVhi k sV Z ; wuhi k sVZ

2 . ; wuhi k sV Z fleiksV Z , UVhi k sV Z

3 . ; wuhi k sV Z , UVhi k sV Z fleiksV Z

4 . ; wuhi k sV Z l k/kkj.k folj.k fleiksV Z

94.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

95. :-(1) B12 (2) D (3) A (4) B2

96. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

1001CMD305417032H-16/31


97. How much percent of the blood is constitute by

formed elements ?

(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 90

98. Presence of more urea in blood is called :-

(1) Uremia (2) Ketonuria

(3) Haematuria (4) Anuria

99. Inflamation of joints due to accumulation of uric

acid crystals is called :-

(1) Tetany (2) Muscular dystrophy

(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Gout

100. Depolarisation occurs due to the influx of

(1) Na+ (2) K+ (3) Ca++ (4) Mg++

101. Which complex of respiratory ETC contains two

copper centres ?

(1) Cytochrome oxidase

(2) NADH2 dehydrogenase complex

(3) Cytochrome reductase

(4) F0–F1 ATPase

102. Food is translocated in phloem as :-

(1) Glucose (2) Starch

(3) Sucrose (4) Sorbitol

103. Find the incorrect statement :-

(1) Stroma lamellae membranes lack PS-II as well

as NADP reductase enzyme

(2) Cytochrome C is a small protein attached to the

outer surface of the inner mitochondiral

membrane and transfers electrons from complex

IV to complex V

(3) The critical duration of light that initiates flowering

in several plants differs from plant to plant

(4) Most of the water flow in the root occurs via the

apoplast since the cortical cells are loosely packed,

and hence offer no resistance to water movement.

104. Which of the following statement regarding

cofactors of enzymes is correct ?

(1) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme

carboxypeptidase

(2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide contain

the vitamine riboflavin

(3) Cofactor is the part of enzyme which does

not affect the catalytic activity of the enzyme

(4) Prosthetic groups are distinguished from

other cofactors in that prosthetic groups are

loosely bound to the apoenzyme

97. ?

(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 90

98. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

99. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

100. (1) Na+ (2) K+ (3) Ca++ (4) Mg++

101. ETC (complex) ?(1) (2) NADH2 (3) (4) F0–F1

102. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

103. (1) PS-II NADP

(2) C IV V

(3)

(4)

104. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-17/311001CMD305417032

105. Which part of human body secretes enterogasterone

hormone ?

(1) Duodenum

(2) Stomach

(3) Pancreas

(4) Liver

106. "Epiglottis" is made up of :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Fibrous cartilage

(3) Elastic cartilage

(4) Calcified cartilage

107. Erythroblastosis foetalis condition may occur in

which one of the following couple ?

(1) Rh+ male and Rh– female

(2) Rh– male and Rh+ female

(3) Rh+ male and Rh+ female

(4) Rh– male and Rh– female

108. In human excretion of Na+ in urine is elevated

by :-

(1) ANF (2) ADH

(3) Aldosterone (4) Calcitriol

109. Read the following statements

(A) Neural system provides a point to point rapid

coordination among organs

(B) Neural coordination is fast but short lived

(C) Endocrine system provides chemical

coordination

(D) Neural system and Endocrine system jointly

coordinate and regulate the physiological

functions in the body

How many statements are true ?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

110. Which of the following Hormone induces

ovulation and maintain The corpus luteum ?

(1) F.S.H

(2) Estrogen

(3) L.H.

(4) Progesterone

111. It tripalmitin (C51H98O6) is a respiratory substrate,

the value of R.Q. will be :-

(1) zero (2) > 1 (3) < 1 (4) 1

105. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

106. "" :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

107. ?(1) Rh+ Rh– (2) Rh– Rh+ (3) Rh+ Rh+ (4) Rh– Rh–

108. :-(1) ANF (2) ADH

(3) (4) 109.

(A)

(B)

(C)(D)

?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

110.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 111. (C51H98O6) R.Q.

:-(1) (2) > 1 (3) < 1 (4) 1

1001CMD305417032H-18/31


112. In the below diagram pressure applied is equal to :-

SucroseSolution

Membrane

Water

(1) DPD (2) OP

(3) w (4) TP

113. Transpiration is responsible for all except :-

(1) Ascent of sap

(2) Water absorption from soil

(3) Build up of root pressure

(4) Decreasing W

in mesophyll cells.

114. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) All the proteins are enzymes

(2) All enzymes are proteins

(3) All enzymes are not proteins

(4) All enzymes are nucleic acids

115. Crypts of lieberkuhn and Brunner's gland are

characterstic of :-

(1) Gall bladder (2) Duodenum

(3) Liver (4) Kidney

116. Haemoglobin-Oxygen dissociation curve is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

117. Ratio between systolic pressure, pulse pressure

and Diastolic pressure is :-

(1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 : 3

112. :-

SucroseSolution

Membrane

Water

(1) DPD (2) OP

(3) w (4) TP

113. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

W

114. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 115.

?(1) (2) (3) (4)

116. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

117. :-(1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2 : 3


H-19/311001CMD305417032

118. In human which cell exhibit amoeboid

movement :-

(1) Podocyte (2) Porocyte

(3) Amoebocyte (4) Leucocyte

119. Endocrine system is dependent on

(1) Hormone (2) Vitamin

(3) Enzyme (4) Minerals

120. Due to deficiency of which of the following

hormone causes defective development, low

Intelligent quotient, abnormal skin, deaf-mutism

in a baby ?

(1) Growth hormone (2) Melatonin

(3) Thyroxine (4) Adrenaline

121. How many ATP will be formed in a bacterial cell

during aerobic respiration if respiratory substrate

is one molecule of glucose ?

(1) 36 or 38 ATP (2) 36 ATP

(3) Only 2 ATP (4) 38 ATP

122. The force which is responsible to wake the water

reaching top of the plant is :-

(1) Pulling force mainly

(2) Pushing force mainly

(3) Guttation

(4) Exudation

123. If in a cell water potential is –30 bar and osmotic

potential is –72 bar then what is the value of the

turgidity developed in the form of TP in the cell?

(1) 102 bar (2) –102 bar

(3) –50 bar (4) 42 bar

124. All the following statements are correct except

that :-

(1) All the non competitive inhibitions are not

irreversible inhibitions

(2) All the reversible inhibitions are competitive

inhibitions

(3) Product inhibitions are noncompetitive

reversible inhibitions

(4) Competitive inhibitions are useful in control

of bacterial pathogens

125. Find out the correctly matched pair :-

(1) Pepsinogen Salivary glands

(2) Succus entericus Pancreas

(3) HCl Oxyntic cells

(4) Mucus Zymogen cells

118. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

119. (1) (2) (3) (4)

120.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 121.

ATP (1) 36 38 ATP (2) 36 ATP

(3) 2 ATP (4) 38 ATP

122. (1) (2) Pushing)

(3) (4)

123. –30 –72 TP ?(1) 102 bar (2) –102 bar

(3) –50 bar (4) 42 bar

124. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

125. :-(1) (2) (3) HCl (4)

1001CMD305417032H-20/31


126. Approximately how many alveoli are present in

both lungs of human ?

(1) 3000 million

(2) 300 billion

(3) 30 billion

(4) 300 million

127. Human heart, does not have :-

(1) Spiral valve

(2) Sinus venosus

(3) Conus arteriosus

(4) All of these

128. Mark the incorrect statement :-

(1) Cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary

(2) Skeletal muscles are voluntary and uninucleate

(3) Visceral muscles are located in the inner walls

of hollow visceral organs

(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres

is the store house of calcium ions

129. When we do physical exercises, the following

changes are observed within the body.

(a) Energy demand is increased for maintaining

an increased muscular activity

(b) Oxygen supply is increased

(c) Increased rate of respiration

(d) Increased heart beat

(e) Increased blood flow via blood vessels

The above changes during physical exercises

represents an act of

(1) Coordination

(2) Adaptation

(3) Relaxation

(4) Contraction

130. This hormone stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis

and proteolysis and inhibit cellular up take and

utilisation of amino acids. This hormone is ?

(1) Melatonin (2) Cortisol

(3) Adrenaline (4) Insulin

131. Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Aconitase – Fe++

(2) Carbonic anhydrase – Zn++

(3) Nitrogenase – Mo

(4) Pyruvate kinase –Mn++

126. ?(1) 3000 million

(2) 300 billion

(3) 30 billion

(4) 300 million

127. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

128. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

129.

(a)

(b) (c) (d) (e) (1) (2) (3) (4)

130.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 131. :-

(1) – Fe++

(2) – Zn++

(3) – Mo

(4) – Mn++


H-21/311001CMD305417032

132. Loose tissue present beneath the hydathodes are

called :-

(1) Endodermis (2) Epithem

(3) Casparian strip (4) Suberized matix

133.

3

Cell type in which Mesophyll ‘A’

initial carboxylation

occurs

Cell type in which ‘B’ ‘C’

Calvin cycle takes

place

First stable product PGA ‘D’

of C cycle

3 4Characteristic C Plant C Plant

Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D from

the following :-

(1) A = Bundle sheath, B = Bundle sheath,

C = Mesophyll, D = OAA

(2) A = Mesophyll, B = Bundle sheath,

C = Mesophyll, D = PGA

(3) A = Mesophyll, B = Mesophyll,

C = Bundle sheath, D = PGA

(4) A = Bundle sheath, B = Mesophyll,

C = Bundle sheath, D = PGA

134. Low temperature preserves the enzyme in

a ...'B'... state whereas high temperature destroys

enzymatic activity because proteins are ...'A'... by

heat.

Choose the correct option:-

(1) A = temporarily inactive, B = denatured

(2) A = temporarily inactive,

B = permanently inactive

(3) A = permanently inactive, B = denatured

(4) A = denatured, B = temporarily inactive

135. Chylomicron formation occurs in :-

(1) Lacteals (2) Enterocytes

(3) Hepatocytes (4) Stomach

132. (hydathodes) :-(1) (2) (Epithem)

(3) (4)

133.

3

‘A’

‘B’ ‘C’

C PGA ‘D’

3 4C C

A, B, C D :-

(1) A = , B = , C = ,

D = OAA

(2) A = , B = , C = ,

D = PGA

(3) A = , B = , C = ,D = PGA

(4) A = , B = , C = ,D = PGA

134. ...'B'... ...'A'...

(1) A = , B =

(2) A = ,

B =

(3) A = , B =

(4) A = , B =

135. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

1001CMD305417032H-22/31


136. Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II

a. Pleurisy (i) Alveoli collapse

b. Emphysema (ii) Difficulty inbreathingcausing

wheezing due toinflammation

c. Asthama (iii) Fluid increasesbetween pleural

membrane

d. Atelectasis (iv) Wall seperatingthe alveoli break

(1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

137. In ECG the electrical excitation of atria is

represent by :-

(1) T-wave (2) P-wave

(3) S-T segment (4) QRS complex

138. Sella tursica, bony cavity found in which

bone :-

(1) Sphenoid

(2) Ethmoid

(3) Zygomatic

(4) Maxilla

139. The process through which two or more organs

interact and complement the functions of one

another is known as

(1) Co-ordination (2) Adaptation

(3) Myelination (4) Non-coordination

140. In the following pair of hormones, which is not

antagonistic :-

(1) M.S.H - Melatonin

(2) Thyrocalcitonin - Parathormone

(3) Insulin - Glucagon

(4) F.S.H - GnRH

141. Reduced ubiquinone (UQH2) is :-

(1) Plastoquinone (PQ)

(2) CoQ

(3) Ubiquinol

(4) Cytochrome

136. :-

-I -II

a. (i)

b. (ii)

c. (iii)

d. (iv)

(1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

137. ?

(1) T-wave (2) P-wave

(3) S-T segment (4) QRS complex

138. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

139. (1) (2) (3) (4)

140. :-

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) - GnRH

141. (UQH2) :-

(1) (PQ)

(2) CoQ

(3) (4)


H-23/311001CMD305417032

142. Which of the following is not caused by

deficinecy of mineral nutrients ?

(1) Shortening of internodes

(2) Etiolation

(3) Chlorosis

(4) Necrosis

143. Active sites

Substrate

Substrate analogue

Above diagram is the indicative diagram for a type

of enzyme inhibition. Choose the correct option

from the following regarding the inhibition :-

Type of

inhibition

Substrate Substrate

analogue

(1) Non competitive

reversible

Malonate Succinate

(2) Competitive Succinic

dehydrogenase

Malonate

(3) Non competitive

irreversible

Succinic

dehydrogenase

Succinate

(4) Competitive Succinate Malonate

144. In which of the following properties, facilitated

transport is similar to simple diffusion but differ

from active transport ?

(1) Downhill movement of substances without

ATP expenditure

(2) Requirement of special membrane proteins for

transport of substances

(3) Highly selective nature of transport

(4) Transport saturation

145. Nucleosidases is produced by :-

(1) Brush border cells of the intestinal mucosa

(2) Exocrine part of pancreas

(3) Gastric glands of stomach

(4) Hepatic duct of liver

142. ?

(1) (2) (3) (Chlorosis)

(4)

143.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

144.

?

(1) ATP

(2)

(3)

(4)

145. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

1001CMD305417032H-24/31


146. Centre present in the pons region of the brain

called ________ can moderate the functions of

the respiratory rhythm centre :-

(1) Chemosensitive area

(2) Pneumotaxic centre

(3) Dorsal respiratory group

(4) Ventral respiratory group

147. Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory

structures in :-

(1) Planaria (2) Insects

(3) Marine fishes (4) Prawns

148. Flat bone on the ventral mid line of thorax is

called :-

(1) Sternum

(2) Ribs

(3) Vertebral column

(4) Scapula

149. (A) Provides an organised network of point to

point connections for a quick coordination

(B) provides chemical integration through

hormones

Choose the correct option :-

(1) Both the statements are for Neural system

(2) Statement A is for Endocrine system and

Statement B is for Neural system

(3) Both the statements are for Endocrine system

(4) Statement A is for Neural system and

statement B is for Endocrine system

150. This hormone support pregnancy and stimulate

formation of alveoli in mammary gland and milk

secretion. This hormone is ?

(1) Estrogen

(2) F.S.H.

(3) Progesterone

(4) L.H.

151. In presence of a competitive inhibitor the value

of Km:-

(1) Decreases

(2) Increases

(3) Remains same

(4) Infinite

146. ________ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

147. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

148. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

149. (A)

(B)

(1)

(2) AB

(3)

(4) AB

150.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

151. Km :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-25/311001CMD305417032

152. When electron flow along the electron transport

chain of mitochondria which of the following

changes occur ?

(a) pH of the matrix increases

(b) ATP synthase pumps proton by active

transport

(c) NAD+ is oxidised

(1) only a

(2) a and b

(3) b and c

(4) a, b and c

153. ............ seeds cannot germinate and establish

without the presence of mycorrhizae :

(1) Oryza

(2) Cycas

(3) Pinus

(4) Triticum

154. Why C3 plants are allowed to grow in carbon

dioxide enriched atmosphere ?

(1) C3 plants show increased rate of photosynthesis

in higher CO2 concentration that leads to higher

productivity

(2) CO2 absorb the harmful UV rays and protect

the C3 plants

(3) Higher CO2 concentration causes the stomatal

closing and reduces the gaseous exchange

from the plant to save the energy.

(4) Higher CO2 concentration protect the

chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation

155. Dental formula of human child is :-

(1) 2102 / 2102

(2) 2123 / 2123

(3) 2033 / 1023

(4) 0021 / 0021

156. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the

mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of

_____ :-

(1) 5th thoracic vertebra



(4) 3rd thoracic vertebra

152. (a) pH (b) ATP

(c) NAD+ (1) only a

(2) a and b

(3) b and c

(4) a, b and c

153. ............

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

154. C3

?

(1) CO2 C3

(2) CO2 UV C3

(3) CO2

(4) CO2 a

155. :-(1) 2102 / 2102

(2) 2123 / 2123

(3) 2033 / 1023

(4) 0021 / 0021

156.

_____ :-

(1) 5

(2) 7

(3) 9

(4)

1001CMD305417032H-26/31


157. Mark the incorrect statement :-

(1) Ornithine cycle operates in Liver

(2) Uriniferous tubules occur in kidney

(3) Podocyte present in glomerulus of kidney

(4) Duct of bellini opens on renal papilla

158. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in

the dorsal part of the thorax between the

______ :-

(1) 2nd and the 7th ribs

(2) 3rd and the 5th ribs

(3) 7th and the 12th ribs

(4) 1st and the 5th ribs

159. In following diagram Na+ VGC are found in

which part :

(a)

(c)

(b)

(1) a & c (2) b & c

(3) only b (4) a, b & c

160. Which is not true for insulin hormone in the

following statements ?

(1) It is a peptide hormone

(2) It play an important role in maintaining

normal blood glucose level

(3) It mainly act on hepatocytes only

(4) It enhance cellular glucose uptake and

utilisation

157. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

158. ______

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

159. Na+ VGC ?

(a)

(c)

(b)

(1) a & c (2) b & c

(3) b (4) a, b & c

160. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-27/311001CMD305417032

161. Malonate i s the subs t rate analogue of

enzyme :-

(1) Pyruvate decarboxylase

(2) Lactate dehydrogenase

(3) Succinate dehydrogenase

(4) Folic acid synthase

162. Which of the following get accumulated in the

vacuole of guard cell during stomatal opening ?

(1) Water Ca2+ and Mg2+

(2) Malate Na+ and K+

(3) Starch K+ and Cl–

(4) Malate and K+

163. After entering of pyruvic acid in mitochondrial

matrix. Which of the following does not take

place ?

(1) Oxidation

(2) Decarboxylation

(3) Oxidative carboxylation

(4) SLP

164. The chief sink (s) for the mineral elements in

plants is/are -

(1) the apical and lateral meristems

(2) developing flowers, fruits and seeds

(3) storage organs of plant

(4) All of the above

165. In human protein deficiency leads to mainly :-

(1) Pellagra

(2) Sterility

(3) Rickets

(4) Marasmus

166. A healthy human breaths ____________

times/minute :-

(1) 6-8

(2) 12-16

(3) 24-30

(4) 20-22

161. Malonate) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

162.

(1) Ca2+ Mg2+

(2) Na+ K+

(3) K+ Cl–

(4) K+

163.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) SLP

164. -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

165. :-(1)

(2) (3) (4)

166. __________ :-(1) 6-8

(2) 12-16

(3) 24-30

(4) 20-22

Time Management is Life Management

1001CMD305417032H-28/31


167. Uric acid is the main excretory product of in :-

(1) Planaria, Crustacea, Frog

(2) Reptiles, land snails, Insects

(3) Reptiles, Tadpole of frog, Birds

(4) Insects, Reptiles, Marine fishes

168. The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally

to form the pubic symphysis containing _____ :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Fibrous cartilage

(3) Elastic cartilage

(4) Calcified cartilage

169. Arrange the following in correct order of

developed neural system .

(1) Hydra > Insects > Human

(2) Human > Hydra > Insects

(3) Human > Hydra < Insects

(4) Insects > Human > Hydra

170. How many statements are true in the following ?

(i) Adrogen act on the central neural system and

influence the male sexual behaviour (libido)

(ii) Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted when blood

pressure is low

(iii) Insulin stimulate conversion of glucose to

glycogen

(iv) Maintainance of water and electrolyte balance

is also influenced by thyroid hormones

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

171. If the OP of a cell is 40 atm and its TP is 9 atm.

Find out water potential (w) of the cells

(1) 49 atm (2) –31 atm

(3) 31 atm (4) –49 atm

172. Which of the following is common to both cyclic

and non-cyclic photophosphorylation ?

(1) ATP and NADPH synthesis

(2) Involvement of both PSI and PSII

(3) ATP synthesis and involvement of PSI

(4) Photolysis of water

167. ?

(1) , ,

(2) , ,

(3) , ,

(4) , ,

168. _____ :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

169.

(1) > >

(2) > >

(3) > <

(4) > >

170. ?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

171. (OP) 40 atm (TP) 9 atm (

w) ?

(1) 49 atm (2) –31 atm

(3) 31 atm (4) –49 atm

172. ?(1) ATP NADPH (2) PS I PS II (3) ATP PSI (4)


H-29/311001CMD305417032

173. For given diagram select the incorrect statement:

Outerside

E

Innermembrane

partPi

D

2H+

ADP

AB

C

(1) C is responsible for passage of H+

(2) D is an enzymatic component

(3) B is permeable for H+

(4) In the formation of E energy is required for

conformational change

174. Which among the following is not diazotroph ?

(1) Cyanobacteria

(2) Azotobacter

(3) Clostridium

(4) Pseudomonas

175. Volume of air remains in the lungs after powerful

expiration is :-

(1) ERV + RV (2) FRC + IC

(3) RV (4) TV

176. Plasma without the clotting factor is

called ______ :-

(1) Sebum (2) Serum

(3) Semen (4) Smegma

177. Which of the following blood vessel contains the

least amount of urea ?

(1) Hepatic portal vein

(2) Renal vein

(3) Renal artery

(4) Hepatic vein

178. Pivot joint is present between :-

(1) Between Atlas and axis

(2) Between the carpals

(3) Between Humerus and pectoral girdle

(4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

173. :-

Outerside

E

Innermembrane

partPi

D

2H+

ADP

AB

C

(1) H+ C

(2) D

(3) B, H+

(4) E D

174. (di-azotroph) ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

175. :-(1) ERV + RV (2) FRC + IC

(3) RV (4) TV

176. ______ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

177. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

178. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

1001CMD305417032H-30/31


Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2018

179.

(A)

(B)

(1) A = , B =

(2) A = , B =

(3) A = , B =

(4) A = , B =

180. Ca+2

Ca+2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

179. CNS Organs/Tissues(A)

(B)

(1) A = Sensory, B = Motor

(2) A = Sensory, B = Sensory

(3) A = Motor, B = Motor

(4) A = Motor, B = Sensory

180. This hormone stimulates reabsorption of Ca+2 by

the renal tubules and increase Ca+2 absorption

from the digested food.

This hormone is

(1) Thyrocalcitonin

(2) Cholecalciferol

(3) Parathormone

(4) Melatonin

Your moral duty is to prove that

is


H-31/311001CMD305417032

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