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Pre-Solo Written Test last revised 1/1/2016 Aircraft N912SN: Pipistrel Flex motor glider Airfield: Boerne Stage Airfield (5C1) Name-___________________________________________ Date-__________________ FAR/AIM, POH*, Sectional 1-7. About the Boerne Stage Airfield (5C1) (fill in the blanks): Reference:

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Page 1: salsaaviation.comsalsaaviation.com/references/160903 Pre Solo Test N912SN... · Web viewIf, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct

Pre-Solo Written Testlast revised 1/1/2016

Aircraft N912SN: Pipistrel Flex motor glider Airfield: Boerne Stage Airfield (5C1)

Name-___________________________________________ Date-__________________

FAR/AIM, POH*, Sectional

1-7. About the Boerne Stage Airfield (5C1) (fill in the blanks):

Reference:

8. Boerne Stage Airfield Airspace:From the ground to 700': Class: ____________From the 700' to 18,000': Class: ____________

Above 18,000': Class: ____________

About this Pipistrel Flex motor glider N912SN (fill in the blanks):

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9. What is the Vy best climb speed: Long tips:__________knotsShort tips: __________ knots

10. Maximum take-off weight (MTOW): __________ pounds11. Empty weight of the aircraft: ____________ pounds12. What is the useful load ______________pounds13. What is maneuvering speed: __________ knots14. The never exceed speed: ______________ knots15. What is the best L/D speed:

Long tips:__________knotsShort tips: __________ knots

16. Maneuvering speed is based on empty-weight/MTOW (chose 1). If the aircraft weight is less, the maneuvering speed is lower/higher (choose 1).

17. On a student pilot's first solo flight, who is responsible for ensuring the aircraft is safe and ready to go? a. The CFI signing the student off for solo b. The aircraft owner c. The pilot in command d. The student pilote. Both c and d (they are the same person)

18. After your instructor has endorsed your logbook for solo, you: a. May fly solo to any airport your instructor has taken you.b. May not fly over 25 statute miles from 5C1 without a cross-country endorsement in your logbook.c. May fly at 5C1 provided the weather meets VFR minimums. d. May not fly if the conditions exceed any conditions specified in the CFI's endorsement.e. B and D above.

19. When a student pilot flies solo, who is considered Pilot in Command (for operational and regulatory purposes) of the aircraft? a. The aircraft owner b. The CFI authorizing/supervising the solo flight c. The student pilot d. None of the above (there is no pilot in command since there is not a certificated pilot onboard)

20. If, as a student pilot, you have not flown for 90 days, you: a. Must receive and log flight training and an updated logbook endorsement from your flight instructor within 90 days of the flight.b. Are legal to fly solo provided the conditions specified in the CFI's solo endorsement are met.c. Must pass both a practical and written examination

Page 3: salsaaviation.comsalsaaviation.com/references/160903 Pre Solo Test N912SN... · Web viewIf, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct

21. Before a local flight the pilot in command is responsible for ensuring: a. That the aircraft is within weight and balance limitations. b. That they are familiar with the runway lengths of the airport of intended landingc. That they are familiar with the landing and take-off distances of the aircraft for the expected conditions.d. Operating limits of the aircraft e. Applicable weather information f. ALL of these, plus anything else that affects the safety of the flight .g. A, D and E above.

22. What is the maximum RPM drop on mag check of the Rotax 912 UL engine: a. 100 rpm b. 500 rpmc. 300 rpm

23. For every flight the FAR's preflight requirements for PICs include:a. Determine the weight loading per area/location/station, gross weight, and balance are within the POH's limitationsb. Determine the glider is safe c. Determine the airports of intended landing are safed. Determine the current and forecast weather that will affect your intended flight is safe for the pilot and the aircrafte. All of the above

24. All other pilots are to give way to glider pilots walking to the hangar, walking to the glider, or walking anywhere on the runway. True or false (Circle one)

25. Pretake-off Checklist. Acronym: ___________________________. List each letter and what each item means:______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________

26. Prelanding Checklist. Acronym: ___________________________. List each letter and what each item means:______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________

Page 4: salsaaviation.comsalsaaviation.com/references/160903 Pre Solo Test N912SN... · Web viewIf, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct

______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________ ______ ________________________________________________

27. According to federal aviation regulation, the documents which must be in the glider to be legally flown include a. Airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, an aircraft logbooks b. Registration certificate, airworthiness certificate, operating limitations, and weight and balance c. Registration certificate, airworthiness certificate, aircraft Bill of sale d. Registration certificate, airworthiness certificate, operating limitations, weight and balance, and student pilot certificate.

28. Who is responsible for ensuring the motor glider is in a safe condition for flight before your first solo flight? a. The mechanic that performed the last inspectionb. The CFI authorizing the solo flightc. The studentd. The aircraft owner

29. As you pass through 200 feet you discover you have forgotten to remove the pito-cover. You should: a. Power to Idle and land straight ahead on the remaining runway b. Continue with the flight and set up a normal traffic pattern and landc. Continue with the flight since you know the pitot system works equally well with the cover in place d. Descend and land at the closest available out landing

30. Immediately after takeoff, half way along a 5000 foot runway, the engine fails The most likely correct emergency procedure is: a. Extend the airbrakes and apply full aft elevator and opposite rudder to reduce the airspeed, then land straight ahead on the remaining runway b. Use a higher than normal airspeed to gain altitude in order to make 1800 turn c. Lower the nose to maintain flying speed, extend the airbrakes and land straight ahead using a slip if needed

31. What is the best way to determine if the motor glider is within its weight loading limitations? a. Call the manufacturer b. Ask your instructor

Page 5: salsaaviation.comsalsaaviation.com/references/160903 Pre Solo Test N912SN... · Web viewIf, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct

c. Gliders are not weight critical and have no limitation d. Refer to the Pilots Operating Handbook or the placarded limitations in the aircraft

32. What is the maximum takeoff weight of the Sinus: __________lbs. This limit is important because: ____________________________________________________________________

33. As a student pilot, can you carry passengers? Yes or No (Circle one)

34. Name five landmarks around 5c1? __________________________ __________________________ __________________________ __________________________ __________________________

35. How far and in what direction is the closest class C airspace to the 5C1 airport? ______________NM in the direction ____________of the airport

36. The point of verbalizing "200 feet" during takeoff, is to: a. Confirm the altimeter is actually working b. Mentally prepare you for an engine failure. Below 200' your safe options are generally to land straight ahead or make limited turns limited turn (up to 90 degrees, depending on your altitude)c. Remind us to switch frequencies

37. Reaching 200 feet during takeoff in a glider means you may have sufficient altitude to do a 1800 turn to landing. A 1800 turn may not be safe if:a. Very strong headwinds will leave you without enough runway after turning.b. Very strong winds will leave you with an unsafe groundspeed when landing downwind.c. A return to landing will conflict with other departing or arriving traffic d. Obstacles or terrain near the airport make the low level 180 unsafe.e. All the above

38. The effect extending of the airbrake is to: a. Change glide ratiob. Decreased drag c. Increase Lift. d. Increase drag e. Decrease Lift.

39. In a 600 bank: a. Both you and the glider will feel twice as much weight, as on the ground b. The load factor is 2 c. The stalling speed increases by more than 40%

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d. All the above

40. The Ballistic Parachute on the Flex a. Should be pull tested during pre-flight b. Is just like the Air Force ejection seats c. must be repacked every 120 days d. None of the above

41. How do you determine the speed to fly in the pattern? a. We always flight 80 kts on approach b. Best L/D speed plus half the wind plus 1/2 the cross-wind c. Minimum sink speed plus half the winds d. It doesn't matter what speed you fly in the pattern

42. When passing and overtaking another glider you should: a. Pass over him so he can always see you b. Pass under him so you can always see him c. Pass him on his right side d. Pass him on his left side

43. A landing aircraft that is lowest in the pattern has right away over: a. Everything b. Everything but the towplane c. Only those aircraft that they have the right of way over in cruising flight

44. If, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct this problem and avoid a hard landing by: a. Smoothly close the airbrakes, maintain the normal slightly nose-up landing attitude, and leave the airbrakes closed until the gliders is on the ground b. Close the airbrakes, lower the nose to a gliding attitude, and perform another round out, flare and landing using the airbrakes as necessary c. Lower the nose of the glider and forced the glider on the ground as soon as possible using the elevator to keep the glider from bouncing into the air

45. Prior to shutting down the engine in flight, the engine should be idled:a. 2 minutes b. 1 minute c. Until the oil temperature is in the normal operating range and moving downwards.

46. In the event of flutter, evidenced by violent shaking of the aircraft while exceeding the Vne, the immediate response is:a. Level the wings b. Raise the nose c. Lower the nose

Page 7: salsaaviation.comsalsaaviation.com/references/160903 Pre Solo Test N912SN... · Web viewIf, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct

47. There are two gliders circling to the right in a thermal, and you are approaching them with the intention of entering the same thermal, which direction should you circle? a. Any direction you wish since gliders have the right of way b. To the left since the right hand turn is already cluttered with traffic c. To the right because the other gliders have already set the direction d. To the left if entering above or below the other gliders and to the right if entering between the other gliders.

48. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for the Flex motor glider (short tips) for N912SN? a. 10 ktsb. 15 ktsc. 18 knotsd. 25 kts

49. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for the Flex motor glider (long tips) for N912SN? a. 10 ktsb. 15 ktsc. 18 knotsd. 25 kts

50. On preflight the oil level is below the flat portion of the dipstick, the PIC should-a. Add a quart of oil that is appropriate for the aircraft b. Add just enough oil to make the oil level with the top of the flat portion of the dipstick c. Start the engine and do your run-up then add enough oil to make it level with the top of the flat spot on the dipstick d. Remove the key from the ignition, pull the prop through by hand until it gurgles, then recheck the level adding enough oil to show somewhere around the middle of the flat portion of the dipstick

51. The starter should be operated a. Until the engine starts b. No longer than 60 seconds c. No longer than 30 secondsd. No longer than 10 seconds e. No longer than 5 seconds

52. Which statements concerning the recommended flap setting for landing the Flex are true? a. 1st notch/9o positive is a common landing configuration with approach speeds up to 70 Knts. b. The Neutral / Oo setting should only be used during high winds or cross winds.c. 2nd notch / 18o down should not be used when approach speeds exceed 60 knots

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d. The reflexed / -5o position is not recommended for landing.e. All of the above

53. The maximum recommended taxi speed for the Flex is a. What ever speed you need to up to redline b. Up to 9.7 kts. with doors open c. 2 kts / a brisk walkd. What ever you can handle

53. For Cold days the take-off should be made with the choke in the off position. True or False (circle one)

54. When on long final or Descending from high altitude, it is advisable to reduce the engine throttle control lever to idle. True or False (circle one)

For the following two figures, fill in the blanks:

Page 9: salsaaviation.comsalsaaviation.com/references/160903 Pre Solo Test N912SN... · Web viewIf, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct
Page 10: salsaaviation.comsalsaaviation.com/references/160903 Pre Solo Test N912SN... · Web viewIf, during an engine off approach using full airbrake, you flare too high, you may correct

25 Questions (fill in the blanks)