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Question Bank

PSA-Problem Solving Assessment

OSWAAL

CBSE Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE)

For Term I and 2

WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS

Class 7

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CONTENTS

l Examination Paper (KVS) 2015 v - viii

Answer of this paper has been merged chapterwise within the book

Section-A : Language Conventions

1. Sentence Completion 1 - 3

2. Sentence Improvement 4 - 5

3. Re-arrangement of Sentences 6 - 8

4. Word-Meanings 9 - 12

5. Spelling Test 13 - 16

6. Synonyms 17 - 20

7. Antonyms 21 - 24

8. One Word Substitution 25 - 28

9. Idioms 29 - 30

10. Cloze Test 31 - 32

11. Comprehension 33 - 40

Section-B : Qualitative Reasoning

1. Directions Knowledge 41 - 43

2. Coding and Decoding 44 - 45

3. Series 46 - 48

4. Analogy and Classification 49 - 51

5. Dice and Cubes 52 - 53

6. Blood Relation 54 - 55

7. Playing with Figures 56 - 59

8. Puzzles 60 - 61

9. Mirror Images 62 - 63

10. Statements and Conclusion 64 - 65

l Passage Based Questions (Qualitative Reasoning) 66 - 72

Section-C : Quantitative Reasoning

1. Numbers 73 - 76

2. Arithmetic 77 - 80

3. Algebra 81 - 83

4. Mensuration 84 - 87

5. Geometry 88 - 94

6. Statistics & Data Handling 95 - 97

l Passage Based Questions (Quantitative Reasoning) 98 - 104

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PREFACE

–Publisher

Malcolm Forbes said “Education's purpose is to replace an empty mind with an open one” and this is something which is always followed by Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), whether through their education system framework or regular enhancement in curriculum. CBSE always believe in Global Trends of Educational Transformation. With same believe CBSE has introduced Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) so that students can develop the skills which are required in daily life.

PSA aims to focus on development of problem solving aptitude rather than subject theories. This helps in testing and developing various skills like psychological skills, thinking skills, interpersonal skills etc. PSA reduces the pressure on the students on purely academic grounds and shifts the focus towards aptitude building.

PSA reflects the aptitude building in English, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. PSA is objective test i.e. purely contains Multiple Choice Questions which help students to get an idea about dealing with Competitive Examinations which they have to face in future.

We at OSWAAL BOOKS understand student's requirements and we also understand that the concept of PSA is new for the students. Hence the Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) books for Classes VI, VII & VIII have been written so as to supplement the need of the students to prepare from basics to perfection. With the help of using these books continuously in VI, VII and VIII, students get prepared to face PSA in IX and XI.

This book contains exam oriented study material which includes standalone & passage completion MCQs based on Grammar & Usage and Vocabulary in context. Solutions are provided with proper explanations. Introduction has also been provided at the starting of each chapter. Also passages have been designed separately for Quantitative and Qualitative sections. The quantitative section comprises of mathematical aptitude questions and qualitative section comprises of logical reasoning based questions.

We are sure that this book will serve as a perfect teaching guide for the teachers and good practice material for the students. It is expected that they will take full advantage of our knowledge and experience.

At last we would like to thanks our authors, editors, reviewers and specially students who regularly send us suggestions which helps in continuous improvement of this book and makes this book stand in the category of “One of the Best”. Wish you all Happy Learning.

EXAMINATION PAPER

PSA, January 2015(Kendriya Vidhyalya Sangathan)

Class–VII

Problem Solving

Assessment

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 60This Test Booklet contains **** pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.Important Instructions. 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill

in the particulars on Side – 1 and Side – 2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three sections A, B and C. A candidate is required to attempt all the three

Sections. There are 24 questions in Section A, 18 questions in Section B and 18 questions in Section C. Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24) To be attempted either from English Language or from Hindi Language. Section B : Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42), Section C : Quantitative Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60) 3. All the three Sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these questions are passage based MCQs whereas

others are stand alone MCQs. Each of these questions has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. A candidate has to select the correct option and fill the corresponding number in the Answer Sheet against the question.

4. Each Question carries one mark. For each correct response, the candidate will get one mark. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question earns no marks.

5. On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the room / hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

6. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet or the Answer Sheet has not been handed over to the Invigilator shall be dealt as an Unfair means case.

7. Use blue/black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and writing or marking responses on Answer Sheet. 8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded or damaged. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer

Sheet. 9. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.

All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. 10. IN CASE OF ANY DOUBT, QUESTION IN ENGLISH WILL BE TREATED AS FINALRoll No. :Candidate’s Name :Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature

SECTION A : (Language Conventions)Note : This section of the question paper contains 24 questions in the English Language. A student is required to attempt all the 24 questions.

Directions (Questions 1 to 4) : Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from each list to fit the corresponding gap.The Annual Sport meet of the school (1)................going to be held on 28th and 29th of this month. Students (2)...........wish to take part in any event should give (3).............names to (4)..............undersigned by 25th of this month positively.

1. Which of these fit the gap 1 ? (a) was (b) will (c) is (d) were 2. Which of these fit the gap 2 ? (a) which (b) who (c) that (d) whom 3. Which of these fit the gap 3 ? (a) their (b) there (c) his (d) her 4. Which of these fit the gap 4 ? (a) a (b) an (c) the (d) no word

Directions (Questions 5 to 12) : Choose the most suitable option from each list.

5. Antonym of ‘beautiful’ (a) attractive (b) lovely (c) pretty (d) ugly 6. Correct spelling (a) humble (b) humbal (c) humbel (d) hamble 7. One word for ‘a word having the same meaning as

another’ (a) antonym (b) synonym (c) homonym (d) homophone 8. Choose appropriate meaning for the idiom ‘turn a

blind eye to’ (a) ignore (b) conceal (c) trouble (d) encourage 9. The indirect speech for Venkat said, ‘‘Leela is telling a lie’’. (a) Venkat said that Leela is telling a lie. (b) Venkat said Leela is telling a lie. (c) Venkat said that Leela was telling a lie. (d) Venkat said Leela was telling a lie. 10. Collective noun for a _____________ of stones (a) bunch (b) heap (c) bundle (d) pile

vi OSWAAL CBSE-PSA Question Bank, Class – VII

11. She purchased four _______ of ball point pens. (a) dozen (b) dozens (c) kilo (d) litre 12. The passive voice for ‘She sings a song’ (a) A song is sung by her. (b) A song was sung by her. (c) A song is sang by her. (d) A song was sang by her.

Directions (Questions 13 to 18) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions by choosing correct options :Patriotism is an old concept. But all through the history of mankind (it has been narrowly understood). Today people have begun to realize that patriotism is an essential part of human instinct.Patriotism has its negative sides particularly when it exceeds its proper bounds. People who think their own country to be the best and are blind to its weaknesses are not patriots at all. Our love for country should be conditioned by respect for the whole community. Narrow prejudice can do nothing except to bring misfortune. Patriotism should be tempered with reason so that it may not be an evil.

13. Today what is the belief of people regarding patriot-ism ?

(a) It is narrowly understood (b) It is not needed (c) It is a part of human instinct (d) None of the above 14. Which type of people can be categorized as patriots ? (a) those who think other countries greater than

their own (b) those who think country to be the best inspite of

its weaknesses (c) Those who keep a neutral attitude towards their

country (d) Those who love their country by giving respect

to the entire community 15. Narrow prejudices always bring : (a) misfortune (b) good opportunity (c) good luck (d) money 16. Patriotism is an evil when it is : (a) tempered with reason (b) not tempered with reason (c) beyond narrow feelings (d) tempered without reason 17. Word in the passage which is opposite to positive in

meaning : (a) proper (b) narrow (c) negative (d) reason 18. ‘A feeling of like or dislike for someone’ is : (a) prejudice (b) patriotism (c) misfortune (d) community

Directions (Questions 19 to 24) : Read the passage carefully and choose the option you consider the most appropriate for the question :When life began on earth, animals roamed freely about the planet, without any danger of being captured. But, human beings feel that by giving them brains, God has given them the authority to exploit

nature as they wish. They seem to have forgotten that they themselves evolved from animals. Man has always strived for lilberty–of behaviour, of speech, of thought, of everything. If we ourselves cannot bear someone else ruling over us, if every human slave strives for independence, then how can we give such treatment to animals ?

19. When life began on earth who roamed freely about the planet ?

(a) birds (b) animals (c) humans (d) reptiles 20. Who evolved from animals ? (a) humans (b) birds (c) animals (d) reptiles 21. Animals too should be given ......... (a) liberty (b) food (c) space (d) house 22. Should we make animals our slaves ? (a) yes (b) no (c) sometiemes (d) always 23. ‘The power to do or choose what you want to’ is : (a) liberty (b) slavery (c) taming (d) interdependence 24. The meaning of ‘exploit’ is : (a) use meanly (b) help (c) support (d) favour

SECTION B : (Qualitative Reasoning)Directions (Questions 25 to 30) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

In December 1903 two American brothers called Wright Brothers, made the first aircraft that flew a distance of 37 metres in 12 seconds. It was named FLYER 1 and its wings were made of wood and cotton. Ever since flying by air has made rapid strides. Today, a supersonic passenger plane flies faster than the speed of sound (about 1200 km per hour) It connects many European cities with American cities. Larger aircraft now in common use like BOEING 747 or Airbus have powerful engines and carry 300 to 400 passengers. Around the world there are major Intenational Airports in almost all countries. The major International airport. In Newyork is John F. Kennedy Airport. The London Airport is known as Heathrow. India has some important International Airports like Indira Gandhi Airport at New Delhim, Meenam Bakkam Airport at Chennai, Dumdum Airport at Kolkata, Chhattrapati Shivajee at Mumbai.

25. Who made first aircraft ? (a) Wright Brothers (b) John Wright (c) Graham Bell (d) Flyer 1 26. What was the name of the first aircraft ? (a) Airbus (b) Boeing (c) Bomdier (d) Flyer 1 27. What is the name of London Airport ? (a) IGI airport (b) Heathrow (c) Dumdum (d) John 28. John F. Kennedy Airport is situated in________. (a) London (b) Newyork (c) Kolkata (d) Delhi 29. Indira Gandhi Airport is situated in ________. (a) India (b) Japan (c) Canada (d) South Africa

Examination Paper, 2015 vii

30. Wings of FLYER 1 were made of ________. (a) woods and cotton (b) plastic (c) iron (d) copper

Directions (Questions 31 to 36) Choose the most suitable option from each list.

31. If English alphabets are written in reverse order, then which will be the 13th letter from last ?

(a) L (b) M (c) N (d) O 32. Find the number that should replace the blank 12 : 21 : : 8 : __ (a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 14 33. Find the number of triangles in the picture given

below :

(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 14 34. If ‘Green’ is called ‘red’, ‘Red’ is called ‘Yellow’ and

‘Yellow’ is called ‘Blue’, what is the colour of parrot ? (a) Green (b) Red (c) Yellow (d) Blue 35. What are the next two numbers in the pattern below ? 8, 10, 14, 20, ?, ? (a) 28, 30 (b) 30, 28 (c) 28, 38 (d) 20, 30 36. Bird : Feather : : Fish : ? (a) Dress (b) Leaves (c) Scales (d) Fins

Directions (Questions 37 to 42) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

Rehana is the only girl going to the higher secondary school from her village. The school is quite far from her home. She has to wait for the publilc bus which takes about one hour to reach her school. Rehana is good at her studies and her teachers say she has a bright future. Her parents agreed to send her to school, on the condition that every day she should return home ‘on time’ (before it gets dark). They told her it is not safe for her to be out alone late in the evening. Her classes are from 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. and sometimes, if the bus does not come on time, she is late getting back home.

Every day she is really tensed about returning home on time. Sometimes she feels so tensed that she thinks she should give up her studies.

37. Who is the only girl going to the higher secondary school from village ?

(a) Rehana (b) Roma (c) Radha (d) Reena 38. Rehana’s classes are from ________. (a) 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. (b) 11 a.m. to 4 p.m. (c) 12 a.m. to 5 p.m. (d) 8 a.m. to 6 p.m. 39. Rehana has to wait for the ________. (a) Public bus (b) Train (c) Car (d) None of these 40. Who told Rehana that she has a bright future ? (a) Teacher (b) Mother (c) Father (d) Friends

41. Rehana was good at ________. (a) Dance (b) Study (c) Sports (d) Swimming 42. Every day she is really tensed about ________. (a) returning (b) going to school (c) visiting a mall (d) going to market.

SECTION C : (Quantitative Reasoning)Directions (Questions 43 to 46) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The Earth is often referred to as the ‘Blue Planet’ because when viewed from space it appears blue. About 70% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Ninety-seven percent of the water on the earth is salt water. Sea water is filled with salts and other minerals and humans can not drink this water. 2% of water is in the form of glacier ice at the north and south poles. The ice is fresh water and could be melted. Near about 1% in the form of groundwater which is available for us. The ultimate source of fresh water is rain and snow. Freshwater systems are the rivers. streams, lakes, pond groundwater, cave water, springs, floodplains, and wetlands. Freshwater provides water for drinking, sanitation, agriculture transport, electricity generation and recreation. It also creates habitats for a diverse range of animals and plants. We cannot live without fresh water.

43. How much part of our earth surface is covered with water ?

(a) 30% (b) 70% (c) 97% (d) 1% 44. Fresh water system does not include : (a) River (b) Ground water (c) Ocean and Sea (d) Ponds and Lakes 45. Choose the correct answer in the following : (a) Salt water is about 70% of the total water on the

earth (b) Salt water is suitable for our drinking because it

has salt and minerals (c) The ultimate source of fresh water is rain and

snow (d) Only 3% of water is available in the form of

groundwater. 46. Choose the correct matching with reference to the

water : (a) Fresh water : 3% of total water on the earth (b) Cave water : fresh water system (c) Salt water : 1% of total water (d) Ground water : ice cap near north and South Pole

Directions (Questions 47 to 56) : Choose the most suitable option from each list.

47. 1/5 of the balls in the bag are red, 2/5 are yellow and 4 black balls. Find the total number of Balls in the bag.

(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 6 48. If 23 + 13 = 3x, then x is : (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6 49. When 5 is added to a Yash’s age and the sum is mul-

tiplied by 4, then 20 is subtracted from the product we get 36. Find the age of Yash.

(a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 9 years (d) 8 years

viii OSWAAL CBSE-PSA Question Bank, Class – VII

50. The sides of two squares are in the ratio of 2 : 3, then the ratio of their areas will be :

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 9 : 4 (d) 4 : 9 51. If a, b, c are the sides of a right angled triangle which

one is possible ? (a) a2 > b2 + c2 (b) a2 = b2 + c2

(c) a2 < b2 + c2 (d) None of the above. 52. Mandira’s scores in four different exams are given

below :

FA1Maximum Marks 40Marks obtained 32

FA2Maximum Marks 10Marks obtained 8

FA3Maximum Marks 40Marks obtained 33

SA1Maximum Marks 60Marks obtained 54

In which exam did Mandira score the highest ? (a) FA1 (b) FA3 (c) FA2 (d) SA1 53. In the adjoining Figure l||m and s||t, if 1 = 70° then

the value of y + z iss t

y z

1xI

m

(a) 70° (b) 40° (c) 110° (d) 180° 54. The mean weight of a group of seven boys is 56 kg.

The individual weights (in kg) of six of them are 52, 57, 55, 60, 59 and 55. Find the weight of the seventh boy ?

(a) 52 kg (b) 53 kg (c) 54 kg (d) 55 kg 55. How many lines of symmetry are there in an equilat-

eral triangle ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 56. The product of 43.07 × 1000 is : (a) 4.307 (b) 430 (c) 43.07 (d) 43070

Directions (Questions 57 to 60) : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :

concave lens

light rays

concave lens

light rays

eye

object imageof object

convex lens

imageof object

concave lens

eye

object

Convex lenses are thicker at the middle. Rays of light that pass through the lens are brought closer together (they converge). A convex lens is a converging lens. A convex lens makes objects look larger and farther away.

A magnifying glass is a convex lens which produces a magnified image of an object.

Concave lenses are thinner at the middle. Rays of light that pass through the lens are spread out (they diverge). A concave lens is a diverging lens. A concave lens makes objects look smaller and closer.

The distance between the principal focus and the centre of the lens is called the focal length.

The image formed is virtual and diminished (smaller). 57. Choose the correct option : (a) Concave lens are used in magnifying glass. (b) Convex lens diverge the light passing through it. (c) Concave lens are thicker at middle (d) Convex lens are thinner at corner 58. Statement 1 : Convex lens diminish the image of any

object Statement 2 : Concave lens enlarge the image of any

object. Which one is correct statement : (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 59. The distance between the principal focus and the

centre of the lens is called : (a) Focal Length (b) Diverging length (c) Converging length (d) Centre of Lens 60. Which lens makes the object closer ? (a) Concave Lens (b) Covex Lens (c) Both types of lens (d) Plain glass

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CHAPTER

1Sentence Completion

Quick Reviewl What is a sentence ? A sentence is a group of words which expresses a complete thought. A sentence must contain a subject and a verb (although one may be implied). The four types of sentence : There are four types of sentence. A declarative sentence : A declarative sentence are used to convey information or to make statements.

For example : There are five mangoes. Tom bought a luxurious car. An imperative sentence : An imperative sentence is a command or a polite request. It ends with an

exclamation mark or full stop. For example : When a dog runs at you, whistle for him. An interrogative sentence : An interrogative sentence asks a question and ends with a question mark.

For example : Where is your english book ? An exclamatory sentence : An exclamatory sentence expresses excitement or emotion. It ends with an

exclamation mark. For example : Hurray, we are going for a picnic ! The three kinds of sentence : A sentence can consist of a single clause or several clauses. When a sentence

is a single clause, it is called a simple sentence. A sentence must contain at least one independent clause. Below are the three types of sentence structure (with their independent clauses shaded) :

(1) A Simple Sentence : A simple sentence has just one independent clause. It contains a subject and verb. For example :

You can’t surprise a man with a dog. (2) A Complex Sentence : A complex sentence has an independent clause and at least one dependent

clause. For example : The town where I had lived during my childhood was ruined in volcanic eruptions. (3) A Compound Sentence : A compound sentence has at least two independent clauses. For example : He drove fast because he had to reach the school on time. l In this type of questions, a sentence is given with one blank space in it. For this blank space some

alternatives are given. The student is required to choose the most appropriate choice

SECTION-A

Language Conventions

Oswaal CBSE PSA Question Bank ForClass 7 Term I and Term II Problem

Solving Assessment

Publisher : Oswaal Books ISBN : 9789351274551 Author : Panel Of Experts

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