quiz compilations december, part two,2020 · 2021. 1. 4. · buildings, teri has developed griha...

GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 1

QUIZ COMPILATIONS – DECEMBER, PART TWO,2020



Q1. Consider the following statements regarding GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated

Habitat Assessment).

1. It Has been developed by NITI Aayog with an overall objective to enhance the use of

renewable and recycled resources by the building sector

2. It has been adopted as the national rating system for green buildings by the

Government of India.

Select the correct code.

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

News is: Recently, the inaugural session of the 12th Green Rating for Integrated

Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) Summit was organised virtually.

Understand the topic in brief.

The rapid increase in Indian population and growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has

given rise to an enormous demand for buildings with a subsequent pressure on availability

of resources. Another key challenge for the built environment of Indian cities is the

diminishing availability of water for urban areas.

In view of the above, and with an overall objective to reduce resource consumption,

reduce greenhouse gas emissions and enhance the use of renewable and recycled

resources by the building sector, TERI has played a crucial role in convergence of

various initiatives, essential for effective implementation and mainstreaming of sustainable

habitats in India. With over two decades of experience on green and energy efficient

buildings, TERI has developed GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat

Assessment), which was adopted as the national rating system for green buildings by

the Government of India in 2007.



Q2. Consider the following statements regarding National Ganga Council.

1. It is a statutory body responsible for the development of River Ganga and entire

basin.

2. The council is chaired by Prime Minister.

3. The Ganges passes through five states of India.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3



Solution: c

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect.

National Ganga Council is not a statutory body. It is an authority created under the River

Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities Order, 2016.

Understand the basic:

National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society on 12th August 2011

under the Societies Registration Act 1860.It acted as implementation arm of National Ganga

River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the

Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986. NGRBA has since been dissolved with effect

from the 7th October 2016, consequent to constitution of National Council for

Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga (referred as National

Ganga Council).

National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga = National Ganga Council). NO CONFUSION.

Second statement is correct:

Third statement is correct.

The Ganges passes through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand,

and West Bengal.



Q3. Human Development Report is a publication of:

a. World Bank

b. United Nation Development Program

c. UNICEF

d. United Nation Human Rights Commission.

Solution: b

Explanation:



The world’s second-most populous nation ranked 131 among 189 countries in 2019

compared with 129 in the previous year, according to the 2020 Human Development

Report published by the United Nations Development Programme.

Q4. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is an appellate tribunal against

order passed by:

1. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC)

2. Competition Commission of India (CCI)

3. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) was constituted under Section 410 of

the Companies Act, 2013 for hearing appeals against the orders of National Company Law

Tribunal(s) (NCLT), with effect from 1st June 2016.

NCLAT is also the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by

NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC), with

effect from 1st December 2016.

NCLAT is also the Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed

by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of IBC.

NCLAT is also the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any

direction issued or decision made, or order passed by the Competition Commission

of India (CCI) – as per the amendment brought to Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013

by Section 172 of the Finance Act, 2017, with effect from 26th May 2017.

Composition:

The President of the Tribunal and the chairperson and Judicial Members of the Appellate

Tribunal shall be appointed after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

The Members of the Tribunal and the Technical Members shall be appointed on the

recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of:



Q5. Consider the following countries.

1. Philippines

2. Qatar

3. Bahrain

4. Kuwait

Which of the above countries doesn’t share land boundaries with any country?

a. 4 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1 and 4 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Bahrain and Philippines don’t share boundary with any nation.

Kuwait and Qatar share boundaries with Saudi Arabia.



Q6. Which committee of parliament considers and advises on matters concerning the

affairs of the house, which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary

committee.

a. General Purpose Committee

b. Rules Committee of Lok Sabha

c. Business Advisory Committee

d. Committee on Subordinate legislation

Solution: a

Explanation:

Q7. ‘NOTA’ option is available to voters in which of the following elections: 1. Lok Sabha elections

2. Rajya Sabha elections

3. State Assembly elections

4. State Council elections

Select the correct Answer using the codes given below:

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1 only

d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: a

Explanation:

''NOTA'' or ''none of the above'' is a ballot option provided in the elections to Indian voters.

Through NOTA, a citizen has the right to not vote for any candidate contesting the elections.

NOTA is an option is direct elections like Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. Whereas

elections to Rajya Sabha and State Councils are Indirect elections. Hence Option ‘B’ and ‘D’ can’t be the Answer.

Option C has only Lok Sabha, so this is also eliminated.



Q8. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Earth’s Internal structure?

1. The crust accounts for largest volume of Earth’s surface. 2. Earth’s Lithosphere includes crust and upper liquid part of mantle.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanations: Crust accounts for only 1.14% of earth’s volume. Mantle occupies 82.54% of earth’s volume. Core accounts for 16.32% of earth’s volume. So correct order is: Mantle> Core> Crust Earth’s Lithosphere includes crust and upper solid(rigid) part of mantle.



Q9. Consider the following statements.

1. When the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the

President, he continues to perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the Council

of States.

2. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a Vice-

President shall be decided by the Supreme Court.

3. A procedure to remove Vice President is provided in the Constitution.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

First Statement: incorrect

Second Statement: correct

Third Statement: correct

Removal Procedure is provided by Article 67 (2)



Q10. Ranthambore National Park is in:

a. Rajasthan

b. Odisha

c. Gujarat

d. Madhya Pradesh

Solution: a

Explanation:

It is in Rajasthan.

Q11. The government plans to invite bids for setting up ‘green ammonia’ projects within

six months to reduce import dependence. Consider the following statements regarding

Green Ammonia.

1. Green ammonia production is where the process of making ammonia is 100%

renewable and carbon-free.

2. India is the largest exporter of Ammonia in the world.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

Ammonia is a pungent gas that is widely used to make agricultural fertilisers. Ammonia is

used in the production of Urea.



Green ammonia production is where the process of making ammonia is 100%

renewable and carbon-free. First statement is correct.

Unlike conventional ammonia, which is typically produced using natural gas as feedstock,

green ammonia is produced by using solar/wind/hydropower to produce electricity that

then feeds an electrolyser to extract hydrogen from water, while nitrogen is separated from

air using an air separation unit.

Green Ammonia Production and Use:

One way of making green ammonia is by using hydrogen from water electrolysis and

nitrogen separated from the air. These are then fed into the Haber process (also known as

Haber-Bosch), all powered by sustainable electricity. In the Haber process, hydrogen and

nitrogen are reacted together at high temperatures and pressures to produce ammonia,

NH3.



The production of green ammonia could offer further options in the transition to net-

zero carbon dioxide emissions. These include:

Energy storage – ammonia is easily stored in bulk as a liquid at modest pressures (10-15

bar) or refrigerated to -33°C. This makes it an ideal chemical store for renewable energy.

Zero-carbon fuel – ammonia can be burnt in an engine or used in a fuel cell to produce electricity. When used, ammonia’s only by-products are water and nitrogen.

Hydrogen carrier – there are applications where hydrogen gas is used (e.g. in PEM fuel

cells), however hydrogen is difficult and expensive to store in bulk (needing cryogenic

tanks or high-pressure cylinders). Ammonia is easier and cheaper to store, and transport and it can be readily “cracked” and purified to give hydrogen gas when required.

Second statement is incorrect. It is largest importer of Ammonia.



Link: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/-govt-will-invite-bids-for-green-ammonia-projects-in-6-

months-11608001104873.html

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Financial Stability and Development

Council.

1. Financial Literacy and Financial Inclusion are the major areas, FSDC deals with.

2. Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Recent meeting recently happened.

We will go the page when it was notified by Government of India. Try to learn always from

authentic source. For example, for this topic, everyone will remember like it is Financial

Stability Council, it might be doing something related to financial sector development and

stability. But it doesn’t work this way in UPSC. Read the full objective of this council. See

below:

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/-govt-will-invite-bids-for-green-ammonia-projects-in-6-months-11608001104873.html

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/-govt-will-invite-bids-for-green-ammonia-projects-in-6-months-11608001104873.html



Now, it is complete. For every topic, try to cover in similar way…

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus

(ADMM-Plus):

1. India is not a member of ASEAN but is a member of ADMM-Plus.

2. ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus was established in 2017 keeping in mind

the expansion of China in South China Sea.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation: Recently, India’s defence minister attended the 14th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting (ADMM) Plus organized online at Hanoi, Vietnam.



ADMM-PLUS was established in 2010, it has nothing to do with South China Sea dispute.

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/china-listening-rajnath-says-rules-based-

order-under-threat-7100095/

Q14. Which among the following are the possible outcomes of printing more money to

monetize government debt?

1. Increase in inflation

2. Increase in economic output

3. Devaluation of currency

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/china-listening-rajnath-says-rules-based-order-under-threat-7100095/

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/china-listening-rajnath-says-rules-based-order-under-threat-7100095/



Solution: b

Explanation:

Printing more money does not increase economic output – it only increases the amount of

cash circulating in the economy. If more money is printed, consumers can demand more

goods, but if firms have still the same amount of goods, they will respond by putting up

prices. In such a scenario, printing money just causes inflation. So, statement 1 is correct

while statement 2 is not correct.

By printing money, they devalue the currency in three ways.

a. Firstly, printing money tends to be inflationary. Higher inflation makes a country less competitive, leading to relatively lower demand for the country’s exports and hence its currency.

b. Secondly, increasing the money supply enables the Central Bank to buy more foreign

currency, which drives down the value of the domestic currency.

c. Thirdly, by promising to print money and keep currency low, it discourages

speculators from buying that currency as it is less likely to be a good bet. So,

statement 3 is correct.

Every year, the International Migrants Day is celebrated on December 18 by the United

Nations. So, we will try to cover migration topic with respect to India.


1. The right to freedom of movement in and outside the country is mentioned in

Fundamental Rights under Article 19 in the Constitution.

2. Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)

Act, 1979 governs inter-state migrants in India.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The principles of free migration are enshrined in clauses (d) and (e) of Article 19(1) of the

Indian Constitution and guarantee all citizens the fundamental right to move freely

throughout the territory of India, as well as reside and settle in any part of India.

The Right to Freedom of Movement involves three aspects:

a. Right to move in country



b. Right to travel abroad

c. Right to return back in the country

Article 19(1) (d) covers only the first aspect and Article 21 covers other two. First

statement is incorrect.

Ok one more thing. The expression “throughout” means that there is no part of country can be mase in accessible to the citizens, except some reasonable restrictions. If throughout is

replaced by word “within”, ten also it is wrong statement.

Within means you are drawing a circle inside territory of India and asking citizen to move

within that circle only.

Second statement is correct.

Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)

Act, 1979 governs inter-state migrants in India. The Act was enacted to prevent the

exploitation of inter-state migrant workmen by contractors and to ensure fair and decent

conditions of employment. The law requires all establishments hiring inter-state migrants

to be registered, and contractors recruiting such workmen to be licensed.

Q16. Consider the following.

1. Djibouti

2. Yemen

3. Qatar

4. Bahrain

Arrange the above nations from North to South

a. 3-4-1-2

b. 4-3-1-2

c. 4-3-2-1

d. 3-4-2-1

Solution: c



Bahrain-Qatar-Yemen-Djibouti

Q17. If there is rise in unemployment due to the adoption of Artificial Intelligence and

Industrial Revolution 4.0, it will be best described as:

a. Seasonal Unemployment

b. Structural Unemployment

c. Frictional Unemployment

d. Cyclical Unemployment

Solution: b

Explanation:

Structural unemployment results from mismatches between the skills required for

available jobs and the skills held by the unemployed. Even when there is plenty of job

availability, this mismatch means the unemployed cannot access jobs that fit their skill sets.

It is caused by fundamental shift in an economy and due to major changes in technology,

competition and government policy.

Q18. With reference to the Constitution, Consider the following statements regarding Co-

operative societies.

1. The superintendence and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for elections to

a co-operative society shall vest in State Election Commission.

2. The Constitution provides for the maximum number of directors of a co-operative

society.

Which of the following options is/are correct?



a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Article 243ZK (2)

The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for,

and the conduct of, all elections to a co-operative society shall vest in such an

authority or body, as may be provided by the Legislature of a State, by law:

Therefore, now you can clearly strike down option 1.

Now for second statement, refer to Article 243ZJ below:

The board shall consist of such number of directors as may be provided by the Legislature

of a State, by law:

Provided that the maximum number of directors of a co-operative society shall not

exceed twenty-one. Therefore, statement 2 is correct

Q19. Consider the following pairs.



Terms sometimes seen in new Their origin

1. Clean Development Mechanism Kyoto Protocol

2. Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization

Nagoya Protocol

3. Safe handling living modified organisms (LMOs)

Rotterdam Convention

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

Clean Development Mechanism: Kyoto Protocol. Everyone knows.

Q20. ‘Thinai concept’ during the Sangam Age is related to which of the following?



a. Ecological zones

b. Administrative divisions

c. Water conservation

d. None of the above

Solution: a

Explanation:

Sangam poems help us understand the social formation of the time. According to the

Thinai concept, Tamilagam was divided into five landscapes or ecoregions, namely

Kurinji, Marutham, Mullai, Neytal and Palai.



Q21. India, one of the world’s top energy consumers, is preparing a road map to achieve Aatmanirbhar Urja or self-reliance in natural gas. So, let us see current status of production

of Natural Gas in India through quiz.

In context of Natural Gas Production in India, consider the following statements.

1. Natural Gas Production has consistently increased in decade time.

2. Offshore production of natural gas is more than onshore production in India.

Selects the correct code.

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Natural gas is the cleanest fossil fuels among the available fossil fuels. It is used as a

feedstock in the manufacture of fertilizers, plastics and other commercially important

organic chemicals as well as used as a fuel for electricity generation, heating purpose in

industrial and commercial units. Natural gas is also used for cooking in domestic

households and a transportation fuel for vehicles.

First statement is incorrect: Data is from Government website.

The country's natural gas production during 2019-2020 declined 5 per cent to 31,180

MMSCM, the lowest recorded output in at least 18 years.




Q22. Network for Greening the Financial System (NGFS) was recently seen in news. It

aims to:

a. to help strengthening the global response required to meet the goals of the Paris

agreement

b. Use of Artificial Intelligence in financing the green projects in countries worldwide.

c. To extend extra credit facilities to island countries to tackle climate change

d. To promote renewable energy especially solar energy in India-Pacific region

Solution: a

Expalantion:

US Federal Reserve Joins the Network of Central Banks and Supervisors For The

Greening Of The Financial System (NGFS). At the Paris “One Planet Summit” in December 2017, eight central banks and

supervisors established the Network of Central Banks and Supervisors for Greening

the Financial System (NGFS). Since then, the membership of the Network has grown

dramatically, across the five continents. The Network’s purpose is to help strengthening the global response required to meet

the goals of the Paris agreement and to enhance the role of the financial system to

manage risks and to mobilize capital for green and low-carbon investments in the

broader context of environmentally sustainable development. To this end, the

Network defines and promotes best practices to be implemented within and outside of the

Membership of the NGFS and conducts or commissions analytical work on green finance.

Q23. In recent study, organic residues in pottery from one city, one town, and five rural settlements are investigated to characterize any possible similarities or differences in foodstuffs used in vessels by urban and rural populations in a single region. The study has been conducted in which part of India?



a. North East India b. Andaman and Nicobar c. North west India d. Southern India

Solution: c

Explanation:

Very important question. Such question often appears in exam. And either we solve or

skip. No guess work here.

In this study, organic residues in pottery from one city, one town, and five rural

settlements in northwest India are investigated to characterize any possible similarities or differences in foodstuffs used in vessels by urban and rural populations in a single region. The following figure depicts the extent of Indus settlements in the urban period with cities in black and study sites in white and other small- and medium-sized settlements are presented in yellow.



The study sites lie on the semi-arid alluvial plains of northwest India also referred to as the ‘eastern domain’ of the Indus Civilisation. Following are the details of each site.



Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/study-of-lipid-residue-reveals-cattle-

buffalo-meat-in-indus-valley-vessels/article33292289.ece

Q24. Which of the following statements is correct regarding G-7 Summit?

1. G7 was formed after the 1973 oil crisis.

2. All permanent members of UNSC are members of G-7.

3. India is not a member, but China is a member.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

G7 was formed after the 1973 oil crisis when six major industrialized countries from

around the world came together to discuss the global economy. It was earlier known as G6.

In 1976, Canada joined the group, which henceforth became known as the G7.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/study-of-lipid-residue-reveals-cattle-buffalo-meat-in-indus-valley-vessels/article33292289.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/study-of-lipid-residue-reveals-cattle-buffalo-meat-in-indus-valley-vessels/article33292289.ece



Russia joined in 1998 making it G8. Following the Russian annexation (or, invasion) of

Crimea, the G7 nations decided in March 2014 to remove Russia.

Five permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom,

and the United States. So, second statement is incorrect.

Third statement is incorrect.

Both India and China are not members.

Q25. Which of the following island of Lakshadweep is nearest to Maldives?

a. Kiltan

b. Minicoy



c. Kadmath

d. Kavaratti

Solution: b

Explanation:




1. National Tiger Conservation Authority.

2. Animal Welfare Board of India

3. National Board of Wildlife

Which of the above consists of Union Minister of Environment as Chairman?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

Animal Welfare Board of India- chairman is neither Prime Minister nor Union

Environment Minister. Chairman of board is appointed by government.




traditions Belongs to

1. Ravanachhaya Puppetry Gujarat

2. Dorsegata Dance Meghalaya

3. Barpeta’s Bhortal Nritya

Odisha

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

traditions State

https://wildmahseer.com/article/barpeta%E2%80%99s-bhortal-nritya




Ravanachhaya Puppetry Odisha

Dorsegata Dance Meghalaya

Barpeta’s Bhortal Nritya

Assam

Q28. Which of the following texts contains the Sanskrit phrase “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”?

a. Manusmriti

b. Vishnu Puran

c. Maha Upanishad

d. Bhagavat Puran

Solution: c

Explanation: “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” is a Sanskrit Phase which means that the whole world is one single family. The concept originates in Vedic Scripture Maha Upanishads.

Q29. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following

statements:

1. The value of vote MP of Rajasthan is greater than Goa.

2. The value of vote of MLA varies from state to state.

3. The value of a MP vote is substantially higher than the value of an MLA vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

If you don’t have conceptual clarity of this, you won’t be able to solve this question. But don’t worry. You will never forget from now.

Electoral college:





How is the value of votes calculated?

The value of votes of electors (voters) is basically determined on the basis of population of

the States. Since population figures are dynamic and keep changing every year, it has been

decided through the 84th Constitutional Amendment, that until the population figures

for the first census after 2026 are published (in other words, 2031 census), the population

of the States for the purpose of this calculation will mean the population as per the 1971

census.

The Process for calculating the Value of MLA vote

The value of the vote of each MLA is calculated by dividing the population of the State as

per 1971 Census, by the total number of elected members of the respective state assembly,

and then to divide the quotient by 1000. Total Value of all members of each State Assembly

is obtained by multiplying the number of seats in the Assembly by the number of votes for

each member. Let us look at Telangana as an example.

Number of Assembly seats = 119

Population of Telangana as per 1971 Census = 1.57 crore

Value of vote of each MLA = 1.57 crores/119*1000 = 132

Total value of votes of all the state MLAs = 119*132 = 15,708

Similar process is followed for all the states. For the 2017 Presidential election, the total

value of the MLA votes is 5,49,495. The value of an MLA vote in individual states is in the

table below.



Now, The Process for calculating the Value of MP vote

The total value of votes of all the States is divided by the total number of elected members

of Parliament (Lok Sabha 543+Rajya Sabha 233) to get the value of votes of each Member

of Parliament or the MP. For 2017, this worked out to be 708. The value of a MP vote is

substantially higher than the value of an MLA vote.

For example:

Total value of votes of all MLAs = 5, 49, 495 (see above chart)

Total number of MPs = 543 (LS) + 233 (RS) = 776

Value of the vote of each MP = 5, 49, 495/776 = 708 (same). First statement is wrong.

Total value of votes of all the MPs = 776*708 = 5,49, 408



Q30. Consider the following Statements.

1. Elections disputes pertaining to Panchayats shall be decided in accordance with

law of Parliament.

2. As per the Constitution, Audit and Accounts of Panchayats is done by State

Finance Commission.

Which of the above statement is correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

Elections disputes pertaining to Panchayats shall be decided in accordance with law of

State Legislature. Therefore, statement 1 is wrong.

Audit and Account of State Legislature is done in accordance with law of state

legislature. Therefore, statement 2 is wrong.

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity Management Committees

(BMC).

1. They are set up by state government under Biological Diversity Act 2002 to

conserve Biological Diversity.



2. BMC prepare a Peoples’ Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with local

people which documents traditional knowledge of local biological resources.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

News:

The Biological Diversity Act 2002 envisages three layered structures:

a. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the national level.

b. The State Biodiversity Boards (SSBs) at the state level

c. Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level.

First statement is incorrect:

The Biological Diversity Act 2002 has made it mandatory for every local self-governing

institution in rural and urban areas to constitute a Biodiversity Management

Committee (BMC) within their area of jurisdiction.


Once constituted, the BMC must prepare a Peoples’ Biodiversity Register (PBR) in

consultation with local people. A PBR comprehensively documents traditional

knowledge of local biological resources. The BMC is the custodian of these resources,



and any industry that extracts biological resources from these areas has to share part of its

revenue with the local community.

Something more:

Link: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/ngt-extends-time-for-constitution-of-

biodiversity-management-committees/story-kayvufd6tXY8PK99cGJuWL.html

Q32. Consider the following statements regarding District Mineral Foundation (DMF).

1. They are statutory bodies constituted by state government.

2. It aims to work for the interest and benefit of persons, and areas affected by mining

related operations.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Expalantion:

The DMF is a non-profit statutory 'Trust' for every Indian district affected by mining-

related operations, which should "work for the interest and benefit of persons, and areas

affected by mining-related operations".

District Mineral Foundations are statutory bodies in India established by the State

Governments by notification. They derive their legal status from section 9B of Mines

and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 as amended on 26 March 2015

as Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015. This

amendment came into force from 12 January 2015.

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/ngt-extends-time-for-constitution-of-biodiversity-management-committees/story-kayvufd6tXY8PK99cGJuWL.html

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/ngt-extends-time-for-constitution-of-biodiversity-management-committees/story-kayvufd6tXY8PK99cGJuWL.html



Also see,

Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) is a programme launched on

17 September 2015 to provide for the welfare of areas and people affected by mining

related operations.

Why PMKKKY was necessary, if already District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) was

established to take care of mining affected people?


Traditions in news Belongs to

1. Kalaripayattu Kerala

2. Thang-Ta Sikkim

Which of the above pairs is/ARE CORRECT?



a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports has recently included Gatka, Kalaripayattu, Thang-

Ta and Mallakhamba in Khelo India Youth Games 2021.

Kalaripayattu, also known simply as Kalari, is an Indian martial art that originated in

modern-day Kerala.

THANG TA is popular term for the ancient Manipuri Martial Art known as HUYEN

LALLONG.

Link:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1682218#:~:text=The%20Sports%20Mi

nistry%20has%20approved,%2C%20Thang%2DTa%20and%20Mallakhamba.


1. As per the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, state government has been empowered to

declare animals as vermin.

2. Schedule I animals under the WPA, 1972 cannot be defined as vermin.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 does not define the term ‘vermin’. However, its Schedule V contains a list of animals designated ‘vermin’, including rats, crows and foxes. Section 62 of the Act empowers the Centre to declare wild animals of any species as ‘vermin’ in any area and for a specified period of time. These animals are deemed to be

included in Schedule V, opening them up to be hunted.

The Section 62 allows the Centre to declare any wild animal to be ‘vermin’, apart from

those listed in the Act’s Schedule I and part II of Schedule II.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1682218#:~:text=The%20Sports%20Ministry%20has%20approved,%2C%20Thang%2DTa%20and%20Mallakhamba

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1682218#:~:text=The%20Sports%20Ministry%20has%20approved,%2C%20Thang%2DTa%20and%20Mallakhamba



Q35. Consider the following capitals of Indian states. 1. Chennai (Tamil Nadu) 2. Amravati (Andhra Pradesh) 3. Hyderabad (Telangana) 4. Bengaluru (Karnataka)

Arrange the following capitals from North to South.

a. 3-2-1-4 b. 2-3-4-1 c. 3-2-4-1 d. 2-3-1-4

Solution: a Explanation: Since they ae capitals, learn minute difference here.

You can differentiate Hyderabad and Amravati, but you can get confuse between Chennai and Bengaluru. Chennai is located north to Bengaluru. Chennai Latitude: 13.0827° N Bengaluru Latitude: 12.9716° N



Q36. Who among the following has the power to appoint acting judges of High Court?

a. Chief Justice of India

b. Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

c. Governor

d. President of India

Solution: d

Explanation:

Refer to article 224. President appoints additional and acting Judges.


1. Restricting imports

2. Expansionary monetary policy

3. Foreign capital inflows.

4. Easing export duties.

Depreciation of rupee with respect to dollar can be controlled by:



a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 1, 2, 3 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: d

Explanations:

Depreciation means extra supply of money in the economy. Question is how to control it,

i.e., how to wipe out more supply of rupee in the economy or increase supply of dollar in

economy.

By restricting imports: If we import more, we have to pay them in dollar (dollar will only

be wiped off). So, supply of money will increase in economy with respect to dollar (i.e.

depreciation). Therefore, we need to restrict imports.

Expansionary Monetary Policy: Expansionary monetary policy means more supply of

money in economy. So, this is incorrect option.

Foreign capital inflows: It will bring more dollars in the economy and hence depreciation

can be controlled.

Easing export duties: It will lead to more exports and bring more dollars in economy.


1. Vote on Account

2. Definition of Money Bills

3. Language to be used in Parliament.

Which of the above provisions are mentioned in Indian Constitution (not by Convention)?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All provisions are mentioned in the Constitution.



Q39. Consider the following historical places.

1. Ajanta Caves

2. Lepakshi temple

3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 only

d. 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

A mural is any piece of artwork painted or applied directly on a wall, ceiling or other

permanent surface. A distinguishing characteristic of mural painting is that the architectural

elements of the given space are harmoniously incorporated into the picture.

Mural Paintings of Ajanta caves.

Mural paintings of Meenakshi temple



In Sanchi stupa we don’t find mural paintings.

Q40. Himalayan national park is in:

a. Jammu and Kashmir

b. Uttarakhand

c. Himachal Pradesh

d. Sikkim

Solution: c

Explanation:

Snow leopard count rises in Himalayan national park. The Great Himalayan National

Park, is one of India's national parks, is located in Kullu region in the state of

Himachal Pradesh.

Q41. In the context of Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) technology, consider the

following statements.

1. This technology has been developed by Defence Research and Development

Organisation.

2. It aims to secure communication in which encryption keys are sent from one party to

another as qubits in a fibre optic cable.




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully

demonstrated communication between its two labs using Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) technology, which is a “robust” way to share encryption keys. What is Quantum key distribution (QKD)?

Quantum key distribution (QKD) is a secure communication method for exchanging

encryption keys only known between shared parties. The communication method uses

properties found in quantum physics to exchange cryptographic keys in such a way that is

provable and guarantees security.

What you need to know about this technology?

a. Typical encryption relies on traditional mathematics and while for now it is more or

less adequate and safe from hacking, the development of quantum computing

threatens that.

b. Quantum computing refers to a new era of faster and more powerful computers, and

the theory goes that they would be able to break current levels of encryption.

c. QKD works by using photons — the particles which transmit light — to transfer data.

d. QKD allows two distant users, who do not share a long secret key initially, to produce a

common, random string of secret bits, called a secret key.

e. Using the one-time pad encryption this key is proven to be secure to encrypt and

decrypt a message, which can then be transmitted over a standard communication

channel.

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/drdo-successfully-demonstrates-

quantum-communication-between-two-labs/article33292632.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/drdo-successfully-demonstrates-quantum-communication-between-two-labs/article33292632.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/drdo-successfully-demonstrates-quantum-communication-between-two-labs/article33292632.ece



Q42. Which of the following is/are the potential applications of Blockchain Technology?

1. Automotive sector

2. Financial Services

3. Healthcare

4. Voting

5. Verification of documents


a. 1, 2 and 5 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution: d

Explanation:

No doubt, they have asked potential applications of Blockchain Technology, it means

all are correct.

Our purpose was something different. Learn more about Blockchain Technology.

Blockchain is a system of recording information in a way that makes it difficult or

impossible to change, hack, or cheat the system.

A blockchain is essentially a digital ledger of transactions that is duplicated and

distributed across the entire network of computer systems on the blockchain. Each

block in the chain contains a number of transactions, and every time a new transaction occurs on the blockchain, a record of that transaction is added to every participant’s ledger. The decentralized database managed by multiple participants is known as Distributed

Ledger Technology (DLT). Blockchain is a type of DLT in which transactions are recorded

with an immutable cryptographic signature called a hash.



Now, we will see BT with respect to India and its advantages and disadvantages.

A defining moment for BT in India was the judgment of the Supreme Court in Internet and

Mobile Association of India v. RBI of 2018, which set aside the ban imposed by the

Reserve Bank of India ("RBI") on bitcoins and other cryptocurrencies. A perusal of this

judgment would show that the Court was mindful of various aspects including the

fundamental rights of persons involved in dealing with bitcoins. The Court clearly held

that while regulation of this trade would be within the domain of the RBI, banning of the

same would be violative of fundamental rights.

The budget speech of the then Finance Minister finds reference in the judgment. He had

said –

"The Government will take all measures to eliminate the use of crypto-assets in financing illegitimate activities and will also explore the use of blockchain technology for ushering in digital economy."



Problems with Blockchain Technology.

a. Firstly, blockchain transactions have no borders and hence, jurisdiction is a

vexed issue. Where and how a dispute can be raised remains an unanswered

question.

b. Another important aspect of BT is the prescribing of standards. There are no

globally acceptable standards, either governmental or non-governmental, for

the purpose of creating BT applications. In the absence of standards, BT is also being

used in the dark web for indulging in criminal activities, such as the sale of arms,

drugs, terrorist activities, funding of terrorism etc.

c. Blockchain technology depends upon public and private keys allotted to users and

their interface with the hash function. What happens if a private key is misused or

tampered with? Are there any legal remedies? One doesn't know.

d. There is no central authority which monitors BT; however, recent adaptations of

BT are being used by governmental authorities for verifying and authenticating

ownership of moveable/immovable assets.

Importance of Blockchain:

There are various positive uses to which Blockchain Technology can be put. Each of us

is aware of the number of times we have to submit our identification cards, education

certificates and such related documents for even the smallest of functions such as opening

of a bank account.

a. The sheer manpower and time which is spent in submission, verification and

authentication of such documents separately in each and every organisation can

be completely eliminated by using BT.



b. The submission of one identification should mean automatic authentication and

verification of all data relating to the said individual. This can be achieved

through BT without compromising privacy.

c. Similarly, verification of banking transactions of an individual across multiple

bank accounts could also be made easier with BT.

d. E-commerce transactions, insurance, could all be meshed together. The power of

mathematical applications in the collection, authentication, verification and use

of large amounts of data can be realized with Blockchain Technology.

e. BT can also have various applications in the legal field, especially in the

streamlining and simplification of transactional work.

f. Smart contracts, for instance, could be used to automate payment in transactions

involving delivery of goods, upon satisfaction of certain conditions.

g. Lawyers could also use BT to store confidential data instead of emailing sensitive

personal data back and forth.

h. Transactions conducted using BT may result in contractual disputes, consumer

disputes or even disputes under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. There is no

mechanism to deal with them at this point.

Q43. Consider the following statements regarding Cobalt.

1. Cobalt is an essential mineral for the lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles.

2. 90 percent of India’s usage of cobalt is from its indigenous ores. 3. China is the largest producer of cobalt in the world.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only



c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Why cobalt suddenly? As the demand of electric vehicle has increases worldwide,

demand for cobalt has surged. So, it becomes important.

Cobalt is an important ferromagnetic strategic alloying metal having irreplaceable

industrial applications. Cobalt is associated mostly with copper, nickel and arsenic ores.

Cobalt is extracted as a by-product of copper, nickel, zinc or precious metals.

First statement is correct.

Cobalt is an essential mineral for the lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles, laptops

and smart phones. It offers the highest energy density and is key for boosting battery life.

Demand for cobalt is projected to surge fourfold by 2030 in pace with the electric

vehicle boom.

Cobalt is used in the following core applications, all of which are important for both

the quality of life and for a sustainable planet:

Second statement is incorrect. Below information is from Indian Bureau of Mines, so

believe and learn.

Presently, there is no production of cobalt in the country from indigenous ores. The

demand for cobalt was met through imports. Refining capacity of cobalt in India is

estimated at about 2,060 tonnes per year.

Third statement is incorrect.

The Katanga region in the south of the Democratic Republic of Congo is home to

more than half of the world’s cobalt resources, and over 70% of the current cobalt

production worldwide takes place in the country.

Why cobalt is important for India now?



India aims to turn 30 percent of the vehicle’s battery-powered by 2030 as the Asia’s third-largest economy looks to curb oil imports and push for cleaner transport. But nearly

80 percent of the world’s resources of Cobalt—an essential element in rechargeable

batteries for electric vehicles—are locked up in just nine deposits in the Andes, the U.S.,

China and the Democratic Republic of Congo.,

India is looking for such reserves overseas.

Q44. As per the latest data, what is the current height of Mount Everest?

a. 2426.2m

b. 4876.7m

c. 8,848.8m

d. 12, 345.2m

Solution: c

Explanation:

It was in news recently, so we have asked.

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/explained-why-did-mount-everests-

height-change/article33296283.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/explained-why-did-mount-everests-height-change/article33296283.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/explained-why-did-mount-everests-height-change/article33296283.ece



Q45. Consider the following capitals.

1. Jerusalem (Israel)

2. Beirut (Lebanon)

3. Damascus (Syria)

Arrange the above capitals from North to South.

a. 2-1-3

b. 2-3-1

c. 3-2-1

d. 1-2-3

Solution: b

Explanation:

These questions will not be asked in similar way. But solving such questions will give you

clarity about regions. So, it is important.

Purpose of Goaltide is not to give you questions which will come in UPSC exam, but to

train you in a way that you can attempt any paper.

To make you clearer, we will provide you latitudes also (approx. only).

Beirut- 33.89-degree N

Damascus- 33.51-degree N

Jerusalem-31.76-degree N



Q46. Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra are the architectural features of temples of which

state?

a. West Bengal

b. Odisha

c. Tamil Nadu

d. Assam

Solution: b

Explanation:

Assam is Ahom Style

WEST Bengal is Pala style.



Q47. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the

Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 4 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Explanation:



Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality. Easily eliminate. So, left

with only option c.

Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational

Rights.

Q48. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

a. anyone residing in India.

b. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

c. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

d. any citizen of India.

Solution: c

Explanation:

Also go through important link of ECI : https://eci.gov.in/faqs/elections/contesting-for-

elections/faqs-contesting-for-elections-r4/

Q49. Which of the following are tributaries of Godavari River?

1. Bhima

2. Malaprabha

3. Tungabhadra

4. Musi


a. 1 only

b. 4 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. None.

Solution: d

Explanation:

All are tributaries of Krishna River.

https://eci.gov.in/faqs/elections/contesting-for-elections/faqs-contesting-for-elections-r4/

https://eci.gov.in/faqs/elections/contesting-for-elections/faqs-contesting-for-elections-r4/



Q50. One can find Great India Bustard mostly in:

a. Desert National Park

b. Silent Valley National Park

c. Kaziranga National Park

d. Simlipal National park

Solution: a

Explanation:

Its Desert National park.

Q51. Consider the following statements regarding Electoral Bonds.

1. All political parties registered under Representation of the People Act, 1951 are

eligible under this scheme.

2. The bonds shall not be eligible for trading.

3. One can file RTI to know the names of donors who are funding political party under

this scheme.


a. 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

News:

In a significant ruling, the Central Information Commission has held that disclosing the

identities of the electoral bond scheme donors is not in the public interest.

The RTI body for the implementation for the RTI Act also held that revealing the details of

donors would violate the provisions of the Right to Information Act.


QUIZ COMPILATIONS – DECEMBER, PART TWO,2020 The information commissioner further held that the “disclosure of names of donors and the donees may be in contravention of provisions contained in section 8 (1) (e) (j) of the RTI

Act itself, which exempt a public authority to give a citizen information available to a

person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrant the disclosure of such information”. So, third statement is

incorrect.



Electoral bonds were introduced by amendments made through the Finance Act

2017 to the Reserve Bank of India Act 1934, Representation of Peoples Act 1951,

Income Tax Act 1961 and Companies Act.

Link: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/no-public-interest-in-disclosing-

names-of-electoral-bond-buyers-says-cic/story-ooeZmLT8p8tl5g5ahTqLBN.html

Q52. Consider the following statements regarding Neural Networks.

1. It is a network of artificial neurons, just like the neurons in our brain, programmed

in software.

2. One common example is your smartphone camera’s ability to recognise faces.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

A neural network is a network of artificial neurons programmed in software. It tries to

simulate the human brain, so it has many layers of “neurons” just like the neurons in

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/no-public-interest-in-disclosing-names-of-electoral-bond-buyers-says-cic/story-ooeZmLT8p8tl5g5ahTqLBN.html

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/no-public-interest-in-disclosing-names-of-electoral-bond-buyers-says-cic/story-ooeZmLT8p8tl5g5ahTqLBN.html



our brain. The first layer of neurons will receive inputs like images, video, sound, text, etc.

This input data goes through all the layers, as the output of one layer is fed into the next

layer.

Let’s take an example of a neural network that is trained to recognise dogs and cats.

The first layer of neurons will break up this image into areas of light and dark. This data

will be fed into the next layer to recognise edges. The next layer would then try to

recognise the shapes formed by the combination of edges. The data would go through

several layers in a similar fashion to finally recognise whether the image you showed it is a dog or a cat according to the data it’s been trained on.

These networks can be incredibly complex and consist of millions of parameters to classify

and recognise the input it receives.

What are some examples of neural networks that are familiar to most people?

There are many applications of neural networks. One common example is your smartphone camera’s ability to recognise faces. Driverless cars are equipped with multiple cameras which try to recognise other vehicles,

traffic signs and pedestrians by using neural networks, and turn or adjust their speed

accordingly.

Neural networks are also behind the text suggestions you see while writing texts or emails,

and even in the translation tools available online.

Link: https://science.thewire.in/the-sciences/explained-what-is-a-neural-network/

Q53. Consider the following statements regarding Leopards in India (not snow leopard).

1. 90 Percent of leopard are found at higher elevations in the Himalayas and majority

of the northeastern landscape.

2. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.

3. Highest number of Leopard are seen in Kaziranga National park in Assam.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

This question is based on recently released Status of Leopards in India 2018’ report.

https://science.thewire.in/the-sciences/explained-what-is-a-neural-network/



The union environment ministry has said there has been over 60% increase in population

of leopards in India since 2014. There were at least 12,852 leopards in the country in 2018

compared to 7,910 leopards estimated in 2014 according to the ministry’s ‘Status of Leopards in India 2018’ report released on Monday.

Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards—3,421 followed by

Karnataka—1783 and Maharashtra—1690.

When it comes to different landscapes of India, central India and Eastern Ghats were

found to have 8071 leopards stretching across Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,

Jharkhand, Odisha, Maharashtra and Northern Telangana.

The Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains landscape extending from Uttarakhand, Uttar

Pradesh to parts of Bihar 1253 leopards were recorded.

In the Western Ghats which includes protected areas in Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil

Nadu 3387 leopards were recorded while only 141 were estimated for northeastern hills

and Brahmaputra plains. The estimation exercise hasn’t considered other leopard occupied areas such as non-

forested habitats (coffee and tea plantations), higher elevations in the Himalayas, arid

landscapes and majority of the northeastern landscape. The population estimation

should be considered as the minimum number of leopards in each of the landscapes.

Link: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/60-rise-in-leopard-numbers-in-4-

yrs/story-qnL8cprKCnPopwclbkHkAJ.html

Q54. “Positive Pay System” was recently seen in news. It is related to: a. To ease process of Foreign Direct Investment

b. To ease the registration process of foreign banks

c. To check the cases of fraud and abuse with respect to cheque payment.

d. New infrastructure facility at stock market

Solution: c

Expalantion:

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/60-rise-in-leopard-numbers-in-4-yrs/story-qnL8cprKCnPopwclbkHkAJ.html

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/60-rise-in-leopard-numbers-in-4-yrs/story-qnL8cprKCnPopwclbkHkAJ.html



The concept of Positive Pay involves a process of reconfirming key details of large

value cheques.

Under this process, the issuer of the cheque submits electronically, through channels like

SMS, mobile app, internet banking, ATM, etc., certain minimum details of that cheque (like

date, name of the beneficiary / payee, amount, etc.) to the drawee bank, details of which are

cross checked with the presented cheque by Cheque Truncation System (CTS). Any

discrepancy is flagged by CTS to the drawee bank and presenting bank, who would take

redressal measures.

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) shall develop the facility of Positive

Pay in CTS and make it available to participant banks.

Banks, in turn, shall enable it for all account holders issuing cheques for amounts of

₹50,000 and above. While availing of this facility is at the discretion of the account holder, banks may consider making it mandatory in case of cheques for amounts of ₹5,00,000 and above.

Positive Pay System shall be implemented from January 01, 2021.

Q55. Consider the following Nations.

1. Norway

2. Sweden

3. North Korea

Which of the above nations share boundaries with Russia?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

The countries with whom Russia shares its land border include North Korea, China,

Norway, Finland, Ukraine, Kazakhstan, Poland, Georgia, Mongolia, Latvia, Estonia,

Azerbaijan, Belarus, and Lithuania.



Q56. Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food

Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)

1. It is an organization under Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare.

2. It is a statutory body chaired by Union Minister.

3. It is responsible for promoting exports of Agriculture and Processed Food Products

from India.


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c



Explanation:

APEDA is an organization under Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of

India.

It is responsible for promoting exports of Agriculture and Processed Food Products from

India. It was established under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export

Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985.

Union Minister is not the Chairperson of APEDA.



It is responsible for promoting exports of Agriculture and Processed Food Products

from India.

Q57. Separation of the Judiciary from the executive and Legislative is enjoined by:

a. Preamble

b. Directive Principle

c. Seventh Schedule

d. None of the above.

Solution: d

Explanation:

Read carefully. Only Executive.

Article 50 (DPSP) of the Indian constitution talks that the State shall take steps to separate

the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. It is one of the liberal

intellectual principle.



Q58. While a proclamation of emergency (article 352) is in operation in the country, the

state government:

a. Cannot Legislate

b. Can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List

c. Can legislate on the subject in the state list

d. is suspended.

Solution: c

Explanation:

After proclamation of the emergency under article 352 federal structure of the polity

changes into unitary and centre can legislate on any matter of the state lists. These laws

made on state subjects become inoperative after 6 months of the cease of emergency.

It is to be noted that state legislatures are not suspended but rather normal distribution of

legislative powers get suspended in emergency and become subject to overriding powers

of the parliament. So, states can also make laws during the emergency. But it can be

over-ride by Parliament.

Q59. Which of the following provision does not necessarily make elections democratic?

a. Elections to be held at regular intervals

b. Political Equality and Universal Adult Franchise

c. Free to contest elections

d. Provide real choice between candidates

Solution: a

Explanation:

For example, In China, regular elections are held. Even during the military rule in Pakistan,

regular elections are held. Just because election is happening, we cannot conclude that

there is Democracy. The elected representative must have power to make final decision.

Then only Democracy exists in that particular State. So, option (a) is not correct.

Q60. As per the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements with regard to

Article 368.

1. An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only in the Parliament, not state

legislature.

2. The Amendment can be initiated only in the LokSabha and not in Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer.

a. 1 only



b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Expalantion:

As per Article 368, procedure for amendment of the Constitution- An amendment to the

Constitution can be initiated only in the Parliament and not in State legislature.

The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not

require prior permission of the president;

It can be introduced in either House of the Parliament – both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

have equal rights.

Q61. Consider the following statements regarding Integrated GST (IGST).

1. This shall be levied by the Government of India and shall be apportioned between

the Union and the States in the manner provided by GST Council.

2. Import of goods or services would be treated as inter-state supplies and would be

subject to IGST


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2



Solution: b

Explanation:


An Integrated GST (IGST) would be levied an inter-state supply (including stock transfers)

of goods or services. This shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and such

tax shall be apportioned between the Union and the States in the manner as may be

provided by Parliament by Law on the recommendation of the GST Council.


Import of goods or services would be treated as inter-state supplies and would be

subject to IGST in addition to the applicable customs duties.

CGST, SGST & IGST would be levied at rates to be mutually agreed upon by the Centre and

the States. The rates would be notified on the recommendation of the GST Council. In a

recent meeting, the GST Council has decided that GST would be levied at four rates viz. 5%,

12%, 16% and 28%. The schedule or list of items that would fall under each of these slabs

has been worked out. In addition to these rates, a cess would be imposed on “demerit” goods to raise resources for providing compensation to States as States may lose revenue

owing to the implementation of GST.

See the chart below: IGST is always greater than CGST AND SGST.

Q62. Naegleria fowleri is a:

a. Largest know flower

b. Largest know butterfly

c. Invasive plant species recently discovered in western ghats

d. Amoeba

Solution: d

Explanation:




1. One-half of the total number of members of GSTC form quorum in meetings of GST

Council.

2. Tobacco and tobacco products would be subject to GST.

3. Cesses and surcharge in so far as they relate to supply of goods and services are

subsumed under GST.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation: The Goods and Service Tax Council (hereinafter referred to as, “GSTC”) comprises of the Union Finance Minister, the Minister of State (Revenue) and the State Finance Ministers to



recommend on the GST rate, exemption and thresholds, taxes to be subsumed and other

matters.

One-half of the total number of members of GSTC form quorum in meetings of GSTC.

Decision in GSTC is taken by a majority of not less than three-fourth of weighted votes

cast. Centre has one-third weightage of the total votes cast and all the states taken

together have two-third of weightage of the total votes cast.

Q64. Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission.

1. It is formed as per the procedure mentioned in the Constitution.

2. Till now, the commission has been set up 4 times.

3. SC judge is the chairman of the Council.




a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:


Article 82 of Indian Constitution provides for delimitation and it says: Upon the completion

of each census, the allocation of seats in the House of the people to the States and the

division of each State into territorial constituencies shall be readjusted by such authority

and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.

Delimitation Commission:

As per Article 82, Parliament by law enacted a Delimitation Act after every census.

Once the Act comes into force, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation

Commission.


Therefore, Delimitation Commission have been constituted four times since

independence:

a. In 1952 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1952

b. In 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962

c. In 1973 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1972

d. In 2002 under Delimitation Commission Act, 2002

Third statement is correct.

What is the composition of the Delimitation Commission?



Q65. Consider the following countries.

1. West Bank

2. Jordan

3. Gaza Strip

4. Lebanon

Which of the above share/s boundary with Mediterranean Sea?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 3 and 4 only

Solution: d

Explanation:



Q66. ‘Lithium Triangle’ was seen in news recently. Which of the following is not a part of

this triangle?

a. Chile

b. Bolivia

c. Argentina

d. Brazil

Solution: d

Explanation:

India to tap ‘Lithium Triangle’ for Lithium-ION batteries. In yesterday’s quiz, we have solved quiz on the status of cobalt, which is used in Lithium-ion batteries. So,

everything is interlinked.

We will not leave anything for exam. Just from your side what we need is daily practice,

revision, patience and time management.

Brazil is not a part of this triangle.



Q67. With reference to the Constitution, Consider the following statements regarding Co-

operative societies.

3. The superintendence and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for elections to

a co-operative society shall vest in State Election Commission.

4. The Constitution provides for the maximum number of directors of a co-operative

society.

Which of the following options is/are correct?

e. 1 only

f. 2 only

g. Both 1 and 2

h. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Keep in mind one basic rule, if you really want to understand polity in true sense, go

through provisions from Constitution books. You will be able to learn few more things.

Now get back to statements.

Article 243ZK (2)



The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for,

and the conduct of, all elections to a co-operative society shall vest in such an

authority or body, as may be provided by the Legislature of a State, by law:

Therefore, now you can clearly strike down option 1.

Now for second statement, refer to Article 243ZJ below:

The board shall consist of such number of directors as may be provided by the Legislature

of a State, by law:

Therefore, statement 2 is correct

Q68. In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.

1. It is mandatory to have Governor for each State.

2. The pleasure of the President in removal of the Governor is subject to judicial review.

3. Governor, before entering into office subscribe an oath in the presence of Chief

Justice of Supreme Court or person appointed by him.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: a

Explanation:



Let us see into provisions of Constitutions.

Article 153 says, there shall be Governor for each. Therefore, statement ONE is correct.

Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President in removal of Governor is

subject to judicial review, in B.P. Singhal vs. Union of India 2010 case. Therefore,

statement 2 is correct


1. To uphold the dignity of women is one of the fundamental duties mentioned in

constitution.

2. Unlike article 19, which extends to both citizens and foreigners, Fundamental Duties

are confined to citizens only.

Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Fundamental Duties?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanations:

One of the Fundamental Duties states that:



Promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India

transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce

practices derogatory to the dignity of women. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Article 19 is confined to citizens only. Fundamental duties are confined to citizens

only.

Fundamental Rights available to only citizens and not foreigners are:

• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth

(Article 15).

• Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).

• Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions (Article 19).

• Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29).

• Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).

Q70. Kabartal Wetland is recently designated RAMSAR site in India, is located in:

a. Odisha

b. Punjab

c. Bihar

d. Himachal Pradesh

Solution: c

Expalantion:

Q71. Consider the following statements regarding Global Alliance for Buildings and

Construction (Global ABC).

1. It is the partnership of governments, civil societies to increase action towards a

zero-emission, efficient and resilient buildings and construction sector.

2. It is led by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

News:

The 2020 Global Status Report for Buildings and Construction, from the Global Alliance for

Buildings and Construction (GlobalABC), found that while global building energy

consumption remained steady year-on-year, energy-related CO2 emissions increased to

9.95 GtCO2 in 2019.

Launched at COP21 and hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme

(UNEP), the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction (GlobalABC) is a voluntary

partnership of national and local governments, inter-governmental organisations,

businesses, associations, networks and think thanks committed to a common vision: A

zero-emission, efficient and resilient buildings and construction sector.

The GlobalABC works towards a zero-emission, efficient, and resilient buildings and

construction sector through: Raising ambitions to meet the Paris climate goals. While the

sector is a major emitter, it also holds huge potential for improvement.

India is a part of this alliance.

You don’t need to know more than this.

Link: https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/building-sector-

emissions-hit-record-high-low-carbon-pandemic

Q72. Recently introduced 1% Cash Payment Norm in GST implies?

a. To avoid identity proof verification at clearance window

b. It is for MSMEs to show proof of their invoice which will help MSMEs easy credit

c. To curb tax evasion by way of fake invoicing

d. It is for startup companies to file low annual return

Solution: c

Explanation:

https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/building-sector-emissions-hit-record-high-low-carbon-pandemic

https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/building-sector-emissions-hit-record-high-low-carbon-pandemic



To curb tax evasion by way of fake invoicing, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and

Customs (CBIC) had recently made it mandatory for businesses with monthly turnover of more than ₹50 lakh to pay at least 1% of their GST liability in cash. The new rule restricts

use of input tax credit (ITC) for discharging GST liability to 99% effective January 1, 2021

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/rule-of-1-gst-liability-payable-

in-cash-may-impact-45000-units/article33426834.ece

New guidelines have been issued for community forest rights (CFR) and habitat rights. We

will solve one quiz here.


1. The Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the

nature and extent of community forest rights of forest dwellers.

2. Habitat rights under the FRA are granted to the particularly vulnerable tribal groups

(PVTG).


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Expalantion:

The Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the

nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/rule-of-1-gst-liability-payable-in-cash-may-impact-45000-units/article33426834.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/rule-of-1-gst-liability-payable-in-cash-may-impact-45000-units/article33426834.ece



Second statement is also correct:

Habitat rights under the FRA are granted to the particularly vulnerable tribal groups

(PVTG).

Section 3(1)(e) of the act says that these rights are “include community tenures of habitat

and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities.”

Note: Particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) (earlier: Primitive tribal group)

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/tribal-ministry-panels-draft-

fresh-guidelines-for-community-forest-habitat-rights-74793


Places in news Location

1. Sea of Galilee Northern Europe

2. Caspian Sea Borders Kazakhstan


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Sea of Galilee is swelling and hundreds of miles to the northeast, the world’s largest lake, CASPIAN is drying, according to new research by Dutch scientists.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/tribal-ministry-panels-draft-fresh-guidelines-for-community-forest-habitat-rights-74793

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/tribal-ministry-panels-draft-fresh-guidelines-for-community-forest-habitat-rights-74793



Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/global-eco-watch-drying-sea-of-

galilee-swells-after-years-of-drought-74792

Q75. In the context of Indian Polity, consider the following statements regarding

Administrative Tribunals.

1. The Central Government has been authorized to establish Administrative Tribunals

for both, centre and states.

2. Composition of the Administrative tribunals is provided by the Constitution.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

Before going through solutions, first, we will see what the basic objective was for setting up

of Tribunals.

The main objective of establishing Tribunals as set out in the Statement of Objects and

Reasons of The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 is as under:

To reduce the mounting arrears in High Courts and to secure the speedy disposal of

service matters, revenue matters and certain other matters of special importance in the

context of the socio-economic development and progress, it is considered expedient to provide

for administrative and other tribunals for dealing with such matters while preserving the

jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to such matters under article 136 of the

Constitution.’

Now, try to understand Tribunals.

Tribunals were not the part of original Constitution. Based on the recommendations of

the Swaran Singh Committee, Part XIV-A was added by the Constitution (Forty-second

Amendment) Act, 1976, titled as ‘Tribunals’ which provided for the establishment of

‘Administrative Tribunals’ under Article 323-A and ‘Tribunals for other matters’ under Article 323-B.

Here we will see establishment of ‘Administrative Tribunals’ under Article 323-A.

What is written in article 323-A, we will first see that.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/global-eco-watch-drying-sea-of-galilee-swells-after-years-of-drought-74792

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/global-eco-watch-drying-sea-of-galilee-swells-after-years-of-drought-74792



In simple terms, Article 323-A confers power on the Parliament for the establishment

of administrative tribunals for the adjudication or trial of disputes and complaints

relating to the recruitment and conditions of service……… (mentioned in above article). Now, since the Constitution gave power, Parliament enacted Administrative Tribunals

Act, 1985.

Everything regarding Administrative Tribunal is written under this Act, not in the

Constitution. Remember this.

Now we will see both the statements mentioned in question. Both the above statements

are mentioned in Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. See below:

From above, it is clear that Central Government has been authorized to establish

Administrative Tribunals for both, centre and states. Therefore, first statement is

correct.

Second statement is wrong as it (Composition of the tribunals) is not mentioned in the

Constitution.




1. The President has the power to formulate rules for the convenient transactions of

business of the government of India.

2. Allocation and Transactions of Business rule 1961 is administered by Speaker and

Chairman of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

According to article 77(3), the President has the power to formulate rules for the

convenient transactions of business of the government of India. Therefore, statement 1 is

correct.

Accordingly, the president has formulated government of India (Allocation of Business)

rule 1961 and GOI (Transactions of Business) Rule 1961 as amended from time to time.

The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India

(Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business)

Rules 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments of the

Government by ensuring adherence to these rules. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.


Temples Situated On the banks of

1. Srirangam Ranganathaswamy

Temple

Kaveri River

2. Kashi Vishwanath Temple Yamuna River

3. Omkareshwar Temple Narmada

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?



a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 2 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

Temples Situated On the banks of

1. Srirangam Ranganathaswamy

Temple

Kaveri River

2. Kashi Vishwanath Temple GANGA River

3. Omkareshwar Temple Narmada

Q78. Which of the following are the characteristic features of a desert biome?

a. High diurnal range of temperature

b. Violent thunderstorms

c. Waxy, leathery, hairy or needle-shaped foliage

d. Humus deficient soils

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 3, and 4 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

The desert biome is an ecosystem that forms due to the low level of rainfall it receives each

year. Intense insolation by day in a region of dry air and no clouds causes the temperature

to rise with the sun. But as soon as the Sun sets, the land loses heat very quickly by

radiation and the mercury levels drop. High diurnal temperature range is a typical

feature of hot deserts. Average diurnal range varies from 14 to 25° Celsius. So, statement 1

is correct.

Deserts, whether hot or mid-latitude, have annual precipitation of less than 25 cm. Rain

normally occurs as violent thunderstorms of the convectional type. It ‘bursts’ suddenly and pours continuously for a few hours over small areas. So, statement 2 is correct.



Most desert shrubs have long roots and are well spaced out to gather moisture, and search

for groundwater. Plants have few or no leaves and the foliage is either, waxy, leathery,

hairy or needle shaped to reduce the loss of water through transpiration. So, statement

3 is correct.

Intense evaporation increases the salinity of the soil so that the dissolved salts tend to

accumulate on the surface, forming hardpans. Absence of moisture retards the rate of

decomposition and desert soils are very deficient in humus. So, statement 4 is correct.

See hardpan image below.



Q79. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case

of membership to the Lok Sabha.

2. The territorial representation ensures due representation to minorities in the

membership to Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

Though the Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case

of Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha. Instead,

it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the election of members to the

Lok Sabha. So, statement 1 is not correct. Under territorial representation, every member

of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each

constituency, only one representative is elected. Hence such a constituency is known as a

single-member constituency.

In this system, a candidate who secures the majority of votes is declared elected. This

simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other

words, it does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups). So,

statement 2 is not correct.

Q80. Consider the followings.



1. The increasing rate of interest on borrowings for commercial banks.

2. Central Bank selling government Securities under Open Market Operations.

3. Increasing indirect tax.

Which of the following steps can be taken to check inflation in economy?

1. 1 only

2. 1 and 2 only

3. 1 and 3 only

4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Increasing rate of interest on borrowing for commercial banks will decrease the lending

capacity of banks. Hence, will help in controlling inflation.

Open Market Operations refer to sale and purchase of government securities and bonds by

the central bank. To control inflation, central bank sells the government securities to the

public through banks. This results in transfer of a part of bank deposit to central bank

account and reduces credit creation capacity of commercial banks.

Increase in indirect tax will increase the prices of goods and services and therefore, will

increase inflation. Third option is incorrect.

Q81. Consider the following statements regarding Press Council of India (PCI).

1. PCI is a statutory body.

2. PCI has the power to censure newspapers or news agencies for violations of

standards of journalistic ethics.

3. Electronic media and TV news channels do not come under the jurisdiction of the

Press Council of India.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Expalantion:




The Press Council of India is a statutory, quasi-judicial authority set-up by an Act of

the Parliament. It functions under the Press Council Act, 1978. Its objective is of “preserving the freedom of the press and to maintain and improve the

standards of newspapers and news agencies”.


PCI has the power to censure newspapers or news agencies for violations of

standards of journalistic ethics or public taste, etc. It has the power to censure or

admonish the offender after an inquiry.

For the purpose of such inquiry, the PCI is empowered to summon and examine people

and receive evidence and such an inquiry would be deemed to be a judicial

proceeding, similar to a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.

Third statement is correct:

Electronic media, TV news channels, social media i.e., WhatsApp/ twitter/Facebook do not

come under the jurisdiction of the Press Council of India.

Ok, then who regulates the operation of cable television networks?

The Cable TV Networks (Regulation) Act of 1995 was enacted to regulate the

operation of cable television networks. According to the Act, all broadcasters have to comply with the ‘Programme Code’. As per the Programme Code, no programme should

be broadcasted on television which offends against decency, contains an attack on religions

or communities, or contains obscene, defamatory, deliberately false and suggestive

innuendos and half-truths.

The Act was amended in 2011 to bring all television channels under its purview. In

the backdrop of this Act, in 2005, the Government of India established an Inter-Ministerial

Committee (IMC) to investigate and adjudicate complaints about programmes in violation

of Programme Code. The IMC can also take suo moto cognizance of any such violations.



Q82. Consider the following statements regarding Rare Earth elements.

1. India has reserves of Rare Earth Elements but production is very low.

2. China is the largest producer of Rare Earth Elements.

3. Andhra Pradesh has the highest monazite reserves, which is sources of rare earth

element.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Expalantion:

Rare earths are a special class of 17 elements that have extensive uses across various

industries including computer and IT, clean energy systems, healthcare, defence

production, advanced transportation services and many others.

India status: First statement is correct.

India is one of the early countries to recognise the importance of rare earth. The Indian

effort in developing its indigenous capacity to produce rare earth metal started

immediately after its independence. India established the Indian Rare Earths Ltd (IREL) in



1950. In 1963, IREL was nationalised and its operations were handed over to the

Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) of India. Since then, it is working as a central public

sector unit.

Despite being an early mover, India could not develop itself as a manufacturer of

rare earth metals even with the fifth largest reservoir in the world.

China exported rare earth worth US$3 billion (S$4 billion) while it imported US$172 million (S$234 million) in 2017. The US imported US$109 million (S$148 million), while it exported US$14 million (S$19 million) of rare earth in 2017. India imported US$9 million (S$12 million) and exported US$16 million (S$22 million) worth of rare earth metals in 2017.

Significant rare earths minerals found in India include ilmenite, sillimanite, garnet, zircon,

monazite and rutile, collectively called Beach Sand Minerals (BSM). India has almost 35 per cent of the world’s total beach sand mineral deposits. For example,

From above chart, we can say third statement is correct.


As per the Indian Bureau of Minerals Report 2020,

https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/10012020172151RareEarth_2019_AR.pdf



Q83. Tibetan Policy and Support Act, 2020 was recently passed by:

a. BIMSTEC

b. United States

c. European Union

d. United Nation Security Council

Solution: B

Explanation:

US President Donald Trump has signed the Tibetan Policy and Support Act of 2020,

making it a law.

The TPSA makes it official United States policy that decisions regarding the

reincarnation of the Dalai Lama are exclusively within the authority of the current

Dalai Lama, Tibetan Buddhist leaders and the Tibetan people. There can be no

interference by China on that front.



It formally recognise the (Central Tibetan Administration, CTA) as the legitimate

representative of the Tibetan people.

Apart from providing funds, the TPSA also has safety provisions for the environment of

Tibet, which stands at peril because of the actions of the Chinese government.

The law is aimed at protecting the environment and water resources on the Tibetan

plateau which includes River Brahmaputra. Moreover, it calls for greater international

cooperation to monitor the environment on the Tibetan plateau.

Link: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/us-president-donald-trump-signs-historic-

tibetan-policy-and-support-bill-into-law-1753773-2020-12-28

Q84. Consider the following statements regarding National Common Mobility Card (NCMC).

1. The idea of NCMC was floated by the Nandan Nilekani committee set up by the

Reserve Bank of India.

2. One Nation, One Card for transport mobility is an initiative of the Ministry of

Housing and Urban Affairs to enable seamless travel by different metros and other

transport systems across the country

3. There is provision of storing money on the card.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) - One Nation, One Card for transport mobility is

an initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to enable seamless travel by

different metros and other transport systems across the country besides retail shopping

and purchases.

The idea of NCMC was floated by the Nandan Nilekani committee set up by the

Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The five-member committee under Nilekani has also

proposed a host of measures, including all payments by the government to citizens through

the digital mode, to reduce the number of cash transactions in the country.

The NCMC card has 2 instruments on it – a regular debit card which can be used at an

ATM, and a local wallet (stored value account), which can be used for contactless

https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/us-president-donald-trump-signs-historic-tibetan-policy-and-support-bill-into-law-1753773-2020-12-28

https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/us-president-donald-trump-signs-historic-tibetan-policy-and-support-bill-into-law-1753773-2020-12-28



payments, without the need to go back to the server or additional authentication. It is

envisioned that a single card will be usable for all local travel needs across the country.

There is provision of storing money on the card, which can be used for contactless

payments across various use cases like toll transit, parking etc. The wallet where

money is stored is referred as Global/Card wallet. Also, any refund pertaining to the

transactions done using global/card wallet will be credited in the replica of the wallet maintained at bank’s end, which further can be added to Global/Card Wallet by the customer.

Q85. One can find Great Victorian Desert, Gulf of Carpentaria and MacDonnell Ranges

all in which of the following regions:

a. African Continent

b. South America

c. Australia

d. European Union

Solution: c

Explanation:

Great Victorian Desert, Gulf of Carpentaria and MacDonnell Ranges all can be seen in

Australia.




1. Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over joint sitting of two houses, if Speaker and

Deputy Speaker of lower house is absent.

2. The Provision of Joint sitting is not applied to Money Bills or Constitutional

Amendment Bills in State Assemblies, it is applied only to Ordinary Bills.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Explanation:


The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the

Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting,



the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as

may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting presides over the meeting.

The Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting as he is not a

member of either House of Parliament.

Second statement is incorrect:

NO PROVISION OF JOINT SITTING IN STATE ASSEMBLIED IN ANY CASE.

For Parliament:

A joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a

deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a Bill.

The President can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting to deliberate and vote

on the Bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to Ordinary Bills and Finance Bills

only and not to Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills. In the case of a Money

Bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be

passed by each House separately.

Q87. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament of India.

2. A person can be a Minister without being a Member of the Parliament.

3. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Now, we will refer to provisions in the Constitution.

The Indian Constitution under Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be

collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not the

Parliament.




The Constitution stipulates that a Minister who is not a Member of the Parliament for a

period of six consecutive months, ceases to be a Minister.

The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge

information about their proceedings, policies and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy

before entering their office. However, the oath of secrecy to the ministers is

administered by the President of India and not the Prime Minister.

Q88. Hunar Haats’ are organized to support artisans, craftsmen and traditional culinary

experts under which of the following schemes and Ministry?



a. USTAAD scheme/Ministry of Minority Affairs

b. Nai Roshni scheme/ Ministry of Tribal Affairs

c. NayaSavera program/Ministry of Minority Affairs

d. None of these.

Solution: a

Explanation:

MINISTRY OF MINORITY AFFAIRS is the Ministry.

Introduction to USTTAD" - Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/

Crafts for Development.




1. The idea of bronze sculptures flourished during the Cholas rule.

2. Kalyanasundara Murti built during this period denotes the marriage of Vishnu and

Lakshmi.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

The idea of bronze images came during the Pallavas, which flourished during the Cholas.

A wide range of Shiva iconography was evolved in the Thanjavur (Tanjore) region of Tamil

Nadu. The ninth century Kalyanasundara Murti is highly remarkable for the manner

in which Panigrahana (ceremony of marriage) is represented by two separate statuettes.

Shiva with his extended right hand accepts Parvati’s (the bride’s) right hand, who is depicted with a bashful expression and taking a step forward.



Link: http://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kefa107.pdf

Q90. Beas Conservation Reserve has been recently added to the Ramsar Wetland List. It

is located in:

a. Himachal Pradesh

b. Jammu and Kashmir

c. Punjab

d. Uttarakhand

Solution: c

Explanation:

http://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kefa107.pdf



Q91. The Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare Dr Harsh Vardhan was recently

nominated by the Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation, GAVI as a member of

GAVI board. We will solve one question on GAVI.

Consider the following statements regarding Global Alliance for Vaccines and

Immunisation, GAVI.

1. It is an alliance of developed countries which provides finding to countries for

developing vaccine infrastructure

2. India receives support from GAVI for vaccine immunization Programmes.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect:

The GAVI Alliance (formerly the Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation) is a

global health partnership of public and private sector organizations dedicated to “immunisation for all”. It provides a unique opportunity for a wide-range of partners to

build consensus around policies, strategies, and priorities and to recommend responsibility

of implementation to the partner with the most experience and insight in the area.



GAVI, the Vaccine Alliance as part of its mission to save lives, reduce poverty and protect

the world against the threat of epidemics, has helped vaccinate more than 822 million children in the world’s poorest countries, preventing more than 14 million future

deaths.


India is providing financial assistance support to GAVI and also receiving support

from GAVI.

If we quote from PIB:

Shri Modi said India recognizes and values the work of GAVI, that is why it became a

donor to GAVI while still being eligible for GAVI support. Prime Minister said India’s support to GAVI is not only financial but that India’s huge demand also brings down the Global price of vaccines for all, saving almost 400

Million Dollars for GAVI over the past five years.

How GAVI is supporting Indi, click on this Link here.

Q92. Consider the following statements regarding AFSPA.

1. The Armed Forces Special Powers Act was enacted during priministership of Indira

Gandhi.

2. Power to declared disturbed area under AFSPA lies only with the Central

Government.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

https://www.gavi.org/programmes-impact/country-hub/south-east-asia/india



c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs recently declared Nagaland as “Disturbed Area” for the next

six months under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958.

Origin to AFSPA.

The Armed Forces Special Powers Act, 1958, had its genesis in the 1942 Lord

Linlithgow ordinance, which was enacted to curb the Quit India movement. Soon after

Independence, the country faced various secession movements. The government quickly

evoked the Armed Forces Special Powers Act: a law that was once used by the British to

curb movements of freedom struggle which saw many Indians being killed or imprisoned.

Nehru’s government passed the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (1958) in the

Indian parliament. First statement is incorrect.

Second statement is incorrect.

What is a “disturbed area” and who has the power to declare it?

A disturbed area is one which is declared by notification under Section 3 of the AFSPA. An

area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of different

religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities. The Central

Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can

declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. A suitable

notification would have to be made in the Official Gazette. As per Section 3, it can be invoked in places where “the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary”.


1. India has remained consistently a net exporter (Exporter>Importer) of agri-products

for last three years.

2. Share of agriculture sector in total exports is less than 5 percent in India.




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

Have basic idea:

First Statement is correct:

India has remained consistently a net exporter of agri-products.



Second statement is incorrect.

Q94. Consider the following statements regarding Pneumococcal disease.

1. Pneumococcal disease is an infection caused by the virus which can be spread by

droplets of infected.

2. Pneumococcal disease is a significant contributor under-five mortality rate worldwide.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Pune-based Serum Institute of India (SII) unveiled India’s first indigenously developed

pneumococcal vaccine


Pneumococcal disease is an infection caused by the bacteria Streptococcus

pneumoniae or pneumococcus. People can be infected with the bacteria, or they can

carry it in their throat, and not be ill. Those carriers can still spread it, primarily in

droplets from their nose or mouth when they breathe, cough, or sneeze.




Pneumococcal disease is a significant contributor under-five mortality rate worldwide. In

view of its widespread fatality, the World Health Organization in 2018 recommended the

inclusion of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) in routine childhood immunisation

programmes in all countries.

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/pneumosil-vaccine-pneumococcal-

disease-7124129/


1. Rajmahal Hills

2. Chota Nagpur Plateau

3. Malwa Plateau

Arrange the above geographic regions from West to East.

a. 1-3-2

b. 3-1-2

c. 3-2-1

d. 1-2-3

Solution: c

Explanation:

The correct sequence is:

Malwa Plateau- Chota Nagpur Plateau- Rajmahal Hills

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/pneumosil-vaccine-pneumococcal-disease-7124129/

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/pneumosil-vaccine-pneumococcal-disease-7124129/



Q96. Consider the following statements regarding Union Public Service Commission.

1. The President determines the number of members of the Commission and their

conditions of service.

2. The Chairman of the Commission shall be ineligible for further employment either

under the Government of India or under the Government of a State.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:



Q97. Which of the following provisions is/are present in Finance Commission

(Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951?

1. The President shall lay down recommendation made by the Finance Commission

before each House of Parliament.

2. The Commission shall have all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil

Procedure, 1908.

3. Qualification of the members of the Commission are provided in the said Act.

4. Members of Finance Commission are eligible for reappointment.


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is a part of Indian Constitution.

All others are part of the Act. See below.



Q98. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the

Constitution of India?

a. Liberty of thought

b. Economic liberty

c. Liberty of expression

d. Liberty of belief

Solution: b

Explanation:



Q99. A debt-GDP ratio that is higher than 100% may lead to

1. Faster growth of the economy

2. High tax burden in future

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. None

Solution: c

Explanation:

The question is “may lead to”, so don’t think in absolute terms. Such questions have already been asked in prelims exam. If you think in absolute terms, you can’t solve such questions.

Most countries around the world rely on sovereign debt to finance their government and

economy. When this debt is used in moderation, it can position an economy to grow more

quickly. But too much debt can lead to a number of problems.

The debt-to-GDP ratio itself is an equation with a country's gross debt in the numerator

and its gross domestic product (GDP) in the denominator.

Therefore, a debt-to-GDP ratio of 1.0 (or 100%) means that a country's debt is equal to its

gross domestic product.

Statement 1: A higher debt-to-GDP ratio is acceptable when an economy is rapidly

growing, because its future earnings will be able to pay off the debt more quickly. More

spending generates aggregate demand which will increase tax payments in future and fund

itself.



Statement 2: However, if the debt is too much and unproductive, it may not be financed by

economic growth alone, and likely to be financed by higher tax rates imposed on the

citizens

Q100. Which among the following can result in ‘demand pull inflation’?

1. Lower interest rates on bank loans

2. Increase in subsidies

3. Increase in the cost of raw material


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

Demand pull inflation is caused by increased demand in the economy, without adequate

increase in supply of output. It is mainly an outcome of excess money income with the

people. This high money income would be due to increased money supply. The situation of “too much money chasing too few goods” is an instance of demand-pull inflation.

Lower interest rate on bank loans encourages people to get more loans from loans. Thus,

increases money supply in the economy which leads to increase in demand for goods.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Increase in subsidies increase the disposable income of the households. Thus, it results in

increased money supply in economy which leads to increase in demand for goods. Hence,

statement 2 is correct.

Cost push inflation is caused by rise in the prices of inputs like power, labour, raw

materials etc. Price rise of inputs in the form of increased raw material cost, electricity

charges or wage rate (including a rise in profit margin made by the producer) results in

increased cost and ultimately to increased price of the product.

Thus, increase in the cost of raw material causes cost push inflation rather than demand

pull inflation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

quiz compilations december, part two,2020 · 2021. 1. 4. · buildings, teri has developed griha...

Documents