quiz_testing software_2

Quiz: Testing Software

Section One: Fundamentals of Testing 1. Relate column A to column B and enter the result in the column that is empty , some have the same

meaning:

A B

A. Bug 1. A test is deemed to fail if its actual result does not match its expected result.

B. Defect 2. Deviation of the component of system from its expected delivery

service or result.

C. Error 3. A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to Perform its required function, e.g. an incorrect statement or data definition. A defect, if Encountered during execution, may cause a failure of the component or system.

D. Fail 4. A human action that produces an incurred result

E. Failure 5. A factor that could result in future negative consequences usually

expressed as impact and likelihood.

F. Mistake 5. The degree to which a component, system or process meets

specified requirements and/or user/customer needs and expectations.

G. Risk

H. Quality

2. Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?

a. Preventing defects in the system. b. Finding defects through dynamic testing. c. Gaining confidence in the system. d. Finishing the project on time.

3. Describe the purpose of testing in software development :

4. Relate column A to column B and enter the result in the column that is empty:

A B

A. Debugging 1. A reason or purpose for designing and executing a test.

B. Requirement 2. The process consisting of all life cycle activities, both static and dynamic concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of software products and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements.

C. Review 3. A condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or achieve an objective that must be met or possessed by a system or system component to satisfy a contract, standard, specification, or other formally imposed document.

D. Test Basis 4. A set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results and execution post-conditions, developed for a particular objective or test condition, such as to exercise a particular program path or to verify compliance with a specific requirement.

E. Testing 5. An evaluation of a product or project status to ascertain discrepancies from planned results and to recommend improvements. Examples include management review, informal review, technical review, inspection, and walkthrough.

F. Test Objective 6. The process of finding, analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software.

G. Test Case

5. Which of the following points is not a principle of testing:

a. Exhaustive Testing is Impossible. b. Defect Clustering. c. Testing is Context Dependent. d. Maintenance Testing e. Pesticide Paradox

6. Which of the following meanings corresponds to the principle "Absence-of-Errors Fallacy":

a. Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that there are no defects. Testing reduces the probability of undiscovered defects remaining in the software but, even if no defects are found, it is not a proof of correctness.

b. Testing everything (all combinations of inputs and preconditions) is not feasible except for trivial cases. Instead of exhaustive testing, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts.

c. To find defects early, testing activities shall be started as early as possible in the software or system development life cycle, and shall be focused on defined objectives.

d. Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users’ needs and expectations.

7. Which of the following is the correct affirmation about: Confirmation Testing and Re-Testing:

a. None of the above.

b. Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or

uncovered as a result of the changes. These defects may be either in the software being tested, or

in another related or unrelated software component. It is performed when the software, or its

environment, is changed. It would be performed at all test levels, and includes functional, non-

functional and structural testing.

c. Testing of a previously tested program following modification to ensure that defects have not been

introduced or uncovered in unchanged areas of the software, as a result of the changes made. It is

performed when the software or its environment is changed.

d. B and C.

8. Which of the following is the correct affirmation about Test Condition:

a. All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

b. An item or event of a component of a system that could be verified by one or more test cases.

c. The degree, expressed as a percentage to which a specified coverage items has been exercise

by a test suite.

d. Data that exits before a test is executed, and that affects or is affected by the component or

system under test.

9. What is the purpose of Regression Testing:

a. To verify the success of corrective actions. b. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed. c. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification. d. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.

10. Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between

testers and developers?

a. Understanding what manager’s value about testing. b. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion. c. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs. d. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.

11. Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test

life cycle?

a. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing. b. Test principles only affect test execution activities. c. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review. d. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.

12. Which of the followings is the correct affirmation about Test Plan:

a. A document describing the scope, approach, resources and schedule of intended test activities. It identifies amongst others test items, the features to be tested, the testing tasks, who will do each task, degree of tester independence, the test environment, the test design techniques and entry and exit criteria to be used, and the rationale for their choice, and any risks requiring contingency planning. It is a record of the test planning process.

b. A document specifying a sequence of actions for the execution of a test. Also know as test scripts or manual scripts.

c. A several test cases for a component or system under test, where the past condition of one is often as the precondition for next one.

d. A document summarizing testing activities and results. It also contains an evaluation of the corresponding test items against exit criteria.

13. Consider the following list of test process activities:

I. Analysis and design II. Test closure activities III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting IV. Planning and control V. Implementation and execution

Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?

a. I, II, III, IV and V b. IV, I, V, III and II. c. IV, I, V, II and III. d. I, IV, V, I and II.

14. Consider the following list of test process activities:

I. Reviewing the test basis II. Identifying and prioritizing test conditions III. Identifying necessary test data to support IV. Evaluation testability on the test basis and test objects V. Designing and prioritizing high level test cases VI. Designing the test environment set-up


a. II, IV, I, and III, VI b. I, IV, II, V and III, II c. IV, V, IV , III and II d. I, IV, II, V and II, III

15. Test Implementation and Execution:

I. Developing and prioritizing test procedures II. Verifying the Environment III. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the Identities and versions of the

software IV. Finalizing, implementing and prioritizing test cases V. Creating test suites VI. Executing test procedures manually or with a tool VII. Actual results VS Expected Results


a. IV, I, V, II and VII, III b. II, I, IV, VII and III, VI c. IV, I, V, II, VI and III, VII d. I, IV, II, VI and III, VII

16. Error Guessing is a Test design technique where the experience of tester is used to anticipate what

defects might be present in the component or system under test as a result of error made and to design test specifically to expose them: This Affirmation is TRUE or FALSE?

17. Testware is an artifact produced during the test process required to plan, design and execute test as a

documentation, scripts, inputs, expected results, set-up and clear-up procedures, files, databases, environment and any additional software or utilities used in testing: This Affirmation is TRUE or FALSE?

18. The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:

I. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques II. Specify the order of test case execution

III. Analyze requirements and specifications to determine test conditions. IV. Specify expected results

According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities? a. III, I, IV, II b. III, IV, I, II c. III, II, I, IV d. II, III, I, IV

19. Which is the MAIN Objective of acceptance Testing:

a. The main objective maybe to assess system characteristics such as reliability or availability b. Finding Defects, gaining confidence about level of quality c. Often includes testing that no new defects share been introduced during development of the

changes d. Confirm that the system works as expected, to gain confidence that it has met the requirements

20. Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?

a. Test Plan b. Test Procedure Specification c. Test Case Specification d. Test Design Specification

Section Two: Testing Throughout the Software Life Cycle

1. What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle?

a. Early test analysis and design. b. Different test levels are defined with specific objectives. c. Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done. d. A and B above.

2. Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model? a. Objectives should be generic for any test level. b. Objectives are the same for each test level. c. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance. d. Each level has objectives specific to that level.

3. Which of the following is a test type? a. Component testing b. Functional testing c. System testing d. Acceptance testing

4. Which of the following is a nonfunctional quality characteristic?

a. Feasibility b. Usability c. Maintenance d. Regression

5. Which of these is a functional test?

a. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system. b. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system. c. Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the

information on the letter to the customers. d. Checking how easy the system is to use.

6. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes? a. There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this

work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process. b. Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed. c. Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been

adversely affected. d. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the

whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.

7. A regression test:

a. Is only run once. b. Will always be automated. c. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected. d. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.

8. Non-functional testing includes:

a. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly. b. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability. c. Gaining user approval for the system. d. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

9. Beta testing is:

a. Performed by customers at their own site. b. Performed by customers at the software developer's site. c. Performed by an independent test team. d. Useful to test software developed for a specific customer or user.

10. Which of the following is correct? a. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression

testing. b. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team. c. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been

fixed correctly. d. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much

regression testing to do.

11. Relate column A to column B and enter the result in the column that is empty , some have the same meaning:

A B

A. Verification 1. A development lifecycle where a project is broken into a series of increments, each of which deliver a partition of the functionality in the overall project requirements. The requirements are prioritized and delivered in priority order in the appropriate increment.

B. V-Model 2. Confirmation by examination and through provision of objective evidence that the requirements for specific intended use or application have been fulfilled.

C. Incremental Development Model

3. A software product that is developed for the general market for a large number of customers and that is derived to many customers in identical format.

D. Validation 4. Confirmation by Examination and through provision of objective evidence that specified requirements have been fulfilled.

E. COST 5. A framework to describe the software development lifecycle activities from requirements specification to maintenance. This model illustrates how testing activities can be integrated into each phase of the software development lifecycle.

12. A common type of V-Model use four test levels, which are the development levels:

13. Which of the following assessment is NOT true about the “ Characteristics of Good Testing”:

a. Is the process of establishing requirements, designing, building a testing system, and done as a series of shorter development cycles.

b. For every development activity, there is “Good Testing”. c. The Analysis and design of test for a give test level should be corresponding development activity. d. B and C.


A B

A. Beta Testing

1. A requirement that specifies a function that a component or system must perform.

B. Component Testing

2. The process of combining components or systems into large assemblies.

C. Driver

3. Testing performed to expose defects in the interface and in the interactions between integrated components or systems.

D. Functional

Requirement

4. A requirement that does not related to functionality, but to attributes such as reliability, efficiency, usability, maintainability and portability.

E. Integration

5. Operational Testing by potential and/or existing user at an external site not otherwise involved with developers, to determine whether or not a component or system satisfies the user needs and fits within the business processes. This kind of testing is employed as a form of external acceptance testing.

F. Integration Testing 6. Testing individual software components.

G. Non-Functional

Requirement

7. A software component or test tool that replaces a component that takes care of the control and/or the calling of a component or system.

H. Robustness Testing

8. A skeletal or special purpose implementation of a software component, used to develop or test a component that calls or is otherwise dependent on it. It replaces a called component.

I. Stub

9. A group of test activities that are organized and managed together. A test level is linked to the responsibilities in a project.

J. System Testing

10. An environment containing hardware, instrumentation, simulators, software tools, and other support elements needed to conduct a test.

K. Test Environment

11. The process of testing and integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.

12. Testing to determine the robustness of the software

15. The Objectives of Component Testing are:

a. Interaction between software components and is done after component testing and interaction between different systems or between hardware and software and may be done after system testing.

b. Search for defects and verifies the functioning of software modules, programs, objects, classes, that are separately testable.

c. Should investigate functional and non-functional requirements of the system, and data quality characteristics.

d. The goal is to establish confidence in the system, parts of the system or specific non-functional characteristics of the system; finding defects is not the main focus.

16. The Objectives of System Testing are:


b. Search for defects and verifies the functioning of software modules, programs, objects, classes, that are separately testable. One approach is to prepare and automat test cases before coding this common called “test-first approach or test driven-development”.



17. The Objectives of Acceptance Testing are:





18. The Objectives of Integration Testing are:






A B

A. Black-Box Testing

1. The process of testing to determine the portability of a software product.

B. Code Coverage

2. The process of testing to determine the reliability of a software product.

C. Functional Testing

3. Testing to determine the security of the software product.

D. Interoperability

Testing

4. Analysis methods that determine which part of the software have been executed by the test suit and which parts have not been executed.

E. Load Testing

5. The process of testing to determine the maintainability of a software product.

F. Maintainability Testing

6. The process of testing to determine the interoperability of a software product.

G. Performance Testing

7. Testing, either functional or non-functional without reference to the internal structure on the component system.

H. Portability Testing

8. A type of performance testing conducted to evaluate the behavior of a component or system with increasing load, e.g. numbers of parallel users/or number of transactions, to determine what load can be handled.

I. Reliability Testing

9. Testing to determine the extent to which the software product is understood, easy to operate and attractive to the users under specified conditions.

J. Stress Testing

10. The process of testing to determine the performance of a software product.

K. Usability Testing

11. Procedure to derive and / or select test cases based on an analysis of internal structure of a component or system. This test type is focused on a particular test objective, which could be any of the following: This test type is focused on a particular test objective, which could be any of the following: A function to be performed by the software A non-functional quality characteristic, such as reliability or

usability The structure or architecture of the software system

L. White-Box Testing

12. A type of performance testing conducted to evaluate a system or component at or beyond the limits of its anticipated or specified workloads, or with reduce availability or resource such as access to memory or servers.

M. Security Testing 13.

N. Structural Testing 14.


A B

A. Functional Testing

1. This kind of testing are the best used specification-based techniques, in order to help measure the thoroughness of testing through assessment of coverage of a type of structure, testing may be performed at all test levels, especially in a component testing and component integration testing tools can be used to measure the code coverage of elements, such as statements or decisions.

B. Testing of Non-Functional Software Characteristics

2. After a defect is detected and fixed, we need to confirm that

the original defect has been successfully removed. Is the repeated testing of an already tested program after

modification to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes. The extent of this kind of testing based on the risk of not finding defects in software that was working previously.

C. Testing of Software

Structure/Architecture

3. The assessment of change to the layers of development documentation, test documentation and components in order to implement a give change to specified requirements.

D. Testing Related to Changes:

Re-Testing and Regression Testing

4. This kind of testing includes, but is not limited to performance testing, load testing, stress testing, usability testing, maintainability testing, reliability testing and portability testing, the testing maybe performed at all test levels.

E. Impact Analysis

5. Testing the changes to an operational system or the impact of a changed environment to an operational system.

F. Maintenance Testing

6. The functions that a system, subsystem or component are to perform may be describes in work products such as a requirements specification, use case or a functional specification or they may be undocumented. This test are based on functions and feature and their interoperability with specific system and maybe performed at all test levels.

Section Three: Static Techniques

1. Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?

a. Software code b. Requirements specification c. Test designs d. All of the above

2. Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?

a. Gives quality information about the code without executing it. b. Checks expected results against actual results. c. Can detect memory leaks. d. Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.

3. Which is not a type of review?

a. Walkthrough b. Inspection c. Informal review d. Management approval

4. What statement about reviews is true?

a. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily. b. Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not. c. In a walkthrough, the author does not attend. d. Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained.

5. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

a. An inspection is led by the authors, whilst a walk through is led by a trained moderator. b. An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walk through has no leader. c. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs. d. A walkthrough is led by the author, whilst an inspection is led by a trained moderator.

6. Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together?

1. Led by the author 2. Undocumented 3. No management participation 4. Led by a trained moderator or leader 5. Uses entry and exit criteria

s. Inspection t. Technical review u. Informal review v. Walkthrough

a. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1 b. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1 c. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4 d. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

7. What statement about static analysis is true?

a. With static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing. b. Compiling is not a form of static analysis. c. When properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant. d. Static analysis finds all faults.

8. Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false?

1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix. 2. Early test design can find defects. 3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements. 4. Early test design takes more effort.

a. 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false. b. 2 are true. 1, 3 and 4 are false. c. 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false. d. 2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is false.

9. Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems. Which is it?

a. Unreachable code b. Undeclared variables c. Faults in the requirements d. Too few comments

10. Testing that involves the execution of the software of a component or system:

a. Static Testing b. Static Analysis c. Entry Criteria d. Dynamic Testing

11. Testing of a component or system at specification or implementation level without execution of the software:

a. Static Testing b. Static Analysis c. Entry Criteria d. Dynamic Testing

12. Which of the following statements about "reviews" is TRUE

i. Is not a way for testing software work products and cannon being performed well before the dynamic Test Execution.

ii. Defects detected during reviews early in the life cycle are often expensive to remove that those detected by running test on the execution code.

iii. Reviews are a way of testing software work products (including code) and can be performed well before dynamic test execution.

iv. Any software work product can be reviewed, including requirements, specifications, design specifications, code, test plan, test specifications, test case, test scripts, user guides or web pages.

a. i, ii b. ii, iv c. iii, iv d. i, iv

13. Which of the following statements complete the sentence: Benefits _____________ include early defect detention and correction development productivity improvements, reduced development time scales, reduce testing cost and time, lifetime cost reductions, fewer defects and improved communication.

a. Of Formal Review b. Of Inspections c. Of Reviews d. Of Entry Criteria

14. Which of the following statements complete the sentence: The set of generic conditions for

permitting a process to go forward with a defined task; e.g. test phase. The purpose of _________________ is to prevent a task from starting which would entail more effort compared to the effort needed to remove the failed.

a. Formal Review b. Inspections c. Reviews d. Entry Criteria

15. Which of the following activities is NOT part of a “Formal Review”:

a. Planning b. Checking Entry Criteria c. Kick-Off d. Inspection

16. Which of the following are most likely to enhance the formal review process?

I. Review software work products as soon as they are available and reasonably mature.

II. Ensure that reviewers have clear, predefined objectives. III. Exclude customers, managers, and outside experts to minimize impact on problem solving. IV. Make use of checklists during the review to drive the process and aid reviewers. V. Conduct reviews just before coding and dynamic testing begins to find defects early and minimize

costs of extra reviews.

a. I, III and V b. II, III and IV c. II, IV and V d. II and IV

17. Which is the correct order of the phases of a formal review:

a. Planning, Kick-off, Preparation, Review meeting, Rework, Follow-up. b. Planning, Kick-off, Review meeting, Preparation, Rework, Follow-up. c. Planning, Kick-off, Preparation, Review meeting, Follow-up, Rework. d. Planning, Preparation, Kick-off, Review meeting, Rework, Follow-up.

18. ¿In a review meeting what is a CRITICAL DEFECT? :

a. Defects could cause a downstream effect (e.g. a fault in a design can result in an error in the implementation).

b. Defects are not likely to cause downstream damage (e.g. non-compliance with the standards and templates).

c. Defects will cause downstream damage; the scope and impact of the defect is beyond the document under inspection.

d. None of the above

19. Which of the following defects are commonly found by Static Tools:

i. Detecting dependencies and inconsistence ii. Overly complicated constructs

iii. Security Vulnerabilities iv. Referencing a variable with and undefined value v. Violations in the documents and process

a. ii, iii, iv b. ii, iv, v c. i, ii, iv d. i, v


A B

A. Entry Criteria

1. A type of peer review that relies on visual examination of documents to detect defects, e.g. violations of development standards and non-conformance t higher level documentation. The most formal review technique and therefore always based on a document procedure.

B. Formal Review

2. The person who records each defect mentioned and any suggestions for process improvement during a review meeting, on a logging form. The main purpose of this role is to be ensuring that the logging form is readable and understandable.

C. Informal Review

3. A review of a software work product by colleagues of the producer of the product fit the purpose of identifying defects and improvements. Examples: inspection, technical review and walkthrough.

D. Inspection 4. A review not based on a formal (documented) procedure initiating.

E. Moderator

5. The set of generic and specific conditions for permitting a process to go forward with a defined task; The purpose is to prevent a task from starting which would entail more effort compared to the effort needed to remove the failed.

F. Peer Review 6. A review characterized by documented procedures and

requirements, e.g. Inspection.

G. Reviewer 7. The leader and main person responsible for an inspection or other

review process.

H. Scribe 8. A software tool that translates programs expressed in a high order

language into their machine language equivalents.

I. Technical Review 9. An abstract representation of the sequence and possible changes

of the state of data objects, where the state of an object is any of: creation, usage pr destruction.

J. Walkthrough 10. Analysis of software artifacts, e.g. requirements or code, carried

out without execution of these software development artifacts. Is usually carried out by means of supporting tool.

K. Compiler 11. The degree to which a component or system has a design and/or

internal structure that is difficult to understand maintain and verify.

L. Complexity 12. A peer group discussion activity that focuses on achieving

consensus on the technical approach to be taken.

M. Control Flow

13. The person involved in the review that identifies and describes anomalies in the product or project under review. This person can be chosen to represents different viewpoints and roles, in the review process.

N. Data Flow 14. A step-by-step presentation by the author of a document in order

together information and to establish a common understanding of its content.

O. Static Analysis 15. A sequence of events (paths) in the execution through a

component or system.

Section Four: Test Design Techniques

1. In which document described in IEEE 829 would you find instructions for the steps to be taken for a test including set-up, logging, environment and measurement?

a. Test plan b. Test design specification c. Test case specification d. Test procedure specification

2. With a highly experienced tester with a good business background, which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time pressure?

a. A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take. b. Every step in the test spelled out in detail. c. A high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another

experienced tester. d. Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing.

3. Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for the test execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a database.

1. Print modified customer record. 2. Change customer address: house number and street name. 3. Capture and print the on-screen error message. 4. Change customer address: postal code. 5. Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record. 6. Close the customer record and close the database. 7. Try to add a new customer with no details at all.

a. 5,4, 2,1, 3, 7, 6 b. 4,2,5,1,6,7,3 c. 5,4,2,1,7,3,6 d. 5,1, 2, 3,4, 7, 6

4. Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?

a. They find different types of defect. b. Using more techniques is always better. c. Both find the same types of defect. d. Because specifications tend to be unstructured.

5. What is a key characteristic of structure-based testing techniques?

a. They are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification. b. They are used both to measure coverage and to design tests to increase coverage. c. They are based on the skills and experience of the tester. d. They use a formal or informal model of the software or component.

6. Which of the following would be an example of decision-table testing for a financial application applied at the system-test level?

a. A table containing rules for combinations of inputs to two fields on a screen. b. A table containing rules for interfaces between components. c. A table containing rules for mortgage applications. d. A table containing rules for chess.

7. Which of the following could be a coverage measure for state transition testing?

V. All states have been reached. W. The response time for each transaction is adequate. X. Every transition has been exercised. Y. All boundaries have been exercised. Z. Specific sequences of transitions have been exercised.

a. X,YandZ b. V, X, Y and Z c. W,XandY d. V, X and Z

8. Postal rates for 'light letters' are 25p up to l0g, 35p up to 50g plus an extra l0p for each additional

25g up to l00g. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using equivalence partitioning?

a. 8,42,82,102 b. 4,15, 65, 92,159 c. 10,50,75,100 d. 5, 20, 40, 60, 8

9. Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for specification based (black-box) test techniques?

V. Decision outcomes exercised W. Partitions exercised X. Boundaries exercised Y. State transitions exercised Z. Statements exercised

a. V, W, Y or Z b. W, X or Y c. V, X or Z d. W, X, Y or Z

10. Which of the following structure based test design technique would be most likely to be applied to?

1. Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands. 2. An invalid transition between two different arrears^ statuses. 3. The business process flow for mortgage approval. 4. Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.

a. 2, 3 and 4 b. 2 and 4 c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

11. Use case testing is useful for which of the following?

P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers. Q. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested. R. Finding defects in the interaction between components. S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field. T Identifying the percentage

of statements exercised by sets of tests.

a. P, Q and R b. Q, S and T c. P, Q and S d. R, S and T

12. Which of the following statements about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is correct?

a. 100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 90%. b. 100% statement coverage is achieved if decision coverage is greater than 90%. c. 100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage. d. 100% statement coverage always means 100% decision coverage.

13. If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the airline's frequent flier program. If you don't hold a gold card, there is a possibility that you will get 'bumped' off the flight if it is full and you checking in late. This is shown in Figure. Note that each box (i.e. statement) has been numbered. Three tests have been run:

Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight

What is the statement coverage of these three tests?

a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90%

14. Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?

a. They can find defects missed by specification based and structure-based techniques. b. They don't require any training to be as effective as formal techniques. c. They can be used most effectively when there are good specifications. d. They will ensure that all of the code or system is tested.

15. How do experience-based techniques differ from specification-based techniques?

a. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a

documented record of what the system should do. b. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers. c. They depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an

individual's personal view. d. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what the

system should do.

16. When choosing which technique to use in a given situation, which factors should be taken into account?

U. previous experience of types of defects found in this or similar systems V. the existing knowledge of the testers W. regulatory standards that apply X. the type of test execution tool that will be used Y. the documentation available Z. previous experience in the development language

a. V, W, Y and Z b. U, V, W and Y c. U, X and Y d. V, W and Y

17. Given the state diagram in Figure 2, which test case is the minimum series of valid transitions to cover every state?

a. SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-ES b. SS-S1-S2-S3-S4-ES c. SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-S4-S1-S3-ES d. SS-S1-S4-S2-S1-S3-ES

Section Five: Test Management

1. Why is independent testing important?

a. Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work. b. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects. c. Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used. d. Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.

2. Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?

a. Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models. b. Handle all test automation duties. c. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers. d. Gather and report test progress metrics.

3. According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?

a. A test manager manages a collection of test leaders. b. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams. c. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader. d. A test manager reports to a test leader.

4. What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?

a. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.

b. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests.

c. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two.

d. The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.

5. Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?

a. Geographical separation of tester and programmers. b. The departure of the test manager during the project. c. The quality of the information used to develop the tests. d. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.

6. The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning

occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?

a. Test tasks b. Environmental needs c. Exit criteria d. Test team training

7. Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan:

I. No known customer-critical defects.

II. All interfaces between components tested. III. 100% code coverage of all units. IV. All specified requirements satisfied. V. System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules.

Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?

a. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan. b. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan. c. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan. d. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.

8. According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?

a. A group of test activities that are organized together. b. One or more test design specification documents. c. A test type. d. An ISTQB certification.

9. Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?

a. Percentage of test cases written. b. Number of test environments remaining to be configured. c. Number of defects found and fixed. d. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.

10. In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, 'The payment

processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?

a. Evaluation b. Summary of activities c. Variances d. Incident description

Section Six: Tool Support for Testing

1. Which tools help to support static testing?

a. Static analysis tools and test execution tools. b. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools. c. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools. b. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools.

2. Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?

a. Test management and control. c. Test specification and design. d. Test execution and logging. e. Performance and monitoring.

3. What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?

a. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing. b. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment. c. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary. d. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.

4. What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?

a. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much. b. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been

purchased. c. The tool may find defects that aren't there. e. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.

5. Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?

a. Data-driven and keyword-driven b. Data-driven and capture-driven c. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven d. Playback-driven and keyword-driven

6. Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?

a. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses. b. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization. c. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria. e. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.

7. Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation? a. Decide which tool to acquire. b. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool. c. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects. d. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.

quiz_testing software_2

Documents