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Railway Recruitment Board
GROUP D
Model Question Paper with Answer Key - 1
1. Who has won the World Rapid Chess Championship – 2017 by defeating Russia’s Vladimir
Fedoseev in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia on December 28, 2017?
a. Vladimir Kramnik
b. Fabiano Caruana
c. Viswanathan Anand
d. None of the above
2. Name the founder and executive chairman of the world Economic Forum (WEF)?
a. Jim Yong Kim
b. Christine Lagarde
c. Roberto Azevedo
d. Klaus Schwab
3. Who has been named PETA’s Person of the year by animal rights organization People for Ethical
Treatment of Animals?
a. Priyanka Chopra
b. Deepika Padukone
c. Anushka Sharma
d. None of the above
4. Who is the new President of the Indian Council of Cultural Relations (ICCR)?
a. Vinay Sahasrabuddhe
b. Banwarilal Purohit
c. Vajubhai Vala
d. C Vidyasagar Rao
5. Who was appointed as Joint Secretary in Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (PMEAC)?
a. Bibke Debroy
b. Rajiv Kumar
c. N K Singh
d. Sumita Misra
6. Who is the author book “Age of Anger: A History of the Present”?
a. Salman Rushdie
b. Arundhati Roy
c. Vikram Seth
d. Pankaj Mishra
7. Which country uses “Bhat” as its currency?
a. Japan
b. Thailand
c. South Korea
d. Malaysia
8. Find the incorrect pair? (International Organization and Head Quarters)
a. UNICEF: New York
b. UNESCO: Paris
c. UNCTAD: Geneva
d. UNIDO: Brussels
9. Keoladeo National Park is located in which state?
a. Gujarat
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b. Rajasthan
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Karnataka
10. National Democratic Alliance (NDA) was founded in
a. 1998
b. 1999
c. 2000
d. 2001
11. National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) is located in which state?
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Gujarat
c. Haryana
d. Madhya Pradesh
12. The world’s tallest and longest glass bridge has opened in which country?
a. Russia
b. China
c. Japan
d. Brazil
13. The National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM) is a trade association
of Indian Information Technology (IT) and Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) industry. The
Headquarters of NASSCOM is in
a. New Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Kolkata
d. Chennai
14. Which of the following organization published the ‘Crime in India 2016’ report?
a. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
b. Central Industrial Security Force (CIFS)
c. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
d. National Investigation Agency (NIA)
15. Winter Olympic Games 2018 will be held in
a. Vancouver, Canada
b. Sochi, Russia
c. Pyeonchang, South Koprea
d. Tokyo, Japan
16. The 2018 ASEAN-India Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (6-7 January 2018) was held in
a. Jakarta
b. Manila
c. Bangkok
d. Singapore
17. What is the theme of 105th Indian Science Congress (ISC) 2018?
a. Innovations in Science & Technology for Inclusive Development
b. Science & Technology for Human Development
c. Science & Technology for National Development
d. Reaching the Unreached through Science & Technology
18. Who is George Weah?
a. The President-elect of Liberia
b. The President-elect of Zimbabwe
c. The President-elect of Nigeria
d. The President-elect of South Africa
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19. International Yoga Day is observed on
a. May 31
b. June 21
c. July 11
20. The largest commercial bank in Germany?
a. BNP Paribas
b. HSBC
c. Deutsche Bank
d. DBS Bank
21. Which India city becomes the first Indian city to have its own logo?
a. New Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Kolkata
d. Bengaluru
22. Which bank has introduced first ATM in India?
a. HSBC
b. ICICI Bank
c. HDFC Bank
d. SBI
23. Which of the following country is the first country in the world to enforce equal pay for women
and men?
a. Iceland
b. Norway
c. Australia
d. Sweden
24. The venue of 2018 Commonwealth Games?
a. New Delhi
b. Glasgow
c. Gold Coast
d. Birmingham
25. National girl child day is celebrated every year on
a. 9th January
b. 12th January
c. 24th January
d. 25th January
e. None of these
Directions (26-30): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
26. 92 x 576 ÷ 2 √1296 = (?)3 + √49
a. 3
b. 92
c. 9
d. 27
e. None of these
27. 1
6 Of 92% of 1
1
23 of (650) = 85 +?
a. 18
b. 21
c. 19
d. 28
e. None of these
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28. (15 x 0.40)4 ÷ (1080 ÷ 30)4 x (27 x8)4 = (3 x 2)?+5
a. 8
b. 3
c. 12
d. 16
e. None of these
29. 3 1
4 + 2
1
2 – 1
5
6 =
?2
10 +1
5
12
a. 25
b. √5
c. 625
d. 51
e. 5
30. (√8 x √8)1/2 +(9)1/2 = ?3
a. 7
b. 19
c. 18
d. 9
e. None of these
Directions (31-35): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
31. – (4.99)3 + (29.98)2 – (3.01)4 =?
a. 550
b. 590
c. 620
d. 650
e. 690
32. 5466.97 – 3245.01 + 1122.99 =? + 2309.99
a. 1130
b. 1000
c. 1100
d. 1030
e. 1060
33. 5998 ÷ 9.98 + 670.99 – 139.99 =?
a. 700
b. 720
c. 770
d. 800
e. 1130
34. 67.99% of 1401 – 13.99% of 1299=?
a. 700
b. 720
c. 770
d. 800
e. 740
35. (24
9)2x
399
39 ÷
899
41 =?
a. 1600
b. 1650
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c. 1700
d. 1550
e. 1750
Directions (36-40): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
36. 112 119 140 175 224 ?
a. 277
b. 276
c. 287
d. 266
e. None of these
37. 12 35 81 173 357 ?
a. 725
b. 715
c. 726
d. 736
e. None of these
38. 3 100 297 594 991 ?
a. 1489
b. 1479
c. 1478
d. 1498
e. None of these
39. 13 20 39 78 145 ?
a. 234
b. 244
c. 236
d. 248
e. None of these
40. 1 7 49 343 ?
a. 16807
b. 1227
c. 2058
d. 2401
e. None of these
Directions (41-45): In the following questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations.
a. If x > y
b. If x ≥ y
c. If x < y
d. If x ≤ y
e. If x = y or the relationship
41. I. (x7/5 ÷ 9) = 169 ÷ x3/5
II. y1/4 x y1/4 x 7 = 273 ÷ y1/2
42. I. (2)5+ (11)3
6 = x3
II. 4y3 = - (589 ÷ 4) + 5y3
43. I. √1225x + √4900
II. (81)1/4y + (343)1/3 = 0
44. I. (18/x2) + (6/x) – (12/x2) = (8/x2)
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II. y3 + 9.68 + 5.64 = 16.95
45. 12x2 + 11x +12 = 10x2 + 22x
II. 13y2 – 18y + 3 = 9y2 -10y
46. The ratio between the present ages of Ram, Rohan and Raj is 3: 4: 5. If the average of their
present ages is 28 years, what would be the sum of the ages of Ram and Rohan together after 5
years?
a. 45 years
b. 55 years
c. 52 years
d. 59 years
e. None of these
47. Raman scored 456 marks in an exam and seeta got 54% mark sin the same exam, which is 24
marks less than Raman. If the minimum passing marks in the exam is 34%, how much more marks
did Raman score than the minimum passing marks?
a. 184
b. 196
c. 190
d. 180
e. None of these
48. The cost of five chairs and three tables is Rs.3110. Cost of one chair is Rs.210 less than cost of
one table. What is the cost of two tables and two chairs?
a. Rs.1660
b. Rs.1860
c. Rs.2600
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these
49. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 ½ minutes and 45 minutes. Both pipes are opened. The
cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after.
a. 5 min
b. 9 min
c. 10 min
d. 15 min
50. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per minute.
All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is
a. 60 gallons
b. 100 gallons
c. 120 gallons
d. 180 gallons
Directions (51-55): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
10 persons (5 males A, B, C, D and E and 5 females V, W, X, Y and Z) are sitting in a circle at
equidistance from each other but not necessarily in the same order. Some are facing away from the
centre. Out of 5 males, there are three men and two boys, ad out of 5 females there are three women
and two girls. Both those two boys and two girls are facing opposite to the centre of the circle where
as other 6 persons are facing towards the centre of the circle.
V is the fourth to the left of Y, who is third to the right of A. C is second to the right of E, who is not
seated adjacent to W. there are three persons between X and C. D is second to the left of Z and
facing centre of the circle. There are four persons between A and W, and both are facing each other.
X is second to the left of B. V is facing opposite to the centre of the circle. More than three males or
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females are not sitting together, not more than two persons, who are facing opposite to the centre
of the circle are sitting together.
51. Who are those two girls facing opposite to the centre of the circle?
a. X and Z
b. Y and V
c. W and X
d. Y and W
52. Which of the following persons is/are not sitting between two females?
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. Both A and D
53. What is the position of V with respect to E?
a. 5th to right
b. 4th to right
c. 5th to left
d. Both 1 and 3
54. Who are those two boys facing opposite to the centre of the circle?
a. C and B
b. B and A
c. C and E
d. Can’t be determined
55. How many persons are sitting between D and B?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
Directions (56-58): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Five persons A, B, C, D and E are being compared in weight and height. The second heaviest person
D is the shortest. A is shorter than only E. the heaviest person is the third tallest person. There is only
one person shorter than B and there is only one person who is heavier than B and lighter than E.
56. Who is the heaviest person?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
57. What is the position of A in height and weight respectively?
a. 2nd, 4th
b. 4th, 3rd
c. 2nd, 1st
d. 5th, 3rd
58. What is the position of B in height and weight respectively?
a. 2nd, 4th
b. 4th, 5th
c. 2nd, 1st
d. 5th, 3rd
59. In a certain code SPORADIC is written as QNORDJEB. How is TROUBLES written in that code?
a. SQTNTFMC
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b. TNQSEDKA
c. TNQSTFMC
d. TFQSCMFT
60. If ‘White’ is called ‘Red’, ‘Red’ is called ‘Blue’, ‘Blue’ is called ‘Yellow’, ‘Yellow’ is called ‘Black’,
‘Black’ is called ‘Green’ and ‘Green’ is called ‘Grey’, then what is the colour of the Sky?
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Grey
61. In a certain code language ‘TONIC’ is coded as ‘CINOT’ and ‘SCALE’ is coded as ‘ACELS’. In the
same code language, ‘PLANK’ will coded as
a. KNALP
b. AKNLP
c. AKLNP
d. AKPNL
62. In a certain language ‘GUST’ is coded as ‘@7$2’, ‘SNIP’ is coded as ‘957#’ and ‘GAPE’ is coded as
‘β$35’. How will ‘SING’ be coded in the same code?
a. 9$7#
b. 59$#
c. 9β7$
d. 7$59
Directions (63-66): In a certain code, ‘ze lo ka gi’ is a code for ‘must save money’, ‘fe ka so ni’ is a
code for ‘he made good money’, ‘ni lo da so’ is a code for ‘he must be good’ and ‘we so ze da’, is a
code for ‘be good save grace’.
63. Which of the following is the code for ‘must’?
a. So
b. Da
c. Lo
d. Ni
64. What does he code ‘ze’ stand for?
a. Some
b. Must
c. Grace
d. Save
65. Which of the following is the code for ‘good’?
a. So
b. We
c. Ze
d. Lo
e. Fe
66. ‘Grace of money’ may be coded as?
a. Ka da fe
b. We ka so
c. Ja da we
d. Ka we yo
67. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother”. How
is Suresh related to that boy?
a. Brother
b. Uncle
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c. Cousin
d. Father
68. If A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
a. Brother
b. Sister
c. Nephew
d. Cannot be determined
69. Introducing a boy, a girl said “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle”. How is the
boy related to the girl?
a. Brother
b. Nephew
c. Uncle
d. Son-in-law
70. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages
three years ago?
a. 71 years
b. 72 years
c. 74 years
d. 77 years
71. An institute organised a fete and 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys participated in the same.
What fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete?
a. 2/13
b. 13/40
c. Data inadequate
d. None of these
72. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence: 1). Key 2). Door 3). Lock 4). Room 5).
Switch on
a. 5 1 2 4 3
b. 4 2 1 5 3
c. 1 3 2 4 5
d. 1 2 3 5 4
73. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence 1). Police 2). Punishment 3). Crime 4).
Judge 5). Judgement
a. 3 1 2 4 5
b. 1 2 4 3 5
c. 5 4 3 2 1
d. 3 1 4 5 2
74. Choose the word which is different from the rest
a. Chicken
b. Snake
c. Swan
d. Crocodile
75. Choose the word which is different from the rest
a. Kiwi
b. Eagle
c. Emu
d. Ostrich
76. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
a. Tungsten
b. Nichrome
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c. Graphite
d. Iron
77. Diamond is an allotropic form of
a. Germanium
b. Carbon
c. Silicon
d. Sulphur
78. In fireworks, the green flame is produced because of
a. Sodium
b. Barium
c. Mercury
d. Potassium
79. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding
a. Chlorine
b. Washing soda
c. Potassium permanganate
d. Bleaching powder
80. Marsh gas is
a. Nitrogen
b. Ethane
c. Methane
d. Hydrogen
81. LPG consists of mainly
a. Methane, ethane and hexane
b. Ethane, hexane and nonane
c. Methane, hexane and nonane
d. Methane, butane and propane
82. Air is a/an
a. Compound
b. Element
c. Electrolyte
d. Mixture
83. Production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas which is proposed to be banned in India, is used in
which of the following domestic products?
a. Television
b. Refrigerator
c. Tube light
d. Cooking gas
84. Balloons are filled with
a. Nitrogen
b. Helium
c. Oxygen
d. Argon
85. Which of the following does not contain a coinage metal?
a. Silver and gold
b. Zinc and gold
c. Copper and silver
d. Copper and gold
86. Which metal pollute the air of a big city?
a. Copper
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b. Chromium
c. Lead
d. Cadmium
87. Bell metals is an alloy of
a. Nickel and copper
b. Zinc and copper
c. Brass and nickel
d. Tin and copper
88. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts because
a. It has a high specific heat
b. It has no colour
c. It has a high dipole moment
d. It has a high boiling point
89. Which of the following is not an isotope of hydrogen?
a. Tritium
b. Deuterium
c. Protium
d. Yttrium
90. The main constituents of pearls are
a. Calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
b. Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
c. Aragonite and conchiolin
d. Ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
91. Amalgams are
a. Highly coloured alloys
b. Alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents
c. Alloys which have great resistance to abrasion
d. Alloys which contain carbon
92. Which of the following is the lightest metal?
a. Mercury
b. Lithium
c. Lead
d. Silver
93. Which of the following metals remain in liquid for under normal conditions?
a. Radium
b. Zinc
c. Uranium
d. Mercury
94. Potassium Permanganate is used for purifying drinking water, because
a. It is a sterilising agent
b. It dissolves the impurities of water
c. It is a reducing agent
d. It is an oxidising agent
95. Which of the following is an element?
a. Ruby
b. Sapphire
c. Emerald
d. Diamond
96. Fishes are a good source of
a. Lipids
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b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. Protein
97. The process of taking food into the body is called
a. Absorption
b. Assimilation
c. Digestion
d. Ingestion
98. The mode of nutrition in amoeba is
a. Halophytic
b. Holozoic
c. Parasitic
d. Saprophytic
99. The food vacuole in amoeba is
a. Plasma membrane
b. Vacuole
c. Food vacuole
d. Pseudopodia
100. Amoeba sent out undigested food from the body through
a. Food foot
b. Contractile vacuole
c. False foot
d. Body surface
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Answers:
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. C
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. E
30. E
31. E
32. D
33. E
34. C
35. A
36. C
37. A
38. E
39. D
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. A
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. D
54. A
55. C
56. C
57. A
58. B
59. C
60. C
61. C
62. A
63. C
64. D
65. A
66. D
67. D
68. D
69. A
70. A
71. C
72. C
73. D
74. A
75. B
76. A
77. B
78. B
79. B
80. C
81. D
82. D
83. B
84. B
85. B
86. C
87. D
88. C
89. D
90. B
91. B
92. B
93. D
94. D
95. D
96. D
97. D
98. D
99. D
100. D