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CSB, Ph:044-24323346 |WWW.CSBINDIA.COM| SBI CLERK (PRE) EXAM“2014”/Page-201

WRITTEN EXAMINATION STRUCTURE

Sr. No.

Name of Tests (Objective)

No. of Questions

Maximum Marks

Allotted Time By SBI

1. English Language 30 30 20 minutes

2. Numerical Ability 35 35 20 minutes

3. Reasoning Ability 35 35 20 minutes

Total 100 100 60 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS

(1) All the sections are available in English only, and the time suggested above for each test is not for guidance, you have to follow the above mentioned time.

(2) Do not use calculators, or any electronic medium for calculations. You may take a clean sheet of paper for rough work and all calculations must be performed manually by the candidate.

(3) There will be penalty for wrong answer marked by you in the objective tests. There are five alternatives in every question of a test.

(4) For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, 1/4 or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by you, there will be no penalty for that question.

(5) There will be a cut off for each section and an overall cut off as well. Hence, your aim should be to answer maximum number of attempts in all three sections.


TEST-I ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Qs.1 to 10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Last week, Amazon founder and chief executive officer Jeff Bezos tweeted a request for ideas on philanthropic strategy. He noted that much of his work- through Amazon and The Washington Post, for example – was designed for impact in the long term. But for his philanthropic activities, he was interested in working at the intersection of urgent need and lasting impact. His tweet has since received thousands of responses, many from social enterprises looking for funding, but also from economists and development professionals advising Bezos on how best to channel his resources. This is an important conversation – one Indian philanthropist would do well to follow. Indian philanthropy, especially individual philanthropy, is at a critical point. According to Bain’s “India Philanthropy Report 2017”, India’s philanthropy market has “matured” considerably, particularly when it comes to contributions from individual philanthropists. Indeed, the report finds that the amount of funds coming from individual philanthropists has gown six fold in the past five years, from Rs.6,000 crore in 2011 to Rs.36,000 crore in 2016. Contributions from individual philanthropists have also grown faster than those coming from any other source, such as foreign aid, or from corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities. The Bain report estimates that India will be short by Rs.533 trillion if it’s to achieve its UN-mandated Sustainable Development Goals by 2030. Individual philanthropists can play an important role in bridging the gap. Funding trends for the development sector are already moving in that direction. In 2016, private donations made up 32% of total contributions to the development sector compared to just 15% in 2011. The government, of course, is still the largest contributor- in 2016, it spent Rs.1.5 trillion in the development sector – but its share in the funding pie is declining steadily and its profile is being renegotiated as philanthropic foundations take on a greater role in driving development initiatives. For these initiatives to be effectively realized, the focus has to go beyond the quantum of philanthropy to asking how and where those rupees can be leveraged for maximum impact. From the government’s point of view, this means preparing the ground for greater collaboration with philanthropic foundations. This is already happening at the local level but there’s more scope for cooperation with the Centre. The government also has a role in ensuring transparency and accountability - a Dalberg study found that India has been unable to leverage the philanthropic potential of its diaspora because the latter perceives the development sector to be corrupt and inefficient, and is overwhelmed by regulatory constraints and unfavourable tax policies. From the donor’s point of view, the crux of effective philanthropy needs to be designed for maximum impact. First, a potential donor needs to decide where he wants his money to be spent-education, healthcare, disaster relief, public policy, arts and culture, etc. In India, a 2013 study by McKinsey found, there are at least 50 sub-sectors that suffer from a funding gap but donor efforts are focused on just seven to 10 sub-sectors, such as disaster relief and primary health and education. In comparison, in the US, where the philanthropy sector is more developed, donor resources cover a wider range of sub-sectors such as public affairs and environment, even though education and healthcare still get the lion’s share of funding. 1. Why according to the passage, Jeff Bezos required ideas on philanthropic strategies?

(1) He wanted his work-through Amazon and The Washington Post to be designed for impact in the long term.

(II) He was more concerned about his philanthropic contributions as he felt the urgency and long term impacts of these activities.

(III) He wanted the best ideas from economists and professionals already working in this field.


(1) Only (I) is correct (2) Only (II) is correct (3) Both (I) and (III) are correct (4) Both (II) and (III) are correct (5) All are correct

2. Which of the following statements justify the state of maturity of India’s philanthropy market? (I) There is a six-fold increment in the amount of contribution from individual philanthropists

in the past five years. (II) Individual philanthropists have shown a tremendous growth in their contributions as

compared to foreign aid and Corporate Social Responsibility activities. (III) It is expected to fulfill the UN-mandated Sustainable Development goals by 2030 if

continues to follow the same development pattern. (1) Only (I) is correct (2) Only (II) is correct (3) Only (III) is correct (4) Both (I) and (II) are correct (5) All are correct

3. Which of the following is not correct about India’s Un-mandated Development Goals?

(1) India may end up with the deficiency of Rs.533 trillion by 2030. (2) The private donations to the development sector have almost doubled since 2011. (3) Individual philanthropists could play a crucial role in achieving the desired target of UN-

mandated Development goals. (4) Despite being the largest contributor to the development sector, the government’s grant is

contracting steadily every year. (5) All are correct

4. How according to the passage development initiatives could be efficiently accomplished?

(I) The focus should shift beyond the quantum of philanthropy to asking how and where those rupees can be utilized for maximum impact.

(II) The government should extend its association with philanthropic foundations. (III) The government should ensure transparency and accountability to attain the philanthropic

potential of its diaspora. (1) Only (I) is correct (2) Only (II) is correct (3) Both (I) and (II) are correct (4) Both (II) and (III) are correct (5) All are correct

5. How according to the passage a potential donor could help in the development of philanthropy

sector? (I) A potential donor should know where he wants his money to be spent-education,

healthcare, disaster relief, public policy, arts and culture, etc. to implement the maximum impact of his donation.

(II) It is important that donors consider the design and impact of their philanthropic activities and the intersection with development activities carefully.

(III) A potential donor should work in collaboration with the government to ensure the proper leverage of his donation.

(1) Only (I) is correct (2) Only (III) is correct (3) Both (I) and (II) are correct (4) Both (II) and (III) are correct (5) All are correct


6. Which of the following words expresses the tone of the author in writing the passage? (1) Encouraging (2) Evasive (3) Critical (4) Ironic (5) Scornful

For (Qs.7 & 8): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words given in bold as used in passage. 7. Crux

(1) Grief (2) Source (3) Essence (4) Urgency (5) Stew 8. Sustainable

(1) Tenable (2) Ordinary (3) Sufficient (4) Adequate (5) Satisfactory Directions (Qs.9 to 13): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 9. (1) For he cannot do / (2) a lot of work/ (3) at a time he rejects/ (4) many offers./ (5) No error 10. (1) Bobby intends/ (2) to leave/ (3) the city/ (4) with bag and baggage./ (5) No error 11. (1) Avinash is not so/ (2) good a batsman to/ (3) be selected for the/ (4) national cricket team./

(5) No error 12. (1) The patient recover/ (2) so fast that/ (3) the expert doctors/ (4) also were surprised./ (5) No

error 13. (1) The book is written/ (2) in a simple and/ (3) lucid manner with a/ (4) number of well-

drawned illustrations./ (5) No error Directions (Qs.14 to 18): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) Yet, the impact of such a loss on the stability of the ice shelf itself may not be benign. (B) The dramatic but inevitable calving of a trillion-ton iceberg from the Larsen C Ice Shelf in

Antarctica raises the question, did a warming atmosphere have a significant impact on the process?

(C) Such fears are based on the unambiguous data on the thinning of the Larsen Ice Shelf. (D) Researchers said in 2003 that Antarctic Peninsula ice shelves retreated each year since 1980 by

about 300 sq.km. (E) Scientists from Project MIDAS, a U.K-based Antarctic research project that has been looking at

the ice shelf for many years, have said the formation of icebergs is natural, and no link to human-induced climate change was available in this case.

(F) Should it disintegrate, glaciers normally feeding into the floating shelf may have nothing to restrain them, and could then contribute to sea level rise, possibly at a slow rate.

14. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B (2) F (3) A (4) E (5) C

15. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (1) A (2) D (3) B (4) E (5) F


16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (1) B (2) F (3) D (4) C (5) E

17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F (2) E (3) A (4) B (5) C

18. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement? (1) D (2) A (3) B (4) F (5) E

Directions (Qs.19 to 22): In each of the following questions given below there are two blanks, each blank indicates that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits to the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 19. Women do a lot of _____ between chores, children and professional duties and it can lead to

mental and physical _____. (1) charging, tension (2) service, panic (3) coordination, dread (4) balancing, stress (5) regulation, unease

20. Given the increasing pressures on environment as well as food and water resources, _____ arguments would on balance appear increasingly to favour a ______ towards vegetarianism. (1) sensible, swing (2) rational, trend (3) stable, stream (4) reasonable, bearing (5) credible, tide

21. The more important skill is the _____ with which she proceeds to prepare tea for me the moment I _____ into their home. (1) readiness, tread (2) touch, mash (3) expertness, jump (4) setup, move (5) skill, break

22. The _____ of Tamil Nadu fishermen’s rights in waters around the islet in the _____ of the 1976

agreement indicates Sri Lanka’s right is not absolute. (1) report, explanation (2) reiteration, preamble (3) relation, influx (4) imitation, prelude (5) rhythm, survey

Directions (Qs.23 to 25): In the following questions, a sentence has been given with some of its parts in bold. To make the sentence grammatically correct, you have to replace the bold part with the correct alternative given below. If the sentence is correct as it is, give (5) as your answer (i.e. No correction required). 23. Even less intelligent students can be succeeded through hard work and perseverance.

(1) get succession (2) be successfully (3) get success (4) be getting succeeded (5) No correction required

24. Rahul as well as his friends talk more than others.

(1) talk more than (2) has been talking much more than (3) talks more than others (4) have talked (5) No correction required


25. Being a man of principle, he refused to follow the illegitimate instructions. (1) following the illegitimate (2) to following the illegitimately (3) to follow the illegitimately (4) Not to follow the illegitimately (5) No correction required

Directions (Qs.26 to 30): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete. The floods that have …(26)… parts of eastern and western India, leaving at least 600 people dead and displacing thousands, highlight the need for a massive capacity-building programme to …(27)… with frequent, destructive weather events. A monsoon deluge is not an uncommon occurrence in the subcontinent, and there is considerable variability in the duration and frequency of rainfall in different regions. Moreover, there is a clear trend of even drought-prone regions in Gujarat and Rajasthan …(28)… floods, in addition to the traditional axis covering States along the Brahmaputra and the Ganga. What people in the flood-hit regions expect of governments is speedy relief and rehabilitation. …(29)… financial losses is crucial for a return to normality, and the Centre has announced a solatium for the next of kin of those who have died. But there are other actions people need on the ground; short-term housing, food, safe water, access to health care and protection for women, children and the elderly. Given the weak foundations of social …(30)… in policymaking, these factors have a/an aggravating impact during natural calamities. 26. (1) exploited (2) rotted (3) ravaged (4) weaken (5) scorched 27. (1) worry (2) deal (3) treat (4) consider (5) look 28. (1) vilifying (2) provoking (3) slandering (4) encountering (5) abiding 29. (1) Alleviating (2) abetting (3) succoring (4) Amending (5) sustaining 30. (1) practice (2) gratitude (3) incite (4) support (5) urge


Total income = Rs.15,000

Jan8% Feb

12%

May20%

Jun24%

Apr20%

Mar16%

TEST-II NUMERICAL ABILITY

31. Man sold article A in 100% profit and article B in 20% profit. If selling price of article A and

article B is same then find his overall profit percentage (1) 40% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 60% (5) 75%

32. Present average ages of a couple is 29 years. After 2 years and 4 years respectively a boy child and a girl child is born. Find the average age of family after 8 year of present time? (1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 21 (5) 22

33. Satish invested Rs.14,000 partially in scheme A which offer 20% p.a at C.I. and remaining in scheme B which offer 25% p.a at S.I. Find the amount invested in scheme B if total interest earns after 2 years is Rs.6640. (1) Rs.6000 (2) Rs.7000 (3) Rs.8000 (4) Rs.9000 (5) Rs.10,000

34. A train can cross a platform of 100 m length completely in 12 seconds while covers a platform of

double of its length in 21 seconds. Find the speed of the train? (in m/s) (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 20 (5) 24

35. Pipe A and pipe B together can fill the tank in 12 minutes while pipe A, pipe B and pipe C together can fill the tank in 15 minutes and Pipe B and Pipe C together can fill the tank in 30 minutes. In how many minutes pipe A alone can fill the tank completely (in minutes) (1) 20 (2) 60 (3) 40 (4) 30 (5) 50

Directions (Qs.36 to 40): Pie-chart given below shows total income of Sandeep in six different months and percentage distribution in these months. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions. 36. Income of Sandeep in the month of January and April together is what percent less than income

of Sandeep in the month of March and June together? (1) 20% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 50% (5) 70%

37. Income of Sandeep in May and June together is how much more than the income of Sandeep in February and March together? (1) Rs.1500 (2) Rs.1800 (3) Rs.1200 (4) Rs.2400 (5) Rs.2700

38. Which month shows the highest percent increment in income as compare to previous month? (1) February (2) March (3) April (4) May (5) Both (2) and (3)


39. Income in the month of March and April together makes how much central angle of the total? (1) 115.2° (2) 158.4° (3) 144° (4) 100.8° (5) 129.6°

40. Sandeep’s average income in starting four months in the given six months is how much less

than Sandeep’s average income in last four months in the given six months? (1) 300 (2) 600 (3) 900 (4) 1200 (5) 1500

Directions (Qs.41 to 42): What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 41. 11, 12, 16, 25, 41, ?, 102

(1) 66 (2) 68 (3) 82 (4) 76 (5) 78 42. 7, 20, 59, 176, ?, 1580

(1) 627 (2) 557 (3) 543 (4) 527 (5) 427 43. 78, 99, 124, 153, 186, ?

(1) 213 (2) 217 (3) 237 (4) 227 (5) 223 44. 0, 26, 124, 342, 728, ?

(1) 1221 (2) 1330 (3) 1351 (4) 1370 (5) 1350 45. 18, 31, 57, 96, 148, ?

(1) 217 (2) 227 (3) 237 (4) 223 (5) 213 Directions (Qs.46 to 50): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 46. ?74241441 =÷×−

(1) 20 (2) 60 (3) 180 (4) 120 (5) 80

47. 2

4041525? −×

=

(1) 20 (2) 45 (3) 25 (4) 50 (5) 60 48. 621 ÷ 27 × 2 – 37 = ?

(1) 9 (2) 3 (3) 81 (4) 33 (5) 21 49. 36% of 250 × 18% of 50 = ? + 10

(1) 820 (2) 810 (3) 790 (4) 800 (5) 700

50. ( ) ( )[ ] ?182667 22 ÷=÷− (1) 18 (2) 36 (3) 9 (4) 40 (5) 42

51. Diameter of a cylindrical jar is increased by 25%. By what percent must the height be decreased so that there is no change in its volume? (1) 18% (2) 25% (3) 32% (4) 36% (5) None of these


52. If income & saving ratio of a person is 25 : 9. If saving increases rd31 & expenditure increases by

25% & income increases by Rs.2100. Then find the initial saving?

(1) Rs.3200 (2) Rs.3500 (3) Rs.5600 (4) Rs.2700 (5) Rs.4200 53. Ayush can do a work in 40 days and Rahul is 25% more efficient than Ayush. If Ayush started

and worked for 15 days and left then in how many days will Rahul do the remaining work?

(1) 16 days (2) 20 days (3) 28 days (4) 24 days (5) 12 days

54. If speed of boat in upstream is double than the speed of current and speed of boat in still water is 27 km/hr. Then find the time taken by boat to travel 54 km downstream? (in hour) (1) 1.5 (2) 1.8 (3) 2.5 (4) 1.2 (5) 2

55. Sum of four consecutive even numbers is 49 more than sum of three consecutive odd numbers

and the sum of lowest odd and lowest even number is 23. Find the largest even number. (1) 28 (2) 36 (3) 18 (4) 32 (5) 22

56. A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 20 hrs. If both inlet pipe and leak is

opened then the tank filled in 60 hrs. Find the capacity of tank if inlet pipe can fill at the rate of 4 litre per minute. (in litre) (1) 1800 l (2) 2400 l (3) 2700 l (4) 3600 l (5) 4500 l

57. Average age of a class of 15 students is 18 years. After admission of 5 new student average age

of class decreases by 0.25. Find the average age of the 5 new students. (1) 16.5 (2) 17 (3) 17.25 (4) 17.5 (5) 17.75

58. A train covers certain distance between two places at a uniform speed. If the train moved 10

kmph faster, it would tank 2 hours less, and if the train were slower by 10 kmph, it would take 3 hours more than the scheduled time. Find the distance covered by the train. (1) 300 km (2) 600 km (3) 800 km (4) 1200 km (5) None of these

59. Two letters are chosen out of the alphabets of the English language. Find the probability that

both the letters are vowels.

(1) 652 (2)

653 (3)

651 (4)

53 (5)

657

60. How many five-letters containing 2 vowels and 3 consonants can be formed using the letters of

the word EQUALITY so that 2 vowels occur together? (1) 1260 (2) 1000 (3) 1150 (4) 1152 (5) None of these


Directions (Qs.61 to 65): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

61. ( ) ( ) 232 (?)7001025 4200of %2137 =−++

(1) 50 (2) 60 (3) 55 (4) 75 (5) 80

62. 87)13(20)12(21803

5.62? 22 +=−−×++

(1) 137.5 (2) 125.5 (3) 117.5 (4) 112.5 (5) 107.5 63. ( ) ( )22 19?11125.22 =−+×

(1) 800 (2) 750 (3) 825 (4) 900 (5) 950

64. ( )2

44062765.3?

624 2 +=+×+

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 8 (5) 7

65. ( )3106255500 of %1119750 of %

3133625 of ?% =−++

(1) 44 (2) 46 (3) 56 (4) 54 (5) 64


TEST-III REASONING ABILITY

Directions (Qs.66 to 70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Mark, John, Starc, Albert, Mickle, Simon and Joe are employees of different company. Each of them works on different floors numbered from I to VII, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them like different serial, viz Diya aur Bati, Ye hain mohabatein, Parvarish, Naagin, Siya ke ram, Tere liye and Sasural simar ka but not necessarily in the same order. John works on floor IV but he does not like Siya ke ram and Naagin. Starc likes Diya aur Bati but he does not work on floor II and VI. Mickle works on floor V and he likes Tere liye. The one who likes Ye hain mohabatein works on floor VII. Albert works on floor I. Joe likes Sasural simar ka. Mark does not work on floor VII. The one who likes Naagin works on floor II. 66. Joe works on which of the following Floors?

(1) II (2) III (3) VI (4) VII (5) None of these 67. Mark likes which of the following serial?

(1) Naagin (2) Diya aur Bati (3) Siya ke ram (4) Parvarish (5) None of these

68. Which of the following combinations is/are true? (1) Simon - Parvarish - VII (2) Albert - Siya ke ram - I (3) Mark - Ye hain mohabatein - I (4) Both (1) and (3) (5) None of these

69. Who among the following likes ‘Ye hain mohabatein’ serial?

(1) Mark (2) Simon (3) Albert (4) Can’t say (5) None of these

70. Who among the following works on floor II? (1) Simon (2) Starc (3) Mark (4) Joe (5) None of these

Directions (Qs.71 to 75): In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or II follows Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor II follows Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II follow For (Qs.71 & 72): Statements: No beggar is a poor Some rich are beggars All classes are poors 71. Conclusions: I. All rich being poors is a possibility II. All beggars being classes is a possibility


72. Conclusions: I. Some poors are not rich II. No class is a beggar 73. Statements: Some Ram are Ravan Some Meghnath are Kumbhakarana All Kumbhakarana are Ravan

Conclusions: I. All Ram being Kumbhakarana is a possibility II. Some Ravan are not Meghnath is a possibility

74. Statements: All One are Two All Three are Four Some Two are not four

Conclusions: I. Some two are not three II. No One is a Four

75. Statements: No 90s are 80s Some 90s are 40s All 80s are 70s

Conclusions: I. All 80s being 40s is a possibility II. Some 70s are not 90s Directions (Qs.76 to 80): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language, ‘working period is critical time’ is written as ‘su zo ti ra mo’ ‘period effects person’ is written as ‘chi mo nic’ ‘working person going down’ is written as ‘fa nic ti ye’ ‘hiked rates down growth’ is written as ‘phi ye koo da’ ‘critical rates’ is written as ‘su phi’ 76. What is the code for ‘Time’?

(1) su (2) zo (3) ra (4) Either zo or ra (5) None of these

77. What does ‘fa’ stand for? (1) Working (2) down (3) person (4) going (5) Can’t say

78. Which of the following is the code for ‘critical rates’ effects growth? (1) koo da phi chi (2) phi su re chi (3) ti da zo chi (4) su phi chi pa (5) None of these

79. Which of the following is represented by the code ‘mo ye su phi’? (1) person is critical down (2) Period effects down rates (3) critical period down rates (4) down person growth rates (5) None of these

80. Which of the following may be the code for ‘world is overcome through critical time’?

(1) nic zo su ra mo pic (2) pic zo ra su vo bi (3) su pic ye zo ra fa (4) ti ra su chi mo zo (5) None of these


Directions (Qs.81 to 85): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are not facing the centre. Not more than two persons facing the same direction can sit together. D is not an immediate neighbour of B. F is an immediate neighbour of D. C is an immediate neighbour of G, who sits second to the left of A. B sits third to the right of H. E is not facing the centre. Both the immediate neighbours of E are not facing outside. H sits second to the right of E. Both the immediate neighbours of D are not facing the centre. The one who is opposite to A is not facing the centre. 81. Who among the following sits third to the right of A?

(1) B (2) F (3) C (4) D (5) None of these 82. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one

that does not belong to that group? (1) H, A (2) G, B (3) A, B (4) C, D (5) E, G

83. How many persons are there between A and C (when counting in clockwise direction from A)?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these 84. Who among the following sits exactly between F and C?

(1) G (2) D (3) E (4) B (5) None of these 85. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) C is exactly between B and G and is facing the centre. (2) A is not facing the centre (3) D is on the immediate right of E (4) Both (2) and (3) are true (5) None of these

Directions (Qs.86 to 90): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or II follows Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor II follows Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II follow 86. Statements: A ≥ B = C, B < D ≤ E

Conclusions: I. D > A II. E > C 87. Statements: L > U ≥ K, Z < U < R

Conclusions: I. L > Z II. K < R 88. Statement: Y < J = P ≥ R > I

Conclusions: I. J > I II. Y < R 89. Statements: V ≥ K > M = N, M > S, T < K

Conclusions: I. T < N II. V = S 90. Statements: F ≤ X < A, R < X ≤ E

Conclusions: I. F ≤ E II. R < F


Directions (Qs.91 to 93): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

There are seven family members Rina, Ashu, Rupa, Julie, Vishak, Roshini and Keshav, in which there are two married couples. Rina is sister of Ashu, who is maternal grandson of Vishak. The father of Julie has two maternal grandchildren. Rupa is sister-in-law of Keshav, who is father of Rina. Roshini is a female. 91. What is the relation between Julie and Roshini?

(1) Roshini is mother of Julie (2) Julie is daughter-in-law of Roshini (3) Julie is brother of Roshini (4) Julie is son of Roshini (5) Can’t say

92. Who among the following is husband of Roshini?

(1) Keshav (2) Juilie (3) Rina (4) Vishak (5) None of these 93. How Rina is related to Julie?

(1) Rina is brother of Julie (2) Rina is daughter of Julie (3) Rina is sister of Julie (4) Rina is father of Julie (5) None of these

Directions (Qs.94 & 95): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

KESHAV is 10m to the north of KANIKA, who is to the northwest of SONA. KANIKA is 15m to the west of LOVEY. NOURA is 10m to the east of SONA, who is 10m to the south of LOVEY. 94. In which direction is SONA with respect to KESHAV?

(1) South (2) Southeast (3) Southwest (4) West (5) None of these 95. What is the shortest distance between point KESHAV and LOVEY?

(1) 35m (2) m135 (3) m513 (4) 20m (5) None of these Directions (Qs.96 to 100): To answer these questions study carefully the following arrangement of symbol, digits and letters. W % 9 3 G 6 H # 7 K $ L 2 B M J © 4 5 E 8 @ Z 96. If all the numbers are deleted from the above arrangement then which of the following will be

seventh to the left of sixth from the right? (1) H (2) J (3) M (4) $ (5) None of these

97. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None of these

98. ‘9W’ is related to ‘GH#’ and ‘$7’ is related to ‘2BM’ in the same way as ‘4J’ is to in the arrangement. (1) E@8 (2) 58© (3) B2L (4) 58Z (5) None of these

99. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a letter? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these

100. If all the symbols are deleted from the above arrangement then which of the following will be the fourth to the left of twelfth from the right? (1) 9 (2) 3 (3) W (4) M (5) None of these

- - × - -


ANSWERS

1. Ans (2): Only (II) is correct

2. Ans (4): Both (I) and (II) are correct 3. Ans (5): All are correct 4. Ans (5): All are correct 5. Ans (3): Both (I) and (II) are correct 6. Ans (1): Encouraging 7. Ans (3): Essence

Crux means the decisive or most important point at issue. Hence ‘essence’ is the word most similar in meaning to it. Stew means a state of great anxiety or agitation.

8. Ans (1): Tenable Sustainable means conserving an ecological balance by avoiding depletion of natural resources. Tenable means able to be maintained or defended against attack or objection. Hence both are almost similar in meaning.

9. Ans (1): For he cannot do ‘As’, ‘since’ or ‘because’ will be used in place of ‘for’ because ‘for’ is not used in starting of the sentence in the form of conjunction of reason.

10. Ans (4): with bag and baggage The use of ‘with’ is superfluous as the meaning of ‘bag and baggage’ itself is with bag and baggage. Hence ‘with’ is not be used before ‘bag and baggage’.

11. Ans (2): good a batsman to Use ‘as’ before ‘to’. ‘so…as’ is the correct way to use it in a sentence. Ex. He is not so good as I expected.

12. Ans (1): The patient recover ‘recovered’ will be used in place of ‘recover’ as ‘were’ indicates that the incident happened in past tense. Hence ‘recovered’ is used.

13. Ans (4): number of well-drawned illustrations Use ‘well-drawn’ in place of ‘well-drawned’ as the past form of ‘draw’ is ‘drew’ and past participle form is ‘drawn’. Hence there is no need to add ‘ed’ in ‘drawn’.

For (Qs.14 to 18): BEAFCD 14. Ans (5): C

15. Ans (1): A

16. Ans (1): B

17. Ans (2): E

18. Ans (1): D


19. Ans (4): balancing, stress ‘balancing, stress’ is the correct set of words that fill the gaps adding meaning to the sentence. Balancing means counteract or equal the effect or importance of. Stress means a state of mental or emotional strain or tension resulting from adverse or demanding circumstances.

20. Ans (2): rational, trend

‘rational, trend’ is the correct set of words that make the sentence meaningful. Rational means based on or in accordance with reason or logic. Trend means a general direction in which something is developing or changing.

21. Ans (1): readiness, tread

‘readiness, tread’ is the correct set of words that make the sentence meaningfully correct. Readiness means willingness to do something. Tread means walk on or along.

22. Ans (2): reiteration, preamble

‘reiteration, preamble’ is the correct set of words that makes the sentence meaningfully correct. Reiteration means the action of repeating something, typically for emphasis or clarity. Preamble means a preliminary or preparatory statement; an introduction.

23. Ans (3): get success

Possibility which is strong and gives the sense of ability must be conveyed by the use of ‘can’. So, (3) is appropriate.

24. Ans (3): talks more than others

In sentences with structure ‘sub’ + as well as + ‘sub’, the verb which follows depends on the number of subject which is used before ‘as well as’. Since, Rahul is singular, verb used should also be singular, but the question doesn’t show a point or period of time, we are left with (3) which is the correct option.

25. Ans (5): No correction required 26. Ans (3): ravaged

Scorched means burn the surface of (something) with flame or heat. Rotted means decay or cause to decay by the action of bacteria and fungi; decompose. Exploit means make full use of and derive benefit from.

27. Ans (2): deal

‘deal’ is the correct word that fits to the blank making the sentence meaningful. Capacity building programmes are meant to deal with the weather events. Hence all other options are irrelevant.

28. Ans (4): encountering

Vilifying means speak or write about in an abusively disparaging manner. Slandering means make false and damaging statements about. Abiding means lasting a long time; enduring.

29. Ans (1): Alleviating

Alleviating means make (suffering, deficiency, or a problem) less severe. Sustaining means strengthen or support physically or mentally. Succoring means give assistance or aid to. Abetting means encourage or assist someone to commit.


30. Ans (4): support Incite means encourage or stir up. Urge means a strong desire or impulse.

31. Ans (2): 50% S.P. is same ∴ Multiply C.P. and S.P ratio of article A by ‘3’

∴ Required percentage %5010084100

8812

=×=×−

=

32. Ans (4): 21

Sum of present ages of couple = 2 × 29 = 58 Age of family after 8 years = 58 + 8 × 2 + (8 - 2) + (8 – 4) = 58 + 16 + 6 + 4 ⇒ = 84

Required average years214

84==

33. Ans (3): Rs.8000

Let, amount invested in scheme A = x Amount invested in scheme B = 14,000 – x

000,610063606640

27000

100446640

100225)14000(

10044

=⇒=⇒=−+×⇒=××−

+×∴ xxxxxx

Amount invested in scheme B = Rs.8000 34. Ans (4): 20

Let the length of train = x The speed of train = S

712100

213S

12100 xxxx

=+

⇒==+

∴

7x + 700 = 12x 5x = 700 ⇒ x = 140 m

Speed of train m/s 20211403

=×

=

35. Ans (4): 30

301

301

151

C1

B1

C1

B1

A1

A1

=−=⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ +−⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ ++=

∴ Pipe A alone can fill the tank alone in 30 minutes. 36. Ans (2): 30%

∴ Required Percentage %301004012100

)2416(2082416

=×=×+

−−+=

37. Ans (4): Rs.2400

∴ Required difference 2400.Rs15000100

]16122420[=×

−−+=

CP SP A ⇒ 1 : 2 B ⇒ 5 : 6

CP SP A 3 : 6 B 5 : 6 Total 8 : 12


38. Ans (1): February It can be seen easily from the pie-chart that February month shows the highest percent increase in income as compare to previous month which is equal to

increment. 50%10084100

8812

=×=×−

=

39. Ans (5): 129.6°

Required central angle °=×+= 6.1295

18)1620(

40. Ans (3): 900

Sandeep’s average income in starting four months 2100150001004

)2016128(=×

×+++

=

Sandeep’s average income in Last four months 3000150001004

)24202016(=×

×+++

=

∴Required difference = 3000 – 2100 = 900 41. Ans (1): 66

42. Ans (4): 527

43. Ans (5): 223

44. Ans (2): 1330

45. Ans (5): 213

46. Ans (4): 120

1206207

42400? =×=×

=

78 99 124 153 186 223

+21 +25 +29 +33 +37

11 12 16 25 41 66 102

21+ 22+ 23+ 24+ 25+ 26+

7 20 59 176 527 1580

×3-1 ×3-1 ×3-1 ×3-1 ×3-1

0 26 124 342 728 1330

113 − 133 − 153 − 173 − 193 − 1113 −

18 31 57 96 148 213

+13×1 +13×2 +13×3 +13×4 +13×5


47. Ans (4): 50

50105?2

40605?

=×=⇒−

=

48. Ans (3): 81

8199?9374637227621? =×=⇒=−=−×=

49. Ans (4): 800

10?81010?100

1850100

36250+=⇒+=

××

×

∴? = 810 – 10 = 800 50. Ans (2): 36

36182??

1821

?18

2613

?18

263649

=×=⇒=⇒=⇒=−

51. Ans (4): 36%

%64100125100

125100xh

100r

100125r

100125hr2 =××=⇒××××××=××

xππ

∴ Required percentage = 100 – 64 = 36% 52. Ans (4): Rs.2700

Income = Saving + Expenditure ∴ Expenditure = 25 – 9 = 16 Increased Saving = 9 + 3 = 12

Increased Expenditure 2010012516 =×=

∴ Income = 32 ∴ Increase in income = 32 – 25 = 7

∴ Initial Savings 2700.Rs210079

=×=

53. Ans (2): 20 days

Time taken by Rahul days 3212510040 =×=

Work finished by Ayush83

4015

==

Remaining work 85

831 =−=

∴ Required day (by Rahul) days 203285

=×=

54. Ans (1): 1.5

Let speed of current be y km/hr (27-y) = 2y ⇒ 3y = 27 ⇒ y = 9 km/hr

∴ Required time hours 1.5927

54=

+=


55. Ans (5): 22 Let the four consecutive even no. be (x -3), (x - 1), (x + 1) & (x + 3) Three consecutive odd no. be (y – 2), y, (y + 2) ∴ 4x – 3y = 49 …. (i) x - 3 + y – 2 = 23 x + y = 23 + 5 x + y = 28 …. (ii) Multiplying (ii) by 3 and on solving ∴ x = 19 and y = 9 ∴ Largest even number = 19 + 3 = 22

56. Ans (4): 3600 l

1 hour work of inlet pipe 151

604

6031

201

601

==+

=+=

1 minute work in inlet pipe900

1601

151

=×=

Capacity of the tank = 900 × 4 = 3600 l 57. Ans (2): 17

Total age of 15 students = 18 × 15 = 270 Total age of 20 students = (17.75) × 20 = 355 Total age of 5 new students = 355 – 270 = 85

Average age of 5 new students 175

85==

58. Ans (2): 600 km

S = (u + 10) (t – 2) ... (i) S = (u – 10) (t + 3) … (ii) S = ut … (iii) On solving (i) and (iii) 10t – 2u = 20 … (iv) On solving (ii) and (iii) 3u – 10t = 30 … (v) On solving (iv) and (v) u = 50, t = 12 (S) Distance = 50 × 12 = 600 km

59. Ans (1): 652

For both letters to be vowels Possible cases ways 10C2

5 ==

Total cases ways 325251322526C2

26 =×=×==

∴Required probability652

32510

==

60. Ans (4): 1152

Required number of words 1152 !2 !434

24 =×××= CC


61. Ans (1): 50

( ) 50?250070010006251575?(?)7001000625420083 22 =⇒=−++=⇒=−++×

62. Ans (3): 117.5

3)3602014487169(5.62?87169201443603

5.62?×−+++=+⇒+=−−+

+

5.1175.62180? =−= 63. Ans (4): 900

900?30?361?121270 =⇒=⇒=−+ 64. Ans (2): 3

3208624?208

?624220362721

?624

==⇒=⇒+=++

65. Ans (1): 44

1000255500111750

31625

100?

=−×+×+×

⇒ ? × 6.25 + 250 + 500 – 25 = 1000 ⇒ ? × 6.25 = 275 ⇒ ? = 44 For (Qs.66 to 70):

Person Serial Floor John Parvarish IV Starc Diya aur bati III

Mickle Tere Liye V Simon Ye hain mohabbatein VII Albert Siya ke Ram I

Joe Sasural simar ka VI Mark Naagin II

66. Ans (3): VI

Joe works on floor number VI. 67. Ans (1): Naagin

Mark likes Naagin Serial. 68. Ans (2): Albert-Siya ke Ram - I

Albert-Siya ke Ram – I combination is true. 69. Ans (2): Simon

Simon likes Ye hain mohabatein Serial. 70. Ans (3): Mark

Mark works on floor numbered II. For (Qs.71 & 72):

R B C P


71. Ans (4): neither conclusion I nor II follows Conclusions: I. All rich being poors is a possibility (×) II. All beggars being classes is a possibility (×)

72. Ans (2): only conclusion II follows Conclusions: I. Some poors are not rich (×) II. No class is a beggar ( )

73. Ans (5): both conclusions I and II follow Conclusions: I. All Ram being Kumbhakarana is a possibility ( ) II. Some Ravan are not Meghnath is a possibility ( )

74. Ans (1): only conclusion I follows

Conclusions: I. Some two are not three ( ) II. No One is a Four (×)

75. Ans (5): both conclusions I and II follow

Conclusions: I. All 80s being 40s is a possibility ( ) II. Some 70s are not 90s ( )

For (Qs.76 to 80):

Words period working critical time/is person down going hiked/growth effect rates Code mo ti su zo/ra nic ye fa koo/da chi phi

76. Ans (4): Either zo or ra

‘time’ is coded as either ‘zo’ or ‘na’. 77. Ans (4): going

‘fa’ is coded for ‘going’. 78. Ans (5): None of these

‘critical rates effects’ is coded as ‘su phi chi’ and growth is coded as either ‘koo’ or ‘da’. 79. Ans (3): critical period down rates

‘critical period down rates’ is as coded as ‘su mo ye phi’. 80. Ans (2): pic zo ra su vo bi

‘world is overcome through critical time’ may be coded as ‘pic zo ra su vo bi’.

40 90 80 70

O Two

Th F

M K Ravan

Ram


For (Qs.81 to 85): 81. Ans (2): F

F sits third to the right of A. 82. Ans (4): C, D

Except C,D, in all other pairs, one person is facing inside and another person is facing outside. 83. Ans (3): Two

Two persons – H and G are seated between A and C. 84. Ans (4): B

B sits exactly between F and C. 85. Ans (1): C is exactly between B and G and is facing the centre

A is facing centre. D is on the immediate left of E. 86. Ans (2): only conclusion II follows

A ≥ B = C < D ≤ E Conclusions: I. D > A (×) II. E > C ( )

87. Ans (5): both conclusions I and II follow

L > U > Z; K ≤ U < R Conclusions: I. L > Z ( ) II. K < R ( )


Y < J = P ≥ R > I Conclusions: I. J > I ( ) II. Y < R (×)

89. Ans (4): neither conclusion I nor II follows T < K > M = N; V ≥ K > M > S Conclusions: I. T < N (×) II. V = S (×)


F ≤ X ≤ E; R < X ≥ F Conclusions: I. F ≤ E ( ) II. R < F (×)

For (Qs.91 to 93):

Vishak (+) ⇔ Roshini (-) Rupa (-) Julie (-) ⇔ Keshav (+) Rina (-) Ashu (+)

D A

H

C

G

E

B

F


91. Ans (1): Roshini is mother of Julie Julie is the daughter of Roshini.

92. Ans (4): Vishak

Vishak is the husband of Roshini. 93. Ans (2): Rina is daughter of Julie

Rina is the daughter of Julie. For (Qs.94 & 95): 94. Ans (2): Southeast

Sona is in Southeast direction with respect to Keshav. 95. Ans (2): m135

Distance between Keshav and Lovey m135325)10()15( 22 ==+=

96. Ans (1): H New sequence: W % G H # K $ L B M J © E @ Z. Seventh to the left of sixth from the right means thirteenth from the right end i.e., H. 97. Ans (3): Three

Symbol/ Number Such combinations are, %9, #7, ©4.

98. Ans (5): None of these

99. Ans (4): Three

Symbol/ Letter Such combinations are, $L, B, @Z

100. Ans (2): 3 New sequence: W 9 3 G 6 H 7 K L 2 B M J 4 5 E 8 Z. Fourth to the left of twelfth from the right end means sixteenth from the right end. i.e., 3.

- - × - -

Keshav

Lovey Kokila

Noura Sona

15 m

10 m

10 m

10 m

9 W G H #

$ 7 2 B M

4 J E @ Z

-2 +4 +2 +1

-2 +4 +2 +1

-2 +4 +2 +1

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