repeated questions in upsc from insights test series

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM

http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS

COMPILATION of QUESTIONS asked from INSIGHTS INTIATIVES

The following is the compilation of the questions mainly from Insights Prelims Mock

Test series 2014, which were same/similar/highly-related to the questions, asked in

this year Civil Service (Prelims) Examination, 2014.

Questions from the regular Secure Prelims initiative and the two Final free mock tests

on the website (that were conducted the last week before exams) are also included.

It is quite obvious that questions in CSP are not repeated ‗verbatim‘. The facts, concepts,

ideas, and information have been repeated in a lot of questions.

In some cases, while the question may not be similar (related although), the explanation

given in the solutions would be comprehensive enough to answer the related question

in UPSC.

There were many questions from insights, especially from Modern History, that were in

some way highly linked to the questions asked in UPSC. But here we are presenting

only those which could be completely answered, without any doubt, after solving

Insights questions.

24 questions in Paper-I can be thus said to be repeated from Insights initiatives. Some

in Paper-II were also repeated (verbatim ) from Secure Prelims Initiative.

If you had solved these questions from Insights initiatives, you could have easily solved

the similar ones asked in UPSC CSP 2014. Of course, a prerequisite is that you should

remember these facts and concepts.

ECONOMY

UPSC question

1. With reference to Union Budget which of the following is/are covered under Non-

plan expenditure?

1. Defence expenditure

2. Interest payments

3. Salaries and pensions

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) None

Answer: c)

Insights question

From Full length Mock test – 2

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/23/insights-full-length-mock-test-2-for-

preliminary-exam-2014/

Which of the following come under Non-plan expenditure?

I. Subsidies

II. Interest payments

III. Defence expenditure

IV. Maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure created in the previous plans

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/23/insights-full-length-mock-test-2-for-preliminary-exam-2014/


INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


(c) II and IV

(d) I, II, III and IV

UPSC question

2. With reference to balance of payments, which of the following constitutes the current

account?

1. Balance of trade

2. Foreign assets

3. Balance of invisibles

4. Special drawing rights


a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: c)

Insights question

Mock test 6 – Q 21

Which of the following, inter alia, form part of the Current Account Deficit (CAD)?

1. Gifts and grants from abroad

2. Trade in invisibles

3. Sale and purchase of stocks

a) Only 2

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


b) 1 and 3

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 2

Answer: d)

Explanation: The current account records exports and imports in goods and services

and transfer payments. Trade in services denoted as invisible trade (because they are

not seen to cross national borders) includes both factor income (payment for inputs-

investment income, that is, the interest, profits and dividends on our assets abroad

minus the income foreigners earn on assets they own in India) and non-factor income

(shipping, banking, insurance, tourism, software services, etc.). Transfer payments are

receipts which the residents of a country receive ‗for free‘, without having to make any

present or future payments in return. They consist of remittances, gifts and grants. They

could be official or private. The balance of exports and imports of goods is referred to as

the trade balance. Adding trade in services and net transfers to the trade balance, we

get the current account balance.

UPSC question

3. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy

b) increase the tax collection of the Government

c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy

d) increase the total savings in the economy

Answer: c)

Insights question

You can answer the above question with the knowledge of these two questions

Mock test 18- Q 79

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


With reference to interest rates which determine investment rates, consider the

following statements

1. Low real interest rates encourage investments

2. The interest rate before taking inflation into account is the real interest rate

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Answer: a)

Mock test 11- Q12

Which of the following may lead to inflation in the short-term in the Indian economy?

1. High fiscal deficit

2. Printing more money

3. Rupee Depreciation

4. High interest rates

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a. 3 only

b. 1, 2, and 3

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1 and 2 only

Answer: b)

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


Explanation: High interest rates actually subdue the demand in the economy. It leads to

lower inflation.

Rupee depreciation will directly feed into the prices of imported commodities,

especially oil and gold leading to higher inflation.

UPSC question

4. The terms ‗Marginal standing facility rate‘ and ‗net demand and time liabilities‘,

sometimes appearing in news are used in relation to

a) banking operations

b) communications networking

c) military strategies

d) supply and demand of agricultural products

Answer: a)

Insights question

From Full length free mock test 2 conducted on the website.

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/23/insights-full-length-mock-test-2-for-

preliminary-exam-2014/

Had you solved these two questions you would know that these terms are about

banking operations.

1. Which of the following act as shock absorbers for the banks in case they tend to go

bust?

1. Cash Reserve Ratio

2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio



INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


3. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

4. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

5. Capital Adequacy Ratio


a) All of the above

b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 5

d) 1, 4 and 5

From full length mock test 1 conducted on the website

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/18/insights-full-length-mock-test-for-prelims-

2014-2/

Consider the following matches as far as money supply in the Indian economy is

concerned:

1. Aggregate Monetary resources (M3) – Broad money (M4) without deposits

held in post office savings organization

2. Narrow money (M1) – Currency notes, coins and demand deposits held by

public in commercial banks

3. Broad Money (M4) – Narrow Money (M1) with time deposits held by public in

commercial banks and total deposits with post office savings organization

Which are correct matches?

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/18/insights-full-length-mock-test-for-prelims-2014-2/

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/18/insights-full-length-mock-test-for-prelims-2014-2/

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution: d)

Self-explanatory.

UPSC question

5. In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose(s) of

‗Statutory Reserve Requirements‘?

1. To enable the Central bank to control the amount of advances the banks can

create

2. To make the people‘s deposit with banks safe and liquid

3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits

4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day

requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: b)

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


Insights question

The following three questions, the concepts given and their explanations will answer

the above question exactly.

From Mock Test 12- Q25

Which of the following would increase the money supply in the economy?

1. A scheduled commercial bank issuing a cheque to its customer.

2. Reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

3. A customer depositing money in a scheduled commercial bank.

4. RBI issuing fresh currency


a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: c)

Banking deposits and the money held by the public form a part of the money supply.

Whether a bank issues a cheque or if a customer deposits money, it will not change the

money supply. But any issue by RBI or reduction in the CRR would inject liquidity

in the system thus increasing the money supply.

From Mock Test 20 – Q6

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


―To be in line with Basel-III norms there is a requirement to infuse 2,40,000 crore as

equity by 2018 in our banks‖ as mentioned in the Budget 2014-15. Consider the

following statements about the key focus areas in the banking system:

1. Investment in risky assets

2. Regular disclosure of information to the Central bank

3. Merger of banks

Which of these areas are dealt with by the Basel III norms?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Answer: a)

Explanation: Basel III norms aim at making most banking activities such as their trading

book activities more capital-intensive. The guidelines aim to promote a more resilient

banking system by focusing on four vital banking parameters viz. capital, leverage,

funding and liquidity……..

……..Funding and liquidity

Banks can be subjected to a lot of risk if all depositors come and ask all their money at

the same time. This is a hypothetical situation but it has happened in real with Lehman

Brothers – the bank whose collapse gave us the 2008 recession.

So, Basel III puts a requirement for the banks to maintain some liquid assets all the time.

Liquid assets are those which can be easily converted to cash.

In India, this practice can be correlated with that of maintaining CRR and SLR.

From Full Length Mock Test 2

Which of the following act as shock absorbers for the banks in case they tend to go

bust?

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


1. Cash Reserve Ratio

2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

3. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

4. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

5. Capital Adequacy Ratio


a) All of the above

b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 5

d) 1, 4 and 5

POLITY

UPSC question

6. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President‘s rule.

2. Appointing the ministers

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the

President of India

4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the state government

Select the correct answers using the code given below.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b)

Insights question


In which of the following cases, the Governor can act on his own discretion without the

advice of Council of Ministers?

1. Recommend President‟s rule in the state.

2. Reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President.

3. Administering a Union territory which he has been authorized to in addition to that

particular state.


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Answer: d)

The constitution also makes clear that wherever a situation arises as to whether a matter

falls within the Governor‘s discretion or not, the decision of the Governor will be final

and the validity of anything done by him can not be questioned on the ground that he

ought not have acted in his discretion.

UPSC question

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


7. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains the

provisions regarding anti-defection?

a) Second Schedule

b) Fifth Schedule

c) Eighth schedule

d) Tenth Schedule

Solution: d)

Insights question

From Mock Test 16- Q48

Yes, we also asked a factual question related to anti-defection law.

The Tenth Schedule — popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act was added to the

Constitution through which of the following amendments?

a. 51st Amendment

b. 52nd Amendment

c. 53ed Amendment

d. 54th Amendment

Answer: b)

Explanation:

•What is the Anti-Defection Law?

The Tenth Schedule — popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act — was included in

the Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi ministry and sets the provisions for

disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political

party.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


The law was added via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, soon after the Rajiv

government came to power with a thumping majority in the wake of the assassination

of prime minister Indira Gandhi. The Congress had won 401 seats in the Lok Sabha.

•What are the grounds for disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law's Articles

102 (2) and 191 (2)?

a) If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party;

b) If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by

his political party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission.

As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be

condoned by his party or the authorised person within 15 days of such incident.

UPSC question

8. The power of Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and

States falls under its

a) advisory jurisdiction

b) appellate jurisdiction

c) original jurisdiction

d) writ jurisdiction

Answer: c)

Insights question

From Mock test 18 – Q44

Look at the explanation.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


Which of the following do not come under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme

Court?

1. Inter-state water disputes

2. Matters related to the finance commission

3. A suit by a private citizen against the Centre or a state.


a) 1 and 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Answer: d)

Disputes between Centre and states falls under the original jurisdiction. However, other

disputes of commercial nature between the centre and the states; questions of political

nature; disputes arising out of a pre-constitutional agreement or treaty etc. do not come

under original jurisdiction of the SC.

UPSC question

9. Which of the following are associated with ‗planning‘ in India?

1. The Finance Commission

2. The National Development Council

3. The Union MoRD

4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development

5. The Parliament


a) 1, 2 and 5 only

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2 and 5 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: c)

Insights question

The following two questions clearly convey that NDC and Parliament are associated

with planning in India, and Finance Commission is not.


Consider the following statements about National Development Council (NDC):

1. The Planning Commission can go against the recommendations of the National

Development Council (NDC).

2. The Five year plans framed by the Planning Commission are first approved by the

NDC before being forwarded to the Parliament.

Which of these is/are true?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both

d. None of the above

Answer: a)

The NDC is listed as an advisory body to the PC. Hence its recommendations are not

binding.

However, it is the second highest body, below the Parliament, responsible for policy

matters with regard to planning for social and economic development.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


But, first the plans are forwarded to the cabinet and then to NDC and then the

Parliament.


Recommendations pertaining to which of the following is/are a part of the mandate of

the Union Finance Commission set up every five years?

1. Principles for the division of plan and non-plan expenditure.

2. Measures for the state government to augment the consolidated fund of the state on

the basis of recommendations made by state finance commission.

3. Principles for determining grants-in-aid to the states.

Choose the correct option from the codes below:

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Answer: c)

Statement 1 i.e. ―Principles for the division of plan and non-plan expenditure has been

a major point of debate between policymakers. Presently planning commission and the

Central government decide on these as per the five year plans and the annual budgets

based on them. However, an argument has consistently been made that the line

dividing plan and non-plan expenditure is getting increasingly blurred. And it will be

best to do away with such distinction.

Note: The explanation has become obsolete now as the Planning Commission has been

scrapped by the government.

UPSC question

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


10. Consider the following statements:

A constitutional government is one which

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of state authority.

2. places effective restriction on the Authority of the state in the interest of individual

liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

c) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b)

Some give the answer as C. That would be wrong.

It is true that the state authority can not be successfully exercised without effective

restrictions on individual liberty. But, it would be also wrong to assume that restraints

are put in the interest of authority of the state. For, restraints on individual liberty are

placed in the interest of the ‗majority‘ of citizens (people), and not the ‗Authority‘ of the

state.

On the other hand, in an autocratic or authoritarian state, limits on individual liberty

are put in the interest of the ‗authority‘ of the state.

This subtle difference between a constitutional and an autocratic government has to

understood to answer the question.

Insights question

The concept explained in the explanation to the question is very helpful for solving the

above question.

From Mock test 11- Q7

The Parliament in India is not the supreme authority owing to which of the following:

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


1. Written Constitution

2. Federal system

3. Fundamental Rights

4. Separation of powers between the executive and the legislature.

Choose the correct answer using the following codes:

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 4 only

Answer: b)

Solution: b)

A written constitution and fundamental rights restrict the authority of the

Parliament. It has to ensure that its laws/constitutional amendments do not violate the

constitution and the fundamental rights, and conform to the basic structure.

In a federal system, the state legislatures also have a say in matters of making laws and

constitutional amendments. Parliament can not amend the constitution as it desires in

certain cases.

There is no separation of powers in India. It is actually fusion of powers which makes

the Parliament even more powerful.

ECOLOGY, ENVIRONMENT, BIO-DIVERSITY, CLIMATE CHANGE

UPSC question

11. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with

traditional human life is the establishment of

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


a) Biosphere reserves

b) botanical gardens

c) national parks

d) wildlife sanctuaries

Answer: a)

Insights question


Both the question and explanation will cover the answer to the question.

Consider the following statements

1. In National Parks, protection is granted not only to the flora and fauna of the

protected region, but also to the human communities who inhabit these regions, and

their ways of life.

2. In National Parks, grazing, hunting and other human activities are not allowed

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Indian government has established 18 Biosphere Reserves in India,[2]

(categories roughly corresponding to IUCN Category VProtected areas), which protect

larger areas of natural habitat (than a National Park or Animal Sanctuary), and often

include one or more National Parks and/or preserves, along buffer zones that are open

to some economic uses. Protection is granted not only to the flora and fauna of the

protected region, but also to the human communities who inhabit these regions, and

their ways of life. Animals are protected and saved here.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife1c4.pdf

http://ces.iisc.ernet.in/envis/sdev/np.htm

UPSC question

12. Lichens which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are

actually a symbiotic association of

a) algae and bacteria

b) algae and fungi

c) bacteria and fungi

d) fungi and mosses

Answer: b)

Insights question

From Mock test 18 – Q 52

The question is not similar, but the explanation answer the question fully.

Consider the following statements:

1. Viruses are non-cellular organisms.

2. Viruses do not contain genetic material like DNA or RNA.

3. Lichens are good pollution indicators as they are not found in polluted waters.

Choose the correct option from the codes below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

http://envfor.nic.in/legis/wildlife/wildlife1c4.pdf

http://ces.iisc.ernet.in/envis/sdev/np.htm

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


d) All of the above

Solution: c)

Lichens are symbiotic associations i.e. mutually useful associations, between algae and

fungi. Lichens are very good pollution indicators – they do not grow in polluted areas.

Viruses are non-cellular organisms containing genetic material. The material is

infectious. It is difficult to classify viruses as living or non-living. They do not have a

metabolism of their own

UPSC question

13. The Scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2

degree Celsius above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3

degree Celsius above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts

on the world?

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source

2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.

3. All the global wetlands will disappear.

4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b)

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


Insights question

From Full Length Mock Test- 1

This question below is although not directly related, the associated concepts would

have helped you a lot in answering the above question correctly. The point on corals is

explained in the ‗explanation‘ of the question below. This will confirm the correctness of

statement 2 of the above UPSC question. And it is common knowledge that 3 and 4 can

not be the answer. Hence only one option remains i.e. b) 1 and 2 for the UPSC question.

Which of the following would negatively affect ocean as a carbon sink?

1. Severe Ozone layer depletion

2. Ocean acidification

3. Global warming


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Solution: d)

Severe ozone level depletion will lead to severe penetration of UV rays which would

inhibit the growth and even kill phytoplankton populations in the ocean. These are

major carbon sinks.

Coral reefs are important in determining the amount of carbon dioxide in the

atmosphere. The zooxanthellae algae, through photosynthesis, remove carbon dioxide

from the air and make carbohydrates available as food for both the zooxanthellae and

the coral polyps. Eventually, much of the carbon removed from the air will reside on

the ocean bottom in the form of limestone produced by coral polyps.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


Ocean acidification and global warming would negatively affect coral reefs, even

bleaching them completely. This would result in corals that are much less effective in

absorbing carbon from the atmosphere.

UPSC question

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Animal welfare board of India is established under the Environment

(Protection) Act, 1986.

2. National Tiger conservation authority is a statutory body.

3. National Ganga river basin authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.


a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b)

Insights question

Again we expected that there will be a question related to Ganga authority albeit a

deeper one. However, the explanation covers the facts required to answer statement 3

of the above question. You can easily understand that statement 1 was wrong (in the

UPSC question). Animal welfare board, just by applying common sense, can not be

established under the Environment (protection) Act. So, if statement 1 is wrong and 3 is

correct, the only option left will be B- which is the correct one.

Here is the question.

Mock test 5- Q9

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


Which of the followings is/are true about National Ganga River Basin Authority

(NGBA)?

1. It is the monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganga river basin protection.

2. It plays an important role in financial planning for the Ganga river basin. 3. One of

the objectives of NGBA is to protect overuse of Ganga river water. 4. It is supported by

World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the codes below

a. 1 and 3

b. 1,2 and 4

c. All of the above

d. Only 3

The Central Government, by a notification dated 20.2.2009, as set up ‗National

GangaRiver Basin Authority‘ (NGRBA)as an empowered planning, financing,

monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganga River, in exercise of the powers

conferred under the Environment (Protection) Act,1986. The Prime Minister is ex-

officio Chairperson of the Authority, and it has as its members, the Union Ministers

Concerned and the Chief Ministers of states through which Ganga flows, viz.,

Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others. The

objective of the Authority is to ensure effective abatement of pollution and conservation

of the river Ganga by adopting a holistic approach with the river basin as the unit of

planning. The functions of the Authority include all measures necessary for planning

and execution of programmes for abatement of pollution in the Ganga in keeping with

sustainable development needs. It is supported by the World Bank.

GEOGRAPHY

UPSC question

15. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‗coalbed methane‘

and ‗shale gas‘ consider the following statements:

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while

seams while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted

from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.

2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas

sources have been found.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d)

Insights question

Question on this from test series – Test 20 – Q no. 14

Here the explanation from these two questions solves the UPSC question exactly.

Q. As per the Budget 2014-15, it is the Government‘s intention to accelerate production

and exploitation of ―Coal Bed Methane reserves‖. Consider the following statements

about Coal Bed methane:

1. It refers to the methane absorbed into the solid matrix of the coal.

2. It is called ‗sweet gas‘ because it lacks hydrogen sulfide.

3. It occurs in underground mines where it presents a serious safety risk.

4. Unlike natural gas from conventional reservoirs, it contains very little heavier

hydrocarbons such as propane or butane.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM



a) 2 and 3 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d)

Explanation: Unlike much natural gas from conventional reservoirs, coalbed methane

contains very little heavier hydrocarbons such as propane or butane, and no natural-gas

condensate. It often contains up to a few percent carbon dioxide.

Methane is associated with coal as a by-product of the coal formation process. It is

trapped in coal beds and released during and after mining. This methane does cause

disasters in underground coal mines.

If effectively recovered, coal bed methane associated with coal reserves and emitted

during coal mining could be a significant potential source of energy.

Methane capture and its utilization from coal mines is not being undertaken in India

due to:

Lack of latest technology

Lack of expertise and experience

Pervasive perception that commercial viability of exploitation and utilization of

Methane is doubtful.

From Secure Prelims

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


With reference to Shale Gas, consider the following statements

1. Shale gas is a natural gas that is trapped in the shale formations, a form of

metamorphic rocks

2. Shale gas is extracted by a technique called hydraulic fracturing

3. Unlike other natural gas found elsewhere, shale gas is not formed by the

remnant of living beings


1 and 2 Only

2 Only

1 and 3 Only

All

Explanation: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.aspx?relid=103495

Text from explanation: The Minister of State in the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural

Gas Smt. Panabaaka Lakshmi informed the Rajya Sabha in a written reply tabled today

that the ONGC has initiated a systematic shale gas exploration programme in different

sedimentary basins. As part of this programme, ONGC has completed drilling of its

first assessment well in Jambusar area in Cambay Basin, Gujarat and is to be followed

by drilling of wells in Krishna-Godavari (Andhra Pradesh), Cauvery (Tamil Nadu &

Puducheri) and Assam Basins.

She also said that on establishing the production potential of the shale reservoirs in

different basins, the commercial production would be taken up.

UPSC question

16. Which of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the Ten

Degree Channel?

a) Andaman and Nicobar

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.aspx?relid=103495

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


b) Nicobar and Sumatra

c) Maldives and Lakshadweep

d) Sumatra and Java

Answer: a)

Insights question

Nothing from the question was repeated. But, the explanation contains the answer to

the above question, which was very basic and crudely factual.


Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Ritchie‘s archipelago and the Labrynth island are two groups of island in the

Arabian Sea

2. Barren Island, the only active volcano in India is situated in the Andaman Islands.

Select the right answer using the codes below?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

Answer: d)

There are two major island groups in India – one in the Bay of Bengal and the other in

the Arabian Sea. The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets.

These are situated roughly between 6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E. The two principal groups

of islets include the Ritchie‘s archipelago and the Labrynth island.

The entire group of island is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the

north and the Nicobar in the south. They are separated by a water body which is called

the Ten degree channel. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


submarine mountains. However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin. Barren

island, the only active volcano in India is also situated in the Nicobar islands.

UPSC question

17. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation

2. Deforestration

3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: b)

Insights question

The following two questions and their explanations will answer the question

comprehensively.

From Mock test 2- Q16

With reference to problems caused by deforestation, consider the following statements,

1. Deforestation is a contributor to global warming, and is often cited as one of the

major causes of the enhanced greenhouse effect.

2. Deforestation reduces soil cohesion, so that erosion, flooding and landslides ensue.

3. Deforestation on a human scale results in decline in biodiversity, and on a natural

global scale is known to cause the extinction of many species.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


4. Ground water level also gets lowered.


a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only

b. 1, 2 and 3 Only

c. 1,2 and 4 Only

d. 3 and 4 only

Answer: a)

Explanation: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deforestation#Environmental_problems

From Mock Test 3 – Q71 – Here the explanation is more relevant to the answer and

covers the causes of soil erosion effectively.

Consider the following statements:

1. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.

It is known as gully erosion.

2. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top

soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion.

3. Soil erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming.

4. When the land becomes unfit for cultivation it is known as bad land.


a. 1,2 and 3

b. 2,3 and 4

c. 1,3 and 4

d. All Four

Answer: d)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deforestation#Environmental_problems

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil

erosion. The processes of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously and

generally there is a balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due

to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining etc., while

natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion.

The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.

The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin

such lands are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a

slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion. Wind

blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also

caused due to defective methods of farming. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and

down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.

UPSC question

The following two questions:

18. What are the benefits of implementing the ‗Integrated Watershed Development

Programme‘?

1. Prevention of soil runoff

2. Linking the country‘s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers

3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater

4. Regeneration of natural vegetation


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2, 3, and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


Answer: c)

19. Consider the following pairs

Programme/project Ministry

1. Drought-prone area programme: Min. of Agriculture

2. Desert development programme: Min. of Environment and forests

3. National Watershed Development project for Rainfed Areas: Min. of Rural

Development

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matced?

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None

Answer: d)

Insights question

Both the questions and explanations will almost answer the question.

From test series – Test 3 – Q 37

What are the benefits of watershed management?

1. Boosts local communities‘ income

2. Rejunevates land and water sources

3. Increases the life of downstream dam and reservoirs

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


4. Mitigates drought and floods

Select the correct answer using the codes below

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1, 2 and 3 Only

c. All of the above

d. 3 and 4

From Secure Prelims

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/14/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-

02-july-2014/

Which of the following is not an objective of National Watershed Development Project

for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) programme?

1. Preventing soil erosion

2. Agro-forestry

3. Encouraging organic farming

Choose the correct answer using the codes below

1 Only

2 Only

3 Only

All are its objectives

Solution: d)


http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/14/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-02-july-2014/

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/14/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-02-july-2014/


INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


http://agricoop.nic.in/faq/rfsFaqs.htm

In order to prevent soil erosion and land degradation, Ministry of Agriculture is

implementing various watershed programmes, namely; National Watershed

Development Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA), Soil Conservation in the

Catchments of River Valley Project and Flood Prone River (RVP&FPR) and Reclamation

and Development of Alkali & Acid Soils (RADAS) across the country. Ministry of Rural

Development is also implementing Integrated Watershed Management Programme

(IWMP) for the purpose. About 57.61 million ha area has been developed under various

watershed development programmes of Ministry of Agriculture and Ministry of Rural

Development since inception upto 2011-12. Besides, 1.5 million ha sodic land has been

reclaimed using gypsum technology and 0.5 million ha saline land have been reclaimed

using sub-surface drainage technology across the country.

UPSC question

20. Consider the following pairs:

Hills Region

1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandal Coast

2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan coast

3. Mahadeo Hills: Central India

4. Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4

http://agricoop.nic.in/faq/rfsFaqs.htm

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


d) 2 and 4

Answer: c)

Insights question

Here again the explanation (not the question) solves the question as it tells us the

location of Mahadeo and Kaimur hills. Knowing the location of these two hills, the

UPSC question could easily be solved by elimination – as option 2 has to be wrong and

option 3 has to be right, then the answer has to be C – 3 and 4



1. The Garo, the Khasi and the Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya are geologically part of the

peninsular plateau

2. The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats in elevation.

3. The Deccan Plateau is higher in the east and slopes gently westwards.

Answer the above question using the codes given below

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 Only

c. 1 and 3 Only

d. 3 Only

Explanation: The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the

river Narmada. The Satpura range flanks its broad base in the north while the

Mahadev, the Kaimur hills and the Maikal range form its eastern extensions. Locate

these hills and ranges in the physical map of India. The Deccan Plateau is higher in the

west and slopes gently eastwards. An extension of the Plateau is also visible in the

northeast– locally known as the Meghalaya and Karbi-Anglong Plateau. It is separated

by a fault from the Chotanagpur Plateau. Three Prominent hill ranges from the west to

east are the Garo, theKhasi and the Jaintia Hills.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of

the Deccan Plateau respectively. Western ghats lie parallel to the western coast. They

are continuous and can be crossed through passes only. The Western Ghats are higher

than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is 900– 1600 metres as against 600

metres of the Eastern Ghats.

HISTORY

There were many questions from insights that were in some way linked to the questions

asked from history in UPSC. But here we are presenting only those which could be

completely answered, without any doubt, after solving Insights questions.

UPSC question

21. The ghadr (Ghadar) was a

a) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco

b) nationalist organization operating from Singapore

c) militant organization with headquarters at berlin

d) communist movement for India‘s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent

Answer: a)

Insights question

Mock test 19 – Q 29

It is the centenary of Ghadr. We expected a question on the same and hence framed

some. But we expected the question to be a little deeper than what UPSC asked.

However, if you had done this question and read the explanation, you would have

easily sailed through this question in the exam.

Which of the following was/were the parts of the Ghadr Programme during the First

World War?

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


1. Assassinate government officials

2. Work among Indian troops abroad and raise funds

3. Bring about a simultaneous revolt in all colonies of Britain.


a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Answer: d)

Explanation:

The Ghadar Movement was a movement of patriotic, progressive, democratic, and

enlightened Indians living abroad, working for the emancipation of India from the

yoke of British colonialism and the birth of a new India based on national and social

emancipation. They organized themselves in 1913 among communities throughout the

world, adopting the following goals and means:

1-To liberate India with the force of arms from British servitude and to establish a free

and independent India with equal rights for all. 2-To establish their headquarters in San

Francisco, that would serve as a base to coordinate all the activities for achieving these

aims and objectives. 3-To publish a weekly paper, Ghadar, in Urdu, Hind1, Punjabi and

in other languages of India. 4-To hold organisational elections every year to elect a

coordination committee from the different committees to carry out all the work. 5-To

organize cells amongst Indian railway, industrial, and farm workers, as well as students

who would be directly linked to the centre. 6-The coordination committee would elect a

three-member commission to supervise the political and underground work. 7-Revenue

would be drawn from each member through a monthly contribution of one dollar. 8-No

discussion or debate was to take place on religion within the organization. Religion was

considered a personal matter and that it had no place in the organization. 9-Every

member was duty bound to participate in the liberation struggle of that country in

which they were resident.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


To mark the centenary of the Gadar movement, the Indian Government is planning to

fund the conversion of the Gadar Memorial in San Francisco into a museum and

library. The Hindustan Gadar Party, when founded in 1913, begun its operation from

436 Hill Street of the northern Californian city. It came to be known as ‗Yugantar

Ashram‗ and it was from here that the freedom fighters were active from 1913 to 1917.

From this place they published a weekly magazine called Gadar to propagate the cause

of Indian independence.

CULTURE

UPSC question

22. Consider the following languages:

1. Gujarati

2. Kannada

3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‗Classical Language / Languages‘ by the

Government?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c)

Insights question

From Secure prelims

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/17/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-

july-17-2014/

The explanation very clearly answers the question.

With reference to classical languages of India, consider the following statements

1. Once a language is declared classical, it gets financial assistance for setting up a

centre of excellence for the study of that language

2. No major language spoken north of 20 degree latitude in India is so far accorded

classical status

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1 Only

2 Only

Both

None

Solution: b)

Explanation : http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.aspx?relid=103967

Excerpts from the above mentioned link

There has been a demand that Odia, which is one of the oldest languages and has no

resemblance to Hindi, Sanskrit, Bengali, Telugu, etc., be declared as a classical language.

So far Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam have been declared as classical

languages

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odia-gets-classical-language-

status/article5709028.ece

UPSC question

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/17/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-july-17-2014/

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/17/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-july-17-2014/


http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odia-gets-classical-language-status/article5709028.ece

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odia-gets-classical-language-status/article5709028.ece

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


23. The national motto of India, ‗Satyameva Jayate‘ inscribed below the Emblem of

India is taken from

a) Katha Upanishad

b) Chandogya Upanishad

c) Aitareya Upanishad

d) Mundaka Upanishad

Answer: d)

Insights question

This was from secure prelims (in the previous year questions Initiative)

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/04/insights-secure-prelims-2014-04-august-

2014/

Which one of the following pairs of famous sayings and their sources is correctly

matched?

a) Vasudhaiva Kutumbhakam : Artha Sastra

b) Yogakshemam vahamyaham : Rig Veda

c) Satyameva jayate : Mundaka Upanishad

d) Satyam Shivam Sundaram : Bhagavat Gita

Answer: c)

SOCIAL SECTOR

UPSC question

24. Consider the following diseases:

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/04/insights-secure-prelims-2014-04-august-2014/


INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


1. Diptheria

2. Chickenpox

3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None

Answer: b)

Insights question from Secure Prelims

Link: http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/02/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-

prelims-2014-questions-current-events-july-02-2014/


1. In India, Small Pox is completely eradicated but Guniea Worm disease continues

to persist in some pockets

2. Guniea Worm Disease spreads through contaminated air


1 Only

2 Only

Both

None

Explanation: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.aspx?relid=103442

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/02/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-2014-questions-current-events-july-02-2014/

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/07/02/upsc-prelims-2014-insights-secure-prelims-2014-questions-current-events-july-02-2014/


INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


―Small pox and Guinea worm are the two diseases declared eradicated from the

country. No confirmed clinical cases of these diseases have been reported from the

country after declaration of their eradication.‖

PAPER 2

UPSC question (paper II)

1. Examine the following statements :

I. George attends Music classes on Monday.

II. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.

III. His Literature classes are not on Friday.

IV. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes.

V. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.

If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on

Monday

Thursday

Saturday

Friday

Insights question

From Secure prelims ( previous year section) – It was repeated verbatim.

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/04/insights-secure-prelims-2014-04-august-

2014/

Examine the following statements :



INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


I. George attends Music classes on Monday.

II. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.

III. His Literature classes are not on Friday.

IV. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes.

V. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.

If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on

Monday

Thursday

Saturday

Friday

UPSC question (Paper 2)

2. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only

English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi.

If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can

speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English ?

21, 11 and 29 respectively




Insights question

From Secure Prelims (Previous year section) – repeated verbatim.

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/06/insights-secure-prelims-05-august-2014/

There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English

and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the

number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak

Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English ?





UPSC question (paper 2)

3. A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory

is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes

early. The distance of the factory from his house is

4 km

5 km

6 km

7 km

Insights question

From Secure Prelims (previous year section) – Repeated Verbatim

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/06/insights-secure-prelims-05-august-2014/

INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM


http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/07/insights-secure-prelims-previous-year-

questions-06-august-2014/

A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is

5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early.

The distance of the factory from his house is

4 km

5 km

6 km

7 km

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/07/insights-secure-prelims-previous-year-questions-06-august-2014/

http://insightsonindia.com/2014/08/07/insights-secure-prelims-previous-year-questions-06-august-2014/

repeated questions in upsc from insights test series

Documents