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RFS (ACADEMY OF DESIGN) NIFT-NID-B.ARCH

1. What is the approximate answer of the following?12833 + 133% of 1655 – 7 of 3533 =? 5 (a) 10000(b) 10500(c) 11000(d) 9500

Answer: - (a)

2. 9999 +8888 +777 +? = 10700(a) 36(b) 16(c) 64(d) 26

Answer: - (a)

3. 60? 6 × 111 = 666666(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 6

Answer: - (a)

4. Find the least number of 3 digits, which is exactly divisible by 14.(a) 112(b) 100(c) 114(d) None of these

Answer: - (a)

5. What fraction are 6 bananas in 5 dozen?(a) 5

6(b) 1

10(c) 1

10(d) 10

11

Answer: - (b)

SUMATI PALACE 2ND FLOOR BORING ROAD PATNA; HELP NO. - 9835000222


6. A person went to the market and purchased a pen for Rs. 15. If he is still left with 2 Th of his total money, find the total amount of money he had initially. 5(a) Rs 40 (b) Rs 37.50(c) Rs 55(d) None of these

Answer: - (d)

7. Find the distance covered by a man walking for 12 min at a speed of 3.5 km/h.(a) 0.7 km(b) 7 km(c) 1.7 km(d) 7.7 km

Answer: - (a)

8. Find the greatest number of 5 digits which is exactly divisible by 463.(a) 99082 (b) 99545(c) 99568(d) 99999

Answer: - (b)

9. What percentage is equivalent to 3? 5(a) 15% (b) 85%(c) 65(d) 60%

Answer: - (d)

10. If mohan’s salary is 10% more than that of sohan, then how much per cent is sohan’s salary less than that of mohan?(a) 100 % (b) 100 % (c) 9 % (d) 20 % 9 11 11 11

Answer: - (b)

11. The radius of a circular wheel is 7 m. How many revolutions it has to make in travelling 11 km? 4



(a) 1500(b) 1200(c) 1000(d) 1600

Answer: - (c)

12. What is compound interest on Rs. 5000 for 4 yr if the rate of interest is 10% p.a. for the 2 yr and 20% P.A, for the next 2 yr?(a) Rs 2320.50(b) Rs 3712(c) Rs 3745(d) Rs 5368

Answer: - (b)

13. What is the number of numbers between 400 and 500, if both the numbers are counted?(a) 101 (b) 100(c) 99(d) 102

Answer: - (a)

14. How many bricks are required to build a wall of 15 m length, 12 m height and 20 cm thickness, if the brick is 36 cm long, 25 cm wide and 10 cm tricks?(a) 2000(b) 4000(c) 12000(d) None of these

Answer: - (a)

15. A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 yr. In how many years will it amount to eight times itself?(a) 12 yr(b) 10 yr(c) 8 yr(d) 9 yr

Answer: - (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) what approximate value will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)



16. 465.84 + 764.86 – 211.99 =?(a) 1100 (b) 1080 (c) 1000 (d) 1020

Answer: - (d)

17. 149.9% of 149.9 + 149.9 =?(a) 375 (b) 400 (c) 350 (d) 425

Answer: - (a)

18. 3001 × 749 ÷ 1001 – 1399 =?(a) 650 (b) 700 (c) 950 (d) 850

Answer: - (d)

19. The average of five numbers is 56. If the average of first four numbers is 54. What is the value of the fifth number?(a) 68 (b) 72 (c) 56 (d) 64

Answer: - (d)

20. If a number is added to seven-ninth of thirty five per cent of 900, the value so obtained is 325. What is the number?(a) 60 (b) 120 (c) 90 (d) 80

Answer: - (d)

21. What least number should be subtracted from the 1740, so that it will be completely divisible by 88?(a) 156 (b) 68 (c) 58 (d) 146

Answer: - (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-25) what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

22. 36 × 15 – 56 × 784 ÷ 112 =?(a) 138 (b) 238 (c) 158 (d) 148

Answer: - (d)

23. 28.314 – 31.427 + 113.928 =? + 29.114(a) 81.711 (b) 80.701 (c) 71.711 (d) 332

Answer: - (d)

24. 2 of 7 of 75% of 450 =?3 5



(a) 378(b) 756(c) 252 (d) 332

Answer: - (a)

25. 36% of 420 – 56% of 350 =? – 94(a) 48.2 (b) 49.2 (c) – 138.8 (d) – 158.8

Answer: - (b)

26. It takes 6 technicians a total of 10 h to build a new server from Direct Computer, with each working at the same rate. If six technicians start to build the sever at 11 am and one technician per hour is added beginning at 5 pm, at what time will the sever be complete?(a) 6 : 40 pm (b) 7 pm (c) 7 : 20 pm (d) 8 pm

Answer: - (d)

27. A child was asked to add first few natural numbers (that is, 1+2+3+……..) so long his patience permitted. As he stooped, he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher declared the result wrong the child discovered he had missed on number in the sequence during addition. The number he missed was(a) Less than 10 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) more than 15

Answer: - (d)

28. After the division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the reminders obtained are 2, 1 and 4 respectively. What will be the reminder, if 84 divide the same number?(a) 80 (b) 76 (c) 41 (d) 53

Answer: - (d)

29. Find the least number which when divided by 36, 48 and 64 leaves the reminders 25, 37 and 53 respectively.(a) 565 (b) 454 (c) 321 (d) 981

Answer: - (a)

30. A man reads 3/8 of a book on a day and 4/5 of the reminder, on the second day. If the number of pages still unread is 40, how many pages did the book contain? (a) 300 (b) 315 (c) 320 (d) none of these

Answer: - (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31 -34) Choose the missing term from given alternatives.



31. GBC, HDF, IFI…(a) JKL (b) JLH (c) JHI (d) JHL

Answer: - (d)

32. a_ab_babab_b(a) bbb (b) baa (c) aaa (d) aab

Answer: - (b)

33. The next number in the series 2, - 4, 8, -16, 32, ………… is(a) -64 (b) 64 (c) 128 (d) -128

Answer: - (a)

34. The next number in the series 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, ……………………………. is (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 39

Answer: - (b)

35. If in a certain language ‘rom pom to’ means ‘girls is bad’ ‘main to tee’ means ‘boy is ugly’ and ‘dum pom po’ means ‘they are bad’, which word in that language means ‘girls’?

(a) to (b) tee (c) pom (d) rom

Answer: - (d)

36. If in a certain code ‘nee tim see’ means ‘how are you’ ble nee see means ‘where are you’? What is the code for ‘where’? (a) see (b) tim (c)nee (d) ble

Answer: - (d)

37. A watch reads 12: 15. If the hour hand points towards North-East, in which direction does its minute hand points?(a) South-East (b) South (c) East (d) South-West

Answer: - (a)

38. Seema walks 40 m south. Then, she turns right and walks 60 m. then; she turns right and walks 55 m. Then, she again turns left and walks 35 m. Then she again turns left and walks15 m. In which direction and how far is she from the starting points?(a) 105 m East (b) 105 m West (c) 75 m East (d)95 m West

Answer: - (d)

39. Shiva walks 10 km towards North and then turns right. After walking 3 km he again turns right and walks 7 km. Now, he turns left and walks 1 km. How far is he from the starting points?



(a) 10 km (b) 7 km (c) 20 km (d) 5 km

Answer: - (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-43) Study the following information carefully and then answer the question given below it.

An export processing unit has a computerized machine, which generates six codes to distinguish product of each of seven batches produced in a day. Based on that, the machine generates 6 codes by rearrangements of words for subsequent batches.

Following is an illustration of generation of codes for some batches of a day.

Day’s first batch – which nut cream page for table Day’s second batch- who for cream page nut table Day’s third batch- who for page cream nut table Day’s fourth batch- table for page cream nut who Day’s fifth batch- page table for nut who cream

Day’s sixth batch- page who for nut table cream and so on till the seventh batch. Next day based on the same rule, new set of words will be introduced as given above.

40. If the seventh batch of the day is ‘from door no leaf glass but’ which of the following would be the first three words of code of batch third of that day?(a) Door leaf from(b) Door leaf but(c) Glass leaf from (d) But door no

Answer: - (a)

41. If the code of sixth batch of the day is ‘very say could man on fire’, which of the following batch code would read as ‘say could very fire man or?(a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth

Answer: - (b)

42. If the code of fourth batch is ‘so when clean get lemon dust’ which of the following would be the code for the seventh batch?(a) Get dust lemon when so clean (b) Clean so when lemon dust get(c) Clean dust lemon when so get

Answer: - (d)43. If the first batch code of a day is ‘five gave it close to mine’, which of the following will be the

code for fourth batch?



(a) Five to it close gave mine(b) Mine to close it gave five(c) Five to close it gave mine(d) Close five to gave mine it

Answer: - (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 44-48) in these questions a statement is given followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Mark the answer as

(a) If only Argument I is strong (b) If only Argument II is strong (c) If both the Arguments are strong (d) If neither I nor II is strong44. Statements: Has he Medical Science really lengthened the span of life?

Arguments I Yes, the new drugs have been able to combat the diseases and increase the span of life.

Arguments II No, the eternal truth that every person’s days are numbered cannot be denied.

Answer: - (a)

45. Statements: should mass media be fully controlled by the government?Arguments I Yes, the contradictory news only confuses the people.Arguments II No, its credibility will be doubtful if it confuses people.

Answer: - (d)

46. Statements: Should sales tax be abolished?Arguments I Yes, it will eliminate an important sources of corruption Arguments II Yes, it will bring the prices of commodities down and hence, consumers will be

benefited.

Answer: - (d)

47. Statement: should there be women chief minister in states?Arguments I Yes, only then will the plight of women be removed and their conditions will Improve.Arguments II No, a woman is not capable of ruling a state.

Answer: - (d)

48. Statements: Computer based technology is very fruitful for industrial development in India.Arguments I Yes, accuracy, fast production and fineness are possible through computer techno.



Arguments II No, it wills increases unemployment in the country.

Answer: - (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 49-53) Read the following information to answer these questions.

The director of an institute has announced that six guest lectures on different areas like, Leadership, Decision, Making, Quality Circle, Motivation, Assessment Centre and Group Discussion are too organized, only one on each day, from Monday to Sunday.

i. Motivation should be organized immediately after Assessment Centreii. Quality Circle should be organized on Wednesday and should not be followed by Group

Discussion.iii. Decision Making should be a gap of two days between Leadership and Group Discussion.iv. One day there will be no lecture (Saturday is not that day); just before that day Group

Discussion will be organized.49. Which of the following pairs of lectures was organized on the first and the last day? (a) Quality Circle and Motivation (b) Group Discussion and Quality Circle(c) Group Discussion and Decision Making (d) None of the above

Answer: - (d)

50. How many lectures are organized between Motivation and Quality Circle?(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these

Answer: - (c)

51. On which day, the lecture on leadership will be organized?(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Friday (d) None of these

Answer: - (d)

52. On which of the following day’s there was a lecture?(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday (d) None of these

Answer: - (c)

53. On which day, the lecture on Group Discussion will be organized (a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Thursday (d) None of these

Answer: - (a)

54. Which combination figure best represents the relationship between mosquitoes, ants and insects?



(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer:-b

55. Which of the following diagrams best depicts cousins, nephews and males?

(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer:-a

56. Which of the following combinations of Circle best represents athletes, sprinters and marathon runners?


57. Which of the following combinations of figures best represents males, doges and pets?


Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60) In each of the following questions there is a set of four figure labeled A, B, C, and D called the Problem Figure followed by a set of four other figures labeled (a), (b), (c), and (d) called the Answer Figures. One figure which will substitute this question mark so that a series is formed by the figures A, B, C, and D taken in order. The number of the selected figure is the answer.

58. Problem Figures



ANSWER-(d)

59. Problem Figures

ANSWER- (c)60. Problem Figures

ANSWER - (b)

Direction (Q. Nos. 61- 90) Answer these questions

61. Which folk dance is from Gujarat?(a) Giddha(b) Garva(c) Ras



(d) Nachani

Answer: - (b)

62. India’s position in terms of medals tally at 16th Asian Games 2010 at Guanghou was(a) Fifth(b) Sixth(c) Seventh(d) Third

Answer: - (b)

63. Hero group and Honda terminated their 26-yr-old joint venture known as Hero Honda. Signed MoU allows Hero Honda group to use Honda brand name on new models until(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2015

Answer: - (c)

64. How many Navratna Companies have been upgraded and awarded the status of ‘Maharatna’ companies?(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

Answer: - (a)

65. SAARC Trade Fair was organized between December 15, 19, 2010 in (a) Kathmadu (Nepal) (b) Hyderabad (India) (c) Dhaka (Bangladesh) (d) Islamabad (Pakistan)

Answer: - (a)

66. Which of the following public sector enterprise does not posse ‘Maharatna’ status given to four Navratna Companies?(a) SAIL (b) BHEL (c) ONGC(d) NTPC

Answer: - (b)67. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an

installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of (a) 13th plan(b) 14th plan (c) 15th plan (d) 16th plan



Answer: - (a)

68. The term ’16 yards hit’ is associated with(a) Badminton(b) Baseball (c) Polo(d) Hockey

Answer: - (d)

69. Detroit city is known for which industry?(a) Textiles(b) Automobiles (c) Aircrafts (d) None of these

Answer: - (b)

70. Who wrote ‘Gulliver’s Travel’, a book famous all over world?(a) C.S Lewis (b) J.K Rowling(c) Jonathan Swift(d) Elizabeth Gilbert

Answer: - (c)

71. Indian Railways’ Rail Wheel Factory is located at which place?(a) Ludhiana(b) Kapurthala(c) Bengaluru(d) Varanasi

Answer: - (c)

72. Headquarter of Securities and exchange Board of India (SEBI) is located in which city?(a) Kolkata (b) Delhi (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai

Answer: - (c)

73. Paradip port is located in which state of India?(a) Odisha (b) Andhra Pradesh(c) Gujarat(d) Kerala



Answer: - (a)

74. Presently, who is the Chief of the Censor Board?(a) Shebana Azmi(b) Hema Malini(c) Sharmila Tagore(d) Asha Parekh

Answer: - (c)

75. Which of the following games/sports was not included in the list of Commonwealth Games 2010?(a) Golf (b) Boxing(c) Hockey(d) Weight lifting

Answer: - (c)

76. ‘Transforming Lives’ is the new tagline of which of the following PSUs?(a) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. (b) Steel Authority of Indian Ltd.(c) NTPC Ltd.(d) BHEL

Answer: - (c)

77. Bull fighting is the national game of________.(a) Spain (b) Italy(c) Russia(d) Sudan

Answer: - (a)

78. SAFTA stands for _______.(a) South Asian Free Trade Agreement (b) South Asian Festival of Tourism and Aviation(c) South Asian Free Tourism Association (d) South Asian Free Trade Acts

Answer: - (a)

79. The book ‘Malgudi day’s has been written by _______.(a) K.R Narayanan



(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore(c) R.K Narayan(d) Prem Chand

Answer: - (c)

80. Adeline ‘The bankers to every Indian have linked with which bank?(a) ICICI Bank(b) HDFC Bank(c) State Bank of India(d) Bank of India

Answer: - (d)

81. MNP stands for……………….(a) Mobile Number Password(b) Maha Nagar Palika (c) Mobile Number Possession(d) Mobile Number Portability

Answer: - (d)

82. Which Five Year Plan Will starts from the year 2012-13?(a) 13th (b) 12th (c) 11th (d) 14th

Answer: - (b)

83. National Youth Day is observed on which day?(a) 12 January(b) 14 February(c) 05 September(d) 14 November

Answer: - (a)

84. Michael Douglas is a well known…………………………(a) Golfer (b) Actor (c) Politician (d) Cricketer

Answer: - (b)

85. Which of the following airlines has recently gone ahead and ordered 180 brand new Airbus A-320s to be delivered between 2016 and 2025?(a) Kingfisher Airlines (b) Indigo(c) Sahara airlines (d) Jetlite



Answer: - (b)

86. Compact car model ‘Liva’ has been recently launched in India by which automobile company?(a) Toyota (b) Maruti-Suzuki(c) Hyundai(d) None of these

Answer: - (a)

87. Proposed changes in RTI Act include restricting question per RTI query to one and word count to ……………. Per query.(a) 250 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 150

Answer: - (a)

88. ‘Safal’ is the fruit and vegetable division of ………………………….(a) Delhi Milk Scheme (DMS)(b) Mother Dairy (c) Nestle(d) ITC

Answer: - (b)

89. Eleventh Five Year Plan covers the period………………(a) 2007-12(b) 2006-11(c) 2008-13(d) 2009-14

Answer: - (a)

90. Which country gives Magsaysay awards?(a) Indonesia(b) Australia(c) The Philippines(d) South Korea Answer: - (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-120) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Passage 1

How many really suffer as a result of labour market problems? This is one of the most critical yet contentious social policy questions. In many ways, our social statistics exaggerate the degree of



hardship. Unemployment does not have the same dire consequences today as it did in the 1930s when most of the unemployed were primary breadwinners, when income and earnings were usually much closer to the margin of subsistence and when there were no countervailing social programms for those failing in the labour market. Increasing affluence, the rise of families with more than one wage earner, the growing predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed and improved social welfare protection have unquestionably mitigated the consequences of joblessness. Earnings and income data also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among the millions with hourly earnings at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent families. Most of those counted by the poverty statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family responsibilities which keep them out of the labour force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an accurate indicator of labour market pathologies. Yet they are also many ways our social statistics underestimate the degree of labour market related hardship. The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low that their families remain in poverty. Low-wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment frequently interact to undermine the capacity for self-support. Since, the number experiencing joblessness at same time during the year is several times the number unemployed in any month; these who suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or exceed average annual unemployment, even though only a minority of the jobless in any month really suffers. For every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies, there is another working part-time because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the labour force but wanting a job. Finally, income transfers in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled and dependent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those failing in the labour market are adequately protected. As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of labour market problems, number in the hundreds of thousand or the tens of millions, and, hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one area of agreement in this debate that the existing poverty, employment and earnings statistics are consequences of labour market problem.

91. Which of the following is the principal topic of the passage?(a) What causes labour market pathologies that result in suffering?(b) Why income measures are imprecise in measuring degrees of poverty?(c) Which of the currently used statistical procedure are the best for estimating the incidence

of hardship that is due to unemployment?(d) How social statistics give an unclear picture of the degree of hardship caused by low

wages and insufficient employment opportunities?

Answer: - (b)

92. The author contrasts the 1930s with the present in order to show that(a) More people were unemployed in the 1930s(b) Unemployment now has less severe effects



(c) Social programmes are more needed now(d) There now is a greater proportion of elderly and handicapped people among those in

poverty

Answer: - (b)

93. Which of the following proposals best responds to the issues raised by the author?(a) Innovative programmes using multiple approaches should be set up to reduce the level of

unemployment.(b) A compromise should be found between the positions of those who view joblessness as

an evil greater than economic control and those who hold the opposite view.(c) New statistical indices should be developed to measure the degree to which

unemployment and inadequately paid employment cause suffering.(d) Consideration should be given to the ways in which statistics can act as partial causes of

the phenomena that they purport to measure.

Answer: - (c)

94. The author’s purpose in citing those who are repeatedly unemployed during a twelve-month period is most probably to show that(a) There are several factors that causes the payment of low wages to some members of the

labour force (b) Unemployment statistics can underestimate the hardship resulting from joblessness(c) Recurrent inadequacies in the labour market can exit and can cause hardships for

individual workers(d) A majority of those who are jobless at any one time do not suffer severe hardship

Answer: - (d)

95. The author states that the mitigating effect of social programmes involving income transfers on the income level of low-income people is often not felt by (a) The employed poor(b) Dependent children in single-earner families(c) Workers who become disabled (d) Retired workers

Answer: - (a)

96. According to the passage, one factor that causes unemployment and earnings figures to over predict the amount of economic hardship is the (a) Recurrence of periods of unemployment for group of low-wages workers(b) Possibility that earnings may be received from the more than one job per worker



(c) Fact the unemployment counts do not include those who work for low-wages and remain poor

(d) Prevalence, among low-wages workers and the unemployed, of members of families in which others are employed

Answer: - (d)

Passage 2

The contribution of small and medium enterprises to the overall growth of the economy is well documented. Not only do they provide more employment opportunities for every rupee of capital invested vis-à-vis the large companies, but the manufacturing sector is also a net earner of foreign exchange. Not with standing their contribution, the SME sector is still starved of capital both from the organized banking sectors as also from alternate sources like private equity. Venture capital funds, as also institutions like SIDBI are wholly inadequate to meet the diverse needs of the SME, spread across the length and breadth of the country. One reason for private equity funds dragging their feet in spotting the winners of tomorrow is the relatively low returns on their time and effort in grooming an SME as compared to a mid-size company. Their arguments is that the management time invested in grooming the SME is almost the same if not more, even as their capacity to absorb large investments is virtually non-existent. Commercial banks who work on set parameters of lending often find the SME discipline wanting in case of accounting norms, inventories and management of working capital. The cost of zeroing in on the next super-star inevitably acts as a deterrents to Private Equity (PE) funds. Fear of private equity firms asking for a controlling interest is also one of the factors dissuading promoters from actively seeking private equity funds. Given this scenario, it is important to create an environment and build an infrastructure which allows SMEs to access risk capital. Given that these companies cannot meet the rigorous listing criteria of the larger stock exchanges, at least till such time as they are able to grow to a sizeable level there is a need to provide an alternate mechanism/window for the SME. Earlier attempts made by both BSE and NSE have failed to address the problem. On both exchanges save for the top few hundred stocks, illiquidity is rampant across more than half of the listed companies. Against this background, the government’s initiative to set up a separate stock exchange for SME is indeed a laudable step. SEBIs latest proposal defining the framework and requirement of companies wishing to set up an SME exchanges is also a step in the right direction. The requirement of Rs 100 crore net worth with nation-wide trading terminals will ensure that only serious players will enter the fray. The condition that the clearing function must be performed by a recognized clearing house will also provide a degree of comfort to investors venturing on this exchange. The minimum trading lot of Rs 1 lakh is meant to ensure that only investors who are well aware of the risks involved participate. All major exchange in the world has a separate window for smaller companies. London Stock Exchange’s Alternate Investment Market (AIM) is gaining popularity amongst Indian companies. Nasdaq, NYSE and even Japan have similar windows for smaller companies which are subsequently allowed to graduate to the main market once day grow in size. The problem of creating liquidity in shares is addressed by Nomads on the AIM market who are required to give a two-way quote, like the jobbers on the BSE when the open cry system was in vogue. SEBI which currently mandates either an order driven or quote driven system could learn from the international experience



of specialized brokers for SMEs listed on the exchanges. Given the spread of the SMEs across the country at least three or four exchanges will be needed. A geographic spread would also help in getting regional investors as those who are well-versed with the development in the regions to invest in the companies from those ensure quality of services and inculcate discipline amongst the management. One of the reasons cited for OTCEI failure was inadequate attention by the management in developing the infrastructure. Remember, OTCEI was set up at a time when the infrastructure for electronic trading was just not there. While modalities for improving the functionality can be changed along the way the important thing for SEBI is to do two things. First spell out the funding requirements for any SME to list. It has to be simple quick and cheap. In the UK licensed Nomads are authorized to clear documents satisfying themselves that there is adequate disclosure. And second, to provide a time-frame for the exchanges to start operations as quickly as possible.

97. Which of the following factors lead(s) to SMEs being starved of capital?(I) Geographically they are scattered across the country.(II) They do not have the capacity to absorb large investments.(III) The fear that private investors could ask for controlling stake in the company, dissuades

SMEs from seeking their funds.(I) Only I(II) Only I and II (III) Only III(IV) I, II and III

Answer: - (d)

98. The Government has taken the initiative to set up a separate stock exchange for SMEs mainly because(a) This step will be lauded by one and all(b) It is important to create an environment which encourages SMEs to access risk capital for

growth(c) SMEs prefer their own stock exchange, rather than go with the bigger companies (d) All major exchanges in the world have done the same

Answer: - (b)

99. OTCEI, the failed stock exchange venture, was set up in (a) Only UK (b) Only India(c) India, USA, UK and Japan (d) Not clear from the passage

Answer: - (d)

100. Which of the following captions would be most appropriate for this passage?



(a) Funding the smaller factors.(b) SEBI Recommendations – The way forward for SMEs(c) Smaller stocks vs. Larger Stocks. (d) Globalization of Stock Market

Answer: - (b)

101. Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?(a) SMEs are contributing significantly to the growth of the economy(b) All major stock exchange have a separate window for SMEs (c) Liquidity for SME stocks is assured in BSE and NSE(d) SEBI is well equipped to define the way forward as regards setting up of separate

exchange for SMEs

Answer: - (c)

Passage 3

Among the natural resources that can be called upon in national plans for development, possibly the most important is human labour. Since the English language suffers from a certain weakness in its ability to describe group composed of both male and female members this is usually described as ‘manpower’ Without a productive labour force including effective leadership and intelligent middle management no amount of foreign assistance or natural wealth can ensure successful development and modernization. The manpower for development during the next quarter century will come from the world’s present population of infants’ children and adolescents. But we are not sure that they will be equal to the task. Will they have the health the education the skills the socio-cultural attitude essential for the responsibilities of development? For far too many of them the answer is no. the reason is basic. A child’s most critical years, with regard to physical intellectual social and emotional development are those before he reaches five years of age. During those critical formative years he is cared for almost exclusively by his mother and in many parts of the world the mother may not have the capacity to raise a superior child. She is incapable of doing so because of her social and legal rights and economic parity of independence. One essential factor has been overlooked or ignored – the role of women. Development will be handicapped as long as women remain second-class citizens, uneducated, without any voice in family or community decisions, without legal or economic status married when they are all still practically children and thereafter producing one baby after another, often only to see half of them die before they are of school going age. We can enhance development by improving “woman power” by giving women the opportunity to develop themselves. Statistics Show that the average family size increases in inverse ratio to the mother’s years of education – is lowest among college graduates highest among those with only primary school training or no education. Malnutrition is most frequent in large families and increases in frequency with each additional sibling. The principle established seems that an educated mother has healthier and more intelligent children and that this is related to the fact that she has fewer children. The tendency even without access to contraceptive services. The educational level of woman is significant also because it



has a direct influence upon their chances of employment; and the number of employed woman in a country’s total labour force has a direct bearing on both the Gross National Product and the disposable income of the individual family. Disposable income, especially in the hands of woman, influences food purchasing and therefore the nutritional status of the family. The fact that this additional income derives from the paid employment of women provides a logical incentive to restrict the size of the family.

102. Among the natural resources that can be called upon in national plans for development(a) The most important is certainly human labour(b) The most important is possibly human labour(c) The least developed is certainly human labour(d) The least developed is undoubtedly human labour

Answer: - (b)

103. Without a productive labour force including effective leadership and intelligent middle management,(a) No productive work is possible(b) Entrepreneurs will incur heavy losses (c) Economic development will not keep pace with nationalist movements(d) No amount of foreign assistance or natural wealth can ensure successful development and

modernization

Answer: - (d)

104. The manpower development during the next quarter-century(a) Will be adversely affected by the threat of war (b) Will come from the world’s present population of infants children and adolescents (c) Will be well taken care of by the current emphasis on free education for women(d) Will be adversely affected by the country’s economic losses and political instability

Answer: - (b)

105. The statement made by the writer is that(a) The world’s present population of infants children and adolescents is very healthy (b) The world’s present population of infants children and adolescents is very sickly(c) The world’s present population of infants children and adolescents may not be equal to

the task(d) The world’s present population of infants children and adolescents is likely to become

morally bankrupt

Answer: - (c)

106. The writer directly or indirectly made three of the following statements; which is the one he didn’t make?



(a) Many of the world’s present population of infants children and adolescents will not have the health, the education the skill the socio-cultural attitudes essential, for the responsibilities of development

(b) A child’s most critical years with regards to physical intellectual social and emotional development, are those before he reaches five years of age

(c) Development will be handicapped as long as women remain second-class citizens(d) In the advanced countries of the world women are regarded as first-class citizens

Answer: - (d)

Passage 4

Globalization, liberalization and free market are some of the most significant modern trends in economy. Most economists in our country seem captivated by the spell of the free market. Consequently nothing seems good or normal that does not accord with the requirements of the free market. A price that is determined by the seller or, for that matter, established by anyone other than the aggregate of consumers seems pernicious. Accordingly, it requires a major act will to think of price-fixing as both normal and having a valuable economic function. In fact price-fixing is normal in the industrialized societies because the industrial system itself provides, an effortless consequence of its own development he the price-fixing that it requires. Modern industrial planning requires and rewards great size. Hence, a comparatively small number of large firms will be competing for the same group of consumers. That each large firm will act with consideration of its own needs and thus avoid selling its products for more than what its competitors charge is commonly recognized by advocates of free-market economic theories. But each large firm will also act with full consideration of the needs that it has in common with the other large firms competing for the same customers. Each large firm will thus avoid significant price-cutting because price-cutting will be prejudicial to the common interest in a stable demand for products. Most economic do not see price-fixing when it occurs because they expect it on be brought about by a number of explicit agreements among large firms it is not.

Moreover some economists argue that allowing the free-market to operate without interference is the most efficient method of establishing prices in all cases, except for the economics of non-socialist countries. Most of these economies employ intentional price-fixing usually in an overt fashion. Formal price-fixing by cartels and formal price-fixing by agreements covering the members of an industry are common. Were there something peculiarly efficient about the free markets and inefficient about price-fixing the countries that have avoided the first and used the second would have suffered drastically in their economic development. There is no indication that they have.

Socialist industry also works within a framework of controlled prices. In the early 1970s, the Soviet Union began to give firms and industries some flexibility in adjusting prices that a more informal evolution has accorded the capitalist system. Economists in the USA have hailed the change as a return to the free market. But the Soviet firms were not in favor of the prices established by a free market, over which exercised little influence. Rather, Soviet firms acquired some power to fix prices.



107. The author’s primary objective of writing the passage seems to (a) Belie the popular belief that the free-market helps enhance development of industrial

societies (b) Advocate that price-fixing is un-avoidable and it is beneficial to the economy of, any

industrialized society (c) Explain the methodology of fixing price to stabilize free-market(d) Prove that price-fixing and free-market are compatible and mutually beneficial to

industrialized societies

Answer: - (b)

108. Which of the following statements I, II and/or III is/are TRUE in the context of the information given in the passage?(I) Know some of the way in which prices can be fixed.(II) Identify the products for which price-fixing can be more beneficial. (III) Differentiate between the economics of various countries.(a) Only I (b) Only II(c) Only III(d) Only I and II

Answer: - (a)

109. Considering the literal meaning and connotations of the words used in the passage the author’s attitude towards “most economists” can best be described as(a) Derogatory and antagonistic (b) Impartial and unbiased (c) Spiteful and envious (d) Critical and condescending

Answer: - (d)

110. The author feels that prices fixed by seller seems pernicious because (a) People don’t’ have faith in large firms(b) People don’t want the Government to fix prices(c) Most economists believe that consumers should determine prices (d) Most economists believe that no one group should determine prices

Answer: - (c)

111. Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage?(a) A profitable result of economic development (b) An inevitable result of the industrial system



(c) The joint result of a number of carefully organized decisions (d) A phenomenon uncommon to industrialized societies

Answer: - (b)

Passage 5

We can a man irrational when he acts in passion – when he cuts off his nose to spite his face. He is irrational because he forgets that by indulging the desire that he happens to feels most strongly about at the moment he will thwart other desires which, in the long run are more important to him. If men were rational they do a t present and if all men acted from enlightened self-interest the world would be a paradise in comparison with what it is now. I do not maintain that there is nothing better than self-interest as a motive to action but I do maintain that self-interest like altruism is better when it is enlightened than when it is unenlightened. In an ordered community it is very rarely to man’s interest to do anything which is very harmful to other. The less rational a man is more often he will fail to perceive how what injures others would also injure him, because hatred or envy will blind him. Therefore although I do not pretend that if it became common it would make the world an immeasurably better place than it is.

Rationality in practice may be defined as the habit of remembering all our relevant desires and not only the one that happens at the moment to be strongest. Like rationality in opinion, it is a matter of degree. Complete rationality is no doubt an unattainable idea but so long as we continue to classify some men as lunatics it is clear that we think some men more rational than others. I believe that all solid progress in the world consists of an increase in rationally both practical and theoretical. To preach an altruistic morality appears to me somewhat useless, because it will appeal only to those who already have altruistic desires. But to preach rationality is somewhat different since rationality helps us to realize our own desires on the whole, whatever they may be a man is rational in proportion as his intelligence informs and controls his desires. I believe that the control of our acts by our intelligence is ultimately what is of most importance and that alone will makes social life remain possible as science increases the means at our disposal for injuring each other. Education the press politics religion in a word all the great forces in the world are at present on the side of irrationality they are in the hands of men who flatter king? Demos in order to lead him astray. The remedy does not lie in anything heroically cataclysmic, but in the efforts of individuals toward a more sane and balanced view of our relations to our neighbors and the world. It is to intelligence increasingly side-spread that we must look for the solution of the ills from which our world is suffering.

112. What is the central idea of the passage?(a) The problems of the world can best be solved by rationality and enlightened self interest (b) Altruism and rationality are the main indicators of intelligence(c) Altruism can make this world heaven(d) Man is absolutely irrational



Answer: - (a)

113. What is the author’s attitude to modern development in science and communications?(a) Cynical about their use (b) Skeptical about the uses they are put to(c) One of cautions acceptance (d) One of concern, about their harmful potential

Answer: - (d)

114. Rationality, according to the passage, means mainly (a) Having regards for others (b) Intelligent control of one’s desires(c) The ability to cultivate a balanced view of one’s surrounding (d) Power to resist yielding to strong passions

Answer: - (b)

115. The author feels that it is impractical to appeal to altruism because (a) Not all people are altruistic by nature (b) Altruism is weaker than rationality(c) Altruism is more refined than rationality (d) None of the above

Answer: - (a)

116. ‘The King Demos’ refers to (a) Populace (b) Politician (c) Scientist (d) Despot

Answer: - (a)

Passage 6

At the time Jane Austen’s novels were published – between 1811 and 18188 – English literature was not part of any academic curriculum. In addition fiction was under strenuous attack. Certain religious and political groups felt novels had the power to make so-called immoral characters so interesting that young readers would identify with them these groups also considered novels to be of little practical use. Even Coleridge certainly no literary reactionary spoke for many when he asserted that “novel-readings occasion the destruction of the mind’s powers”. These attitudes toward novels help explain why Austen received little attention from early nineteenth century literary critics. (In any case a novelist published anonymously as Austen was would not be likely to receive much critical attention.) The literary response that was accorded to her however was often as incisive as twentieth



century criticism. In his attack in 1816 on novelistic portrayals “outside of ordinary experience” for example Scott made an insightful “present to the leader an accurate and exact picture of ordinary everyday people and places reminiscent of seventeenth century Flemish painting.” Scott did not use the word ‘realism’ but he undoubtedly used a standard of realistic probability in judging novels/ the critic Whitley did not use to the word ‘realism’ either but he expressed agreement with Scott’s evaluation and went on to suggest the possibilities for moral instruction in what we have called Austen’s ‘realistic method’. Her characters wrote whitely are persuasive agents for moral truth since they are ordinary persons “so clearly evoked that we feel an interest in their fate as if it were our own. Moral instruction explained whitely is more likely to be effective when conveyed through recognizably human and interesting characters than when imparted by a sermonizing narrator. Whitely especially praised Austen’s ability to create characters who “mingle goodness and villainy, weakness and virtue as in life they are always mingled”. Whitely concluded his remarks by comparing Austen’s art of characterization to Dickens’, stating his preference for Austen’s.

Yet the response of nineteenth-century literary critics to Austen was not always so laudatory and often anticipated the reservations was Lewes’ complaint in 1859 that Austen’s range of subjects and characters was too narrow. Praising her verisimilitude, Lewes added that none the less her focus was too often only upon the unlofty and the common place. (Twentieth-century Marxists on the other hand were to complain about what they saw as her exclusive emphasis on a lofty upper-middle class.) In any case having been rescued by some literary critics from neglect and indeed gradually lionized by them Austen steadily reached, by the mid-nineteenth century, the enviable pinnacle of being considered controversial.

117. The passage supplies information to suggest that the religious and political groups (mentioned in the third sentence) and Whitely might have agreed that a novel (a) Has a little practical use (b) Has the ability to influence the moral values of its readers (c) Is of utmost interest to readers when representing ordinary human characters (d) Should not be read by young readers

Answer: - (c)

118. The author quotes Coleridge in order to (a) Refute the literary opinions of certain religious and political groups (b) Make a case for the inferiority of novel to poetry(c) Give an example of a writer who was not a literary reactionary (d) Indicate how widespread the attack on novels was is the early nineteenth century

Answer: - (d)

119. The passage suggests that twentieth century Marxists would have admired Jane Austen’s novels as the Marxists understood them, had (a) Described the values of upper-middle class society(b) Avoided moral instruction and sermonizing



(c) Depicted ordinary society in a more flattering light (d) Portrayed characters from more than one class of society

Answer: - (d)

120. It can be inferred from the passage that Whitely found Dickens’ characters to be (a) Especially interesting to young readers (b) Ordinary persons in recognizably human situations (c) Less liable than Jane Austen’s characters to have a realistic mixture of moral qualities(d) More often villainous and weak than virtuous and good

Answer: - (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-124) Sentences given in the each question when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

121. A. There was a pile of pumpkins sitting on a flatbed truck and both Allen and Blush tried to hoist an aesthetically pleasing pumpkin by the stem.

A. Both stem’s snapped “if you break it, you pay for it Mr. president said Richard Keil of Bloomberg News, echoing Colin Powell’s famous rule, at the outset of the Iraq war.

B.Everything seemed to be going wrong for Brush last week, even to the metaphors.C.On the way to Allen fund raiser we stopped for a photo at a picturesque farm stand outside

“Richmond.D. Bush didn’t seem to get the joke. “I suppose you’re right” he said and tried to by the broken

pumpkin.(a) ABEDC (b) BECAD (c) CDABE (d) ABECD

Answer: - (c)

122. A. We all know that exercise is good for you.

B. Staying physically active helps keep your heart healthy and your muscles strong and in cancer patients it has even been shown to ward off relapse.

C. Now a series of independently conducted studies on the effects of exercise in healthy older adults published on Monday in the Archives of Internal Medicine confirms that.

D. Logging time at the gym not only helps maintain good health but may even prevent the onset of chronic diseases, such as heart diseases, osteoarthritis and dementia.

(a) ABCD (b) DABC (c) CDAB (d) CDBA

Answer: - (a)

123. Sentence arrangement -



A. Borderlines are the patients psychologists fear most.

B. They are power connected to the people close to them and terrified by the possibility of losing them yet attach those people so unexpectedly that they often ensure the every abandonment they fear.

C. When they what to hold, they claw instead.

D. Borderlines patients seem to have no internal governor; they are capable of deep love and profound rage almost simultaneously.

E. As many as 75% hurt themselves and approximately 10% commit suicide, an extraordinarily high suicide rate.

(a) AEDBC (b) CAEDB (c) BDCAE (d) DBCAE

Answer: - (d)

124. A. He read it in an oddly methodical way. B. the moment he had laid aside the body of the papers a masseuse stepped into the room. C. first he tore off page one and the editorial page of the bulky newspaper. D. rapidly, his marble-bright blue eyes took in every story. E. When the rite was over he sat up and as the masseuse worked at the fingers of his right hand stiff from a palm affliction Sulzberger picked up the detached page One of the Times in his left.(a) EACDB (b) ADEBC (c) CBDEA (d) ACBED

Answer: - (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 125-129) each question consists of sentence which are divided into four parts, numbered (a) though (d). Only one part in each sentence is not acceptable sentences which contains the error.

125. (a) Her acceptance of speech

(b) Was well received

(c) Eliciting thunderous applause

(d) At several points.

Answer: - (a)

126. (a) An oppressive solemnity (b) And not the festive mood (c) One night have expected (d) Characterized the mood by the gathering



Answer: - (d)

127. (a) All aspiring artists must (b) Struggle by the conflict(c) Between faith in their own talent(d) And knowledge that very few are great enough to succeed.

Answer: - (b)

128. (a) Despite some bad news(b) Michel’s stature was not diminished (c) And her fans or critics (d) Were unanimous in appreciating her work.

Answer: - (c)

129. (a) Jazz is an American art form (b) which was now flourishing in Europe(c) Through the efforts of expatriates(d) In France, Scandinavia and Germany

Answer: - (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 130-134) in each of the following question choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

130. He puts airs and claims himself too be omniscient.(a) Ignorant (b) Uneducated(c) Unqualified(d) Backward

Answer: - (a)

131. The committee set about making provisional arrangements for the annual conference.(a) Unconditional (b) Abiding(c) Permanent (d) Lasting

Answer: - (c)

132. The priest would not allow anyone to desecrate the sanctity(a) Desist



(b) Integrate(c) Intensify(d) Defame

Answer: - (c)

133. I think you should undertake this job; it would really be a profitable venture for you.(a) Refrain(b) Leave(c) conceal (d) retrieve

Answer: - (b)

134. I think it would be better if this paragraph is eliminated.(a) Added (b) Improved(c) Deleted(d) Shortened

Answer: - (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 135-138) in each of the following questions out of the given alternatives choose the one which is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence.

135. Parents should cultivate in their children the habit of helping others.(a) Propagate (b) sprout (c) create (d) foster

Answer: - (d)

136. Scientific knowledge in an intoxicating draught and it May by one in which the human race is unable to sustain.(a) Drink (b) Product(c) Disease (d) Process

Answer: - (a)

137. He is deluding himself with false hopes.(a) Satisfying(b) Entertaining(c) Misleading (d) Assuring

Answer: - (c)



138. The obstacles seem to be insurmountable but no one should doubt what this fearless woman can accomplish. (a) Too easy to achieve(b) Too difficult to overcome(c) Too tall and too high(d) Too trivial to attract attention

Answer: - (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 139-142) in each of the following question out of the given of words choose the miss-spelt one.

139. (a) impression(b) Compelition(c) Miscellaneous (d) Reproach

Answer: - (b)

140. (a) exonerate (b) Queasy(c) Hurricane(d) Surveilleance

Answer: - (d)

141. (a) incidently (b) Publicity(c) Coddle(d) Realy

Answer: - (d)

142. (a) instructor(b) Grammer(c) Carrier(d) Organizer

Answer: - (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 143-145) in each of the following question an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

143. To read between the lines (a) To concentrate



(b) To read carefully(c) To suspect(d) To grasp the hidden meaning

Answer: - (d)

144. To flog a dead horse (a) To act in a foolish way (b) To waste one’s efforts (c) To revive interest in an old subject (d) To revive old memories

Answer: - (b)

145. To pay one back in the same coin (a) To provoke a person to quarrel (b) To offer another polite attention(c) To retaliate(d) To give a word of encouragement or praise to another

Answer: - (c)


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