sample paper aakash national talent hunt exam 2016 (senior)
TRANSCRIPT
Space for Rough Work
Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
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1. Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and
connected in parallel across a voltage supply of
220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs
are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how
many units of electrical energy will be saved every
month (30 days)?
(1) 55.2 units
(2) 60 units
(3) 4.8 units
(4) 32 units
2.
A
I = 11 A
V
2
4
6
In the circuit diagram shown above, the readings of
voltmeter and ammeter respectively are
(1) 6 V, 3 A (2) 3 V, 6 A
(3) 12 V, 3 A (4) 12 V, 12 A
3. In the following figure, a person of mass m is
standing on a stationary trolley of mass M on a
smooth horizontal surface. The distance between the
front end of the trolley and point A is d. The
horizontal speed with which the person should jump
off the trolley, such that its front end just passes
through point A in time t, is
Time : 2 Hours MM : 360
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)Sample Paper
A
d
(1)d
t(2)
dm
Mt
(3)tM
md(4)
dM
mt
4. For the shown displacement-time graph, the average
velocity of the body in 10 seconds is
Dis
pla
cem
ent (m
)
0 3 6 10
Time (s)
20
(1) 20 m/s (2) 13 m/s
(3)35
m/s3
(4) Zero
5. Magnetic field pattern in a region is as shown below.
The needle of a magnetic compass will be deflected
most when placed at point
A
B
D
C
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
SECTION-A : SCIENCE
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
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10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,
each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of
80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her
is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) Half a minute (2) 40 s
(3) 45 s (4) 15 s
11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross-sectional
areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1
respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B
will be
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
12. A positively charged particle going eastwards enters
a region of uniform and perpendicular magnetic field.
If the particle is deflected vertically upwards, the
direction of magnetic field is
(1) Southwards (2) Northwards
(3) Due west (4) Vertically downwards
13. The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid carrying
constant non-zero current is
(1) Radial
(2) Non-uniform
(3) Uniform
(4) Zero
14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit.
(1) Power and energy
(2) Current and potential difference
(3) Work and energy
(4) Work and power
15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the
highest point
(1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero
(2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero
(3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero
(4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero
6. Same net force is applied on two different objects of
masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of
their acceleration respectively, then the ratio x
y will
be
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
7. An object of mass 2 kg is dropped from a certain
height. On rebounding from the ground, it rises
vertically till 2th
5 of its initial height. The ratio of
magnitude of momentum of the object just before
and after striking the ground is
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 2
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 3
8. A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and
stops after covering one sixth of the track. The
magnitude of his displacement will be
(1) 20 m (2) 20 m
(3) 40 m (4)20
3
m
9. A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it. Which of
the following is/are true w.r.t. this statement?
(a) This phenomenon can be explained on the basis
of Newton's third law of motion.
(b) The magnitude of momentum of gun is greater
than that of bullet.
(c) The magnitude of momentum of bullet is greater
than that of gun.
(d) The magnitude of momentum of bullet and that
of gun are equal.
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b)
(3) (a) & (c) (4) Only (b)
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
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16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during
thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with
natural gas to form compounds Q and R. P, Q and
R respectively are
(1) N2O, O
2 and H
2O (2) CO
2, O
2 and Cl
2
(3) O2, CO
2 and H
2O (4) O
2, CO
2 and H
2
17. The process that does not involve oxidation is
(1) Rancidity (2) Corrosion
(3) Combustion (4) Neutralisation
18. Consider the given table
Elements Number of Number of
NeutronsProtons
Carbon A 8
X B 7
Y 8 8
Z C 9
If carbon and element X are isobars while Y and Z
are isotopes, then A, B, X and Z respectively
represent
(1) 6, 7, oxygen and fluorine
(2) 6, 6, nitrogen and fluorine
(3) 6, 7, nitrogen and oxygen
(4) 7, 7, oxygen and nitrogen
19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode
during the electrolysis of brine?
(1) Cl2
(2) O2
(3) H2
(4) NO2
20. Consider the given Venn diagram :
Constituents of acid rain
Constituentsof the
atmosphere of venus
X
'X' can be identified as
(1) Oxalic acid (2) Acetic acid
(3) Sulphuric acid (4) Nitric acid
21. aMnO2 + bHCl cMnCl
2 + dH
2O + eCl
2
pC2H5OH + qO
2 rCO
2 + sH
2O
a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations
respectively are
(1) 2, 4, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 and 2
(3) 4, 2, 2 and 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 and 2
22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the
same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is
(1) 0.19 mol (2) 2.58 mol
(3) 9.04 mol (4) 7.76 mol
23. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with
respect to Rutherford's atomic model?
(1) There is a positively charged centre in an atom
called nucleus
(2) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular
paths
(3) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do
not radiate energy
(4) The size of nucleus is very small as compared
to the size of the atom
24. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Chemical Reaction Type
(i) Slaking of lime (a) Endothermic
(ii) Respiration (b) Combination
(iii) Neutralisation (c) Exothermic
(iv) Decomposition of
limestone
(1) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c,a; (iv) a,b
(2) (i) c; (ii) b; (iii) b,c; (iv) a
(3) (i) a,b; (ii) b,c; (iii) c; (iv) b
(4) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c; (iv) a
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
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29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt ‘X’ is
obtained. The aqueous solution of ‘X’ will be
(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Amphoteric
(4) Neutral
30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces
a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime
water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas
C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify
the nature of A and the colour of the solution E.
(1) Acidic, blue (2) Basic, red
(3) Basic, yellow (4) Acidic, colourless
31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast
helps in
(1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil
(2) Absorption of light energy
(3) Removal of excess water through lenticels
(4) Exchange of respiratory gases
32. Select incorrect statement(s) regarding the given
diagram of human brain.
P
Q
S
R
(i) P is responsible for precision of voluntary
actions.
(ii) Centre associated with hunger is a part of P.
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation and vomiting
are controlled by R.
25. Read the following statements carefully.
Statement-1 : One mole of carbon weighs 12 g.
Statement-2 : 0.5 moles of nitrogen gas contains
3.011 × 1023 atoms of nitrogen.
Now, choose the correct option.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Only statement-2 is correct
26. Which of the given metals liberate hydrogen gas on
reaction with both acids and bases?
(1) Sodium
(2) Potassium
(3) Magnesium
(4) Zinc
27. Which of the following contains the maximum
number of atoms?
(1) 48 g of helium
(2) 3.011 × 1021 molecules of ammonia
(3) 48 molecules of methane
(4) 3 mol of oxygen
28. Carbon cannot be used to reduce the oxides of
sodium and magnesium to their respective metals
because
(1) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for
carbon than oxygen
(2) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for
oxygen than carbon
(3) Sodium and magnesium are least active metals
(4) Sodium and magnesium catch fire on exposure
to air
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
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36. In the following diagram, which labellings are
correct?
(iv) Bowman's capsule
(iii) Tubular part of nephron
(v) Glomerulus
(ii) Collecting duct
(i) Renal artery
(vi) Branch of renal artery
(1) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) (ii), (v) & (vi)
(3) (iv), (v) & (vi) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
37. Which of the following sets of words should be used
to replace the underlined terms (wherever necessary)
to make the given statements correct?
(i) The saliva contains salivary amylase that breaks
down complex molecules of proteins.
(ii) Undigested food material is removed from the
body through anus.
(iii) The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium
which facilitates the action of the enzyme
trypsin.
(iv) The walls of large intestine contain glands which
secrete intestinal juice.
(v) Bile pigments break down large fat globules into
small globules.
(iv) Q helps in maintaining posture and balance of
the body.
(v) Reflex actions are controlled by S.
(1) Only (i)
(2) (i), (iii) & (v)
(3) (ii) & (iii)
(4) (iii), (iv) & (v)
33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where
exchange of gases can take place.
(1) Neuron
(2) Villi
(3) Nephron
(4) Alveolus
34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.
Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for
oxygen.
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
35. Glucose(i)
Pyruvate Lactic acid + energy(ii)
The given reactions take place, respectively, in
(1) (i) Chloroplast (ii) Subsidiary cells
(2) (i) Mitochondria (ii) Chloroplast
(3) (i) Cytoplasm (ii) Chloroplast
(4) (i) Cytoplasm (ii) Muscle cells
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
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42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to
(1) Absorb more oxygen from the air
(2) Filter the inhaled air
(3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing
(4) Produce more energy
43. While explaining the role of various plant hormones
practically, a teacher observed many wilted leaves on
a tree in the garden. Which of the following
hormones is/are responsible for this?
(1) Auxins
(2) Cytokinins
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Gibberellins
44. Which of the following is the first step of
photosynthesis?
(1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and
oxygen
(2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
molecules
(3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
45. Statement-1 : The opening and closing of the
stomatal pore is the function of guard cells.
Statement-2 : The stomatal pore closes, if the guard
cells swell.
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Fats Anus Trypsin Small Juice
(2) Sugar Rectum Pepsin Small Pigments
(3) Starch Anus Pepsin Small Salts
(4) Proteins Rectum Trypsin Large Juice
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of
starch begins?
(1) Stomach (2) Large intestine
(3) Liver (4) Buccal cavity
39. The artificial kidney removes nitrogenous waste
products from blood through the process of
(1) Dialysis
(2) Active transport
(3) Absorption
(4) Imbibition
40. After an accident, Ram lost his memory, intelligence
and ability to think and reason out. It also affected
his ability to hear and see. Which part of the central
nervous system was most likely affected in the
accident?
(1) Spinal cord
(2) Forebrain
(3) Midbrain
(4) Hindbrain
41. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two endocrine glands located in
the brain. ‘X’ releases a hormone ‘Z’ which regulates
growth in humans. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
(1) X – Hypothalamus and Y – Pituitary gland
(2) X – Thyroid gland and Y – Pineal gland
(3) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Pineal gland
(4) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Thyroid gland
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
7
46. If , and are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial
ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) + + is equal to
(1)2c
a
(2)
2d
a
(3)d
a
(4)
c
a
47. In the given figure, PQRS is a trapezium such that
PQ || SR. The ratio PR : QS is always equal to
O
P Q
RS
(1) PQ : SR
(2) PO – OR : QO – OS
(3) PO + OR : QO – OS
(4) PO2 : OQ
2
48. If 0º < < 90º, then
21 sin cos
cos (1 sin )
is always equal
to
(1) –tan (2) cot
(3) tan (4) –cot
49. If (2 ) 16a a , then the value of a is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 16
SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS
50. In the given figure, if A and B are the mid-points of
the sides PR and QR respectively of PQR and
ACR = BCR, then PQR is always a/an
P
A
B
C R
Q
(1) Scalene triangle
(2) Isosceles triangle
(3) Equilateral triangle
(4) Right angled triangle
51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum
of twice the number of vowels and three times the
number of consonants present in the word is equal
to four more than four times the total number of
vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the
number of vowels and consonants present in the
word is
(1) 9 (2) 20
(3) 18 (4) 14
52. In a convex quadrilateral PQRS, SPR = 80°,
QPR = 40°, SQR = 40° and PR = PS. If
diagonals PR and QS intersect at O, then the
measure of POQ is
(1) 90°
(2) 100°
(3) 110°
(4) 120°
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
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58. If cot cos 2 3
cot cos 2 3
and 0 < < 90°, then the
value of is
(1) 0° (2) 60°
(3) 30° (4) 45°
59. In the given figure, 1 = 2 = 3. If AD = 5 cm,
DC = 4 cm and the perimeter of BEC is 13 cm,
then the length of BE is
1 2
E
D
C
3
A
B
(1) 4.1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3.5 cm
(4) 5 cm
60. If p(x) = ax3 + bx
2 + cx + d is a polynomial and
a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must
be a factor of p(x)?
(1) x + 1 (2) x – 1
(3) x2 – 1 (4) x
61. HOPE is a parallelogram as shown in the given
figure. The value of y is
H O
PE42°
yx
2x3x
(1) 21° (2) 14°
(3) 35° (4) 27°
53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to
its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is
294 cm3, then its base diameter is
(1) 1 cm (2) 14 cm
(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm
54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural
numbers is 378000, then which of the following can
be their HCF?
(1) 66 (2) 130
(3) 34 (4) 20
55. In the given figure, MNP is a right triangle such that
N = 90°. MO2 – NO
2 is always equal to
M
N O P
(1)2 21
( )4
MP NP (2)2 21
( )2
MP NP
(3) 2(MP2 – NP
2) (4) MP2 – NP
2
56. 2 3 can be expressed as
(1)1
23
(2)1
32
(3)1 3
2
(4)
3 1
2
57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself,
then its volume increases by
(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x
3
(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x
3
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
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62. If sin(A + B) = sinAcosB + cosAsinB, then the value
of (sin1°cos29° + cos1°sin29°) is
(1)1
4(2)
1
2
(3)1
2(4) 1
63. For the given system of equations 3x – 4y = 5 and
5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of
b and c can be
(1)20
3b and
25
3c
(2) b = – 6.4 and c = – 20
(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19
(4)20
3b and c = –19
64. Let p, q, r and l, m, n be the lengths of the sides
of the two triangles such that p2 + q2 + r
2 = 117,
l2 + m
2 + n2 = 117 and lp + mq + nr = 117. The
two triangles can always be proved congruent by
which of the following congruence criterion?
(1) ASA (2) SAS
(3) RHS (4) SSS
65. If (–5, –5) is the solution of the system of equations
3x + 4y + 2p – q = 0 and 4x + 3y + q – 3r = 0,
then r is always equal to
(1)1( )
3q p (2)
2( )
3q p
(3)1(3 2 )
2q p (4)
3(2 )
2q p
66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide
261 + 262 + 263 + 264?
(1) 100 (2) 10
(3) 27 (4) 17
67. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers such that
a2 + b2 = 41 and c2 + d2 = 25, then the polynomial
whose zeroes are (a + b) and (c + d) can be
(1) x2 – 9x + 12 (2) x
2 – 16x + 63
(3) x2 – 2x + 14 (4) x
2 – 7x + 9
68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide,
contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of
dimensions 25 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm is now placed
in the tank so that its square face rests on the
bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that
must be poured into the tank in order to just cover
the box is
(1) 0.4
(2) 16.5
(3) 12.5
(4) 4
69. In the given circle with centre O, RL MQ. The
difference of the measures of QAT and LTM is
M
L
Q
RP
OT
A25°
(1) 30° (2) 70°
(3) 20° (4) 50°
70. If 2sin 2cos 1 0 and is an acute
angle, then the value of cosec is
(1) 2( 2 1) (2) 2( 3 1)
(3)2 1
2
(4)
( 3 1)
2
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
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Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, ‘45’ is coded
as 3, ‘35’ is coded as 5, ‘6’ is coded as 2.
78. ‘34’ will be coded as
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 2
79. Choose the alternative which is different from the
others.
(1) Einstein (2) Niels Bohr
(3) CV Raman (4) Wright brothers
80. A digital display unit has 7 parts as shown.
M
T
B
L1
L2
R1
R2
In a digital clock, there are hour display units
(H1, H
2) and minute display units (M
1, M
2).
H1
H2
M1
M2
In a faulty digital clock, following parts and units are
not functioning properly:
Display Units Part(s) of display unit, which are not functioning properly
H
H
M
M
1
2
1
2
L1, L
T
B
M
2
Which of the following timing cannot be displayed
properly by the above digital clock due to faulty parts
of display units?
(1) 11:10 hrs (2) 11:41 hrs
(3) 14:10 hrs (4) 14:01 hrs
71. If FINE is coded as IFFI, TASTE is coded as
AETTE, then the code for TEACHER is
(1) EHAREER (2) EHERERR
(3) EHEREER (4) EHERRER
72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand
with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes
is
(1) 120 (2) 105
(3) 90 (4) 15
73. If x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) and x3 + y3 = (x +
y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33) (33 – 23)
(1)95
7(2)
35
19
(3)19
35(4) 125
74. Choose the odd one out from the following:
Mobile, iPhone, Laptop, LED, TV
(1) Mobile (2) Laptop
(3) LED (4) iPhone
75. 55 : 1 :: 42 : 8 :: 62 : 27 :: 93 : ?
(1) 16 (2) 27
(3) 49 (4) 81
76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from
beginning, then how many students are there?
(1) 31 (2) 32
(3) 33 (4) 17
77. Find the missing term.
11 17 23 31, , , , ?
19 29 37 43
(1)41
47(2)
37
53
(3)41
53(4)
37
47
SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
11
81. Consider following four different dice (not necessarily
standard dice). Choose the odd one out.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
82. In the given question, the pair of figures bears a
certain relationship. Choose the option that exhibits
the same relationship.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
83. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table.
L is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son
of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L.
84. How is P related to M?
(1) Sister
(2) Daughter
(3) Sister-in-law
(4) Daughter-in-law
85. O is M's _______ .
(1) Brother (2) Sister
(3) Father (4) Uncle
86. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
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� � �
Directions (Q.89 and Q.90): Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
In a report published, the sources of energy used in India
for the production of electricity in year 2012 are shown
below :
Sources of Energy
Number of Electrical units in Tera Watt Hour
708.3
115.4
26.7
143.8
58.6
4.6
Coal
Gas
Nuclear
Hydro
Renewable
Imports
89. If Hydro is also considered as a renewable form of
energy resource, then what will be the new
percentage of non-renewable form from which
electrical energy is produced?
(1) 19.1 (2) 80.9
(3) 89.1 (4) 89.9
90. If government decides to reduce the contribution of
polluting sources of energy (Coal, Gas and Nuclear)
by 20% keeping the total production of electricity
same and also makes the import contribution NIL by
increasing the required contribution of non-polluting
sources of energy, then the approximate percentage
contribution by non-polluting sources will be
(1) 26
(2) 32
(3) 36
(4) 40
87. In the following figure, how many triangles are possible?
(1) 32 (2) 30
(3) 28 (4) 24
88. If the following image is rotated by 180°
anticlockwise,
then new image will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at
www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in
ANSWERS
1. (1)
2. (3)
3. (4)
4. (4)
5. (2)
6. (3)
7. (2)
8. (2)
9. (1)
10. (4)
11. (4)
12. (2)
13. (3)
14. (3)
15. (2)
16. (3)
17. (4)
18. (3)
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Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)Sample Paper
19. (3)
20. (3)
21. (2)
22. (4)
23. (3)
24. (4)
25. (3)
26. (4)
27. (1)
28. (2)
29. (2)
30. (4)
31. (2)
32. (2)
33. (4)
34. (4)
35. (4)
36. (4)
37. (3)
38. (4)
39. (1)
40. (2)
41. (3)
42. (3)
43. (3)
44. (2)
45. (1)
46. (3)
47. (2)
48. (3)
49. (3)
50. (2)
51. (3)
52. (3)
53. (2)
54. (4)
55. (4)
56. (4)
57. (1)
58. (2)
59. (3)
60. (2)
61. (3)
62. (2)
63. (4)
64. (4)
65. (2)
66. (2)
67. (2)
68. (4)
69. (4)
70. (2)
71. (3)
72. (2)
73. (1)
74. (3)
75. (2)
76. (1)
77. (3)
78. (4)
79. (4)
80. (4)
81. (4)
82. (2)
83. (3)
84. (3)
85. (3)
86. (4)
87. (3)
88. (2)
89. (2)
90. (3)