sample questions

Karen’s Practice Exam

Laws and Definitions

A. 1906 Food and Drug ActB. 1914 Harrison Tax ActC. 1938 Food, Drug and Cosmetic (FDC) ActD. 1951 Durham-Humphrey AmendmentE. 1962 Kefauver-Harris AmendmentF. 1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA)G. 1984 Hatch-Waxman ActH. 1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)I. 1996 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability ActJ. 2005 Combat Meth Act

1. ______ Requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients.2. ______ Requires legend on drug label: “Caution: Federal Law prohibits

dispensing without a prescription” or “Rx Only”.3. ______ The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) was established to enforce.

Classifies controlled substances in five schedules according to abuse potential.4. ______ Requires government pre-approval of drugs. Prohibits interstate

commerce in adulterated or misbranded drugs.5. ______ Regulates transfer of patient health information, protecting their right to

privacy.6. ______ Requires prescribers of narcotics to be licensed and taxed.7. ______ Allows for extensions of drug patents to help cover time lost during

process of FDA approval.8. ______ Regulates sales of pseudoephedrine. 9. ______ Requires manufacturers to show safety of a new drug before marketing.10. ______ Requires manufacturers to prove both safety and effectiveness before

marketing a drug. Put into effect due to tragic consequences of thalidomide complications.

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C-I through C-IV

1. Valium (diazepine) ______2. MS Contin/Avinza/Kadian (morphine) ______3. LSD ______4. Vicodin (hydrocodone/APAP) ______5. Dilaudid (hydromorphone) ______6. Ativan (lorazepam) ______7. Opium ______8. Ambien (zolpidem) ______9. Tylenol #3 (acetaminophen w/codeine) ______10. Phenobarbital _______11. Robitussin AC (guaifenesin w/codeine) ______12. Klonopin (clonazepam) _______13. Lunesta (eszopiclone)_______14. Lyrica (pregabalin) _______15. Adderall (dextroamphetamine) _______16. Versed (midazolam) _______17. Phenergan (promethazine) w/codeine _______18. Androgel (testosterone) _______19. Tranxene (clorazepate) ______20. Halcion (triazolam) _______21. Adipex (phentermine) _______22. Soma (carisoprodol) _______23. Darvon (propoxyphene) ______24. Fiorinal (butalbital/aspirin) _______25. Duragesic (fentanyl) _______26. Librium (chlordiazepoxide) _______27. Tussionex (hydrocodone/chlorpheniramine) ______28. Norco (hydrocodone/bit/apap) ______29. Duradrin/Midrin (isometh/dichloralphenazone/apap) ______30. Ritalin/Concerta/Daytrana (methylphenidate) ______31. Methadose (methadone) ______32. Provigil (modafinil) ______

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Multiple Choice

1. Which drug would not be handled in a biological safety cabinet?a. Fluorouracilb. Cisplatinc. Antineoplastic agentsd. Fluticasone

2. Which reference has a chapter on Pharmaceutical Compounding – Sterile Preparations?

a. USP-NFb. MSDSc. NABPd. PDR

3. What drug is stored at 2 – 8 degrees C?a. Estradiolb. Humulinc. Lisinoprild. Ativan

4. What drug interacts with vitamin K?a. Benicarb. Coumadinc. Simethiconed. Neurontin

5. Tk ii t po tid x 10 days. How many tablets need to be dispensed?a. 20b. 30c. 60d. 40

6. Actiq (fentanyl) comes in what formulation?a. Transdermal patchb. Oral pillc. Buccald. Sublingual

7. The drug clotrimazole 3 vaginal cream 2%, Walgreens manufacturer, has an NDC 11917-0035-86. Which of the following is true?

a. 0035 tells us that it is made by Walgreensb. 11917 represents the strength of the drugc. 86 means that it is OTCd. 11917 is the Walgreens manufacturer number

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8. Augmentin (amoxicillin/clavulanate pot) was prescribed as 400 mg bid x 10 days. Which of the following would be correct to dispense? (Assuming patient will discard the remainder of the medication after 10 days.)

a. 125 mg/tea, 150 ml. Tk 2.5 ml po bid x 10 days.b. 200 mg/tea, 100 ml. Tk 1 tea po bid x 10 days.c. 400 mg/tea, 50 ml. Tk 1 ml po bid x 10 days.d. 600 mg/tea, 75 ml. Tk 3.3 ml po bid x 10 days.

9. Which of the following is false about NTG?a. This medication can be dispensed with a snap cap.b. A common strength is 1/150 grain which is 0.6 mg.c. It comes in ointments, patches, sublingual tablets and injections.d. All of the above is true.

10. Which of the following is false about Phenergan?a. It comes in many strengths including 25 mg, 50 mg or 100 mg.b. The generic is promethazine.c. It comes in syrup, tablet or suppository form.d. It can be used as an antiemetic or an antihistamine.

11. Which drug is commonly used for glaucoma?a. Metoprololb. Methylcellulosec. Pilocarpined. Patanol

12. Which drug is commonly used in combination with other diuretics?a. HCTZb. INHc. MAOId. PTU

13. Which term describes the process of grinding particles to reduce particle size?a. Spatulationb. Triturationc. Sonificationd. Levigation

14. Which is a solution that contains intravenous fat emulsion?a. PPIb. TPNc. TNAd. PCA

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15. Which agency is responsible for assuring the quality of medication and published the National Formulary?

a. JCAHOb. ASHPc. FDAd. USP

16. Which of the following drugs require Restricted Distribution or Controlled Access Programs?

a. Clozarilb. Adderallc. Propafold. Vancomycin

17. Diovan (losartan) is used for:a. Hyperglycemiab. Hyperlipidemiac. Hypertensiond. Hypercapnia

18. I’m afraid to use an injection. I’m worried about coring. What should I do?a. Use a 13 gauge.b. Use a longer needle.c. Use a filter needle.d. Use a Leur-lok.

19. Humulin NPH 10 ml vial. Use 10 U qam, 15 U with lunch and 20 U qpm. How long will this medication last?

a. 2 daysb. 22 daysc. 28 daysd. 222 days

20. I have hyperlipidemia. Which of the following is false?a. I have diabetes.b. I have high blood pressure.c. I have low blood pressure.d. I have high cholesterol.

21. In regards to the previous question, which medication might the doctor put me on?

a. Verapamilb. Lisinoprilc. Digoxind. Pravachol

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22. Which of the following is not a technician responsibility?a. Abiding by HIPAA guidelinesb. Recommending an OTC productc. Troubleshooting insurance rejection problemsd. Compounding under the supervision of an RPh

23. The doctor ordered ¼ grain Phenobarbital. What strength would you dispense?a. 60 mgb. 60 gramc. 15 mgd. 15 gram

24. You have 2 liters of Normal Saline. You need to compound prescriptions each with 4 ounces NS. How many prescriptions can you fill?

a. 16b. 4c. 3d. 20

25. The doctor has ordered Rocephin IM for acute bacterial otitis media. 1 to 2 g given IM in equally divided doses twice daily. You have a 500 mg vial. How many vials do you need for a 10 day supply assuming the patient will need the maximum dosage?

a. 10 vialsb. 20 vialsc. 30 vialsd. 40 vials

26. The recommended dose for rifaximin 200 mg for Traveler's diarrhea: 200 mg 3 times a day for 3 days. The doctor ordered 12 mg/kg/day x 3 days for a woman that weighs 100 pounds. Which statement is true?

a. rifaximin is not for traveler’s diarrheab. the doctor is overdosing the patientc. the dosage is just under the recommended dose d. More than 2 grams of rifaximin is needed to fill this prescription

27. D5W comes in a 10 ml syringe. How much dextrose is in the syringe?a. 500 mgb. 0.5 mgc. 50mgd. 5 mg

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28. Which is true of a laminar flow hood?a. Cleaning should be done with 50% ethanolb. The hood should be turned on 5 minutes before usec. The hood should be cleaned from front to backd. Compounding should be done 6 inches inside the flow hood

29. What is a DEA 222 form used for?a. To order all controlled medicationsb. To report stolen/lost C-II medicationsc. To return recalled medicationsd. To order C-II medications

30. Which of the following could be a valid DEA number?a. AB1231248b. AB1235956c. AB1237462d. AB1238294

31. Dyazide (triamterene/HCTZ) is a combination drug used to treat hypertension. Which two classes of drugs are represented?

a. potassium-sparing diuretic and a thiazideb. ace-inhibitor and a thiazidec. calcium channel blocker and a loop diureticd. beta-blocker and a loop diuretic

33. I’ve never taken Sudafed before. Suddenly I feel so sleepy but the pharmacist warned me of insomnia if I took it too close to bedtime. What kind of adverse reaction am I having?

a. Hypersensitivityb. Synergismc. Additived. Idiosyncrasy

34. Ibuprofen 100 mg/5 ml. Tk i tea po tid pc. QS for 1 month. How much liquid needs to be dispensed?

a. 30 ouncesb. 2 pintsc. 450 mld. 300 cc

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35. A patient is notified that her prescription has been recalled. It is a level III recall. She is frantic and wants to know if this is life threatening. What might the pharmacist tell the patient?

a. The FDA is closing down the manufacturer due to health issues.b. The FDA has requested a recall due to an event not likely to cause adverse

effects.c. The recall means that there is a good chance that there are serious health

risks if she took the medication.d. The recall will be published on the DEA website.

36. The PI for Enbrel says to store at 36 to 46 degrees F. Which of the below is true?a. Enbrel must be stored in the freezer.b. Enbrel is kept at room temperature.c. Enbrel must be stored at 78 to 95 degrees C.d. Enbrel must be kept in the refrigerator.

37. Enbrel’s monograph states that Rare reports of pancytopenia, including aplastic anemia exists from using Enbrel. This is an example of what type of effect?

a. Neurologicalb. Nephrotoxicityc. Psychologicald. Hematological

38. My store manager made a killing off of those plastic singing bass fish things. He bought them for $2.45 each and sold them for $9.99. What percentage markup is this based on the retail selling price?

a. About 75% markupb. About 3% markupc. About 131% markupd. About 25% markup

39. Rx is for azithromycin 200/5, tk 1 and ½ tea x 1 day, ¾ tea qd x 4 days. What volume needs to be dispensed?

a. 82.5 mlb. 22.5 mlc. 15 mld. 17.5 ml

40. In question #39 above, the strength is 200mg/tea. How many total mg is needed for this therapy?

a. 900 gmb. 4500 mgc. 3300 mgd. 900 mg

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41. A formulary is:a. A list of goods or items a business uses in its normal operations.b. A list of goods or items purchased from a wholesaler.c. A list of medications purchased directly from the manufacturer.d. A list of medications approved for use.

42. In a hospital, who decides the formulary?a. The Pharmacy and Therapeutics committeeb. The Drug Enforcement Agencyc. The Department of Public Healthd. The State Board of Pharmacy

43. Equivalents that produce the same effects in patients are:a. Pharmaceutical equivalentsb. Therapeutic equivalentsc. Bioequivalentd. Biocompatible

44. What can happen during online adjudication:a. A prescription can be rejected.b. A prescription can be approved.c. Communication between computers can timeout.d. All of the above.

45. Why might a prescription be rejected?a. Invalid date of birth.b. NDC not covered.c. Patient not covered.d. All of the above.

46. Dopamine is infusing at 20 ml/hour. The IV bag contains 400 mg in 0.33 liter of D5W. How many grams of dopamine is the patient receiving in 4 hours?

a. 0.024 gmb. 24 gmc. 97 mgd. 97 gm

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47. Cyclophosphamide is an antineoplastic agent. The IV tubing infuses at a rate of 60 gtts/ml. If the 500 mg vial was to be reconstituted in 25 ml sterile water and infused over 8 hours, how many drops per minute?

a. 3 gtt/mlb. 3 gtt/minc. 0.3 gtt/mind. 30 gtt/min

48. The ongoing treatment for cyclophosphamide is about 15 mg/kg/day given once a week. If the patient weighs 150 pounds, about how many milliliters will he need for 2 weeks? (Use chart above).

a. 25 mlb. 50 mlc. 100 mld. 200 ml

49. The non-premixed Albuterol sulfate inhalation solution is 1:2 strength concentrated. Directions say to mix 0.5 cc with 3 cc NS. What is the new percent strength?

a. 0.083%b. 0.071%c. 8.3%d. 7.1%

50. You need a liter of D5W but all you have is D70W and some sterile water. How much of each can you use?

a. 658.6 ml of water and 341.4 ml of D70Wb. 341.4 ml of water and 658.6 ml of D70Wc. 71.4 ml of water and 928.6 ml of D70Wd. 928.6 ml of water and 71.4 ml of water

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Reconstitution of Cyclophosphamide

Vial size Volume of diluent

500 mg 25 mL

1 g 50 mL

2 g 100 mL


Match drug with class

a. proton pump inhibitor ____1. albuterolb. H2 antagonist ____2. propranololc. ACE inhibitor ____3. hydromorphoned. antipsychotic/antimanic ____4. naproxene. calcium channel blocker ____5. temazepamf. bronchodilator ____6. fluoxetineg. diabetic ____7. phenytoinh. anticoagulant ____8. erythromycini. antihyperlipidemic ____9. cimetidinej. opioid/narcotic ____10. prochlorperazinek. tricyclic antidepressant ____11. estradioll. analgesic ____12. amitriptylinem. antifungal ____13. valacyclovirn. electrolyte ____14. verapamilo. antibiotic ____15. furosemidep. antiemetic ____16. dextromethorphanq. steroid ____17. ketoconazoler. antiviral ____18. triamcinolones. antianxiety/sedative ____19. enalaprilt. diuretic ____20. pravastatinu. beta-blocker ____21. alpha interferonv. antiepileptic ____22. lamotriginew. hormone ____23. pantoprazolex. OTC ____24. hepariny. antineoplastic ____25. calcium gluconatez. SSRI ____26. metformin

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Match medication with formulation/route of administration. Some drugs may come in more than one formulation. You might be surprised at how many different routes of administration one drug can come in! (Hint: Use Facts & Comparisons)

a. topical ______1. NTGb. oral ______2. nuvaringc. sublingual ______3. humulind. transdermal ______4. MTXe. intramuscular ______5. triamcinolonef. subcutaneous ______6. fluticasoneg. intravenous ______7. fentanylh. rectal ______8. promethazinei. buccal ______9. metronidazolej .intradermal ______10. enoxaparink. vaginal ______11. misoprostoll. inhalation ______12. epinephrinem. nasal ______13. lidocainen. ophthalmic ______14. pseudoephedrineo. otic ______15. digoxin

______16. cyanocobalamin______17. atropine______18. salmeterol______19. olanzapine______20. PTU______21. nystatin______22. diazepam______23. polyethylene glycol______24. timolol______25. cholestyramine______26. prednisone______27. prednisolone______28. sulfacetamide______29. desmopressin______30. potassium chloride______31. morphine______32. sumatriptan______33. calcitonin-salmon______34 dexamethasone______35. neomycin______36. estradiol______37. progesterone______38. testosterone______39. sodium chloride______40. etanercept

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Match Brands and Generics:

A. Synthroid ____1. metforminB. Questran ____2. butalbital/apap/caffeineC. Prevacid ____3. quinaprilD. Toprol ____4. acyclovirE. Lopressor ____5. omeprazoleF. Efudex ____6. phenytoinG. Haldol ____7. interferon beta-1AH. Glucophage ____8. levothyroxineI. Lidex ____9. metoprolol tartrateJ. Tagamet ____10. metoprolol succinateK. Atacand ____11. lansoprazoleL. Accupril ____12. flourouracilM. Fioricet ____13. cholysteramineN. Zocor ____14. fluconazoleO. Rocephin ____15. haloperidolP. Avonex ____16. isotretinoinQ. Dilantin ____17. oxycodone/apapR. Diflucan ____18. cimetidineS. Zovirax ____19. potassiumT. Prilosec ____20. candesartan cilexetilU. Bactrim ____21. ceftriaxoneV. Percocet ____22. simvastatinW. Demerol ____23. sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprimX. Accutane ____24. fluocinonideY. Klor-con ____25. valproic acidZ. Depakote ____26. phenytoin

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Match reference with description.

a. USP-NF _____1. Has 3 volumes including “orange book”b. PDR _____2. Most widely used. Information on dx/txt.a. Red Book _____3. Bi-monthly journal with CE programsb. MSDS _____4. Has product ID section w/pictures of pillsc. Merck Manual _____5. Monographs w/concentration, stability, etc.d. Facts and Comparisons _____6. Loose leaf, online or annual CDse. USP DI _____7. Medication information and pricesf. Remington _____8. Privacy standards compliance manualg. Pharmacy Times _____9. Required by OSHAh. Today’s Technician _____10. Practice of Pharmacy textbooki. Handbook on Injectable Drugs _____11. Divided into chapters, enforced by FDAj. HIPAA _____12. Trade journal published for pharmacistsk. Goodman & Gilman’s _____13. Lists drug names and country of originl. Martindale _____14. Principal pharmacy text

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