Science 24 Final Test

Science 24

Final Exam

June 2009

Teacher: Mrs. Bauer

Science 24 Final Test

Value Part A: Multiple Choice

All multiple-choice questions must be answered on the scantron sheet provided.

Read each question carefully and decide which of the choices BEST completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Fibres produced by humans in a laboratory are called

A. natural fibres

B. organic fibres

C. synthetic fibres

D. none of the above

2. Soap and water can clean grease because

A. soap is an acid

B. soap is a strong base

C. soap is an oily chemical like grease

D. soap consists of a two-ended molecule where one end will dissolve in grease and the other end will dissolve in water

3. A large molecule made up of many small and identical sub-molecules is called a(n)

A. alloy

B. mixture

C. polymer

D.superplastic

4. A development in the area of synthetic chemicals that has helped the eyeglass industry is the development of

A. nylon

B. polycarbonates

C. superplastic

D. Gore-Tex

5. Benedicts solution is used to indicate the presence of glucose in a solution. What colour will the benedicts solution be if there is no glucose present?

A. red

B. yellow

C. orange

D. blue

6. The WHMIS symbol given indicates that the product is

A. reactive

B. corrosive

C. poisonous

D. biohazardous

7. The following symbols appear on the container of an oven cleaner.

These symbols indicate that the

A. contents are explosive

B. container is corrosive

C. contents are poisonous, corrosive, and explosive

D. contents are poisonous and corrosive and the container is explosive

8. A pop or squeal occurred when a burning splint was brought to the mouth of a test tube filled with a gas. Which gas was present in the test tube?

A. hydrogen

B. oxygen

C. carbon dioxide

D. sulfur dioxide

9. The gas created when baking soda and vinegar are mixed can be used to put out a candle flame because

A. the gas is heavier than air

B. the gas does not support combustion

C. the gas displaces the oxygen around the flame

D. all of the above

10. Which of the following evidences of a chemical change indicates that a gas has formed?

A. colour changes

B. bubbles form

C. a precipitate forms

D. a change of state

11. Ammonium chloride was added to water and mixed. The initial temperature of the water was 21C, and the final temperature of the mixture was 12C. This Is an example of a(n)

A. precipitation reaction

B. endothermic reaction

C. exothermic reaction

D. nuclear reaction

12. zinc + hydrochloric acid ( zinc chloride + hydrogen gas + energy

This is an example of a

A. word equation

B. formula equation

C. balanced equation

D. mathematical equation

13. Which of the following illustrates the general form for a simple decomposition reaction?

A. AB A + B

B. AB AB + C

C. A + B AB

D. A + B A + B

14. The formula for acetic acid is CH3COOH(aq). How many of each type of atom are there in this molecule.

A. 2 carbon, 2 hydrogen, and 2 oxygen = 6 atoms in total

B. 2 carbon, 4 hydrogen, and 2 oxygen = 8 atoms in total

C. 4 carbon, 2 hydrogen, and 2 oxygen = 8 atoms in total

D. 1 carbon, 4 hydrogen, 1 cobalt, and 1 oxygen = 7 atoms in total

15. Which type of reaction is indicated by this equation?

Compound ( Element1 + Element2

A. combustion

B. simple composition

C. neutralization

D. simple decomposition

16. The formula for sodium bicarbonate is NaHCO3. How many atoms of each element are in this chemical?

A. 1 sodium, 1 hydrogen, 1 carbon, and 1 oxygen

B. 1 sodium, 1 hydrogen, 1 carbon, and 3 oxygen

C. 1 sodium, 3 hydrogen, 3 carbon, and 3 oxygen

D. 3 sodium, 3 hydrogen, 3 carbon, and 3 oxygen

17. Incomplete combustion is due to which of the following?

A. too little fuel

B. too much carbon dioxide

C. too much water vapour

D. too little oxygen

18. Coal contributes to pollution because it contains large amounts of

A. sulfur

B. sodium

C. methane gas

D. carbon dioxide

19. Which common household product can be used to relieve stomach indigestion?

A. water

B. vinegar

C. apple juice

D. baking soda

20. Which two substances are used to remove sulfur compounds formed from the combustion of coal?

A. water and air

B. water and calcium oxide

C. water and calcium sulfite

D. carbon dioxide and limestone

21. Which method is used to keep underground pipelines from corroding?

A. painting

B. galvanizing

C. applying a polymer coating

D. using a sacrificial metal

22. Rusting is an example of a

A. simple composition reaction

B. simple decomposition reaction

C. neutralization reaction

D. none of the above

23. A car moving down a ramp

A. gains potential energy and loses kinetic energy

B. gains both potential energy and kinetic energy

C. loses both potential energy and kinetic energy

D. loses potential energy and gains kinetic energy

24. Which form of energy is used to cook a hamburger?

A. solar energy

B. thermal energy

C. geothermal energy

D. light energy

25. Which of the following is the correct order of the terms used to describe the process of changing energy from one form to another?

A. input energy output energy converter

B. output energy converter input energy

C. output energy input energy converter

D. input energy converter output energy

26. How do swinging pendulums demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Momentum?

A. The pendulums eventually stop.

B. The pendulums continue swinging forever.

C. The pendulums are able to swing back and forth.

D. The pendulums appear to transfer all their energy from one to the other.

27. The number of coils of wire through which a bar magnet is moved is increased. The amount the needle on the meter is deflected

A. increases

B. decreases

C. shows no change

D. does not move at all

28. Which type of energy does a spinning turbine possess, which is then converted into electric energy?

A. potential energy

B. thermal energy

C. kinetic energy

D. solar energy

29. Which of the following is an advantage of using nuclear energy to produce power?

A. Nuclear waste is easily disposed of.

B. A small quantity of fuel generates a large amount of electricity.

C. Accidents that release radioactive materials never occur in nuclear reactors.

D. Nuclear reactors release carbon dioxide and sulfur compounds into the atmosphere.

30. Power is measured in

A. J/s

B. J/s2

C. J/m

D. J/h

31. How much energy is used if a 600-W microwave runs for 20 min?

Hint: energy = power x time

A. 20 Wh

B. 200 Wh

C. 600 Wh

D. 1200 Wh

32. Which is a measure of how well input energy is converted into output energy?

A. power

B. watt hour

C. efficiency

D. effectiveness

33. How many W.h are represented by a 200 W hair dryer running for half an hour?

A. 100 W.h

B. 50 W.h

C. 400 W.h

D. 200 W.h

34.Which of the following is correct for cellular respiration?

A. water + carbon dioxide + energy glucose + oxygen

B. glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide + water + energy

C. glucose + water oxygen + carbon dioxide + energy

D. glucose + carbon dioxide water + oxygen + energy

35. Which of the following is an output in the chemical reaction of photosynthesis?

A. water

B. light energy

C. carbon dioxide

D.glucose

36. The rate at which the human body uses energy is known as

A. digestion

B. metabolism

C. respiration

D. excretion

37. The first source the body accesses for energy is

A. carbohydrates

B. fats

C. proteins

D. minerals

38. Which of the following affects metabolism?

A. age

B. exercise

C. time of day

D. all of the above

39. The type of fat associated with increased risk of heart disease is

A. glucose

B. unsaturated

C. steroids

D. saturated

40. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

A. oil

B. coal

C. uranium

D. natural gas

41. Coal used to generate most of Alberta's electricity is

A. lignite

B. bituminous

C. sub-bituminous

D. anthracite

42. Oil, natural gas, and water are often trapped in various layers in porous rock or under a layer of non-porous rock. In a layer of porous rock, the fossil fuel that would be at the top is

A. oil

B. water

C. sand

D. natural gas

43. Which two products are produced when propane is burned?

A. oxygen and water

B. propane gas and oxygen

C. carbon dioxide and water

D. carbon dioxide and oxygen

44. Cellular respiration and combustion are similar reactions because

A. oxygen is involved in both

B. carbon dioxide is involved in both

C. both release thermal energy

D. all of the above

45. The burning of fossil fuels contributes to global climate change. One of the processes involved is

A. solar flares

B. carbon deposition

C. the halogen effect

D. the greenhouse effect

46. Which environmental condition is favourable to the growth of bacteria?

A. cool temperatures

B. moisture

C. sterile container

D. radiation

47. Which of the following is a name for moulds, yeasts, and mushrooms?

A. protists

B. viruses

C. bacteria

D. fungi

48. Which of the following is an example of a communicable disease?

A. cancer

B. appendicitis

C. meningitis

D. diabetes

49. Drinking unclean water, not eating properly, not washing your hands, and consuming excess alcohol are known as risk factors. The risk factor that could lead to a non-communicable disease is

A. drinking unclean water

B. not eating properly

C. not washing your hands

D. consuming excess alcohol

50. Which of the following is a modern method of food preservation?

A. canning

B. salting

C. smoking or drying

D. irradiation

51. A contagious disease that spreads worldwide and is difficult to control is called a(n)

A. epidemic

B. pandemic

C. communicable disease

D. non-communicable disease

52. Which of the following is an example of a recent pandemic disease?

A. AIDS

B. tuberculosis

C. Spanish flu

D. bubonic plague

53. Which of the following is something you as an individual can do to stay healthy?

A. provide vaccinations

B. develop new vaccines

C. promote food safety awareness

D. maintain high standards of personal hygiene

54. Which of the following is a factor that affects the spread of diseases today?

A. travel

B. lifestyle

C. population growth and overcrowding

D. all of the above

55. Which of the following is not an example of one of your body's physical defences?

A. eyelids

B. macrophages

C. nose and sinuses

D. stomach acid

56. The swelling and redness that develops around a cut or sliver in your finger is an

example of

A. immunity

B. a physical defence

C. an inflammatory response

D. an antibody production

57. Specific structures attached to pathogens that your body recognizes as foreign are

A. antibodies

B. macro phages

C. white blood cells

D. antigens

58. Following are four statements about how the immune system responds to a pathogen.

1. Antigens from the dead bacteria protrude from the macrophages.

2. When bacteria enter the body, an inflammatory response occurs.

3. The antibodies produced by the B cells attach to the antigens and destroy them.

4. White blood cells called helper T cells identify the antigens on the macrophages.

The correct order of the statements according to how the immune system responds is

A. 2, 4, 1, 3

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4, 3

59. Immunity developed in the body during a person's lifetime is called

A. acquired immunity

B. active immunity

C. inherited immunity

D. passive immunity

60. An injection of weakened or dead disease pathogens is known as a(n)

A. vaccine

B. transfusion

C. immunization

D. allergen

61. A substance that kills bacteria is called a(n)

A. virus

B. antigen

C. vaccine

D. antibiotic

62. Twisted-ladder structures that appear in the nucleus are

A. genes

B. DNA

C. chromosomes

D. XY chromosomes

63. The gene for brown eyes is dominant. If one parent has genotype BB for brown eyes and the other parent has genotype bb for blue eyes, the chance of an offspring having brown eyes is

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

64. Which of the following is an example of a mutagen?

A. radiation

B. ultraviolet light

C. PCBs

D. all of the above

65. An exact duplicate of an organism is called a(n)

A. mutagen

B. clone

C. birth defect

D. stem cell

66. Statistically, the most dangerous form of travel is by

A. air

B. sea

C. road

D. rail

67. Which of the following will increase reaction time when driving a motor vehicle?

A. talking to passengers

B. drinking coffee

C. using a cell phone

D. all of the above

68. Alcohol leaves the body at a rate of 0.015 BAC units per hour. If Terry's BAC is 0.125,

how long must he wait before his BAC is below 0.08?

A. 1 h

B. 2 h

C. 3 h

D. 4 h

69. Which injury can be reduced by the proper use of headrests?

A. internal injures

B. whiplash

C. broken bones

D. cuts and bruises

70. Which of the following is an example of a road safety feature?

A. air bags

B. crumple zones

C. advanced warning lights

D. side-impact beams

71.A skier travelled 1500 m down a hill in 50 s. What was the skier's velocity?

A. 30 m/s

B. 50 m/s

C. 150 m/s

D. 300 m/s

72. Distance and time are measured for a dynamics cart rolling down a ramp. The responding variable is

A. time

B. velocity

C. distance

D. acceleration

73. The correct formula for calculating distance when given velocity and time is

A. d = v / t

B. d = vt

C. d = t / v

D. d = 2v

74. At a velocity of 80 km/h, how far would you travel in two hours?

A. 160 km

B. 40 km

C. 82 km

D. 120 km

75. What is the momentum of an 850-kg car travelling 30 m/s?

Hint: momentum = mass x velocity

A. 25 500 kg*m/s

B. 25 500 m/s

C. 2550 m/s

D. 2550 kg*m/s

76. If a collision takes longer to occur, which of the following is true?

A. impulse increases

B.impulse decreases

C. force increases

D. force decreases

77. A truck is moving to the right with the same velocity as a car moving to the left. If the mass of the truck is twice the mass of the car, which statement describes the correct result in a collision between these two vehicles?

A. They will move to the right immediately after the collision.

B. They will move to the left immediately after the collision.

C. They will come to a complete stop immediately after the collision.

D. The force of the impact will be equal to the sum of their momentums.

78. Which of these features best restrains your upper body during a collision?

A. an air bag

B. a 3-point seat belt

C. a 2-point seat belt

D. a steering wheel

79. What do air bags, seat belts, and crumple zones have in common?

A. They increase the impulse of a collision.

B. They reduce the time of a collision.

C. They reduce the impulse of a collision.

D. They reduce the force of a collision.

80. The best place for an infant in a vehicle is in the

A. back seat facing backward

B. back seat facing forward

C. front seat facing backward

D. front seat facing forward

81. A boy has blue eyes. The colour of his eyes refers to his

A. phenotype

B. genotype

C. DNA

D. punnett square

Part B: Short Answer

Answer each of the following questions using the space provided.

(4 marks)

1. Is the following equation balanced? Show your work. Make sure that you clearly show how many atoms of each element are on the reactant and product side of the equation.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ( CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

(2 marks)

2. What is the greenhouse effect? Explain how it works. (You may include a diagram.)

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

(2 marks)

3. An electric device is said to be 75% efficient. Explain what this means in terms of

power.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

(3 marks)

4. Complete the concept map using the terms in the following list:

pathogens E. coli

communicable

environment cystic fibrosis non-communicable

fungi heart disease

(2 marks)

5. Explain why one antibody does not destroy all types of pathogens.

________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________

(4 marks)

6. What are four different ways that a communicable disease can be spread? Provide an example of a disease that you could catch for each.

____________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

(3 marks)

7. A 1000-kg car is travelling 90 km/h to the left. A l500-kg van is travelling 70 km/h to

the right.

a. Calculate their total momentum immediately after they collide.

(1 mark)

b. Which way will the vehicles move after they collide?

____________________________________________________________________

(3 marks)

8. A blue-eyed woman (bb) marries a brown-eyed man with a recessive gene for blue eyes (Bb). Draw a Punnett square to show the likely genotypes and eye colour of their children.

a) What will the genotypes of the children be?

b) Identify the eye colour of each of the offspring. What is the ratio of brown eyes to blue eyes?

(5 marks)9. In the pedigree below, all shaded individuals have recessive genes and have attached ear lobes. Their genetic makeup is ee. All individuals without shading have at least one dominant gene and have unattached ear lobes. Their genetic makeup would be EE or Ee.Determine the genotype of the each member of this family. What is the genotype of:

a) I - 1?b) I - 2?c) II - 1 ?d) II - 2 ?e) II - 3 ?

Part C: True or False

Indicate whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F). (5 marks)

(1 mark)

a. _____Non-communicable diseases can be transmitted from one person to another.

(1 mark)

b. _____The units for impulse are the same as the units for momentum.

(1 mark)

c. _____Natural gas is the main source of energy used for the production of electricity

in Alberta.

(1 mark)

d. _____A reaction that results in a decrease in temperature is endothermic.

(1 mark)

e. _____When an acid is added to a base, the resulting reaction is called a

neutralization reaction.

Part D: Fill in the Blank

Fill in the Blank (5 marks)

(1 mark)

a. Mass of reactants = mass of products is the law of _________________________

(1 mark)

b. The process by which the different components of crude oil are separated for various uses is called ________________________________________

(1 mark)

c. A chemical reaction that releases energy is called an _____________________

reaction.

(1 mark)

d. The two reactants required in a combustion reaction are _______________ and_______________________.

(1 mark)

e. The chemicals listed on the left side of a word equation are called the _________________.

- End of Exam-

Science 24 Final2