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SEBI GRADE A ExamPHASE ( I ) P rev ious Pape r

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SEBI Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – General Awareness

1. Which country has topped the Human

Development Index 2018?

Ans: Singapore

2. Which state has topped in the Ease of Living

Index rankings under AMRUT scheme?

Ans: Andhra Pradesh

3. With which country did India hold JIMEX?

Ans: Japan

4. Where was India and Russia’s bilateral summit

held?

Ans: New Delhi

5. With which country has Delhi government signed

a twin city agreement for cooperation in the field

of education, health, sports, tourism, transport

and environment for a period of 3 years?

Ans: Russia

6. Which Indian airport has won the Earth’s

champion award?

Ans: Cochin

7. Which country’s president is Moon Jae-in?

Ans: South Korea

8. What is the capital of Tajikistan?

Ans: Dushanbe

9. Where is Kanha Tiger Reserve located?

Ans: Madhya Pradesh

10. Where is the DY Patil Stadium located?

Ans: Mumbai

11. What is the capital of Meghalaya?

Ans: Shillong

12. Who has won the Nobel Prize for Economics

2018?

Ans: William D. Nordhaus and Paul M. Romer

13. Who has won the women’s title in the ISBF World

U-16 Snooker Championship?

Ans: Keerthana Pandian (India)

14. What is the literacy rate of India according to the

SECC census 2011?

Ans: 74.04%

15. Which state has won the National Tourism

Awards for the best state for comprehensive

development of tourism?

Ans: Andhra Pradesh

16. On which river’s bank is Nasik city located?

Ans: Godavari

17. 1 question on Jaipur Literature Festival?

18. Which movie is chosen in the category of foreign

language for Academy Awards 2019?

Ans: Village Rockstar (Assamese)

19. Which company own PhonePe?

Ans: Flipkart

20. Which app has recorded 137 million UPI

transactions in September 2018?

Ans: Paytm

21. India Jåtrå (commonly known as Yenyå) is the

biggest religious street festival of which country?

Ans: Nepal

22. Where has the AIBA Women’s World

Championship been organized?

Ans: New Delhi

23. India for Humanity initiative has been launched

for which people?

Ans: Physically disabled

SEBI Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – General Awareness

24. Where is the Global Skill Centre located?

Ans: Bhopal, MP

25. Which ministry conducts the Swachh Gramin

Survey?

Ans: Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation

26. What is the theme of International Girl Child Day

2018?

Ans: With Her: A Skilled Girl Force

27. When is World Pneumonia Day observed?

Ans: November 12

28. Which Indian has topped the Forbes Rich List

2018?

Ans: Mukesh Ambani

29. With which sport is Jeremy Lalrinnunga related?

Ans: Weightlifting

30. 1 question on Justice BN Krishna Committee

31. Which committee has been formed to analyze

the digital trends in the Indian economy?

32. Which country organized the Gandhi March to

commemorate 150th birth anniversary of

Mahatma Gandhi?

Ans: Netherlands

33. Where is Bhitarkarnika Tiger Reserve located?

Ans: Odisha

34. India for Humanity initiative has been launched

for which people?

Ans: Physically disabled

35. Which country organized the Gandhi March to

commemorate 150th birth anniversary of

Mahatma Gandhi?

Ans: Netherlands

36. Which Indian has topped the Forbes Rich List

2018?

Ans: Mukesh Ambani

37. In which Indian state did Kim Jung Sook (1st lady

of Korea) pay a visit?

Ans: UP (Ayodhya)

SEBI Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – English

I.1-5) Read the following passage carefully and

answer the given questions. Certain words

are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. 

The main idea conveyed by the report is that

our children do not get a chance to enjoy

learning at school because the syllabi are

irrationally organised, teaching is text-book

and the system of examination instils fear and

encourages mechanical repetition. Textbooks

developed along the lines of reconceptualised

syllabi can attempt to integrate positive

values, life skills, aesthetic sensibility and

concern for the environment. They are

interactive and make a conscious effort to

point both children and the teachers towards

other sources of learning such as

neighbourhood, nature etc.

In addition, two parallel challenges deserve attention. The first is examination reforms.

Rigid indifference to individual differences is

the major flaw of the present system. From

the quality of questions to the manner of

evaluation, it favours drilled preparedness and

ignores independent-though while the unrealistically high cut-offs

in coveted colleges are a further sign of systematic efficiency. It is hardly surprising that the very thought of examinations makes

the young impressed. Moreover, practices of

splitting unified topics into arbitrary

bits carrying small marks value encourage teachers to concentrate on scoring topics

overlooking the importance of perspective

and overall understanding. Little surprise that

many elite high-fee schools are opting for

International Baccalaureate not because it

offers status with its global certification but

for its flexibility and respect for individual

differences in learning. 

The second area is teacher training, which

suffers from obsolete notions. Most teachers

are trained mainly to cover the syllabus in a

mechanical exam-oriented manner. By

insisting that every child move at the same

pace in all subjects, teachers encourage rote

learning and ridicule for those who fall behind.

Teacher training, whether for nursery or secondary school teachers, should be

embedded in courses which have the capacity

to develop both the teacher's personality and

perspective on society by linking subject

learning with reflective and creative project

work. The ultimate responsibility lies with

universities and institutes of high learning to

ensure the quality of all teachers. Initiatives to

improve the content of teacher training

courses will ensure utilisation

of desolate university campuses during

summer vacations which conceal an enormous

waste of infrastructure and expertise. The

quality of education is a reflection of the

quality of teachers and major improvement in

their training and working conditions will motivate the young to pursuer a teaching career and determine how India fares in the

pursuit of economic and social development in

the years to come. 

1. According to the author, what is the major

weakness of the present examination

system?  a) Teachers do not take into account the nature

of questions asked in the examination.  b) Teachers are subjective in their assessment of

papers.  c) Cut-off standards for admissions to good

institutions need to be raised.  d) It distinguishes between a creative student

and a rote learner. 

e) It does not consider unique learning patterns

of students.  Ans: (e)

Explanation: It does not consider

unique learning patterns of students.

2. Which of the following factors is responsible

for children's dislike of learning?  I. Rigid, local, systematic organisation of

syllabus.  II. Teaching methodology which does not focus

on text books.

III. Examination pattern which rewards rote

learning. 

a) Only (I)

b) Both (I) and (II)  c) Only (C)

d) All (I), (II) and (III)   e) Other than those given as options. 

Ans: (c)

3. Choose the word which is MOST nearly

the SAME in meaning to the word COVETED

given in bold as used in the passage.  a) Desired

b) Priceless  c) Necessary

d) Private  e) valid 

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Desired

Coveted (adjective): sought after

4. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in

meaning to the word DESOLATE given in bold

as used in the passage.

a) Happy

b) Occupied 

c) Dejected

d) Repaired  e) Cheerful

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Occupied

Desolate (adj.): empty and without people. 

5. Why do teachers focus on ‘scoring’ topics?    a) Pressure from colleges who want to

maintain high cut-offs.

b) Faulty examination pattern which divides

topics into smaller sections. c) It is an objective of teacher training

programmes.  d) To reduce the nervousness of

students curing examination.

e) Other than those given as options.  Ans: (b)

Explanation: Faculty examination pattern

which divides topics into smaller sections.

I.6-10) Read the following passage carefully

and answer the given questions. Certain

words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. 

On attending a conference, which focused on

the role of the services sector in Indian economy I was amazed. The conference gave a very interesting perspective on the role of

the service sector in the growth of Indian

economy in relation to growth rates in

agriculture and industry.

The current situation in India is that the

growth rate of services has overtaken both agriculture and industry and is now contributing to more than 50% of GDP. The

service sector has the highest growth rate and is the least volatile sector. Growth is



particularly marked in public services, IT and financial services.  In some areas. the growth rate of the service sector is 40-505 due to increased

use of mobile technologies. India,

therefore has, a service-oriented economy. It

hasn't traditional growth models as in China.

However, in the process of doing so it has skipped the manufacturing and has jumped

straight from the agriculture stage

to service stage, which is also the main reason

for the expansion of the service sector.  In fact, the situation now is such that the

growth in the service sector can and will support in the agriculture and industrial

sectors. However, the only setback for

Indian economy is the lack of growth in the

manufacturing sector which causes

dependence on other countries, which is not

so desirable in terms of job creation and

increased prosperity. Population is also a major concern of the

Indian economy as the population of India

grows so also does the number of dependents

in the population in both the lower and

higher age groups. In such a scenario of increasing Population, especially in an economy which still recovering from crisis,

growth becomes difficult. For such an

economy to grow it has to invest.  Currently, the public sector invests more than

it saves. The household sector saves in surplus, but it is not increasing so it cannot continue to support private and public sectors.

There is a massive need to spend on

agriculture and infrastructure development of

the country. Apart from that health and

education should also be the priority of the

government particularly the education of women in order to reduce the birth rate.

6. Choose the word which is most opposite in

meaning to word given in bold as used in the

passage.  Volatile 

a) Erratic

b) Impatient

c) Stable

d) Solid  e) Strained 

Ans: (a)

Explanation: The most opposite meaning of

volatile is 'erratic'.

7. According to the passage, which of the following is/are true about the impact of increasing population on Indian economy? 

1) If India attempts to absorb all the labour

force, it will impact the growth of service

sector negatively and in turn hamper the

economic growth of the county.  2) As the population of the country increases,

the number of dependants in the country also

increase which in turn increases the pressure on the economy. 

3) An increasing population can never lead the

economy of the country towards prosperity; in fact, it can only put strain on the economy of a

county.   

a) Only 2

b) Only 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3

e) All of these  Ans: (a)

Explanation: According to the passage, 'as the

population of the country increases, the

number of dependants in the country also


increase which in turn increases the pressure on the economy' is true about the impact of

increasing population on Indian economy.

8. According to the passage, which of the

following can be said about the agriculture

and industry sectors in India? 

1) Looking at the growth of the services sector in India it can be safely said that the service

sector will soon be in a position to support both agriculture and industry sector.

2) The agriculture and the industrial sector of the

country have reached their threshold and

there would be no use of further investment

in these sectors.  3) Currently, the agriculture and industry

sectors contribute lesser as compared to service sector to the GDP of the country. 

  a) Only 1

b) Only 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 2 and 3

e) All of these  Ans: (c)

Explanation: ‘Looking at the growth of the service sector in India it can be safely said that

the service sector will soon be in a position to

support both agricultural and industry

sector’ and ‘currently the agricultural and industry sector contribute lesser as

compared to service sector to the GDP of the

country’, are said about the agriculture and

industry sectors in India.

9. Choose the word which is most similar in

meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

Perspective 

a) Viewpoint

b) Prospect  c) Attitude

d) Agreement  e) Proportion 

Ans: (a)

Explanation: The most similar in meaning to

the word 'perspective' is ‘viewpoint’ 

10. Which of the following is true as per the

passage?  a) India has not followed the conventional model

of growth and has moved directly from the

agriculture sector to the service sector.  b) The service sector of the country is yet to

make a mark on the IT and financial sectors of the country 

c) With availability of labour and growth in

human skills, the service sector of Indian economy is booming limitlessly as  there is no

restriction on movement of labour  d) India has become self-reliant and does not

have to depend on other countries because of

the development in the

manufacturing sector.    e) All of the above 

Ans: (d)

Explanation: 'India has become self-reliant and does not have to depend on

other countries because of the development in the manufacturing sector' is true statement

as per passage.

I.11-15) In the following passage, some of

the words have been left out. Read the

passage carefully and fill in the blanks by

selecting the most appropriate alternatives.

The question number from which a word is to


be selected out of the four given as

alternatives, is written in each blank space.

The latest surgical tools are certainly

fashionable, especially lasers and

laparoscopes. But their role in transforming

surgery is (11), as is the excitement they

generate. Dr. Sanjay C from Delhi specialises

in remodelling the (12) with what is called an

excimer laser."It's like etching on gold to

design jewellery", he says. "The laser manages

to either flatten or raise the cornea, solving

the problem of myopia". Now

watch Dr. Harshad P, in his clinic as he gazes not at this (13) but at a television screen,

which his patient too is (14) from the

operating table. Controlled from the

outside, Dr. Harshad’s laser is waltzing through his patient’s prostrate; it’s called a laser prostatectomy. A miniature camera and

a beam of light from a fibre-optic wire, both at

the end of a laparoscope, allow him to see

(15) than with the naked eyes.

11. Choose the correct option:

a) questionable

b) discretionary

c) unpardonable

d) unquestionable

Ans: (d)

Explanation: Options a, b and c do not gel with

the theme, only option d “unquestionable”, matches the exceptionable role of the laser.


a) body

b) clinic

c) world

d) eye

Ans: (d)

Explanation: Doctor Sanjay C definitely “remodels the eyes” as in the later part he talks about flattening or raising the cornea. Hence option (d)

is correct.


a) family

b) future

c) patient

d) awards

Ans: (c)

Explanation: Doctor Harshad P. would be

expected to look at his “patient” under normal circumstances to diagnose the problem or

solve it. Hence option ‘c’ is correct.


a) operating

b) diagnosing

c) watching

d) criticising

Ans: (c)

Explanation: The patient cannot be operating,

diagnosing or criticising lying on the operating

table. He can only be “watching” the projection on the TV screen. Hence, option ‘c’ is correct.


a) tens of times better

b) not much better

c) restricted vision

d) more colourfully

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Here only two options make

sense, i.e., option (a) “tens of times better” and option (d) “more colourfully” but ‘seeming more colourfully’ is not at all a


desired advantage of the laser surgery.

Option ‘a’, “tens of times better” is the required property of the laser. Hence option

‘a’ is correct.

I.16-20) Read each sentence and find out

whether there is any grammatical

error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any,

will be in one part of the sentence.

If there is no error, the answer is No

Error. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. plunging international crude oil prices (1)/ and

the subsequently lowered of fuel prices (2)/

come as a morale booster (3)/ for the

auto industry. (4)/ No error (5).

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Here, ‘and the subsequent (adjective) lowering (gerund) of fuel prices’ is the right usage. Here, Gerund has been used

as Noun.

17. Handwriting is an art form (1)/ just like

painting, drawing and (2)/ sketching, this art

(3)/ can develop by individuals with some

efforts. (4)/ No error (5).

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Ans: (d)

Explanation: Here, passive voice i.e., ‘can be developed by individuals’ is the right usage. Here, subject is passive.

18. The decision (1)/ to buy out the plant (2)/ was

base at (3)/ the cost benefit analysis. (4) No

error (5).

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Ans: (c)

Explanation: In passive voice, past participle

form of verb is used. Hence, ‘was based on’ is the right usage.

19. The states will also be told to effective utilise

the new (1)/ created price index to ensure (2)/

that prices of onions and potatoes (3)/ do not

show any artificial increase. (4)/ No error (5).

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Here, ‘the states will also be told to effectively (adverb) utilise (verb) the

newly’ (adverb) is the right usage. An adverb

modifies an adjective/a verb.

20. The draft made a case by removed different

(1)/ types of fees and charges on (2)/ e-

transactions by various entities and providing

(3)/ incentives for such payments. (4)/ No

error (5).

a) 1

b) 2


c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Here, ‘The draft made a case for removing different’ is the right usage.

I.21-25) Direction: Each question below has

two blanks, each blank indicating that

something has been omitted. Choose the

set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 

  21. Wayfinding is an information

system that helps people______ physical

environment and _____ their understanding

and experience of the space.  a) handle, boom

b) operate, boost  c) manoeuvre, exalt

d) navigate, enhance  e) skip, magnify 

Ans: (d)

22. In Delhi, where a third of the population has

been ______ into poorly provisioned illegal

homes and another large _____ is priced out

of the city for want of affordable housing,

getting a DDA flat is nothing short of winning a lottery. 

a) attacked, portion

b) pushed, chunk

c) thrusted, quantity

d) assaulted, piece  e) charged, part

Ans: (b)

23. The NDA government _____ the makes in

India programme in 2014

to ________ investment in the manufacturing

sector.

a) catapulted, rise

b) propelled, add  c) projected, blow  d) dispatched, setback  e) launched, boost

Ans: (e)

24. The recommendation comes ______the

stand-off between the Modi government and

the NGO sector ______ several have been

complaining of undue or targeted harassment

by the government.

a) amidst, where

b) amongst, when   c) outside, while

d) to, in which  e) over, whereas

Ans: (a)

25. The project ______ 24 x 7 ______ to

educational content.  a) conceives, hours

b) predicts, receiving

c) envisages, access

d) anticipates, days

e) visualises, approach

Ans: (c)

I.26-30) In each of the following questions, a

sentence split into four parts labelled 1, 2, 3, 4

is given. Rearrange the parts to form the

original sentence and select the correct order

from among the five choices given below and

mark its number as your answer:

26. 1) that she would not speak for other backward

classes


2) because she firmly believed that it was

necessary now

3) she ventured to do so on this one occasion

4) although the minister had previously

emphasized

a) 1324

b) 2134

c) 3214

d) 4132

e) 4231

Ans: (d)

Explanation: Although the minister

had previously emphasized that she would not

speak for other backward classes she ventured

to do so on this one occasion because she

firmly believed that it was necessary now.

27. 1) remains the same amount of water

2) the research revealed that children can

3) that a pint of water poured from a small glass

into a large one

4) learn to count long before the recognition

a) 3421

b) 2341

c) 2431

d) 2143

e) 3142

Ans: 2431

Explanation: The research revealed that

children can learn to count long before the

recognition that a pint of water poured from a

small glass into a large one remains the same

amount of water.

28. 1) he first made copies of more than twenty

2) in order to raise money

3) the artist so much treasured his collection of

portraits

4) that when forced to sell them

a) 2134

b) 3421

c) 3412

d) 3142

e) 2143

Ans: 3421

Explanation: The artist so much treasured his

collection of portraits that when forced to sell

them in order to raise money he first made

copies of more than twenty.

29. 1) all over the Himalaya ranges

2) many of them chiseled from solid rocks

centuries ago

3) hundreds of monasteries

4) dot the mountainous regions

a) 4213

b) 4123

c) 3214

d) 3241

e) 2314

Ans: 3241

Explanation: Hundreds of monasteries many

of them chiseled from solid rocks centuries

ago dot the mountainous regions all over the

Himalaya ranges.

30. 1) to grant a concession for oil exploration to the

company

2) it was the loss of revenue from tourism


3) that would later be known by the name of

Aramco

4) that in 1995 led the Saudi authorities

a) 1432

b) 1243

c) 2431

d) 2143

e) 2413

Ans: 2413

Explanation: It was the loss of revenue from

tourism that in 1995 led the Saudi

authorities to grant a concession for oil

exploration to the company that would later

be known by the name of Aramco.

I.31-32) In each of the questions given below a

few sentences are given which are

grammatically correct and meaningful.

Connect them by the word given above the

statements in the best possible way without

changing the intended meaning. Choose your

answer accordingly from a correct and

coherent sentence.

31. only if

I. The concept of statistical deviance determines

that a behaviour is abnormal.

II. He once stated that the vast possibilities if our

great future will become realities.

III. It occurs infrequently among the members of

the group as a whole.

IV. WE make ourselves responsible for that

future.

a) Only C-A

b) Only A-B

c) Both A-C and B-D

d) Only D-B

e) no connection possible

Ans: (c)

32. By the time

I. We got to the top of the mountain.

II. Smoke was pouring out the windows of the

house.

III. The steepness of the climb took us by

surprise, so we’d had a pretty good workout. IV. The fire engine arrived.

a) Only C-A

b) Only D-B

c) Both A-D and B-C

d) Both C-A and B-D

e) no connection possible

Ans: (d)

I.33) In this question four words are given in

bold. One of these words given in bold may be

either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the

context of the sentence. Find out that word, if

any otherwise mark the last option ‘all correct’.

33. Mumbai is an efficient city in some ways, but

this reputation depends on fare weather.

a) efficient

b) ways

c) reputation

d) fare

e) all correct

Ans: (d)

Explanation: The appropriate word should be

‘fair’.

34. Despite its glitches and snarls, the new tax

has taken firm route and is altering the

economic landscape positively.

a) glitches

b) snarls


c) route

d) landscape

e) all correct

Ans: (c)

Explanation: The word should be root.

I.35) In the following question, out of the five

alternatives, choose the one which best

expresses the meaning of the given word as

used in the passage:

35. prudent

a) hasty

b) reasonable

c) foolish

d) reckless

e) unwise

Ans: (c)

I.36-38) In the questions below, there is a

sentence in which one part is given in bold.

This part may or may not be grammatically

correct. Choose the best alternative among

the given options. If the part is already

correct, choose option ‘e’.

36. Within the next decade, healthcare is going to

be one of the most lucrative sectors in India.

a) will go on to

b) has gone in

c) has been going to be

d) have become

e) no correction required

Ans: (e)

37. He is sad to had defrauded many people to

lakhs of rupees till date.

a) be fraud of

b) defraud

c) be in defraud of

d) have defrauded


Ans: (d)

Explanation: The sentence is in present

perfect tense so ‘have’ should be used at the place of ‘had’. He is sad to have defrauded many people to

lakhs of rupees till date.

38. Ring network technology requires many

wiring and is not feasible for connecting too

many nodes.

a) require most wiring

b) required too more wiring

c) require much of wires

d) requires a lot of wiring


Ans: (d)

Explanation: ‘a lot of’ should be used at place of ‘many’. Ring network technology requires a lot of

wiring and is not feasible for connecting too

many nodes.

I.39-40) In the following questions, out of five

alternatives, choose the one which is opposite

in the meaning of the given words.

39. Disband

a) Dismiss

b) Doubt

c) Apportion

d) Disburse

e) assemble

Ans: (e)

Explanation: Disband means ‘to break up anything’. Assemble means ‘collect together.


40. Litter

a) Clutter

b) Scramble

c) Possessions

d) Muddle

e) Garbage

Ans: (c)

Explanation: Litter means ‘refused items or garbage’ while possessions means ‘to handle something’.

SEBI Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Reasoning

1. Find out the missing term:

256, 64, 16, 4, __

a) 1

b) ¼

c) 1/16

d) none of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: The given series is a gap with

common ratio ¼.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


7, 15, 27, __, 63

a) 42

b) 43

c) 38

d) none of these

Ans: (b)

Explanation: The series follows a pattern of

+8, +12, +__, +20.

Hence, we need to add 16 for the missing

term.

27+16 = 43 is the answer.


___, 425, 600, 825, 1100, 1425

a) 225

b) 300

c) 250

d) none of these

Ans: (b)

Explanation: If in the series first number is

missing, start to solve backwardly.

The series follows a pattern of – 325, -275, -

225, -175 backwardly.

Hence, the first number could be get by

subtracting 125 from 425.

So, the answer is 300.


1, 121, 12321, 1234321, ___

a) 123454321

b) 12344321

c) 12345654321

d) none of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: The series is representing the

values of 12, 112, 1112, 11112. Hence, the next

value would be 111112= 123454321, so option

(a) is the answer.


0.005, 0.05, ___, 5

a) 5.50

b) 0.05

c) 0.5

d) none of these

Ans: (c)

Explanation: A gap with common ratio 10.

Hence, the missing term will be 0.5

6. Which combination of alphabets would come

in the position of the question mark in the

following sequence?

ABP, CDQ, EFR, ___

a) GHS

b) GHT

c) HGS

d) GHR

e) none of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: First and second letter move two

steps in forward direction while the third

letter moves one step in alphabetical order.

7. Which of the following will come next in the

series given below?


NSI, ORG, PQE, QPC, ___

a) PQA

b) RQD

c) AOR

d) ROA

e) none of these

Ans: (d)

Explanation: 1st letter moves +1 step, second

letter moves -1 step, 3rd letter moves -2 steps.

Hence, the next group of letters would be

ROA.

I.48-50) Answer the questions on the basis of

the information given below:

Nine students Lavya, Mona, Niti, Osho, Pawan,

Qureshi, Radha, Saumya and Tarun are

standing in 3x3 square formation facing North.

It is also given that:

I. Niti is standing immediately in front of

Qureshi.

II. Qureshi is standing to the immediate right to

Tarun.

III. Osho is standing to the immediate left

of Lavya.

IV. Pawan is standing to the immediately behind

Radha.

V. Saumya is standing to the immediate right to

Mona.

8. Which of the following students is standing at

the Centre?

a) Qureshi

b) Radha

c) Saumya

d) Tarun

Ans: (d)

Explanation: This table can be draw by the

given information:

O/M L/S N

R T Q

P O/M L/S

Tarun is standing at the Centre.

9. Which of the following students is standing at

the last position in the leftmost column?

a) Osho

b) Mona

c) Pawan

d) Radha

Ans: (c)


given information:

O/M L/S N

R T Q

P O/M L/S

Pawan is standing at the last position in the

leftmost column.

10. Which of the following statements is definitely

true?

a) Radha is standing in the first column.

b) Qureshi and Radha are standing in different

rows.

c) Pawan and Tarun are standing at corners.

d) None of these.

Ans: (a)


given information:

O/M L/S N

R T Q

P O/M L/S

(a) is true as Radha is standing in the first

column.


I.11-13) study the following information to

answer the given questions:

A building has seven floors numbered one to

seven, in such a way that the ground floor is

numbered one, the floor above it, number two

and so on such that the topmost floor is

numbered seven. One out of seven people viz., A,

B, C, D, E, F and G lives on each floor. A lives on

fourth floor. E lives on the floor immediately

below F’s floor. F does not live on the second or the seventh floor.

C does not live on an odd numbered floor. B does

not live on a floor immediately above or below

C’s floor. D does not live on the topmost floor. G does not live on any floor below E’s floor.

11. Who lives on the topmost floor?

a) B

b) C

c) E

d) G

e) Cannot be determined

Ans: (d)

Explanation: G live son the topmost floor.

From the information given, we can construct

the following table:

7th G

6th C

5th D

4th A

3rd F

2nd E

1st B

12. Who lives immediately above D’s floor?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) F

e) G

Ans: (c)

Explanation: C lives immediately above D’s floor.



7th G

6th C

5th D

4th A

3rd F

2nd E

1st B

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way and so form a group. Which is the one

that does not belong to that group?

a) F

b) D

c) B

d) G

e) C

Ans: (e)

Explanation: F, D, B and G live on odd

numbered floor. C lives on even numbered

floor.



7th G

6th C

5th D

4th A

3rd F

2nd E

1st B

14. Pointing to a man in a photograph, Leesha

said, “his mother’s only daughter is my mother”. How is Leesha related to that man?

a) nephew


b) sister

c) wife

d) niece

e) granddaughter

Ans: (d)

Explanation: Leesha’s mother – man’s sister, i.e., Leesha is man’s niece.

15. If Raju is the son of the wife of the son of the

father of Amrendra’s father, how is Raju related to Amrendra, if Raju’s grandfather has no granddaughter?

a) brother

b) cousin

c) either 1 or 2

d) can’t say

e) none of these

Ans: (c)

Explanation: Father of the father of Amrendra.

Now, the wife of the son of Amrendra’s grandfather is either aunt or mother of

Amrendra. Hence, Raju, who is the son of the

lady, is either brother or cousin.

16. A man walks 6 km to the East and then turns

to the South and walks 5 km. Again, he turns

to the East and walks 6 km. Next, he turns

northwards and walks 10 km. How far is he

now from his starting point?

a) 5 km

b) 12 km

c) 13 km

d) 17 km

e) 9 km

Ans: (c)

Explanation: The man starts from A and walks

6 km East up to B, turns Southwards and

moves 5 km. up to C. At C, he turns to the East

and walks 6 km up to D. He then turns

Northwards and walks 10 km up to E. Now,

draw BO and AE.

Clearly, BO = CD = 6 km

AO = (AB + BO) = (6+6) km = 12 km

OE = (DE-OD) = (DE – BC)

= (10-5) km = 5 km

So, man’s distance from the starting point A

= √(AO2+OE2)

= √(122+52) = √169

= 13 km

17. Anand Left for his office in his car. He drove 15

km towards North and then 10 km towards

West. He then turned to the South and

covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the east

and moved 8 km. Finally, he turned right and

drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is

he from his starting point?

a) 2 km West

b) 5 km East

c) 3 km North

d) 6 km South

e) none of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Clearly, Anand drove 15 km from

A to B northwards and then 10 km from B to C

towards West. He then moves 5 km

Southwards from C to D and 8 km Eastwards


up to E. Finally, he turned right and moved 10

km up to F.

So, A and F lie in the same straight line and F

lies to the West of A.

So, Anand’s distance from the starting point A = AF = (BC – DE)

= 10 – 8

2 km West

I.18-20) M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting

around a circle facing the center. P is third to

the left of M and second to the right of T. N is

second to the right of P. R is second to right of

W, who is second to the right of M. F is not an

immediate neighbor of P.

18. Who is to the immediate right of P?

a) H

b) F

c) R

d) data inadequate

e) none of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: H is the immediate right of P.

On the basis of the given information

following seating arrangement can be

possible:

19. Who is second to the right of F?

a) M

b) R

c) T

d) data inadequate

e) none of these

Ans: (c)

Explanation: T is second to the right of F.



possible:

20. In which of the following is the first person

sitting in between the second and the third

person?


a) NHM

b) PHN

c) TRP

d) TWF

e) None of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: N is sitting between H and M.



possible:

I.21-25) In each of the questions given below

two statements are followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to

take the given statements to be true even if

they seem to be at variance with commonly

known facts. Read all the conclusions and then

decide which of the given conclusion logically

follows from the statements, disregarding

commonly unknown facts. Give answer:

21. Statements:

A. All men are dogs.

B. All dogs are cats.

Conclusion:

I. All men are cats.

II. All cats are men.

a) if only conclusion I follows.

b) if only conclusion II follows.

c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II

follows.

e) if both conclusions I and II follows.

Ans: (a)

Explanation: from the figure drawn,

conclusion A follows.

22. Statements:

A. All men are married.

B. Some men are educated.

Conclusion:

I. Some married are educated.

II. Some educated are married.





follows.


Ans: (e)

Explanation: From the figure, we can say that

some men are educated and some educated

are men. Hence, both of them follow.


23. Statements:

A. All boys are girls

B. No girl is a father.

Conclusion:

I. All girls are boys.

II. No boy is a father.





follows.


Ans: (b)

Explanation: Conclusion (I) does not follow.

Conclusion (II) that ‘no boy is a father’ is valid which shows from the figure.

24. Pointing to a boy, Purnima says, “He is the only son of the sister of my brother.” How is the boy related to Purnima? 

a) son  b) nephew  c) brother  d) none of these 

e) can’t be determined  Ans: (e) 

Explanation: If Purnima is the only daughter of

her father then the boy is her son. But, here

we don’t know the number of sisters Purnima has. Hence, the relation cannot be

determined. 

25. X’s mother is the mother-in-law of the father

of Z. Z is the brother of Y while X is the father

of M. How is X related to Z?  a) paternal uncle  b) maternal uncle  c) cousin  d) grandfather  e) brother-in-law

Ans: (b) 

Explanation: Mother-in-law of father=

maternal (grandmother)  Since X is son of Z’s maternal grandmother, X must be Z’s maternal uncle. Note that X is a male because he is a father. 

26. One day, Ravi left home and cycled 10 km

southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and

turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left

and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers will

he have to cycle to reach his home straight?

a) 10 km

b) 15 km

c) 20 km

d) 25 km

e) none of these

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Clearly, Ravi starts from home A,

moves 10 km southwards up to B, turns right

and moves 5 km up to C, turns right again and

moves 10 km up to D and finally turns left and


moves 10 km up to D and finally turns left and

moves 10 km up to E.

Thus, his distance from initial position

A = AE

= AD + DE

= BC + DE

= 5 + 10 km

= 15 km

I.67-68) Study the following elements of

letters, digits and symbols sequence to answer

the questions given below:

A B 7 C D 9 Z Y * P 2 M © K S 3 % 5 N T @

27. How many such digits are there in the

sequence each of which is immediately

preceded as well as followed by letters?

a) none

b) one

c) two

d) three

e) none of these

Ans: (d)

Explanation: We have to search for letter-

digit- letter combination. There are three such

combination in the series- B7D, D9Z, P2M.

28. Which of the following letters is exactly

midway between the letters falling between

‘C’ and ‘F’?

a) Y

b) K

c) P

d) M

e) none of these

Ans: (c)

Explanation: The letters falling between C and

5 are as follows: D Z Y P M K S. Hence, P is the

required letter.

29. In a class Seema is 10th from the top

and Bablee is 20th from the bottom. Raju is 11

ranks below Seema and 21 ranks

above Bablee. How many students are in the

class if list includes all the students of the

class?

a) 60

b) 61

c) 62

d) data inadequate

e) none of these

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Seema’s position – 10th from the

top

Bablee’s position – 20th from the bottom

Raju is 11th below Seema means, (10+11) =

21st from the top.

Raju is 21st above Bablee means, (20 + 21) = 41

from the bottom.

So, total number of students = 41+21 – 1 = 61

30. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having a

different weight, R is heavier than only P. S is

lighter than Q and heavier than T. Who among

them is the heaviest?

a) Q

b) P

c) S

d) data inadequate

e) none of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: “R is heavier than only P” implies that P is the lightest and R is the second

lightest. So, the second information (Q > S >

T) determines that Q is the heaviest.

I.31) Each of the questions below consists of a

question and two or three statements given

below it. You have to decide whether the data


provided in the statements are

sufficient to answer the question:

31. In which direction from city ‘X’ is city ‘Y’ situated?

Statements:

I. City ‘X’ is to the East of city ‘W’ but both the cities ‘Y’ and ‘X’ are in the straight line.

II. No cities are to the North of ‘X’. III. No cities except ‘X’ are on the same straight

line on which ‘W’ is situated.

a) either (I) or (II) or (III)

b) (II) and (III)

c) only (II)

d) all are required

e) none of these

Ans: (d)

Explanation: We need all the three statements

to get the direction of city ‘Y’ from city ‘X’.

I.32) Each of the questions below consists of a

question and two or three statements given

below it. You have to decide whether the data

provided in the statements are

sufficient to answer the question:

32. How is L related to W?

Statements:

I. P is wife of one of the sons of X and mother of

the grandson of the father of Y.

II. Y is the father of W but W is not the daughter

of the wife of Y.

III. L is the brother of T, who is granddaughter of

the father-in-law of the mother of L.

a) none

b) all the information even together are not

sufficient.

c) any one of them

d) only C

e) none of these

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Statement (III) has no relation

either with statement (I) or (II). In the

statement (III), W is not being talked about.

Similarly, in statement (I) and (II), L is not

being talked about. Hence, all the three

statements even together are not sufficient.

33. In a certain code language, the word ‘LATEST’ is written as ‘IDQHPW’. How will the word ‘PAPERS’ be written in that language?

a) SXSBUP

b) MDSBUP

c) MDMHOV

d) MDMHUV

e) None of these

Ans: (c)

Explanation: Odd-number-positioned letters

are shifted three places leftward and even-

number-positioned letters are shifted three

places rightward as in English alphabet.

Hence, the code for ‘PAPERS’ will be ‘MDMHOV’.

I.34) In each question below is given a group

of letters followed by four combinations of

digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4).

You have to find out which of the

combinations correctly represents the group

of letters based on the following digits/symbol

coding system and the conditions those follow

and mark the number of that combinations as

the answer. If none of the combinations

correctly represents the group of letters mark

(5) i.e. ‘none of these’, as your answer.


Letter P M E K R A T W I J U B F H N Digit/ Symbol

5 6 # 2 $ 8 % 1 © 7 @ 9 3 4 *

CONDITIONS:

I. If both the first and the last letters in the

group are vowels, both are to be coded as the

code for the last letter.

II. If both the first and the last letters in the

group are consonants, both are to be coded as

the code for the first letter.

III. If the first letter in the group is a consonant

and the last letter is a vowel codes for the first

and the last letters are to be interchanged.

34. T M W E I K B

a) % 6 1 # © 2 %

b) % 6 1 # © 2 9

c) 9 6 1 # © 2 9

d) 9 6 1 # © 2 %

e) None of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Apply condition (II)

T M W E I K B % 6 1 # © 2 %

35. A H N R M U F

a) 8 4 * $ 6 @ 8

b) 3 4 * $ 6 @ 3

c) 8 4 * $ 6 @ 3

d) 3 4 * $ 6 @ 8

e) none of these

Ans: (C)

Explanation: apply condition applicable

A H N R M U F 8 4 * $ 6 @ 3

I.36-37) Read the information carefully and

answer the given questions:

A company ABC printed different numbers of

books in different years- 1947, 1956, 1987,

1998, 2002- such that the number of books

printed are not same in any year. 66 books

were printed in an odd-numbered year which

is not 1947. The number of books printed in

1947 is 10 less than that printed in 1987. 59

books were printed in a year before the year

in which 61 books were printed in 2002 was 2

more than that printed in 1998.

36. What is the number of books printed in 1987?

a) 56

b) 66

c) 63

d) 61

e) none of these

Ans: (a)

Explanation: By the given information, we can

draw the chart given below:

Year Number of

books printed

1947 56

1956 59

1987 66

1998 61

2002 63

So, the number of books printed in 1987 is 66.

37. In how many years is the number of books

printed more than that printed in 1998?

a) two

b) one

c) none

d) three

e) four

Ans: (a)


Explanation: By the given information, we can

draw the chart given below:

Year Number of books

printed

1947 56

1956 59

1987 66

1998 61

2002 63

Hence, 61 books were printed in 1998 and 63

books were printed in 2002. So, in 2 years

number of books printed are more than that

printed in 1998.

38. How many meaningful words can be formed

from the 1st, 6th, 8th and 9th letter of the word

‘EMANCIPATE’ by using each letter once in the

word?

a) two

b) one

c) none

d) three

e) more than three

Ans: (c)

Explanation: Given word: EMANCIPATE

1ST Letter: E

6th letter: I

8th letter: A

9th letter: T

Thus, no meaningful word.

39. If all the letters in the word ‘FIGURES’ are arranged in alphabetical order from left to

right in such a way that vowels are arranged

first followed by consonants, then how many

letters are there between U and R after the

arrangement?

a) two

b) one

c) none

d) three

e) four

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Given word: FIGURES

New word formed: EIUFGRS

Thus, there are two letters between U and R.

40. If in the number 39682147, 1 is added to each

of the digits which is less than five and 1 is

subtracted from each of the digits which is

greater than five then how many digits are

repeated in the Number thus formed?

a) two

b) one

c) none

d) three

e) four

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Given number: 39682147

New number: 48573256

Hence, only 5 is repeated once.

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