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1

BA Mgt. Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

Mercantile and Industrial Law Subject Code: BAMGT -401

Paper Code: FCJ-245 Time : 20 Minutes

M.Marks : 10

Section A

Objective Type Questions

Attempt All Questions (Each question carry 1/2 mark). Use the symbol (√) in the box for

marking the correct answer.

Q. No. 1. Choose the correct answer-

1. The Consumer Protection Act was incorporated in the year-

a) 1982 b) 1986

c) 1985 d) None of these

2. The state Forum under the Consumer Protection Act is established by-

a) High Court b) Supreme Court

c) State Government d) Central Government

3. Which one is not the methods of Trade Union?

a) Mutual Insurance b) Collective Bargaining

c) Social Action d) Political Action

4. Trade Union Act was enacted in the year-

a) 1928 b) 1926

c) 1947 d) 1931

5. The Indian Contract Act 1872 applies to the-

a) Whole of India including Jammu and Kashmir

b) Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir

c) States notified by the Government each year

d) Northern and Eastern Indian States

Invigilator’s Signature

Roll No.

Enrollment No.

2

6. The term of Central Consumer Protection Council is-

a) One Year b) Two Years

c) Three Years d) Five Years

7. The Payment of Wages Act was passed in-

a) 1936 b) 1942

c) 1935 d) 1938

8. The objectives of Trade Unions are-

a) Steady employment

b) Recognition and participation

c) Gaining legislative enactments

d) All of these

9. An Agreement implies-

a) Offer b) Acceptance

c) Offer and acceptance d) None of these

10. As a general rule minor’s agreement is-

a) Void at initio b) Voidable

c) Valid d) Illegal

11. A person who is appointed to contract on behalf of another person is known

as-

a) Agent b) Principal

c) Independent contractor d) None of these

12. Where the consent of a party is obtained by fraud the contract is;

a) Valid b) Void

c) Voidable d) Illegal

13. .....................means remuneration payable in respect of an employment under

the payment of wages Act.

a) Damages b) Services

c) Wages d) Fines

3

14. The ESI Act provides which of the following benefits-

a) Disablement Benefit b) Medical Benefit

c) Funeral Benefit d) All of these

15. The Payment of wages Act is applicable to-

a) Whole of India

b) Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir

c) Northern and Southern States

d) South Eastern and North Western States

16. A false statement of facts, made without any intention to deceive the other

party falls under the category of-

a) Fraud b) Misrepresentation

c) Coercion d) Undue influence

17. Which of the following persons are not competent to contract?

a) Minors b) Persons of unsound mind

c) Persons disqualified by law d) All of these

18. A person may act as a President or Member of District Forum for 5 years or

upto the age of-

a) 60 Years b) 62 Years

c) 65 Years d) 67 Years

19. The Industrial Disputes Act was passed in the year-

a) 1948 b) 1947

c) 1949 d) 1950

20. Under the Industrial Disputes Act the National Tribunal is constituted by the-

a) State Government b) Central Government

c) High Court d) Employer

---------------------------

1


Mercantile and Industrial Law Subject Code: BAMGT -401

Paper Code: FCJ-245

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60

Section – B (Short Answer Type Questions)

Attempt all questions (each question carry 4 marks)

Q.No.2. Define the term ‘Contract’. What are the essentials of a valid contract?

OR

Explain the jurisdiction of National Commission under Consumer Protection

Act.

Q.No.3. Explain the main provisions of the Factories Act.

OR

What are Consumer Disputes?

Q.No.4. Explain the functions of Trade Unions.

OR

What do you mean by Standing Orders?

Q.No.5. Define Wages as per the payment of Wages Act.

OR

What is the object of fixing Minimum Wages?

Q.No.6 . Explain the Terms;

a) Employment injury

b) Permanent Partial Disablement

OR

Explain the benefits provided under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948.

Roll No.

2

Section – C (Long Answer Type Questions)


Q.No.7. Define and distinguish the following.

a) Void and voidable contracts.

b) Empress and implied contracts.

OR

Discuss the constitution, composition and role of State Commission under the

Consumer Protection Act.

Q.No.8. State the general penalties for offences as provided under the Factories Act.

OR

State in brief the provisions of Factories Act with regard to safety of workers

in the factories.

Q.No.9. Write an essay on Trade Union Movement in India.

OR

Examine the role of industrial relations machinery for prevention of disputes.

Q.No.10. Enumerate the broad features of Minimum Wages Act.

OR

Explain the provisions for timely payment of wages under payment of Wages

Act.

Q.No.11. Explain the salient features of Employees State Insurance Act.

OR

Explain the basic provisions of Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923.

---------------------------------

1


Business Statistics Subject Code: BAMGT -402


M.Marks : 10

Section A





1. The data collected by the investigator himself is called-

a) Primary b) Secondary

c) Both Primary & Secondary d) None of these

2. Sources of secondary data are-

a) Data Obtained by survey for the purpose

b) Data Obtained by personal investigation

c) Production records of a firm

d) All of these

3. Rupee per kilogram is-

a) A simple unit b) Composite unit

c) Unit of analysis d) Coefficient

4. Of the following which is considered in a statistical investigation?

a) Definition of Problem b) Purpose of investigation

c) Sources of information d) All of these

5. Classification of the students of a college in two categories ‘rural’ and ‘urban’ is-

a) Qualitative Classification b) Quantitative Classification

c) Geographical Classification d) None of these


Roll No.

Enrollment No.

2

6. In an exclusive series-

a) Both class limits are considered

b) The upper limit is excluded

c) The lower limit is excluded

d) Both limits are excluded

7. Statistical mean which is not affected by extreme values is-

a) Arithmetic Mean b) Median

c) Harmonic Mean d) Geometric Mean

8. For calculation of arithmetic mean, the class intervals should be-

a) Exclusive b) Unequal

c) Equal d) All are possible

9. Quartile deviation is.

a) 𝑄3 - 𝑄1 b) 𝑄1 + 𝑄3

c) 𝑄3−𝑄1

2 d)

𝑄3+𝑄1

2

10. The value of mean, mode and median coincide in case of-

a) Positively skewed distribution

b) Negatively skewed distribution

c) Symmetrical distribution

d) All of these

11. Mean Deviation is minimum about-

a) Mean b) Median

c) Mode d) First Quartile

12. Measures of dispersion are called-

a) Measures of first order b) Measures of second order

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

3

13. The time period of seasonal fluctuations is of-

a) 1 Year b) 2 Years

c) 3 Years d) 10 Years

14. Correlation will be negative if with an increase in the value of X-

a) There is also an increase in the value of Y

b) The value of Y decreases

c) The value of Y remains uncharged

d) None of these

15. Probable Error is-

a) 0.6754 SE b) 0.6745 SE

c) 6745 SE d) 6.745 SE

16. Two regression lines coincide if-

a) r = 0 b) r = 1 2

c) r = −12 d) r = ±1

17. If one regression coefficient is negative then the other will be-

a) Positive b) Negative

c) Positive or negative d) None of these

18. Which methods shows the line of best fit?

a) Moving average method

b) Semi average method

c) Least Square method

e) None of these

19. Which one of the following persons is not related with the field of index

numbers?

a) Bowley b) Marshall

c) Ronald Fisher d) Irving Fisher

4

20. Time reversal test is satisfied if –

a) 𝑝01 × 𝑝10 = 100 b) 𝑝01 × 𝑝10 = 1002

c) 𝑝01 × 𝑝10 > 1002 d) 𝑝01 × 𝑝10 < 1

----------------------------------

1


Business Statistics Subject Code: BAMGT-402

Paper Code: FCJ-246

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60



Q.No.2. Write a note on distrust of statistics .

OR

What are the merits and demerits of primary data?

Q.No.3. What is the relationship between Mean, Median and Mode?

OR

Calculate Geometric mean.

5.6, 56, 560, 0.56, 0.056

Q.No.4. State the objectives of measures of dispersion.

OR

Differentiate between Skewness and Dispersion

Q.No.5. Distinguish between independent and dependent events.

OR

Define probability and give its characteristics in brief.

Q.No.6. What are the main components of Time Series?

OR

Distinguish between simple and weighted index number.

Section C (Long answer type questions)


Q.No.7. “Today there is hardly a phase of endeavour which does not find statistical

devices at least occasionally useful.” In light of this statement discuss the scope

and utility of statistics.

OR

You have been asked to conduct a statistical survey. Outline the preliminary steps

that you would take before commencing the work of collection of data.

Q.No.8. Calculate Median and Mode from the following:-

Marks less than 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10

No of Students 50 45 40 30 16 10 7 3

OR

Roll No.

2

Calculate Median and Mode from the following:-

Class: 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90 90-100

Frequency: 4 6 5 10 20 22 24 6 3

Q.No.9. Data regarding two models of refrigerators are as below-

Life in Years 0-2 2-4 4-6 6-8 8-10 10-12

Model A 5 16 13 7 5 4

Model B 2 7 12 19 9 1

Which model has greater uniformity? OR

Calculate Karl Pearson‟s coefficient of skewness from the following-

Marks less than: 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Frequency: 3 14 30 60 75 85 92 97 100

Q.No.10. An investigation into the demand of TV‟s in 7 towns resulted as follows-

Population (in 000) (x) 11 14 14 17 17 21 25

No of TV sets demanded (y) 15 27 27 30 34 38 46

Calculate regression equation of y on x and estimate the demand for TV sets in a town

with population of 30 thousand.

OR

a) A bag contains 14 balls of which 6 are red, 3 yellow and 5 black. 3 balls are drawn

successively without replacement. What is the probability that they are drawn in

order red, yellow, black?

b) In how many ways can the letters of the word „COMMERCE‟ be arranged ?

Q.No.11. Fit a straight line trend by the method of least square.

Year 1999 2001 2004 2006 2008 2009 2012

Production 140 170 188 166 180 200 196

OR

Calculate Fisher‟s Ideal Index Number from the following:-

Commodity Base year Current year

Price Expenditure Price Expenditure

A 10 490 12 600

B 12 300 15 300

C 18 180 20 240

D 20 100 40 80

E 22 176 45 225

-----------------------------

1

B.A. Mgt. Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

Advanced Accounting and Auditing Subject Code: BAMGT-403

Paper Code: FCJ-247

Time : 20 Minutes

M.Marks : 10

Section A


Attempt All Questions. Each question carries 1/2 mark. Use the symbol (√) in the box for marking the

correct answer.

Q. No. I. Choose the correct answer-

1. When did banking companies adopt new format-

a) 31st march 1990 b) 31

st march 1992

c) 31st march 1994. d) 31

st march 1996.

2. Banking companies are governed by the banking regulation Act-

a) 1950 b) 1951

c) 1948 d) 1949

3. The accompanying financial statements have been prepared on -

a) The historical cost b) The actual cost

c) The financial cost d) The market cost

4. What is CRR-

a) Cash reserve ratio b) Credit rating record

c) Current ratio rate d) Review report

5. In which year general insurance was nationalized in India.-

a) 1970 b) 1972

c) 1973 d) 1974

6. Life insurance business is carried on by Life Insurance Corporation of India since-

a) 1947 b) 1956

c) 1958 d) 1960

Roll No.

Enrollment No.


2

7. According to the provisions of the Insurance Act, final accounts were prepared in year

-

a) 1948 b) 1958

c) 1938 d) 1928

8. Investigation is generally done on behalf of whom?

a) Auditor b) Lawyers

c) Outsiders d) None of these

9. In order to claim a company as holding company, the same company needs to acquire

at least ..........% of shares of subsidiary company.

a) 50% b) 60%

c) 51% d) 81%

10. Auditing starts when -

a) Book keeping ends b) Accounting ends

c) Investigation ends d) Verification ends

11. Object of holding companies is _______ of other companies-

a) Promoting b) Secured

c) Controlling d) All of these

12. The holding company’s share of revenue profit is -

a) Ignored

b) Shown in consolidated B/S

c) Shown in P/L A/C of holding company

d) Added in computing minority interest

13. The object of investigation is -

a) Positive b) Negative

c) Special d) General

3

14. Audit is-

a) Science b) Art

c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these

15 In audit of accounts................is most useful&

a) Routine checking b) Auditing Programme

c) Vouching d) None of these

16. A report bearing qualification is known as &

a) Qualified Report b) Unqualified report

c) Clean report d) none of these

17. An auditor is a-

a) Watch dog b) Tame dog

c) Street dog d) Blood hound

18. Audit is compulsory in&

a) Partnership b) Sole trade business

c) Company d) None of the These

19. The qualification of an investigator is

a) C.A. b) R.A

c) Commerce Graduate d) None of these

20. The investigation is conducted -

a) At the end of a year b) For the whole year

c) As per need d) None of these

------------------------------

1


Advanced Accounting and Auditing Subject Code: BAMGT-403

Paper Code: FCJ-247

Time : 2:40 hours M.Marks : 60


Attempt all questions (each question carries 4 marks)

Q.No.2. What are the main features of a bank‟s accounting system?

OR

Give a Performa of profit & loss account of a banking company?

Q.No.3. What is the basic difference between life insurance and general insurance?

OR

Explain the meaning of surrender value\

Q.No.4. Explain the meaning of a consolidated balance sheet?

OR

Under what circumstances can a company become a subsidiary to another Company?

Q.No.5. What is audit certificate?

OR

„An Auditor is a watch dog but not a blood hound‟. Explain this statement.

Q.No.6. What is investigation Report?

OR

What is investigation? Distinguish between Investigation and auditing?



Q.No.7. Give specimen of banking companies account & explain each head in brief?

OR

From the following information you are required to prepare the profit and loss accounts

of the P N bank for the year ended 31st march 2014.

Rs. (000) Rs. (000)

Interest on loans 518 Postage & telegram 2.8

Interest on Cash Credits 446 Sunday charges 2

Discount on bill Discounted 390 Advertisement expense 1.4

Interest on overdraft 108 Director Fees 6

Interest on saving bank Deposit 220 Printing & stationary 4

Interest on FD 554 Law Charges 1.4

Commission &Exchange 16.4 Payment to Employees 108

Rent & taxes 36 Locker rents 7

Audit Fees 2.4 Transfer fees 1.4

Depreciation on bank‟s 10

property.

Roll No.

2

Supplementary information:

Rebate on bills discounted Rs.98,000 & provide for bad debts Rs.58,000.

Q.No.8. Prepare (with imaginary figures) revenue accounts of fire & marine departments of a

general insurance company

OR

Prepare (with imaginary figures) the balance sheet of an insurance company carrying on

fire, marine & miscellaneous insurance business?

Q.No.9. From the following balance sheet of holding company & subsidiary company prepare a

consolidated balance sheet of holding company & its subsidiary company.

Balance sheet

As on 31st march 2013

Holding

Co. Rs.

Subsidiary

Co. Rs.

Holding

Co. Rs.

Subsidiary

Co. Rs.

Share capital

in shares of

Rs.10 each

Liabilities

20,00,000

15,00,000

10,00,000

2,00,000

Assets

Investment in

1,00,000 shares

of Rs. 10 each of

the Subsidiary

company (All

the Shares Held)

25,00,000

10,00,000

12,00,000

---------

35,00,000 12,00,000 35,00,000 12,00,000

OR

What are the advantages of consolidation of financial statement of accounts of a holding

company & its subsidiary companies?

Q.No.10. “Accounting is a necessity while auditing is a luxury for business enterprises”. Do you

agree? Give reasons for your opinion?

OR

State the provision of the companies Act with regard to the appointment of an auditor?

Q.No.11. What is investigation? Explain the rights & duties of an investigator?

OR

Describe the importance of Auditor‟s report for the shareholders?

----------------------------------

1


Advertising and Sales Management Subject Code: BAMGT-404

Paper Code: FCJ-248

Time : 20 Minutes

M.Marks : 10

Section A


Attempt All Questions. Each question carries 1/2 mark. Use the symbol (√) in the box for marking the

correct answer.

Q. No. I. Choose the correct answer-

1. Advertising is a part of _______ function-

a) Distribution b) Selling

c) Promotion d) Pricing.

2. What is the main objective of informative advertising?

a) To create selective demand

b) Top stimulate primary demand

c) To keep the brand in consumers smind

d) Option A & C

3. Sales management is mainly concerned with-

a) The management of products

b) Marketing

c) Production

d) The management of sales function

4. A Brand which bears the name of the seller or store, where it’s sold is called as-

a) Co- Brand. b) Manufacturer Brand

c) Private Brand d) Multi Brand

5. When medical representatives provides information about new products or medicines

to the doctor’s or hospitals, this type of sales person is called as.-

a) Inside order taker b) Field executives

c) Missionary sales person d) Sales executive

Roll No.

Enrollment No.


2

6. The process of dividing the potential market into sub –market with common needs and

features is called.-

a) Segmentation b) Target marketing

c) Sender d) Decoding

7. Main aim of sales management is -

a) To gain profit b) Development of sale

c) Consumer satisfaction d) Both A & B

8. What is the name of the promotional tool aimed at building good relations with a

company and its public?

a) Publicity b) Advertising

c) Promotions d) Public Relation

9. Which of the following is not an element of communication?

a) Feedback b) Sender

c) Decoding d) None of these

10. Which of the following would not be a method of establishing sales force structure?

a) Product sales force structure

b) Territorial sales force structure

c) Life style sales force structure

d) Customer sales force structure

11. Effective marketing begins with a good customer-

a) Promotion b) Competition

c) Database d) Govt. policies

12. _____ is defined as the analysis planning , implementation and control of sales force

activities -

a) Sales force management b) Sales force strategy

c) Sales force tactics d) Sales force motivation

3

13. All the following have been cited in the text as being characteristics of the successful

sales person except -

a) Enthusiasm b) Loners

c) Persistence d) Independent

14. Personnel selling is effective

a) When a new product is introduced

b) When the price of product is high

c) All of these

d) None of these

15 Which of the following is not an area of responsibility for people who work in an

advertising agency&

a) Creativity b) Research

c) Buying d) Printing

16. The Best sales people posses four key talents, which of the following would be among

these key talents &

a) The ability to close a sale

b) The ability to talk

c) A disciplined work style

d) All of these

17. After a sales person goes through a prospecting & qualifying stage in the effective

selling process, what does he or she do next?

a) Approach b) Promotion

c) Close of sales d) Database collection

18. Which type of sale person sells in a ‘conventional sense, from identifying prospective

customers to closing and following up on sales&

a) Order taker b) Order getter

c) Missionary sale person d) Sales engineer

4

19. Which of the following indicate a sales territory?

a) A Particular retail outlet.

b) A Particular geographical location

c) A specific market segment

d) A specific sales planning

20. Identify the correct statement from the following

a) Wholesalers can directly resell products to manufacturers.

b) Agents must sell to wholesalers

c) Manufacturer can directly sell products to consumers

d) Retailers must sell to wholesaler.

------------------------------

1


Advertising and Sales Management Subject Code: BAMGT-404

Paper Code: FCJ-248

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60



Q.No.2. Explain the concept and functions of sale management?

OR

What are the steps involved in sales forecasting?

Q.No.3. Discuss the nature and scope of sale management?

OR

Explain the steps in developing & conducting sales training programme\

Q.No.4. Explain the different type of advertising media?

OR

Explain the importance of advertising in modern marketing\

Q.No.5. Write a short note on various elements of advertising copy?

OR

Explain how advertising effectiveness can be assessed?

Q.No.6. What are the functions of advertisement agencies? Explain

OR

Explain about the ethical aspects of advertisement and the regulation which are

involved in it?

.

Roll No.

2



Q.No.7. Write a short note on the following:

1. Sales management.

2. Sales planning

OR

Write a short notes on the following:

1. Sales strategy

2. Sales budgeting

3. Sales forecasting

Q.No.8. Discuss the recruitment process of sales force?

OR

Explain the selection process involved in sales force management?

Q.No.9. Write a short notes on

1. Sales performance

2. Sales control;

3. Compensation to sales person

OR

Write a short notes on:

1. Personal selling process

2. Channel management

3. Sales Quote

Q.No.10. Discuss the role of advertising in the marketing process of any organization?

OR

Advertisng increase the cost of the product. What are the arguments of your’s in favour

of it? And why?

Q.No.11. What are the differences between planning & decision making in advertising

management? How do advertising decisions differ from other types of marketing

decisions?

OR

How would you ensure that your advertisement is within ethical & legal orbit?

------------------------

1

B.A. Management Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

Evioronmental Studies Subject Code: FC-103


M.Marks : 5

Section A

[k.M&^v^


oLrqfu"B Á’u

Attempt All Questions (Each question carry 1/2 mark). Use the symbol (√) in the box for marking the

correct answer.

lHkh iz’u vfuok;Z gSaA izR;sd iz’u gsrq 1@2 vad fu/kkZfjr gSaA lgh mRrj gsrq fn;s x;s ckDl esa (√) fpUg dk

iz;ksx djsaA


lgh mÙkj pqfu,&

1. Who used the word bio diversity for first time -

^^tSo& fofo/krk^^ 'kCn dk Á;ksx loZÁFke fdlus fd;k Fkk&

a) Tansley b) Smith

VsUlys fLeFk

c) W.C. Rosen. d) Odom

MCyw-lh- jkslu vksMe

2. World environment day is -

fo'o i;kZoj.k fnol gS&

a) 5 June b) 10 August

5 twu 10 vxLr

c) 15 October d) 1 December

15 vDVwcj 1 fnlEcj

3. Which one is not an example for natural disaster -

bues ls dkSu lk Ák—frd vkink dk mnkgj.k ugh gaS&

a) Flood b) Earthquake

ckn HkwdEi

c) Cyclones d) Aeroplane accident

pØokr ok;qeku nq?kZVuk

4. Forest research institute is situated in -

ou 'kks/k laLFkku fLFkr gS&

a) Pune. b) Delhi

iwuk fnYyh

c) Lucknow d) Dehradun.

Yk[kuÅ nsgjknwu

Roll No.

Enrollment No.


2

5. The shape of growth curve is .-

o`f) pØ dk vkdkj dSlk gksrk gS&

a) L- shape b) S-shape

L- vkdkj S- vkdkj

c) Hyperbola d) I-shape

gkbijcksyk I-vkdkj

6. Red-Data book describes-

jsM&MkVk cqd esa of.kZr gS&

a) Plant group b) Animal group

ikni lewg Ák.kh lewg

c) Endangered species d) None of these

foyqIr Átkfr;k¡ mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

7. Country with maximum population in the world is -

fo'o esa vf/kdre tula[;k okyk ns’k gS&

a) America b) India

vesfjdk Hkkjr

c) Africa d) China

vÝhdk phu

8. Components of environment is -

i;kZoj.k dk rRo gS&

a) Soil b) Water

feV~Vh ty

c) Air d) All of these

ok;q mijksDr lHkh

9. Chemicals that posed a threat to the ozone layer -

Vkstksu irZ dks uqdlku igq¡pkus okys jlk;u gS&

a) Halocarbon b) Nitrous Oxide

gSyksdkcZu ukbVªl vkWDlkbM

c) CFCS d) All of these

lh-,Q-lh- mijksDr lHkh

10. National Tiger project was started in the year -

jk"Vªh; Vkbxj ifj;kstuk fdl o"kZ esa ÁkjEHk dh xbZ&

a) 1952 b) 1972

c) 1982 d) 1992

------------------------------

1

B.A. Management Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

Evioronmental Studies Subject Code: FC-103

Paper Code: FCJ-249

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 30

Section – B

[k.M&^c^ (Short Answer Type Questions)

(y?kqmRrjh; iz’u)


lHkh iz’uksa ds mRrj nsaA (lHkh iz’uksa ds fy;s 2 vad fu/kkZfjr gSa)

Q.No.2. Write a short note on any one of the following

1. Land slide

2. Drought

fuEu esa ls fdlh ,d ij laf{kIr fVIi.kh fy[kks&

v½ Hkw&L[kyu

c½ lw[kk

Q.No.3. Write a short note on in-situ and ex-situ conservation of biodiversity?

LFkkukLFk vFkok cfg% LFkkukLFk tSo fofo/krk laj{k.k ij laf{kIr fVii.kh fyf[k;sA

OR

Discuss importance of biodiversity\

tSo fofo/krk ds egRo dh foospuk dhft;sA

Q.No.4. Write a note on population explosion?

Tkula[;k foLQksV ij fVii.kh fyf[k;s\

OR

What is the position of India in world population? Explain.

fo'o tula[;k esa Hkkjr dh D;k fLFkfr gS\ le>kbZ;sA

Q.No.5. What do you mean by natural resources?

Ák—frd lalk/ku ls D;k vk’k; gSA

OR

Write the name of different components of ecosystem?

ikfjLFkfr dh rU= ds fofHkUu ?kVdks ds uke fyf[k;sA

Q.No.6. Explain sustainable development?

fuoZ/uh; fodkl dks le>kbZ;sA

OR

Write a short note on:

“Ozone Layer depletion”

^^vkstksu ijr vo{k;^^ ij laf{kIr fVIi.kh fyf[k;sA

Roll No.

2

Section C

[k.M&^l^ (Long answer type questions)

(nh/kZ mRrjh; iz’u) Attempt all questions (each question carries 4 marks)


Q.No.7. Give a detailed account of Problems of Water Resources?

Tky lalk/kuksa dh leL;kvksa dk foLr`r o.kZu dhft;sA

OR

What is soil erosion? Explain causes of soil erosion and main factors affecting it?

Ek`nk vijnu D;k gS\ e`nk vijnu ds dkj.kksa ,oa bls ÁHkkfor djus okys Áeq[k rRoksa

dk foospuk dhft;sA

Q.No.8. What are the major threats of biodiversity Explain how they can be prevented?

tSo fofo/krk ds Áeq[k [krjs D;k gS\ muls cpus ds Á;klksa dks le>kbZ;sA

OR

Why biodiversity conservation is necessary? Describe the value of biodiversity?

tSo fofo/krk dk laj{k.k D;ksa vko’;d gS\ tSo fofo/krk ds ewY;ksa dk o.kZu dhft;sA

Q.No.9. Describe the causes of population explosion.

Tkula[;k foLQksV ds dkj.kksa dk o.kZu dhft;sA

OR

Explain population disparities among different countries?

fofHkUu jk"Vªksa ds chp tula[;k o`f) ds vUrj dks le>kbZ;sA

Q.No.10. Describe types of natural resources and their conservation?

Ák—frd lalk/kuksa ds fofHkUu Ádkj vkSj muds laj{k.k dk o.kZu dhft;sA

OR

Describe the structure of ecosystem by taking an example of pond ecosystem?

ikfjfLFkfrdh rU= dh lajpuk dks rkykc dk mnkgj.k nsdj le>kbZ;sA

Q.No.11. What are the main points to be taken for sustainable development?

fuoZ/uh; fodkl gsrq fdu eq[; fcUnqvksa dk /;ku j[kuk pkfg;sA

OR

What is green house effect? Explain the various factors and adverse effects of green

house effect.

xzhu gkml ÁHkko D;k gS\ xzhu gkml ÁHkko ds dkj.kksa ,oa nq"ÁHkkoksa dks le>kbZ;sA

-----------------------------

1

BA Management Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

fgUnh Hkk"kk vkSj laosnuk

Subject Code: FC -101


M.Marks : 10

Section A

[k.M&^v^


oLrqfu"B Á’u



lHkh iz’u vfuok;Z gSaA izR;sd iz’u gsrq 1@2 vad fu/kkZfjr gSaA lgh mRrj gsrq fn;s x;s ckDl esa (√) fpUg dk iz;ksx djsaA


lgh mÙkj pqfu,&

1- ÁkÑfrd lH;rk vkus ij gh lH;rk vkrh gS&

a) lkfÙod b) dkf;d

c) ekufld d) /kkfeZd

2. *tokuh* dfork yh xbZ gS&

a) fgefdjhVuh ls b) fgerjafxuh ls

c) Ñ".kktqqZu ls d) vehj bjkns ls

3. **cM+s ?kj dh csfV;kW ,slh gksrh gS a tks fcxM+rk ?kj cuk nsrh gSA^^ ;g dFku fdldk gS\

a) csuhek/ko dk b) Ásepan dk

c) Jh —".k dk d) iM+ksfl;ksa dk

4. 1900 esa fuEu esa ls fdlus eysfj;k QSykus okys ePNj dh igkpku dh&

a) gkbxUl b) jksukYM jksl

c) ÁkmLV d) ik’pj


Roll No.

Enrollment No.

2

5. *,ojsLV f’k[kj lcls mPpre pksVh gSa* okD; esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&Lkh v’kqf) gSaA

a) opu laca/kh b) dkjd laca/kh

c) fo’ks"k.k laca/kh d) fyax laca/kh

6. ,d vPNs vkSj lqO;ofLFkr fuca/k ds fy, fdrus xq.k visf{kr ekus x, gSa&

a) nks b) rhu

c) N% d) pkj

7. fuank jl-------------------------gS&

a) laLej.k b) O;aX;

c) vkRedFkk d) js[kkfp=

8. tc nks Lojksa ds esy ls :Ik ifjorZu gks ;k fodkj mRi= gks rc fuEu laf/k gksrh gS&

a) O;atu laf/k b) folxZ laf/k

c) Loj laf/k d) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

9. Hkkjrh; Hkk"kk oSKkfud MkW- HkksykukFk frokjh us ekudhdj.k ds fdrus Áeq[k lksiku ekus

gSa\

a) lkr b) ikWp

c) vkB d) nl

10. Hkkjr esa lokZf/kd xUuk mRiknu gksrk gS&

a) e/;Áns’k esa b) fcgkj esa

c) if’pe esa d) mÙkjÁns’k esa

11. uhyfxfj ioZr dh dkSu&Lkh tutkfr Ik’kqikyu ds dk;Z dks lEiUu djrh gS&

a) VksMk tutkfr b) dksVk tutkfr

c) bdYkk tutkfr d) dknj tutkfr

12. *mlus dgk Fkk* dgkuh ds ÁkjaHk dh ?kVuk gS&

a) eqEcbZ dh b) ve``rlj dh

c) dksydkrk dh d) fnYYkh dh

3

13. egktuh lH;rk esa vkn’kZ xq.kksa dh dlkSVh gS&

a) ÁfrHkk b) laLdkj

c) O;fDrRo d) iSlk

14. vfHk/ks;kFkZ ls fHkUu dksbZ fo’ks"k vFkZ nsus okys fdlh Hkk"kk ds x<+ s gq, :<+ okD;] okD;k’ka

vFkok ’kCn bR;kfn dks dgrs gS&

a) yksdksfDr b) okD;

c) ’kCn d) eqgkojk

15. *yky xzg* fdls dgk tkrk gS\

a) eaxy b) cq/k

c) ’kfu d) v:.k

16. *okilh* dgkuh dh ysf[kdk gSa&

a) Ñ".kk lkscrh b) Å"kk fÁ;aonk

c) egknsoh oekZ d) esglfuzlk

17. foosdkuan /kU;okn nsrs gSa&

a) Hkkjr dh vksj ls

b) vesfjdk dh vksj ls

c) lU;kfl;ksa ,oa dksfV&dksfV fgUnqvksa dh vksj ls

d) mijksDr lHkh

18. ’kCnksa ds os ladsr ;k fpUg tks dkykUrj esa vius vkiesa ’kCnksa dh rjg Á;qDRk gksrs gSA

D;k dgykrs gS\

a) laf/k b) lekl

c) eqgkojs d) laf{kfIr

19. e/;Áns’k esa jk"Vªh; m|kuksa dh la[;k gS&

a) 09 b) 07

c) 10 d) 06

4

20. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl o``{k dh iwtk ?kj&?kj dh tkrh gS\

a) ihiy b) rqylh

c) vk¡oyk d) oV

-------------------------------

1

BA Management Fourth Semester Examination (Year 2015)

fgUnh Hkk"kk vkSj laosnuk

Subject Code: FC -101

Paper Code: FCJ-305

Time : 2:40 hours

M.Marks : 60

[k.M&^c^ (y?kqmRrjh; iz’u)


Q.No.2. *vkpj.k dh ekSu Hkk"kk gh bZ’ojh; gS* bl dFku dh O;k[;k dhft,A

vFkok

Ekkuo foKku dks f’k[kj rd igqWpkus dk xkSjo fdu&fdu fons’kh egkiq:"kksa dks gS\

Q.No.3. gfj’kadj ijlkbZ ds O;aX; *fuank jl* essa os D;k dguk pkgrs gSa\

vFkok

o.kZukRed fuca/k ds ckjs esa D;k tkurs gSa\ fyf[k,A

Q.No.4. Hkkjr dks Ñf"k Á/kku ns’k D;ksa dgk tkrk gS\

vFkok

fcjlk eqaMk ds jk"Vª&Áse dh xkFkk dk la{ksi esa o.kZu dhft,A

Q.No.5. egktuh lH;rk fuca/k esa /kuYkksHk ls ekuork dh fdl gkfu dh ppkZ dh xbZ gS\

vFkok

Lkw;Z&xzg.k ,oa lkSj /kCck ds laca/k esa D;k tkurs gSa\ fyf[k,

Q.No.6. e/;Áns’k ds ÁkÑfrd LFkyksa esa ls fdlh ,d ds laca/k esa la{ksi esa fyf[k,A

vFkok

cVj Vªh vkSj v{k; o``{k fdls dgrs gS\ budk ;g uke dSls iM+kA

Roll No.

2

[k.M&^l^ (nh/kZ mRrjh; iz’u)


Q.No.7. ek[kuyky prqosZnh ds fo"k; esa vki D;k tkurs gSa fy[krs gq, *tokuh dfork* dk HkkokFkZ

fyf[k,A

vFkok

dgkuh ds rRoksa ds vk/kkj ij *cM+s ?kj dh csVh* dgkuh dh leh{kk dhft,A

Q.No.8. lekl dh ifjHkk"kk fyf[k, lkFk gh lekl ds Hksn mnkgj.k lfgr fyf[k,A

vFkok

*fgEer vkSj ftanxh* esa fnudj th D;k dguk pkgrs gSa\ foLrkj ls fyf[k,A

Q.No.9. ekaMo fuca/k dk lkjka’k vius ’kCnksa esa fyf[k,A

vFkok

ekud ’kCn dk D;k vFkZ gS\ ekud Hkk"kk ds y{k.k fyf[k,A

Q.No.10. *okilh* dgkuh dk lkjka’k fy[krs gq, dFkkue dh fo’ks"krk,W crkb,A

vFkok

Lkaf{kfIr fuEkZk.k dh ÁfØ;k le>krs gq, laf{kfIr dh fo’ks"krk,W fyf[k,A

Q.No.11. vPNs laLej.k dh fo’ks"krk,¡ fy[krs gq, crkb, fd laLej.k ys[ku esa *fQYVj* ls

ys[kd dk D;k vk’k; gS\

vFkok

Ik;kZoj.k dks LoPN cuk, j[kus ds fy, vius fopkj ÁdV dhft,A

-----------------------------

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