semester 1 review game. a) collect evidence b) exclude all unauthorized personnel c) isolate the...
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Semester 1 Review Game
Forensic ScienceK. Davis
a) Collect evidenceb) Exclude all unauthorized personnelc) Isolate the crime scened) Both a and be) Bothe b and c
The first officers on a crime scene should:
a) Can be used to augment photographyb) Can narrate eventsc) Does not replace photosd) Should never be usede) a, b, and c
2) Videography of a crime scene:
a) Initially tested for evidentiary valueb) Marked for identification with the
collector’s initials and date of collectionc) Packaged in one container to keep
everything togetherd) Handled only by representatives from
the crime laboratory’s evidence unit
3) Items discovered at a crime scene must be:
a) Spiral searchb) Quadrant searchc) Strip searchd) All of the above
4) Which of the following is considered to be an acceptable crime scene search pattern?
a) Observationb) Deductive reasoningc) Inductive reasoningd) Classifying information
5) In investigating a crime scene which skills would be more essential to the process?
a) Biology unit, document examination, firearms unit
b) Biology unit, toxicology unit, document examination
c) Physical science unit, firearms unit, document examination
d) Biology unit, physical science unit, firearms unit
6) At the crime scene there are various types of evidence (blood, hairs, a ransom note, and a shell casing) what personnel would be involved in processing this evidence?
a) Blood from the victim is found on the murder weapon
b) Fibers from the crime scene found on the victim
c) Dirt from the crime scene found on the suspects shoes
d) All of the above
7) What of these examples illustrates Locard’s Exchange Principle?
a) Recognition of pertinent evidenceb) Correct packaging of evidencec) Correct processing of evidenced) All of the above
8) Which of the following are essential to a successful court case:
a) Search for evidenceb) Make a rough sketch of the scenec) Secure the scened) Take notes
9) The first officer arriving at a crime scene, after providing or obtaining medical assistance for the injured and effecting an arrest of suspects (if possible), should immediately:
a) Sketch of the suspect(s)b) Location of all recovered physical
evidencec) Date, location, and time of the incidentd) Compass heading designating north
10) A rough sketch need NOT include a:
a) Spiralb) Gridc) Zoned) Line
11) Which crime scene search pattern would absolutely require more than one investigator?
a) The manner in which the evidence is collected and preserved
b) Whether the crime is considered high profile
c) The number of people employed in the crime lab
d) The volume of the physical evidence collected
12) The successful outcome of a criminal investigation is almost always directly related to:
a) Forensic technicianb) Crime scene processorc) Trial judged) Evidence clerk
13) A properly maintained chain of custody is NOT the responsibility of the:
a) Skill of personnel processing the crime scene
b) Notoriety of the casec) Type of evidence involvedd) Time available to the evidence
collectors
14) Success in the recognition and collection of physical evidence is determined primarily by the:
a) Prove the continuity of possessionb) Serve as a source of extra test material
if required in the crime labc) Permit comparisons to be made with
the evidenced) Are obtained only from suspects in
cases of violent assault
15) The collection of standard reference samples at the crime scene is important because they:
a) Fourthb) Fifthc) Sixthd) First
16) The removal of any evidence from a person or from the scene of a crime must be done in conformity with the privileges of which amendment of the Constitution?
a) Mapp v. USb) Frye v. USc) Mincey v. Arizonad) People v. Wilkens
17) Heard in the Supreme Court, which case dealt with the impropriety of the warrantless collection of physical evidence at a homicide scene?
a) Livor mortisb) Rigor mortisc) Algor mortisd) None of these
18) Which of the following can be used to identify whether a body has been moved post-death?
a) 6-12 hours post deathb) 12-24 hours post deathc) 24-36 hours post deathd) 36-48 hours post death
19) When do the affects of rigor mortis disappear?
a) Algor mortisb) Livor mortisc) Rigor mortisd) None of these
20) Which of the following is used to determine time of death?
a) Weatherb) Locationc) Sex of the victimd) Climate
21) Which of the following does not influence the rate at which insects develop on the body?
a) 1 to 1 1/2 degrees Fahrenheit per hour until the body reaches the environmental temperature
b) 2 to 4 degrees Fahrenheit per hour until the body reaches the environmental temperature
c) 1 to 1 1/2 degrees Celsius per hour until the body reaches the environmental temperature
d) 2 to 4 degrees Celsius per hour until the body reaches the environmental temperature
22) As a general rule the deceased body will lose heat at a rate of:
a) Within the first 24 hours and disappearing within 36 hours
b) Within the first 24 hours and continuing for the following 12 hours
c) Within the first 12 hours and continuing for the following 24 hours
d) Within the first 12 hours and disappearing within 48 hours
23) Rigor Mortis manifests itself:
a) Skullb) Pelvicc) Femurd) Mandible
24) Which bones are most useful in determining the sex of the victim?
a) Sex of the victimb) Cause of deathc) Age of victimd) Race of victim
25) What can cranial sutures be used to indicate?
a) Sex of the victimb) Age of victimc) Race of victimd) None of these
26) Which of the following factors does not have to be considered when using a bone to estimate height?
a) Bullet holes or indentationsb) Indentions or fractures showing blunt
force traumac) Stab wounds that reach the boned) Soft tissue markers on the skull
27) Which of these is NOT an example of how skeletal remains may indicate cause of death?
a) Pelvisb) Base of skullc) Foreheadd) Jawe) All of the above
28) In order to determine whether a skeleton belonged to a male or a female, a forensic anthropologist may examine the:
a) Femurb) Tibiac) Humerusd) Sternum
29) Which of the following is NOT generally used to determine height of a decedent?
a) Forensic Biologyb) Forensic Odontologyc) Forensic Anthropologyd) Forensic Entomology
30) The examination of bite mark evidence and its relation to a criminal investigation is known as:
a) Running before deathb) Stabbed repeatedlyc) Extremely coldd) Beat around the head repeatedly
31) Rigor mortis may occur very quickly if the victim was:
a) Skin begins to marbleb) Skin develops blistersc) Abdomen takes on greenish colord) Bloating
32) Which of the following is the first stage in decomposition of the body in putrefication?
a) 1 hourb) 7 hoursc) 2 hoursd) 4 hours
33) A corpse was discovered in an apartment last November. It was that of a 50-year-old male who died of a heart attack. At the time of discovery, the body temperature was determined to be 890F. What is the most probable post mortem interval?
a) Size of bodyb) Gender of victimc) Weather conditionsd) Location
34) The rate of cooling of a dead body can be influenced by all BUT the:
a) Decreasesb) Increasesc) Remains the same
35) As the post mortem interval increases, the concentration of potassium in the vitreous humor of the eye:
a) Temperature of deathb) Stiffness of deathc) Time of deathd) Color of death
36) Rigor mortis refers to the:
a) Woodb) Waterc) Aluminumd) Aire) Fire
37) Which of the following is an element?
a) Solidb) Liquidc) Gasd) Vapore) All of these
38) The physical state that has both shape and volume is a:
a) The basic building blocks of all substances are elements.
b) Elements are composed of atoms.c) Two or more elements combine to form
compounds.d) Compounds are composed of molecules.e) At present, 96 compounds have been
identified.
39) Which of the following is false?
a) Hydrogenb) Oxygenc) Nitrogend) Carbone) Silicon
40) Organic chemistry is the study of substances containing the element:
a) Spectrophotometryb) Infraredc) Chromatographyd) Mass spectrometrye) Ultraviolet
41) A technique for separating and tentatively identifying the components of a mixture is:
a) Spectrophotometryb) Dispersionc) Density-gradient tubesd) Chromatographye) Mass spectrometry
42) The distribution of a substance between a mobile and stationary phase describes:
a) Rf value of lightb) Retention time of lightc) Absorption of light at specific frequenciesd) Refractive index of lighte) Speed of light
43) The recorder of a spectrophotometer measures the:
a) Oxygenb) Hydrogenc) Carbond) Aluminiume) Silicon
44) The most abundant element of the earth’s crust is:
a) Infrared spectrophotometryb) Ultraviolet spectrophotometryc) Gas chromatographyd) Emission spectroscopye) Thin-layer chromatography
45) A “fingerprint” of an element is obtained by the technique of:
a) Protons and neutrons comprise the nucleus of an atom.
b) The proton has a charge of +1.c) The neutron has no electrical charge.d) The electron and proton have the same
mass.e) An atom has an equal number of protons
and electrons.
46) Which of the following statements is false?
a) Elementsb) Compoundsc) Moleculesd) Radioactivee) Isotopes
47) The atoms of hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium all have the same number of protons, but differ in the number of neutrons they possess. These substances are:
a) Protonsb) Electronsc) Neutronsd) Gamma rayse) Alpha rays
48) In neutron activation analysis, an element is identified by measuring the energy of emitting:
a) Electronsb) Protonsc) Neutronsd) Alpha particlese) Electromagnetic radiation
49) Gamma rays are:
a) All atoms of an element have the same atomic mass number.
b) All atoms of an element have the same number of protons.
c) All atoms of an element have the same number of neutrons.
d) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the atomic mass number.
e) All atoms of an element have an equal number of neutrons and electrons.
50) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Atomic absorption spectrophotometryb) X-ray diffractionc) Emission spectroscopyd) Neutron activation analysise) Ultraviolet spectrophotometry
51) The technique commonly used to identify crystalline substances is:
a) Mass of a substanceb) Weight of a substancec) Crystalline structure of a substanced) Elemental composition of a substancee) All of the above
52) The emission spectrograph is used to determine the:
a) Eyepiece lensb) Objective lensc) Objective lens multiplied by twod) Eyepiece lens multiplied by twoe) Objective lens multiplied by the eyepiece
lens
53) The magnification power of a microscope equals the magnifying power of the:
a) Transmitted lightb) Reflected lightc) Condensed lightd) All of the abovee) None of the above
54) The microscope examination of a bullet requires:
a) Compound microscopeb) Comparison microscopec) Stereoscopic microscoped) Polarizing microscopee) Scanning electron microscope
55) The most important tool of the firearms examiner is the:
a) Starchb) Cellulosec) Sugard) Proteinse) None of the above
56) Which of the following is not an example of a natural polymer?
a) Natural fiberb) Synthetic fiberc) Plant fiberd) Regenerated fibere) Animal fiber
57) Rayon is classified as a:
a) Colorb) Diameterc) Birefringenced) The presence or absence of delustering
particlese) All of the above
58) Which of the following properties should be examined when comparing two fibers?
a) Infrared spectrab) Ultraviolet spectrac) Color and layer structured) Pyrogramse) Relative size
59) Paint chips may be individualized to a single source by examining their:
a) fragmentedb) interrupted or absentc) continuousd) all of the above
60) Medullae may be classified as being:
a) mouseb) catc) rabbitd) deer
61) A hair sample was examined and its medulla appeared to have a pattern described as resembling a string of pearls. It was most likely from a:
a) the same asb) greater thanc) less than
62) The medullary index of human hair is _________ the medullary index for most other animals.
a) an SEMb) clear nail polishc) softened vinyld) both B and C
63) A cast of a hair surface can be made using:
a) cortexb) medullac) cuticled) both A and B
64) Pigment granules the impart hair with color are found in the:
a) medullab) shaftc) cortexd) cuticle
65) The central canal running through many hairs is known as the:
a) analgesicb) telogenicc) catagenic
66) In what stage can hair most readily be removed from the scalp?
a) categenicb) anagenic c) mutagenicd) anagenic
67) Nuclear DNA typing can be most successfully accomplished on hairs that have removed during which stage of growth?