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© Reed International Books Australia Pty Ltd 2006 Product code: 734829

Student Number: …………..………………….….

2006 PRELIMINARY

Sample Examination Paper

SENIOR SCIENCE General Instructions

• Reading Time – 5 minutes • Working Time – 2 hours • Write using blue or black pen • Write your student number at the top of

this page

Total marks – 75 marks Section I 20 marks • This section contains 20 multiple-choice

questions. • Attempt ALL questions • Allow about 30 minutes for this section Section II 55 marks • This section contains 12 questions • Attempt ALL questions • Allow about 1 hour and 30 minutes for

this section. Directions to school or college To ensure maximum confidentiality and security, examination papers used for trial examinations must NOT be removed from the examination room or used with students for revision purposes until Monday 4 September 2006. The purchasing educational institution and its staff are permitted to photocopy and/or cut and paste examination papers for educational purposes, within the confines of the educational institution, provided that: 1. the number of copies does not exceed the number reasonably required by the educational institution to satisfy their teaching purposes; 2. copies are not sold or lent. All care has been taken to ensure that this sample examination paper is error free and that it follows the style, format and material content of the current NSW syllabus. Candidates are advised that the authors of this examination paper cannot in any way guarantee that the Board of Studies NSW Examination will have a similar content or format.

Senior Science Preliminary 2006

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Section I 20 marks Allow about 30 minutes for this section Select the alternative A, B, C, or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response sheet clearly.

1 X

If you think you have made a mistake, blank out the incorrect answer and fill in the new answer.

1 X X

If you change your mind and have crossed out what you consider to be the correct answer, then indicate the correct answer by writing the word correct and drawing an arrow.

1 X X

Correct


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Section I 20 marks This section contains 20 questions Attempt ALL questions Allow about 30 minutes for this section Use the multiple choice answer sheet 1 Which percentage is closest to the relative amount of water in a human?

A 30% B 40% C 60% D 76%

2 The figure below shows an extremely important structural adaptation in flowering

plants.

What is one of the most important roles of this structure?

A To provide a physical link between the plant and the soil crumbs. B Increase surface area for absorption of water. C Form a physical barrier to keep opportunistic predators in the soil away from

the plant. D Act as a temperature regulator for the plant.

3 Which of the following statements is the definition for the term ‘herbicide’?

A A chemical used to control the growth of crop plants. B A chemical used to control animal pests. C A chemical that creates high biological oxygen demand in waterways. D A chemical used to control plant pests or weeds.


4

4 Which of the following lists contains only heavy metals?

A Lead, mercury B Nitrates, phosphates C Mercury, iodine D Copper, sulfur

5 The figure below shows a cactus plant.

The leaves of a cactus are reduced to spines, allowing them to live in very dry environments. What name is given to this type of plant?

A Epiphyte B Hydrophyte C Xerotroph D Xerophyte

6 Plants are described as ‘autotrophic’. What does this mean?

A They use carbon dioxide and oxygen to make their own food. B They make their own food from carbon dioxide and sunlight. C They use chloroplasts to convert sugars into energy. D They convert sunlight into chlorophyll and energy.


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7 The figure below shows the loss of water from cells caused by being placed in water with a higher solute concentration than that of the cell’s cytoplasm.

Mangroves spend much of their time immersed in salt water. How could they overcome the problem of water loss from their cells?

A Grow roots to hold them above the water level. B Close their stomates during high tide to keep the salt water out. C Maintain a higher salt concentration in their cells than in the sea water. D Maintain a lower salt concentration in their cells than in the sea water.

Please turn over


6

Questions 8, 9 and 10 refer to the information in the following table. Causes of injury and disease at the workplace in 1996/1997

Cause Total claims General Insurance claims ($) Time lost (weeks)

Construction All industries Construction All industries Construction All industries Machinery and (mainly) fixed plant

285 3 519 4 604 000 50 606 000 2 200 25 927

Mobile plant and transport 435 4 032 8 622 000 62 697 000 3 995 34 886 Powered equipment, tools and appliances

254 2 123 3 637 000 29 835 000 1 447 18 483

Non-powered hand tools, appliances and equipment

1 165 12 806 18 706 000 146 914 000 12 010 118 871

Chemicals and chemical products

55 439 978 000 5 200 000 640 3 393

Materials and substances 1 108 5 937 18 537 000 74 666 000 9 633 49 049 Environmental agencies 755 7 682 14 485 000 103 439 000 7 905 72 202 Animal, human and biological agencies

24 4 055 273 000 52 710 000 298 36 479

Other 401 4 061 8 837 000 73 493 000 4 165 38 665 Total 4 482 44 654 78 679 000 599 565 000 42 293 397 955 Source: Analysis of claims in the construction industry, Workers compensation statistics, New South Wales, 1996/97, WorkCover NSW 1998.

8 What was the time lost (in weeks) from the construction industry due to all types of

equipment and appliances, both powered and non-powered?

A 13 457 B 4165 C 12 010 D 2200

9 Which of the causes of injury or disease was responsible for the lowest amount of

general insurance claims in all industries?

A Environmental agencies B Materials and substances C Chemicals and chemical products D Mobile plant and transport


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10 A student wanted to display the total number of claims lodged for the construction industry for each cause. What would be the best method for doing this?

A A scatter graph B A line of best fit C A line graph D A histogram

11 The diagram below shows the structure of the eye.

Which alternative (A, B, C or D) correctly names the parts of the eye labelled S, W and Y?

S W Y

A lens optic nerve sclera

B cornea sclera optic nerve

C pupil retina sclera

D iris optic nerve retina


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12 Whenever a solar eclipse is due to occur, warnings are given that people should still not look directly at the sun, even though it is mostly obscured by the moon. Why is a solar eclipse of such concern?

A The type of radiation allowed through by the atmosphere only at this time is

able to affect the eye. B The UV light is still intense enough to damage the retina. C The pupil can be affected so that it remains partially closed permanently due to

the intense light. D The vitreous humor can evaporate.

13 Which part of the ear contains the cilia that can be damaged by loud noises?

A Cochlea B Auditory canal C Eustachian tube D Semi-circular canals

14 The figure below shows an audiogram for a person with age-related hearing loss.

What does the information in the graph show?

A As they get older, people can hear softer sounds. B Softer sounds can be heard at higher frequencies. C Age related hearing loss affects both sexes exactly the same. D Age related hearing loss affects higher frequencies first.

15 Which alternative lists only abiotic factors?

A Temperature, viscosity, abundance of a species, availability of water B Availability of food, viscosity, distribution of a species, competition for space C Temperature, buoyancy, availability of light, availability of water D Predators, distribution of a species, competition for mates, abundance of a

species

X – Left ear O – Right ear


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Questions 16, 17 and 18 refer to the following information.

A food web from a Eucalypt forest

16 What do the arrows in the food web indicate?

A An evolutionary relationship between species. B The direction of movement of light, energy and matter. C The direction of movement of energy and matter. D The species that are competing for resources in the community.

17 In terms of interactions in the food web, what term would best describe the spider?

A Animal B Herbivore C Producer D Carnivore

18 Which of the organisms would be classified as producers?

A Beetles B Spiders C Termites D Trees

19 Which of the following organisms could you best be able to measure the abundance of

using random quadrats?

A A particular species of grass B A particular species of ants C Foxes D Marsupial mice


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20 This question refers to the diagram below.

What does this diagram represent?

A The relative biomass of the organisms at each trophic level in a natural ecosystem.

B The flow of matter through a natural ecosystem. C Trends in population sizes. D Trophic interactions between organisms in the local ecosystem.

End of Section I


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Section II 55 marks Questions 21–32 are worth various marks as indicated Attempt ALL questions Allow about 90 minutes for this section Answer the questions in the spaces provided Marks Question 21 (2 marks) During your study of this course, you had to identify the different ways in which a range of terrestrial animals reduce water loss. For two named terrestrial animals, state one way that each reduces water loss. 2

Question 22 (6 marks) Algal blooms are a threat to waterways and while we still have a lot to learn about their cause and control, we know a lot about how to prevent them. (a) Identify two conditions under which algal blooms may occur in the rivers of

New South Wales. 2

(b) Describe two impacts of algal blooms in rivers. 2


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Marks (c) Discuss an alternative strategy to the use of chemicals in agriculture to reduce

water pollution. 2

Question 23 (6 marks) During your study of this course you had to plan, choose equipment and resources for, and perform a first-hand investigation to determine the effects of various concentrations of fertilizer on plant growth. (a) Identify the ‘dependent’ and ‘independent’ variables involved in the

investigation. 2

(b) When you perform a first-hand investigation, you must identify and use safe work practices. This is usually done by performing a risk assessment and a risk-management procedure before the investigation.

State two risks associated with this investigation and describe the management you put in place to mitigate their occurrence. 4


13

Marks Question 24 (5 marks) ‘Many people are often amazed that not long after a bush fire has passed through an area, the native plants start to regenerate. New growth appears in the soil and on blackened and bare stems as if by magic.’ Discuss this statement using your knowledge and examples of pre-germination requirements of some Australian flora and ways in which vegetative propagation and regeneration occur in Australian native plants. 5

Question 25 (6 marks) ‘Having a Wollemi Pine in the garden allows everyone to help conserve this unique endangered species.’ Dr. Cathy Offord, Royal Botanic Gardens Sydney The Wollemi Pine is one of the world’s oldest and rarest trees. It was discovered just 10 years ago by a bushwalker in a national park only 200 km from Sydney, Australia’s biggest city. With less than 100 adult trees known to exist in the wild, the Wollemi Pine is now the focus of extensive research to safeguard its survival. (a) Identify two reasons why Australian plants become endangered. 2


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Marks (b) Apart from any reasons raised in the information about the Wollemi Pine in this

question, state two reasons for conserving Australian species of plants. 2

(c) Outline one conservation strategy used with one rare Australian species such as the Wollemi Pine. 2

Question 26 (4 marks) ONE word is missing from each of the following statements. Complete each one by writing the missing word on the answer line. (a) If a seed is kept in cold storage then the ______________________________

required for energy production remain dormant or denatured. 1 (b) When oxygen enters the seed then ______________________________ can

start to produce energy for the embryo to grow. 1 (c) Each variety of seed has its ______________________________ temperature

for germination. 1 (d) Nurseries can provide plants out of season with the use of a ____________ bed. 1 Question 27 (8 marks) Each year there are more injuries in the workplace than there are from road accidents. Both employers and employees have responsibilities to maintain safe working environments. (a) For the context of this topic, define a hazard in the workplace. 2


15

Marks (b) Identify two items of safety equipment in the school designed to reduce

inhalation of harmful substances. 2

(c) Assess, using examples, the impact of increased understanding of the structure and function of the human body on increased awareness of safety in the workplace and the home. 4


16

Marks Question 28 (6 marks) During your study of this course you had to present information from secondary sources on one respiratory condition caused by environmental factors. For this condition, answer each of the following. (a) State the name and the cause of the condition. 2

(b) State one effect on the respiratory system. 1

(c) Describe one symptom. 1

(d) Outline one way in which it can be prevented. 1

(e) Outline one current direction in research to reduce the problem. 1


17

Marks Question 29 (3 marks) The figure below shows a welder wearing protective clothing.

Discuss how the composition of one type of specialised protective glasses, such as welding goggles, is designed to protect the eye and sight. 3

Question 30 (2 marks) Describe the role of tendons in joint movement. 2


18

Marks Question 31 (5 marks) A group of students conducted a field study along a creek downstream from the outflow of a manufacturing company. They specifically wanted to study the effect the water from the outflow was having on the stream’s ecology. To do this, the students investigated the abundance of a species of midge larva that lives in slow running streams in the area. The average temperature of the water entering the factory was measured at 12.0°C. Their results are in the table below.

Distance from outflow (m)

Water temperature (oC)

Numbers of midge larvae

per m2. 10 28.0 2

20 24.0 5

30 21.5 6

40 16.0 12

50 13.5 8

60 12.5 5

70 12.0 4 (a) Using the data above, construct a graph to show the relative numbers of midge

larvae at different distances downstream from the factory outflow. 3


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Marks (b) Describe the relationship between water temperature and the abundance of the

midge larvae. 2

Question 32 (2 marks) Decomposers play a vital role in the proper functioning of ecosystems. Explain the importance of the role of decomposers in the local ecosystem. 2

End of paper


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Section I – Multiple choice

Answer sheet

Place an in the response box for the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question.

A B C D

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20


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Mapping grid Question Mark Content Outcome Band

1 1 8.2.1, column 2, dot point 1 P9 1–2


3 1 8.2.3, column 2, dot point 1 P4, P8 1–2





8 1 8.1.12.3; 8.1.14.1 P4, P12, P14

2–3

9 1 8.1.12.3; 8.1.14.1 P4, P12, P14

2–3

10 1 8.1.13.1 P13 1–2



13 1 8.4.4, column 2, dot point 1, 2 P9, P10 1–2

14 1 8.1.12.3; 8.1.14.1 P4, P5, P9, P12, P14

2–3


16 1 8.5.2, column 2, dot point 4; 8.5.3, column 2, dot point 4

P7 1–2



19 1 8.5.1, column 2, dot point 5, column 3 P2, P7 2–3


21 2 8.2.1, column 2, dot point 5; column 3, dot point 4

P9 2–3

22(a) 2 8.2.4, column 2, dot point 2; column 3, dot point 1

P4, P5, P8 1–2

22(b) 2 8.2.4, column 2, dot point 3; column 3, dot point 1

P4, P5, P8 2–3

22(c) 2 8.2.4, column 2, dot point 4 P4, P5, P8 2–3

23(a) 2 8.2.3, column 3, dot point 1; 8.1.11.2 P2, P11 3–4

23(b) 4 8.1.11.3; 8.1.12.1 P2, P8, P11, P12

2–3


24

Question Mark Content Outcome Band

24 5 8.3.2, column 2, dot point 4, column 3, dot point 2; 8.3.5, column 2, dot point 1

P7, P9 4–5

25(a) 2 8.2.6, column 2, dot point 2 P7 2–3

25(b) 2 8.2.6, column 2, dot point 4 P4, P7 2–3

25(c) 2 8.2.6, column 2, dot point 3 P4, P5 2–3

26(a) 1 8.3.2, column 2, dot point 2 P4, P9 2–3

26(b) 1 8.3.2, column 2, dot point 1 P9 2–3

26(c) 1 8.3.2, column 2, dot point 1 P9 2–3

26(d) 1 8.3.2, column 2, dot point 3 P4, P9 2–3

27(a) 2 8.4.1, column 2, dot point 1 P4 2–3

27(b) 2 8.4.2, column 2, dot point 4 P4 2–3

27(c) 4 8.4.1, column 2, dot point 5 P4 5–6

28 6 8.4.2, column 3 P4, P5, P9 2–3

29 3 8.4.3, column 2, dot point 6 P3, P4, P5 3–4


31(a) 3 8.1.12.3; 8.1.13.1 P7, P12, P13

4–5

31(b) 2 8.5.4, column 2, dot point 1; 8.1.14.1; 8.1.14.3

P7, P9, P14

4–5



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Answers Section I 1 C 2 B 3 D 4 A 5 D 6 B 7 C 8 A 9 C 10 D 11 D 12 B 13 A 14 D 15 C 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 A 20 A Marking guidelines Section II Please note: These are suggested answers only. There may be other acceptable or valid answers for some questions. Markers can make adjustments to the marking schemes to suit. Question 21 Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• States ONE way that TWO named terrestrial animals reduce water loss. 2

• States ONE way that a named terrestrial animal reduces water loss. 1

• Terrestrial animals not named. 0


26

Question 22(a) Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Identifies TWO conditions under which algal blooms may occur in the rivers of New South Wales. 2

• Identifies ONE condition under which algal blooms may occur in the rivers of New South Wales. 1

Question 22(b) Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Describes TWO impacts of algal blooms in rivers. 2

• Describes ONE impact of algal blooms in rivers. 1

Question 22(c) Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Discusses an alternative strategy. 2

• States an alternative strategy. 1

Question 23(a) Dependent Variable = what you are measuring = the effect of variable on plant growth. Independent Variable = what you are testing or what you are in control of or what you manipulate = various concentrations of fertilizer. Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Identifies the ‘dependent’ and ‘independent’ variables. 2

• Identifies EITHER the ‘dependent’ OR ‘independent’ variable. 1


27


Criteria Marks

• States TWO risks and describes their management. 4

• States TWO risks and describes the management of ONE. 3

• States TWO risks OR

• States ONE risk and describes its management. 2

• States ONE risk. 1

Question 24 Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Discusses the statement, includes examples of pre-germination requirements, ways of vegetative propagation and regeneration in Australian native plants.

5

• As above but lacks an example in one of the three areas OR discussion is minimal. 4

• Discussion is minimal and lacks an example in one of the three areas OR

• Lacks an example in two of the three areas. 3

• Discusses the statement with no examples OR

• Discussion is minimal, with ONE example. 2

• Discussion is minimal, with no examples or gives ONE example. 1

Question 25(a) Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Identifies TWO reasons why Australian plants become endangered. 2

• Identifies ONE reason why Australian plants become endangered. 1


28


Criteria Marks

• States TWO reasons for conserving Australian species of plants. 2

• States ONE reason for conserving Australian species of plants. 1


Criteria Marks

• Outlines ONE conservation strategy used with ONE rare Australian species. 2

• States ONE conservation strategy. 1

Question 26 1 mark for each correct answer. The most appropriate answers are: (a) enzymes, (b) respiration, (c) optimum, (d) heat. Question 27(a) The syllabus states: define a hazard in the workplace as anything with the potential to harm life, physical and mental health or property. Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Fully defines hazard. 2

• Partially defines hazard. 1


Criteria Marks

• Identifies TWO items of safety equipment in the school designed to reduce inhalation of harmful substances. 2

• Identifies ONE item of safety equipment. 1


29


Criteria Marks

• Assesses, using at least TWO examples, the impact of increased understanding of the structure and function of the human body on increased awareness of safety in the workplace and the home.

4

• Partial assessment using at least TWO examples OR

• An assessment with limited examples. 3

• Partial assessment using ONE example OR

• An assessment using NO examples. 2

• Partial assessment using NO examples. 1

Question 28(a)–(e) Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Answer includes the following SIX points: states the name, cause of the condition, one effect on the respiratory system, describes one symptom, outlines one way in which it can be prevented, and outlines one current direction in research to reduce the problem.

6

• Answer includes FIVE points. 5

• Answer includes FOUR points. 4

• Answer includes THREE points. 3

• Answer includes TWO points. 2

• Answer includes ONE point. 1

Question 29

Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• A complete discussion of how the composition of one type of specialised protective glasses is designed to protect the eye and sight. 3

• A partial discussion. 2

• A minimal discussion/statement. 1


30

Question 30

Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Describes the role of tendons in joint movement. 2

• States the role of tendons. 1 Question 31(a) One mark awarded for each correct axis (title and scale); one mark awarded for a line graph. Vertical axis is number of midge larvae; horizontal axis is distance from outflow. A line graph should be drawn.

Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Both axes correct, line graph drawn. 3

• Both axes correct; mistake in line graph or incorrect type of graph drawn OR

• Correct line graph drawn but one axis is incorrect. 2

• One correct axis OR

• Correct line graph drawn. 1


Criteria Marks

• Describes the relationship between water temperature and the abundance of the midge larvae. 2

• Describes the abundance of the midge larvae OR

• Describes the change in water temperature 1

Question 32 Marking guidelines

Criteria Marks

• Explains the importance of the role of decomposers in the local ecosystem. 2

• States the importance of the role of decomposers. 1

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