shaheen group of institutions bidar (head office) sub: pcb

II - PUC [STAR – NEET & STAR -50] of 16

SHAHEEN GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS Bidar (Head office)

Class : II - PUC [STAR – NEET & STAR -50] Sub: PCB Test No (13) Marks: 720 Date: 20-06-2021 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited.

2. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in

the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.

1. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating (a) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction (b) Affects only forward resistance (c) Affects only reverse resistance (d) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of pn Junction

2. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3k.If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is

(a) 200 and 1000 (b) 15 and 200 (c) 150 and 15000 (d) 20 and 2000

3. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode? 4. For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of

2 k is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 k then the input signal voltage is. (a) 10 mV (b) 20 mV (c) 30 mV (d) 15 mV

5. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance 𝑅1 will be

(a) 2.5 A (b) 10.0 A (c) 1.43 A (d) 3.13 A 6. What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first

0 and then 1? (a) 0,1 (b) 0, 0 (c) 1, 0 (d) 1, 1 7. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is

(a)A (b) 10−2 A (c) 10−1A (d) 10−3A


8. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

(a)A=0,B=1,C=0 (b)A=1,B=0,C=0 (c)A=1,B=1,C=0 (d)A=1,B=0,C=1

9. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is 1021 atoms / 𝑚3 . Given that the intrinsic concentration of electron -hole pairs is 1019 / 𝑚3 , the concentration of electrons in the specimen is

(a) 1017 / 𝑚3 (b) 1015 / 𝑚3 (c) 104 / 𝑚3 (d) 102 / 𝑚3 10. A P-N junction diode can withstand currents up to 10 mA. Under forward bias, The

diode has a potential drop of 0.5 V across it which is assumed to be independent of current. The maximum voltage of the battery used to forward bias the diode when a resistance of 200 is connected in series with it is (a)2.5V (b) 2.6V (c) 2.7V (d) 2.8V

11. Find the effective resistance between A and B

(a)5/18 (b) 9/5 (c) 18/5 (d) 5/9

12. In the figure shown the potential drop across the series resistor is

(a)30 V (b) 60 V (c) 90 V (d) 120 V

13. A common emitter transistor amplifier has a current gain of 50. If the load resistance is 4k , and input resistance is 500 , the voltage gain of amplifier is (a)100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400

14. For a logic 0101 the waveform is 15. In the following circuit find 𝐼1 and 𝐼2

(a) 0, 0 (b) 5 mA, 5 mA (c) 5 mA, 0 (d) 0, 5 mA


16. For inputs (A, B) and output (Y) of the following gate can be expressed as

(a) A⊕ 𝐵 (b) A.B (c) A+B (d) 𝐴 + 𝐵 17. Find current flowing through 5 resistance,

(Consider both the diodes as an ideal diodes)

(a) 2.0 A (b) 1.0 A (c) 0.5 A (d) 0

18. Current drown from the battery in given cir cuit is, I = ...... (Diode 𝐷1 and 𝐷2 are ideal diode)

(a) 5

40𝐴 (b)

5

50𝐴 (c)

5

10𝐴 (d)

5

20𝐴

19. What will be the potential difference between two terminal of 2 resistance in the given circuit? Consider diode as an ideal diode.

(a)10 V (b) 0 V (c) 20 V (d) 12 V

20. The LED is working with 6 V battery and resistance R. When 10 mA current is passes through it the voltage drop obtained is 2 V, then value of R will be (a) 40 k (b) 4 k (c) 200 (d) 400

21. The wavelength of light incident on photo diode is 1700 nm, then it.s energy gap

(𝐸𝑔)will be how much ?

(a) 0.073 eV (b) 1.20 eV (c) 0.73 eV (d) 1.16 eV 22. Find the current flowing in the following circuit. Consider diode as an ideal diode.


(a) 0 (b) 9.65 mA (c) 10.0 mA (d) 10.36 mA 23. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50Hz mains frequency, the fundamental

frequency in the ripple would be (a)50 Hz (b) 25 Hz (c) 100 Hz (d) 70.7 Hz

24. The pieces of Aluminium and Silicon are placed in closed room at 280 K temperature, then which of the following statement is corrent ? (Initial temperature is 300 K) (a) Resistance of both decreases. (b) Resistance of both increases. (c) Resistance of Aluminium decreases, but resistance of silicon increases (d) Resistance of Aluminium increases, but resistance of silicon decreases

25. The rms value of AC signal in half wave rectifier is (a) Equal to value of DC (b) Less then value of DC (c) Greater then value of DC (d) Zero

26. Which diode is in forward bias from the following ? 27. In an N - P - N common emitter amplifier when load resistance is 18 k the voltage

gain obtained is 270. If input resistance of circuit is 3k then what will be transconductance and current gain for that ?

28. In an N . P . N common base transistor circuit 4 % electrons from emitter combines

with holes in base. If collector current is 24 mA then find emitter current and current gain. (a) 40 mA, 0.85 (b) 20 mA, 0.93 (c) 25 mA, 0.96 (d) 30 mA, 0.96

29. The base current changes by 250𝜇A when 175 mV input signal is applied to CE amplifire. If output voltage is 5V then find input resistance (𝑅𝐵)and voltage gain for that. (a) 1k,10 (b) 3 k,12.5 (c) 70k,28.8 (d) 0.7 k,28.8

30. Find output Y for following circuit :

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 0, 1 (d) 1, 0

31. As shown in the figure the combination of OR gate and short circuited NAND will be have as which gate ?


(a) NOT gate (b) OR gate (c) NAND gate (d) NOR gate 32. Find output Y for following circuit.

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) Between 0 and 1 (d) can’t say any thing

33. In the following circuit combinations output at A, B and C are respectively........

(a)0, 1, 1 (b) 0, 1, 0 (c) 1, 1, 0 (d) 1, 0, 1

34. The value of thresold voltage for Ge and Si are respectively .... and ..... (a) 0.7 V, 0.3 V (b) 0.4 V, 0.5 V (c) 0.3 V, 0.8 V (d) 0.3 V, 0.7 V

35. In P-N junction diode the depletion region is formed due to (a) Driffing of holes (b) Diffution of constituent ions (c) Driffing of electrons (d) Displacement of impurity ions

36. For a transistar 𝛼 = 0.95. If change in emitter current is 10 mA then change in base current will be

(a) 10.5 mA (b) 0.5 mA (c) 9.5 mA (d)20

19 mA

37. In common base amplifire the input resistance is 4 and load resistance is 32 . 𝛼 = 0.5, then what will be voltage gain ?

(a)2 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 6 38. For a transistor𝛼 =0.95. . If change in emitter current is 100 mA then calculate

change in collector current. (a)90 mA (b) 100 mA (c) 80 mA (d) 95 mA

39. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude (a) if the junction is forward-biased (b) if the junction is reverse-biased (c) if the junction is unbiased (d) in no case

40. At absolute zero, Si acts as (a) non- metal (b) metal (c) insulator (d) None of these

41. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal (a) It becomes a p-type semiconductor (b) The antimony becomes an acceptor atom (c) There will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor


(d) Its resistance is increased 42. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor is 7/4 and the ratio of drift

velocities of electrons and holes is 5/4, then the ratio of concentrations of electron and holes will be (a)5/7 (b) 7/5 (c) 25/49 (d) 49/25

43. In a p-n junction having depletion layer of thickness 10−6 m the potential across it is 0.1 V. The electric field is (a) 107 V/m (b) 10−6V/m (c) 105 V/m (d) 10−5 V/m

44. In a reverse biased diode when the applied voltage changes by 1 V, the current is found to change by 0.5 𝜇A. The reverse bias resistance of the diode is (a) 2 × 105 (b) 2 × 106 (c) 200 (d) 2

45. In V-I characteristic of a p-n junction, reverse biasing results in (a) Leakage current (b) The current barrier across junction increases (c) No flow of current (d) Large current

46. The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is observed by:

(a) Ultramicroscope (b) Scattering

(c) Brownian movement (d) Electrophoresis

47. Lyophilic colloids are stable due to:

(a) Small size of the particle (b) Large size of the particle

(c) Layer of dispersion medium on the particle (d) Charge on the particle

48. Milk is colloid in which :

(a) Liquid is dispersed in liquid (b) Gas is dispersed in liquid

(c) Sugar is dispersed in water (d) Solid is dispersed in liquid

49. Which of the following molecules is most suitable to disperse benzene in water?

50. A catalyst

(a) changes the equilibrium constant

(b) lowers the activation energy

(c) increases the forward and backward reactions at different speeds.

(d) follows same mechanism for the reaction.

51. Which of the following ions will have the minimum coagulating value for the sol obtained

by adding FeCl3 solution to slight excess of NaOH

(a) SO42− (b) [Fe(CN)6]

3– (c) Ba2+ (d) Al3+

52. Preparation of Lyophobic sols by chemical method involves

(a) double decomposition (b) oxidation & reduction

(c) hydrolysis (d) all of these


53. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towards anode.

The coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 solutions. Their

coagulating power should be

(a) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 (b) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl

(c) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl (d) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3

54. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005,

respectively. The correct order of their protective powers is

(a) D < A < C < B (b) C < B < D < A

(c) A < C < B < D (d) B < D < A < C

55. The process does not involve a catalyst is :

(a) Haber process (b) Contact process

(c) Thermite process (d) Ostwald process

56. Chief ore of Al is :

(a) cryolite (b) bauxite (c) feldspar (d) kaolin

57. Froth floatation is a process of:

(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction (c) Refining (d) Concentration

58. Flux is used to remove :

(a) basic impurities (b) acidic impurities

(c) all types of impurities (d) acidic and basic both impurities

59. Mac Arthur process is used for the extraction of:

(a) Au (b) Pt (c) Cu (d) Zn

60. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by reduction of Cu2O

with :

(a) FeS (b) CO (c) Cu2S (d) SO2

61. In metallurgical process of aluminium, cryolite is mixed with alumina in its molten state,

because it

(a) decreases the amount of alumina (b) oxidises the alumina

(c) increases the melting point of alumina (d) decreases the melting point of alumina

62. Which of the following is used for inducing sleep?

(a) paracetamol (b) chloroquine

(c) bithional (d) barbituric acid derivatives

63. A broad spectrum antibiotic is

(a) paracetamol (b) penicillin (c) aspirin (d) chloramphenicol

64. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid?

(a) Phenelzine (b) Ranitidine

(c) Aluminium hydroxide (d) Cimetidine

65. Which one of the following is not a green house gas?

(a) CO2 (b) H2O (c) N2 (d) O3

66. Ozone in stratosphere is depleted by :

(a) CF2Cl2 (b) C7F16 (c) C6H6Cl6 (d) C6F6

67. The secondary precursors of photochemical smog are

(a) SO2 and NO2 (b) SO2 and hydrocarbons

(c) NO2 and hydrocarbons (d) O3 and PAN

68. In the metallurgy of iron, the slag is

(a) FeSiO3 (b) CaCO3 (c) CaSiO3 (d) CaO

69. Serpeck’s method involves the heating of bauxite with

(a) NaOH (b) Na2CO3 (c) N2 + C (d) CaCO3

70. Which of the following is leached with NaCN?

(a) Ore of Al (b) Ore of Cu (c) Ore of Ag (d) Ore of Zn


71. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. the following graph?

(a) Below 1623 K, Mg reduces Al2O3

(b) Above 1623 K, Al reduces MgO

(c) Both (a) & (b) are correct

(d) Both (a) & (b) are wrong

72. Vapour phase refining can be carried out in case of

(a) Ni (b) Zr (c) Ti (d) All of these

73. The ores that are concentrated by Froth flotation method are

(a) Carbonate (b) Sulphides (c) Oxides (d) Phosphates

74. Which of the following is chalcopyrite?

(a) CuFeS2 (b) FeS2 (c) KMgCl3.6H2O (d) Al2O3.2H2O

75. Which of the following metals cannot be extracted by carbon reduction process?

(a) Pb (b) Al (c) Hg (d) Zn

76. Which of the following is not a refining process?

(a) Mond’s process (b) Van-Arkel process

(c) Poling (d) Leaching

77. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct option:

(a) a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(i) (b) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(c) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (d) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

78. Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of

(a) Al2O3 + Na3AIF6 + CaF2 (b) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AIF6

(c) Al2O3 + HF + NaAIF4 (d) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAIF4

79. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?

(a) Pyrolusite (b) Magnetite (c) Malachite (d) Cassiterite

80. In which of the following process fused sodium chloride is electrolysed for extraction of

sodium?

(a) Castner process (b) Cyanide process

(c) Down's process (d) Both (b) & (c)

81. Which of the following does not contain aluminium?

(a) Cryolite (b) Fluorspar (c) Feldspar (d) Mica

82. Carborundum is

(a) CaC2 (b) CaCO3 (c) Fe3C (d) SiC

83. Mond's process is used for

(a) Ni (b) Al (c) Fe (d) Cu

84. Which process of purification is represented by following scheme?


(a) Poling (b) Electro refining (c) Zone refining (d) van Arkel process

85. Which of the following is used as depressant in the separation of mixture of PbS and ZnS?

(a) NaCN (b) NaCl (c) AgCl (d) All of these

86. Iron obtained from blast furnace is

(a) Wrought iron (b) Cast iron (c) Pig iron (d) Steel

87. Elements used as semiconductor are purified by

(a) Van Arkel method (b) Mond process

(c) Distillation (d) Zone refining

88. The inner layer of a blast furnace is made of

(a) Graphite bricks (b) Silica bricks

(c) Basic bricks (d) Fireclay bricks

89. Which of the following mineral contains calcium as well as magnesium?

(a) Tridymite (b) Aragonite (c) Dolomite (d) Carnalite

90. Which contains both iron and copper?

(a) Cuprite (b) Chalcocite (c) Chalcopyrite (d) Malachite

91. Pollution is any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristics of (a) Air (b) Land (c) Water or soil (d) All of these

92. In which year did Government of India pass the Environment (Protection) Act to protect and improve the quality of environment (air, water and soil)? (a)1978 (b) 1986 (c) 1981 (d) 1987

93. What are the effects of air pollution on plants? (a) Growth retardation (b) Decrease in yield (c) Premature death (d) All of these

94. Which system of humans and animals are affected mostly by air pollution? (a) Respiratory system (b) Digestive system (c) Circulatory system (d) Excretory system

95. The most widely used and effective device for removing particulate matter is (a) Arrester (b) Scrubber (c) Electrostatic precipitator (d) Converters

96. Identify A, B, C and D in the diagram. (a) A: Dirty air, B: Water line spray, C: Clean air, D: Particulate matter

(b) A: Clean air, B: Water line spray, C: Particulate matter, D: Dirty air (c) A: Water line spray, B: Particulate matter, C: Clean air, D: Dirty air (d) A: Particulate matter, B: Dirty air, C: Clean air, D: Water line spray


97. According to CPCB which particulate size causes greatest harm to human health? (a) 2.5 μm (b) 3.5 μm (c) 4.5 μm (d) 5.2 μm

98. Automobile pollution is reduced by using (a) Lead-free petrol or diesel (b) Catalytic converters (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

99. What is/are done by catalytic converters? (a) Unburnt hydrocarbons are converted to 𝐶𝑂2 and 𝐻2O. (b) CO in converted to 𝐶𝑂2. (c) Nitric oxide is changed to 𝑁2. (d) All the above

100. Motor vehicle equipped with catalytic converters should use unleaded petrol because (a) Lead activates the catalyst (b) Lead deactivates catalyst (c) Lead increases fuel efficiency (d) Lead decreases fuel efficiency

101. Match the columns. Column–I Column–II

A. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1. 1987 B. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 2. 1981 C. Noise added as air pollutant 3. 1974 D. Environment (Protection) Act 4. 1986 (a) A:2, B:3, C:4, D:1 (b) A:2, B:3, C:1, D:4 (c) A:4, B:3, C:2, D:1 (d) A:4, B:3, C:1, D:2

102. A brief exposes of extremely high sound level, of ________ or more generated by takeoff of jet plane or rocket, may damage ear drums thus permanently impairing hearting ability. (a)80 dB (b) 20 dB (c) 150 dB (d) 60 Db

103. CNG is a better fuel than petrol or diesel because CNG (a) Burns efficiently (b) Cannot be siphoned off and adulterated (c) Non-carcinogenic and non-corrosive (d) All of these

104. What is the minimum percentage of impurity that makes domestic sewage unfit for human use? (a)0.1% (b) 1% (c) 3% (d) 10%

105. Identify A, B and C in the figure.


106. Select the incorrect matching.

(a) BOD → Biochemical Oxygen Demand (b) JFM → Joint Forest Management (c) DU → Degree of Unsaturation (d) FOAM → Friends of the Arcata March

107. What happens to sewage water from the point of sewage discharge? (a) Dissolved oxygen ↓eses (b) Mortality of fish ↑eses (c) Biological oxygen demand ↑eses (d) All of these

108. World’s most problematic aquatic weed is (a) Terror of Bengal (b) Water hyacinth (c) Eichhornia crassipes (d) All of these

109. Water hyacinth is introduced in India for (a) High growth rate (b) Beautiful flowers (c) Disease resistance gene (d) All of these

110. The presence of large amount of nutrients in water causes excessive growth of planktonic (free-floating) algae, called. This is called (a) Red tide (b) Bio-magnification (c) Algal bloom (d) Biofortification

111. Which of these diseases is/are caused by contaminated water? (a) Dysentery (b) Typhoid, jaundice (c) Cholera (d) All of these

112. Increase in concentration of the toxic substances at successive trophic levels is known as (a) Biofortification (b) Biowar (c) Bioinformatics (d) Biomagnification

113. The phenomena of biomagnification in aquatic ecosystem is well-known for the rising presence of (a) Hg (b) DDT (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

114. High concentration of DDT causes decline in (a) Fish population (b) 200 plankton population (c) Small fish population (d) Bird population

115. Which of these is/are true about DDT? (a) Undergo biomagnifications in aquatic ecosystem. (b) Disturbs calcium metabolism in bird. (c) Causes thinning of eggshell leads to premature breaking. (d) All the above

116. Natural aging of lake by nutrient enrichment of its water is (a) Biofortification (b) Biomagnification (c) Biogeochemical cycle (d) Eutrophication

117. Dry composting toilet is useful in handling human excreta because this is (a) Practical and hygienic (b) Efficient (c) Cost-effective (d) All of these

118. ‘EcoSan’ toilets have been made effective in many areas of: (a) Kerala (b) Sri Lanka (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

119. Who prepared polyblend? (a) Ahmed Khan (b) Ramesh Chand Dagar


(c) Amrita Devi (d) Sunderlal Bahuguna 120. Who created Haryana Kisan Welfare Club?

(a) Ahmed Khan (b) Ramesh Chand Dagar (c) Amrita Devi (d) Sunderlal Bahuguna

121. Accidental leakage in nuclear plants occurred in (a) Three mile island (b) Chernobyl (c) Bhopal (d) Both (a) and (b)

122. How deep should nuclear waste after sufficient pre-treatment be buried (in shielded containers) within the rocks below the earth’s surface? (a)100 m (b) 200 m (c) 300 m (d) 500 m

123. Without greenhouse effect the average temperature at surface of Earth would have been ________. (a)–00C (b) 150C (c) –180C (d) 60C

124. Earth’s present average temperature is (a)–00C (b) 150C (c) –180C (d) 60C

125. Which gas contributes the maximum to the greenhouse effect? (a) 𝐶𝐻4 (b) 𝐶𝑂2 (c) CFCs (d) 𝑁2O 126. What is the contribution of methane gas to the total global warming? (a) 60% (b) 20% (c) 14% (d) 6% 127. Rise in temperature is leading to deleterious changes in the environment and

resulting is odd climatic change such as (a) Ozone depletion (b) Greenhouse effect

(c) Water logging (d) El Nino effect 128. The thickness of ozone is measured in terms of

(a) BOD (b) D.O. (c) DU (d) ROP 129. Bad ozone is formed in

(a) Stratosphere (b) Ionosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Lithosphere 130. Ozone degradation is done by

(a) DDT (b) CFCs (c) 𝐶𝐻4 (d) 𝐶𝑂2 131. In stratosphere, UV rays act on CFCs (Chlorofluoro Carbons) and release which atom Leading to ozone depletion?

(a) ‘F’ atoms (b) ‘Cl’ atoms (c) ‘H’ atoms (d) ‘C’ atoms 132. In human eye, cornea absorbs UV- B radiation and a high dose of UV-B causes

inflammation of cornea, known as (a) Night blindness (b) Xerophthalmia

(c) Epicanthus (d) Snow-blindness 133. Which international treaty was signed at Montreal (Canada) in 1987

(Effective in 1989) to control the emission of ozone depleting substances? (a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Earth Summit

(c) Montreal Protocol (d) All of these 134. In which year did Government of India introduce the concept of Joint Forest

Management (JFM)? (a)1974 (b) 1980 (c) 1990 (d) 1970

135. Government of India has recently instituted which award for individuals or communities from rural areas that have shown extra-ordinary courage and dedication in protecting wildlife? (a) Padma Bhushan (b) Chipko Award (c) Bharat Ratna

(d) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award


136. What is the relative contribution (A, B, C, D) of various greenhouse gases according to the given pi-chart?

(a) A: 𝑁2O (6%), B: Carbon dioxide (60%), Methane (25%), D: CFCs (14%) (b) A: Methane (25%), B: CFCs (14%), C: 𝑁2O (6%), D: Carbon dioxide (60%) (c) A: Carbon dioxide (6%), B: 𝑁2O (6%), C: Methane (25%), D: CFCs (14%)

(d) A: CFCs (14%), B: Carbon dioxide (60%), C: Methane (25%), D: 𝑁2O (6%) 137. In the textbook you came across the ‘Three Mile Island’ and ‘Chernobyl’ disasters

associated with the accidental leakage of radioactive wastes. In India we had Bhopal gas tragedy. It is associated with which of the following?

(a) 𝐶𝑂2 (b) Methyl isocyanate (c) CFC’s (d) Methyl cyanate 138. The term ‘Biodiversity’ was popularized by

(a) Robert May (b) A. Von Humboldt (c) Edward Wilson (d) Paul Ehrlich 139. How many different varieties of mango are found in India? (a) 50,000 (b) 5000 (c) 2000 (d) 1000 140. India has only _________ percent of the world’s land area; its share of the global species

diversity is an impressive _________ percent. (a) 4.2, 1.8 (b) 2.4, 8.1 (c) 2.4, 13 (d) 4.2, 13

141. Species–area relationship was provided by (a) Alexander Van Humboldt (b) Robert May

(c) Paul Ehrlich (d) Edward Wilson 142. The graph formed by plotting species richness against area for a wide variety of taxa

(angiosperm plants, birds, bats, fresh water fishes, etc.) turns out to be a (a) Parabola (b) Straight line

(c) Rectangular hyperbola (d) Any of the above 143. Log S = log C + Z log A (Logarithmic formula for species–area relationship). True

about this formula (a) S = Species richness A = Area (b) Z = Regression coefficient

(c) C = Y-intercept (d) All of these 144. If we analyze species–area relationship among very large area like entire continents,

slope of line becomes (a) Less steeper (b) Vertical (c) Much steeper (d) Horizontal

145. Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by (a) Robert May (b) A. Von Humboldt (c) Paul Ehrlich (d) Edward Wilson

146. IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction of how many species in last 500 years?

(a) 784 (b) 874 (c) 478 (d) 487 147. Match the Column- I (Recently extinct animals) with Column-II (Places from where

they are extinct). Column-I Column-II A. Dodo 1. Russia


B. Quagga 2. Australia C. Thylacine 3. Africa D. Steller’s sea cow 4. Mauritius (a) A: 1, B: 2, C: 3, D: 4 (b) A: 4, B: 3, C: 2, D: 1

(c) A: 4, B: 2, C: 3, D: 1 (d) A: 4, B: 1, C: 2, D: 3 148. Which group is most vulnerable to extinction? (a) Fishes (b) Amphibians (c) Reptiles (d) Birds 149. Since the origin and diversification of life on earth how many episodes of mass

extinction of species have occurred till date? (a)2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

150. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to (a) Decline in plants production. (b) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations such as draught. (c) Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes such as plant productivity, water use, and pest and disease cycle.

(d) All the above 151. Which of the following is a major cause of loss of biodiversity?

(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation (b) Over-exploitation (c) Alien species invasion (d) Co-extinction 152. Steller’s sea cow and Passenger pigeon became extinct due to

(a) Alien species invasion (b) Co-extinction (c) Habitat loss and fragmentation (d) Over exploitation 153. Which of these are examples of alien species invasion?

(a) Nile perch was introduced in Lake Victoria in east Africa (b) African catfish in Indian River (c) Water hyacinth in India

(d) All the above 154. Which of these is not a narrowly utilitarian argument for conserving biodiversity?

(a) Food (b) Medicine (c) Construction material (d) Pollination

155. All are examples of broadly utilitarian except (a) Pollination (b) Oxygen (c) Aesthetic pleasure of walking through thick woods (d) Firewood

156. ‘We save the entire forest to save the tiger’. This approach of conservation is (a) In situ (b) Ex situ (c) In vitro (d) In vivo 157. What percentage of the earth’s land area is covered by all biodiversity hotspots put

together? (a) 6% (b) 10% (c) 2% (d) 15% 158. The following are examples of ex situ conservation except

(a) Zoological parks (b) Botanical garden (c) Wildlife safari parks (d) Biosphere reserve 159. The following are examples of In situ conservation except?

(a) Biosphere reverse (b) National park (c) Sacred groves (d) Gene-bank 160. Hotspots are characterized by

(a) Very high species richness (b) High degree of endemism (c) Region of accelerated habitat loss (d) All of these 161. In India, ecologically unique and biodiversity rich regions are legally protected as


(a) Biosphere reserve (b) National park (c) Sanctuaries (d) All of these 162. The Earth Summit (Historic Convention on Biological Diversity) was held in

(a) Johannesburg, South Africa, 2002 (b) Rio De Janeiro, 1992 (c) Kyoto, Japan (d) Montreal, Canada 163. World Summit on sustainable development was held in

(a) Johannesburg, South Africa, 2002 (b) Rio De Janeiro, 1992 (c) Kyoto, Japan (d) Montreal, Canada 164. Which of these are hotspots of India?

(a) Western Ghats (b) Himalaya (c) Indo-Burma (d) All of these 165. Ex situ conservation includes

(a) Cryopreservation of gametes (b) In vitro fertilization (c) Tissue culture (d) All of these 166. Sacred groves are present in

(a) Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya (b) Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan (c) Western Ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra

(d) All the above 167. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation? (a) Wildlife sanctuary (b) Seed bank (c) Sacred groves (d) National park 168. Which one of the following areas in India is a hotspot of biodiversity?

(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Gangetic Plain (c) Sunderbans (d) Western Ghats 169. The organization which publishes the Red list of species is (a) ICFRE (b) IUCN (c) UNEP (d) WWF 170. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates.

What groups the four portions (A to D) represent respectively? (a) A: Insects, B: Crustaceans, C: Other animal groups, D: Molluscs

(b) A: Crustaceans, B: Insects, C: Molluscs, D: Other animal groups (c) A: Molluscs, B: Other animal groups, C: Crustaceans, D: Insects

(d) A: Insects, B: Molluscs, C: Crustaceans, D: Other animal groups 171. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for the diversification of

insects of land? (a) Segmentation (b) Bilateral symmetry (c) Exoskeleton (d) Eyes 172. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as (a) In situ conservation of biodiversity.

(b) Advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity. (c) In situ conservation by sacred groves.


(d) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity. 173. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as (a) Alien (b) Endemic (c) Rare (d) Keystone 174. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being

driven to extinction? (a) Over-exploitation (b) Alien species invasion

(c) Habitat loss and fragmentation (d) Co-extinctions 175. How many hot spots biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by

Norman Myers? (a) 25 (b) 34 (c) 43 (d) 17

176. Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul? (a) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh

(b) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh (c) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir (d) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

177. The one-homed rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuary (a) Bhitar Kanika (b) Bandipur (c) Kaziranga (d) Corbett park 178. What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and African catfish?

(a) All are endangered species of India. (b) All are key stone species. (c) All are mammals found in India.

(d) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India. 179. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country. (b) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes. (c) Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal.

(d) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass. 180. Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?

(a) Tiaga forest (b) Tundra forest (c) Amazon rain forest (d) Rain forests of Northeast India

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