sk0-003 exam

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam

Exam: SK0-003

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Demo Edition

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1 http://www.certmagic.com

QUESTION: 1Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answerrepresents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Also known as external cache, it is included in every CPU.B. Also known as internal cache, it is included in every CPU.C. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM.D. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. All the commands for theCPU go through the cache. It stores a backlog of the commands so that, if a wait state isencountered, the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from thecache. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to befetched from DRAM. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. What is waitstate?Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information.This slows down computer operations. When a computer runs without encountering await state, it runs faster. This is known as a zero wait state operation.Answer option A is incorrect. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard,outside the CPU. It is also known as external cache.Answer option D is incorrect. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips, known asSRAM, for caching.

QUESTION: 2Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document?

A. Date of server purchaseB. Server response timeC. Disk performance statisticsD. Network bandwidth

Answer: B,C

Explanation:The following should be included in the server baseline document:Server response time

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Disk performance statisticsBaseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and otherdevices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when theyadd the device to the network. This document is very helpful in comparing a device'sperformance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if adevice is operating properly.Answer options A and D are incorrect. The dates of server purchase and server responsetime have nothing to do with the server baseline.

QUESTION: 3Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server'ssecurity from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.Choose two.

A. Putting a lock on the server room's doorB. Using a phrase for the server passwordC. Using personal information in the server room passwordD. Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder

Answer: D,C

Explanation:The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security frombeing compromised:Writing the server password on a paper for self reminderUsing personal information in the server room password.The personal information, such as phone number and date of birth, can be guessed easilyby unauthorized users.Answer options B and A are incorrect. Using a phrase for the server password and puttinga lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure.

QUESTION: 4When you start your computer, Windows operating system reports that the hard diskdrive has bad sectors. What will be your first step in resolving this issue?

A. Run DEFRAG on the hard drive.B. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option.C. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt.D. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive.

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Answer: B

Explanation:Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolvingthis issue. With Thorough option, SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. It alsochecks the physical integrity of the disk surface. When SCANDISK encounters a badsector, it tries to fix the sector.Answer option A is incorrect. DEFRAG, a Windows-based utility, is used to reorganizefiles on a disk to optimize disk performance.Answer options C is incorrect. The FORMAT command is used to format disks. It willnot help in resolving the issue.Answer option D is incorrect. The data cable is used to transfer data. Reference:TechNet, Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]"

QUESTION: 5Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers?

A. NNTPB. SMTPC. IMAPD. SNMP

Answer: B

Explanation:Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers.Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messagesbetween servers. E- mailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet.SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTPclient typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to theSMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP, port number 25.However, e-mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers.Answer option D is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part ofthe TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used tokeep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving.Answer option A is incorrect. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol(NNTP). It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post, distribute, and retrievenetwork news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet.

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Answer option C is incorrect. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. Thisprotocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. Through thisprotocol, a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) fordownloading an e-mail from the shared server. A user can also use this protocol to edit ordelete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. An example of the IMAP protocol is thePOP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server.

Reference:"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol"

QUESTION: 6What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup?

A. Daily backupB. Incremental backupC. Sequential backupD. Full backup

Answer: D

Explanation:Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of datadeletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data.The Backup utility supports three modes of backup:Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time.It needs only one tape to restore data.Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since thelast incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediatetapes used for incremental backup to restore data.A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or networkdrive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created orchanged since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the lastdifferential backup tape to restore data.

Reference:TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 12 - Backup"

QUESTION: 7Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire?

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A. DINB. RS-232C. IEEE 1394D. IEEE 1284

Answer: C

Explanation:IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a widerange of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditionalPC storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire.Answer option A is incorrect. DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-keyIBM-style keyboards.Answer option B is incorrect. RS-232 standard is a specification for serialcommunication ports, also known as COM ports, serial ports, or RS-232 ports, and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices, such as modems andpointing devices to a computer.Answer option D is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing.Typically, bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them.

QUESTION: 8Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus?

A. This type of virus hides system files.B. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives.C. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection.D. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files.

Answer: C

Explanation:Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection.This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. When the user runs the infected file inthe disk, it loads virus into the RAM. The new virus starts making its own copies andinfects other files of the operating system. The mutation engine of polymorphic virusgenerates a new encrypted code, this changes the signature of the virus.Therefore,polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus.

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Reference:TechNet, Contents: "Security Threats"

QUESTION: 9Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correctanswer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. SCSI cableB. 10Base2 cableC. Parallel cableD. Serial cable

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of thefollowing cables:10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cableWhat is 10Base2?10Base2 is a type of cable, also known as Thinnet Coax. The maximum length of a10base2 cable network can be 185 meters. 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology.10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors toconnect to the LAN card. What is a parallel data cable?A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at atime. Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin, so it is often referred to as a 25-pinconnector. The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of thetwenty-five wires. The parallel channel is fast, reliable and preferred way to connectprinters and other external devices to a computer. A standard parallel data cable has aDB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end.Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to acomputer. What is SCSI?Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface inuse today after the Integrated DriveElectronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSIdevices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a networkenvironment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has threestandards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION: 10

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. During the boot process, aserver displays a POST error. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identifythe problem?

A. Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code.B. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor.C. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code.D. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code.

Answer: D

Explanation:In order to identify the problem, Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOSerror code. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes.The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation.Answer option C is incorrect. The system log of the operating system does not containinformation about BIOS error codes. The system log is used to store events logged by theoperating system components. For example, events such as driver failure during startupare recorded in the system log.Answer option A is incorrect. The security log of the operating system does not containinformation about BIOS error codes. The system log is used to store security-relatedevents.Answer option B is incorrect. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannotprovide any help regarding a BIOS error.

QUESTION: 11Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology?

A. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system.B. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically.C. It allows to install a new device, or remove and replace a failed device, withoutpowering off the system.D. It allows to store more than one file using the same name.

Answer: C

Explanation:The hot swap technology is used to install a new device, or remove and replace a faileddevice, without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. Usingthis technology, a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the

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computer using it remains in operation. The replacement can be due to a device failure, orfor storage devices, etc. The hot swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE harddrives. This technology is also available for Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks(RAID).

QUESTION: 12What will be the maximum SCSI bus length, if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface?

A. 3 metersB. 1.5 metersC. 12 metersD. 6 meters

Answer: B

Explanation:If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface,the maximum SCSI bus length will be 1.5 meters.Answer option A is incorrect. If you connect up to three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface, the maximum SCSI bus length will be 3 meters.Answer options D and C are incorrect. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support thesebus lengths. What is SCSI?Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface inuse today after the Integrated DriveElectronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSIdevices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a networkenvironment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has threestandards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.

QUESTION: 13Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about theterm "end of useful life"?

A. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longersupply 25 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.B. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longersupply 50 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.C. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longersupply 10 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.

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D. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longersupply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.

Answer: D

Explanation:A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energyinto electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. The IEEE defines"end of useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. For example, A UPS battery that supports afull load for 20 minutes when new, will support the same load for only about 15 minuteswhen it reaches its defined "end of useful life". What is IEEE?Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineersand electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software.

QUESTION: 14Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Eachcorrect answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. % Network utilizationB. Pages/secC. Total frames received/secondD. Broadcast frames received/second

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic:% Network utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity.The threshold of the network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology.A value of higher than 40 percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic.Total frames received/second: This counter indicates when bridges and routers might beflooded. Broadcast frames received/second: This counter is used to create a baseline.Since each computer processes every broadcast, high broadcast levels mean lowernetwork performance.Answer option B is incorrect. The Pages/sec is the memory object's counter thatindicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard disk.

Reference:

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TechNet, Contents: "Monitoring Performance"

QUESTION: 15Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true?

A. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB.B. It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM.C. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediatelywithout waiting for memory to be cached.D. It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to andfrom memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU).

Answer: C

Explanation:Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed ofDRAM. The CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waitingfor memory to be cached. Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. It is helpfulon high-end systems, especially servers, that have to process a great deal of informationquickly. The Intel Orion chipset is one that does support memory interleaving.Answer option D is incorrect. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a technique that somecomponents and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passingthrough the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Using DMA, the computer can move datadirectly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPUintervention. The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory accesschannel that the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory.Answer option B is incorrect. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk forstoring additional data in the RAM. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted,operating systems (such as Windows 95/98, NT, and 2000) move the data correspondingto older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. Hence,space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. Virtual memory is simulated RAMcreated by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. Although this extends thecomputer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient, it slowsdown the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read andwrite to the hard disk.

QUESTION: 16Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. He wants that whenever heboots his computer, the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy diskdrive and then switch to IDE master hard disk drive. How will he accomplish this?

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A. Disable the hard disk drive.B. Remove the boot files from C: drive.C. Change the boot sequence to C:, A:.D. Change the boot sequence to A:, C:.

Answer: D

Explanation:To accomplish the task, Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:, C: in theBIOS. What is BIOS?Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables theoperating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The BIOSsoftware is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal OxideSemiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.

QUESTION: 17You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. You are installing Windows2000 Server on a new computer. Which volume types does Windows 2000 Serversupport?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. RAID-5B. DynamicC. SpannedD. BasicE. MirroredF. Parity

Answer: E,C,A

Explanation:Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5, spanned, and mirrored volumes. What is RAID-5volume?A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittentlyacross three or more physical disks.RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If aportion of a physical disk fails, the data that was on the failed portion can be re-createdfrom the remaining data and parity.

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RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume,while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data.RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes.What is spanned volume?A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. It is used tocombine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to createa large logical volume. It can be created on dynamic disks only. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored orstriped. In Windows 2000/2003, users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives byusing a spanned volume.What is mirrored volume?Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same data on two physical disks. Itcopies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. In case of failure of onedisk, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. You can createmirrored volumes only on dynamic disks.Answer options B and D are incorrect. Basic and dynamic are disk types and not volumetypes.

Reference:TechNet, Contents: "Configuring Dynamic Volumes"

QUESTION: 18Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) thehighest?

A. High humidityB. Low humidityC. High temperatureD. Low temperature

Answer: B

Explanation:Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). Dry air is a poorconductor of electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESDbecause water molecules carry static electric charge away. Clothing, footwear, andflooring material are important considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD Toreduce the risk of ESD, you should take the following precautions while installing newhardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting. Remove your shoes, if possible, androll up your shirt's sleeves.If you set the component down, do not let the componenttouch the table before your hand touches the table.

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What is ESD?ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everydaycreates ESD. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mildshock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred fromone charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge.To minimize Electrostaticdischarge (ESD) problems, consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working withcomputer components. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end anda plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground orto the piece of equipment being worked on.

QUESTION: 19Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer representsa complete solution. Choose two.

A. DDR DIMMB. SIMMC. SO-DIMMD. RIMM

Answer: A,D

Explanation:Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. It was developed by Rambus,Intel, and Kingston. This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot.Double Data Rate Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory modulethat also comes with 168 and 184 pins. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base.The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III,Pentium 4, and Athlon systems. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100, PC2700,PC3200, PC3500 and faster. The number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary, butthey have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184. 184-pin DIMMs are 5.375"long and 1.375" high, and the heights may vary. DIMMs have a small notch on thebottom of the module.Answer option C is incorrect. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) isa type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. The 72-pin SO-DIMMsupports 32-bit transfers, and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. It wasintroduced for laptops. SO-DIMMs come in smaller packages, consume lesser power, butare more expensive than DIMMs.Answer option B is incorrect. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a type ofmemory module that comes in two types, 30-pin and 72-pin. A 72-pin SIMM can beeasily identified by a single notch on its base. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch onits base.

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QUESTION: 20You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a WindowsNT 4.0 TCP/IP-based network. You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IPaddresses. Which of the following utilities will you use?

A. NBTSTATB. NETSTATC. TRACERTD. TELNET

Answer: A

Explanation:NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IPaddresses.NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOSover TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registerednames and scope IDs. NBTSTAT helps you view, remove, and correct the dynamic andstatic entries in the NetBIOS name cache.Answer option B is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statisticsand the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the openconnections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote

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computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all thisnetworking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.Answer option D is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that startsterminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allowsusers to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programsremotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnetprotocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, toaccess files. It uses TCP port 23 by default.Answer option C is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displaysthe path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified DomainName (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.

Reference:TechNet, Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies"

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sk0-003 exam

Documents

server secure

server responsetime

server passwordc

server baseline document

server room passwordd

server response timesk0

server rooms doorb

date of server purchaseb