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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to attempt the questions.
(1) This booklet contains 100 questions in all comprising the following four parts.
Part-(I) : General Intelligence & Reasoning (25 Questions)
Part-(II) : General Knowledge & General Awareness (25 Questions)
Part-(III) : Elementary Mathematics (25 Questions)
Part-(IV) : English Language or Hindi Language (25 Questions)
(2) All the questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
(3) Before you start to attempt the questions, you must explore this booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages
and find that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any flaw in this booklet, you must get it replaced
immediately.
(4) Each question carries negative marking also as 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
(5) You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll
number, Test name/Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start
attempting the questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These
instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be
awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.
(6) Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the
relevant question number by pencil or Black/Blue ball pen only.
(7) A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely/
different from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as
cancelled.
(8) The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
(9) Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will make a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be
deemed fit.
(10) Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy.
Do not spend too much time on any question.
(11) Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature. (12) No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. (13) No candidate can leave the examination hall before completion of the exam.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Maximum Marks : 100
Total Questions : 100
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General Intelligence & Reasoning
Directions (1-2): Select the correct alternatives from the given
ones that will complete the series. 1. 15, 4, 19, 23, 42, ? (A) 56 (B) 65 (C) 58 (D) 62
2. A, C, G, M, ? (A) U (B) T (C) V (D) W
3. Arrange the following words as per order in the
dictionary? 1. Magical 2. Magnify 3. Maternal 4. Marshal 5. Master (A) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 (B) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 (C) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1 (D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 Directions (4-7): Select the related word/letters/number from
given alternatives. 4. 7584 : 5362 :: 4673 : ? (A) 2367 (B) 2451 (C) 2531 (D) 2485
5. H : O :: M : ? (A) U (B) T (C) Y (D) W
6. Dog : Bark :: Goat : ? (A) Bleat (B) Howl (C) Grunt (D) Bray
7. Atom : Matter :: Particle : ? (A) Proton (B) Molecule (C) Electron (D) Dust Directions (8-11): Find the odd numbers/word/ letters from the
given alternatives. 8. (A) 150 (B) 396 (C) 810 (D) 80
9. (A) AZ (B) BY (C) CQ (D) DW
10. (A) Srinagar (B) Chandigarh (C) Hyderabad (D) Ranchi
11. (A) Iran : Asia (B) Canberra : Australia (C) Norway : Europe (D) Algeria : Africa
12. Among J, K, L, M and N each of a different weight. J is
heavier then L but lighter than K. M is lighter than L. K is lighter than N. Who among them is the heaviest?
(A) N (B) K (C) L (D) M
13. In a certain code language, ‘ALMIRAH’ is written as
‘BNPMWGO’. For which word, ‘DNRWLUA’ is the code?
(A) COSGOLT (B) TOGSOLC (C) TOGCLOS (D) CLOSGOT
14. In a certain code language, ‘MACHINE’ is written as
‘LBBIHOD’. For which word, ‘SLTMFNB’ is the code? (A) RKSLEMA (B) TKULGMC (C) RMSNEOA (D) TMUNGOC
15. In a certain code language, ‘ITR’ is written as
‘HJSUQS’. How is “RETURN” written in that code language?
(A) SUJRPTQPSUMO (B) QSDFSUTVQSMO (C) STCDUVSTSTLM (D) PQFGRSVWPQOP
16. If ‘+’ stands for ‘division’, ‘×’ stands for ‘addition’, ‘–’
stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘÷’ stands for ‘subtraction’, which of the following is correct?
(A) 46 × 6 ÷ 4 – 5 + 3 = 74 (B) 46 – 6 + 4 × 5 ÷ 3 = 71 (C) 46 ÷ 6 × 4 – 5 + 3 = 75.5 (D) 46 × 6 – 4 + 5 ÷ 3 = 70.1 17. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to
replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation. 25 * 2 * 75 * 25 (A) = × – (B) – × = (C) × – = (D) × = –
18. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 29 (D) 32 19. In the following question, a statement is given followed
by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statement: The serious accident in which a person
was run down by a car yesterday had again focused attention on the most unsatisfactory state of roads.
Conclusions: I. The accident that occurred was fatal. II. Several accidents have so far taken place because
of unsatisfactory state of roads. (A) Only conclusion (I) follows (B) Only conclusion (II) follows (C) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follow (D) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
20. Two positions of a cube are shown below. What will
come opposite to face containing ‘3’?
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 5
21. In the given diagram, the rectangle represents males,
the circle represents actors and the triangle singers. Which numbered area represents male that are only singers?
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 3
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22. From the given answer figures, select the one in which
the question figure is hidden/embedded. Question Figure
Answer Figures
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
23. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in
the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question Figures
Answer Figures
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
24. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the
answer figures is the right image of the given figure? Question Figure
Answer Figures
25. Select a figure from the answer figure, which will
continue the series as established by the five problem figures.
Question Figure
Answer Figures
General Knowledge & General Awareness
26. Which of the following bodies is responsible for the
distribution of revenues between the Centre and the States?
(A) NITI Aayog (B) Finance Commission (C) Inter-state Council (D) National Development Council
27. Long term funds in the capital market can be raised
either by borrowing from certain institutions or through (A) Issue of note (B) Taking loan from Government (C) Issue of securities (D) Taking loan from foreign institutions
28. Who was the Governor General of India when the
Indian National Congress was formed? (A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Lord Mountbatten (C) Lord Lytton (D) Lord Dufferin
29. Who acts as the channel of communication between
the President and the Council of Ministers? (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Vice-President (C) Prime Minister (D) Chairman, Rajya Sabha
30. During whose reign Mewar came to conclude peace
treaty with Mughals? (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shah Jahan (D) Aurangzeb
31. Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated on ______. (A) 31 January 1949 (B) 30 January 1950 (C) 30 January 1948 (D) 31 January 1948
32. Teesta forms a part of which major river system? (A) Ganga (B) Brahmputra (C) Krishna (D) Caurvery
33. Temperate Cyclone are characterized by ______. (A) Fronts (B) Diverging winds (C) Dry winds (D) Hot winds
34. When a bomb explodes into two pieces, they move in
opposite directions. This motion in opposite direction can be explained by ______.
(A) Law of conservation of energy (B) Law of conservation of momentum (C) Law of conservation of mass (D) Law of conservation of charge
35. The head of an electrician's screw driver is made of
plastic because ______. (A) Plastic is cheaper than iron. (B) Plastic is a bad conductor of electricity. (C) Plastic is lighter than iron (D) Plastic can be easily fixed
36. National waterway-1 doesn't pass through which of the
following Indian States? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal (C) Odisha (D) Jharkhand
37. The President of India appoints every Judge of
Supreme Court by warrant under his hand and seal under which Article of Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 142 (B) Article 124
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(C) Article 130 (D) Article 135
38. Which one of the following elements cannot displace
hydrogen gas from a dilute acid? (A) Zinc (B) Copper (C) Magnesium (D) Iron
39. Fermentation is a process of decomposition of an
organic compound by ______ . (A) Catalysts (B) Enzymes (C) Carbanions (D) Free Radicals
40. The largest cell in the human body is ______. (A) Nerve cell (B) Muscle cell (C) Liver cell (D) Kidney cell
41. The presence of air cavities is an adaptation of ______. (A) Desert plants (B) Trees (C) Water plants (D) Mesophytes
42. India's first river multimodal terminal has been
constructed at ______. (A) Varanasi (B) Sahibganj (C) Pune (D) Dispur
43. Which of the following incident led to the withdrawal of
Non-Cooperation movement by Mahatma Gandhi? (A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (B) Chauri-Chaura Incident (C) Komagata Maru Incident (D) Formation of Swaraj Party
44. Kamakhya Temple is situated in ______. (A) Puri (B) Dehradun (C) Guwahati (D) Mahabalipuram
45. Sariska Tiger Reserve is situated in ______. (A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Odisha
46. Yudh Abhyas is a joint military exercise between
______. (A) India–France (B) India–USA (C) India–Russia (D) India–South Korea
47. GIFTAM is an international financing organisation for
fight against which of the following diseases? (A) AIDS (B) Tuberculosis (C) Malaria (D) All options are correct
48. India's longest electrified rail tunnel is in ______. (A) Telangana (B) Jammu and Kashmir (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Arunachal Pradesh
49. World's highest operating weather station is located at
______. (A) Tibetan Plateau (B) Mount Everest (C) Mount Kanchenjunga (D) Mount K2
50. World Day against Child Labour is observed on
______. (A) 12 July (B) 21 July (C) 21 June (D) 12 June
Elementary Mathematics
0.432 ?
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.012 (C) 0.0012 (D) 1.2
52. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to 600 in
4 years and 650 in 6 years. What is the rate of interest per annum?
(A) 10% (B) 5% (C) 12% (D) 15%
53. What is the value of 27×4 13×6
25 ÷ 5×2
(A) 30 (B) 10 (C) 3 (D) 6
54. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the
ratio of 3 : 7 : 9 : 13 respectively. If the share of B is 9180 more than the share of A, then what is the total amount of money of A and C together?
(A) 27540 (B) 26560 (C) 26680 (D) 24740
55. A shopkeeper sells his goods at 15% discount. The
marked price of an article whose selling price is 629,
is ______. (A) 740 (B) 704 (C) 700 (D) 614
56. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/hr through a pipe of
diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long, 44 m wide. What is the time taken (in hours) for the rise in the level of water in the tank to be 7 cm?
(A) 2 (B) 1
2 2
57. If 1 out of every 50 people who play a certain games
win a prize, what percent of people lose? (A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 99% (D) 98%
58. If the expression 2x2 + 14x – 15 is divided by (x – 4),
then what is the remainder? (A) 65 (B) 0 (C) 73 (D) 45
59. A contractor took a contract for building 12 kilometre
road in 15 days and employed 100 labours on the work. After 9 days he found that only 5 kilometre road had been constructed. How many more labours should be employed to ensure that the work may be completed with in the given time?
(A) 120 (B) 90 (C) 110 (D) 100
60. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 144°. What is
the number of sides in the polygon? (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
61. ABC is an equilateral triangle and O is its circumcentre,
then the AOC is ______.
(A) 100° (B) 110° (C) 120° (D) 130°
62. If a = 999, b = 997, c = 996, then find a2 + b2 + c2 – ab –
bc – ca. (A) 14 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 7
63. When the polynomial (6x4 + 8x3 + 17x2 + 21x + 7) is
divided by (3x2 + 4x + 1), the remainder is (ax + b). What is the value of a and b?
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(A) a = 1, b = 2 (B) a = 1, b = –2 (C) a = 2, b = 1 (D) a = – 1, b = –2
64. A man invests half his capital at the rate of 10% per
annum, one-third at 9% and the rest at 12% per annum. The average rate of interest per annum which he gets, is ______.
(A) 9% (B) 10% (C) 10.5% (D) 12%
65. After two successive discounts of 20% and 35%, an
article is sold for 50700. What is the marked price of the article?
(A) 92500 (B) 98500 (C) 97500 (D) 94000
66. The value of 1 692
+ 999 ×99 7 693
(A) 1 (B) 99000 (C) 99800 (D) 99900
67. A tradesman sold an article at a loss of 20%. If the
selling price had been increased by 100, there would have been a gain of 5%. What is the cost price of the article (in )?
(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 400 (D) 500
68. The average age of a husband and his wife was 27
years when the child was born, the average age of the husband, the wife and a new-born child is 21 years now. What is the present age of the child?
(A) 4 years (B) 3 years (C) 2 years (D) 1 year
69. A train running at a speed of 84 km/hr passes a man
walking in opposite direction at the speed of 6 km/hr in 4 seconds. What is the length (in metres) of train?
(A) 150 (B) 120 (C) 100 (D) 90
70. If the parallel sides of a trapezium are 8 cm and 4 cm,
M and N are the mid points of the diagonals of the trapezium, then what is the length (in cm) of MN?
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 1 (D) 2
71. A triangle with three equal sides has its area equal to
3√3 sq. cm. What is its perimeter?
(A) 6√3 cm (B) 2√3 cm
(C) 5√3 cm (D) 7√3 cm
Directions (72-75): The following bar graph shows the
demand and production of colour T.V. of five different companies for October 1988.
72. If the production of company A becomes equal to that
of company D then what is the percentage shortfall from the demand of company A?
(A) 10% (B) 1
73. What is the ration of companies having more demand
than production to those having more production than demand?
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 3 : 2
74. What is the difference between average demand and
average production of the five companies taken together?
(A) 1400 (B) 280 (C) 400 (D) 138
75. The production of company D is approximately how
many times that of the production of company A? (A) 1.8 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.11
English Language
Directions (76-77): In the following questions four alternatives
are given for the idioms/phrases being underlined. You are required to choose the correct meaning of the idioms/phrases being given.
76. To cross swords (A) To fight (B) To defend (C) To kill (D) To rob
77. To lose one’s head (A) To go mad (B) To become nervous (C) To become confused (D) To lose the balance Directions (78-79): In the following questions, sentences are
given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.
78. Mounting unemployment is the most serious and
______ problem faced by India today. (A) dublous (B) profound (C) unpopular (D) intractable
79. The speaker did not properly use the time as he went
on ______ on one point alone. (A) dilating (B) devoting (C) deliberating (D) diluting Direction (80-81): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
80. One who eats both plants and animals. (A) Omnivorous (B) Omniscient (C) Irresistible (D) Omnipotent
81. Incapable of being seen through. (A) Ductile (B) Opaque (C) Explicit (D) Invisible Directions (82-83): In the following questions, a part of
sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. In
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case no improvement is needed, mark your answer as (D) i.e. “No improvement”.
82. Power got with money is the most craved for today. (A) sought after (B) wished for (C) welcomed for (D) No improvement
83. You are asked to copy this letter word by word. (A) word for word (B) word with word (C) word to word (D) No improvement Directions (84-85): In the following questions, some part of
the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, your answer is (D) i.e. ‘No error’.
84. She called on my office (A)/ but I was (B)/ out of station
on tour. (C)/ No error (D) (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
85. If you do not (A)/ know the meaning of any word, (B)/
please see in the dictionary. (C)/ No error (D) (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D Direction (86-87): Choose the word which is most nearly the
SAME in meaning as the word given below.
86. CAVIL (A) APPRECIATE (B) AMUSE (C) QUIBBLE (D) MUNCH
87. FRIVOLOUS (A) CAPTIOUS (B) WISE (C) PUERILE (D) SPIRITUAL
Direction (88-89): Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word given below.
88. CHAFFING (A) EXPENSIVE (B) ACHIEVING (C) CAPITALISTIC (D) SERIOUS
89. TREMULOUS (A) FEEBLE (B) FRUGAL (C) STABLE (D) VITAL Directions (90-91): In the given question, four words are
given, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
90. (A) INCREDULUOUS (B) INCREDOLOUS (C) ENCREDULUS (D) INCREDULOUS
91. (A) THREASHING (B) THRASHEING (C) THREASHEING (D) THRASHING Directions (92): In the following question, a sentence has
been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.
92. The fire destroyed the whole neighbourhood. (A) The whole neighbourhood is destroyed by the fire. (B) The whole neighbourhood was destroyed by the
fire. (C) The whole neighbourhood was being destroyed by
the fire. (D) The whole neighbourhood is being destroyed by the
fire.
Directions (93-94): The following questions, consists of a set
of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the options.
93. There was no need to P. set a watch, for we had nothing Q. to fear from anybody or R. anything in that vast untenanted plain (A) RQP (B) RPQ (C) QRP (D) PQR
94. This idea, however startling it may at P. first appear, is quite in accordance, as Q. before stated, with the analogy of changes R. now going on in certain regions of the globe (A) RQP (B) PQR (C) RPQ (D) QRP Directions (95): In the following question, a sentence has
been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
95. He said, "May God grant peace to the departed soul!" (A) He wished by God to grant peace to the departed
soul. (B) He wished that God may grant peace to the
departed soul. (C) He prayed that might God grant peace to the
departed soul. (D) He prayed that God would grant peace to the
departed soul. Directions (96-100): The passage given below is followed by
a set of five questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
A knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged. Studying grammar means hardwork: it must be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demands much thought and patience. But, once acquired, it can give a life-time’s pleasure and profit. Its study requires no physical hardship, no special room or expenses. If people spent on their leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year. The author learned it in less than a year. As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no outside encouragement, then any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.
96. Why should we learn grammar? (A) To develop speaking skills (B) To develop writing skills (C) To have a mastery over language (D) To acquire good speaking and writing skills
97. How does the world judge a man’s mind? (A) By his dress (B) By is manners (C) By his appearance (D) By his speech and writing
98. How long would it take to gain mastery over grammar? (A) One year (B) Six months (C) Two years (D) Ten months
99. What is the occupation of the writer? (A) Teacher (B) Soldier (C) Artist (D) Clerk
100. The learning of grammar should be (A) patient, thoughtful and holistic (B) thoughtful, patient and piecemeal (C) holistic, thoughtful and rapid (D) thoughtful, rapid and piecemeal
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Hindi Language
(76-83):
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