test - 11€¦ · test - 11 . topics covered : complete syllabus of xi & xii . instructions :...

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24/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 11

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII

Instructions : (i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. (iii) Dark only one circle for each entry. (iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet. (vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : 1. The mass and volume of a body are 6.237 g and

3.5 cm3, respectively. the density of the material of the body in correct significant figures is

(1) 1.78 g/cm3 (2) 1.782 g/cm3

(3) 1.8 g/cm3 (4) 1.7 g/cm3

2. The magnitude of velocity of a body is given by v = |t – 6| m/s, then average speed of body between 2 s to 6 s will be

(1) 2 m/s (2) 6 m/s

(3) 3.5 m/s (4) 4.5 m/s

3. In the figure, E D C− +

equals

(1) A

(2) B

(3) A−

(4) B−

4. If R and h represents the horizontal range and maximum height respectively of an oblique

projectile, then 2

28R h

h+ represents

(1) Time of flight (2) Maximum horizontal range (3) Maximum height (4) Velocity of projectile at highest point 5. Rohan is running down with some acceleration

on a plank kept on fixed inclined plane as shown in figure. Which of the following cases are possible?

(1) Plank may accelerate up (2) Plank may accelerate down (3) Plank may be at rest (4) All of these

Test-11 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

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6. A ball falls vertically onto a floor, with momentum P, then bounces repeatedly. The coefficient of restitution is ½, the total momentum imparted by the ball to the floor is

(1) 2P (2) 32P

(3) 3P (4) 4P

7. A body is projected vertically up with certain velocity. At point P in its path, the ratio of its potential energy to kinetic energy is 36 : 64. The ratio of velocity of projection to velocity at ‘P’ is

(1) 54

(2) 43

(3) 94

(4) 32

8. The radius of gyration of a body about an axis parallel to axis passing through centre of mass and at a distance 7 cm from centre of mass is

(1) 16 cm (2) 9 cm

(3) 15 cm (4) 25 cm

9. A spherical shell of mass m and radius R is pulled on a horizontal plane by a horizontal force F acting on its centre of mass. If shell is rolling without slipping, then angular acceleration of the spherical shell will be

(1) 32

FmR

(2) 35

FmR

(3) 57

FmR

(4) 52

FmR

10. A uniform rod AB of mass ‘m’ length ‘2a’ is allowed to fall under gravity with AB in horizontal position. When the speed of rod is ‘v’ suddenly the end ‘A’ is fixed. The angular velocity of rod with which it begins to rotate will be

(1) 32va

(2) 53va

(3) 34va

(4) 52va

11. The amplitude of vibration of particle is given by

02m

aa

a b c=

ω − ω + where a0, a, b and c are

positive. The condition for single resonant frequency will be

(1) b2 > 4ac (2) b2 < 4ab

(3) b2 = 4ac (4) Both (2) and (3)

12. A particle performing SHM with frequency 10 Hz and amplitude 5 cm is initially in left extreme position. The equation of its displacement will be (x is in metre)

(1) 30.05sin 202π = π +

x t

(2) 0.05sin 202

x t π = π +

(3) ( )0.05sin 10x t= π

(4) ( )0.05sin 20x t= π + π

13. The gravitational field at some point in space is

3 4 N/ kg.g i j= +

The force exerted on a 2 kg mass placed at a point is

(1) 10 N, 53° with x-axis (2) 10 N, 37° with x-axis (3) 7 N, 53° with x-axis (4) 7 N, 37° with x-axis 14. A wire having a linear mass density 5.0 × 10–3

kg/m is stretched between two rigid supports with tension of 450 N. The wire resonates at frequency 400 Hz. The next higher frequency at which the wire resonates is 500 Hz. The length of the wire will be

(1) 1 m (2) 4 m (3) 4.5 m (4) 1.5 m 15. Which of the following is correct. (1) Doppler effect in sound and light is symmetric (2) Doppler effect in sound and light is

asymmetric (3) Doppler effect in sound is symmetric and in

light is asymmetric (4) Doppler effect in sound is asymmetric and in

light is symmetric 16. At t = 0, a transverse wave pulse travelling along

positive x-direction with speed 3 m/s in a string

described by the function 29yx

= given that

0x ≠ . Transverse velocity of particle at x = 3 m and t = 3 s will be

(1) 1 m/s4

− (2) 1 m/s4

(3) 1 m/s2

− (4) 1 m/s2

Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)

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17. Which of the following phenomenon gives evidence of the molecular motion?

(1) Brownian motion (2) Diffusion

(3) Evaporation (4) All of these

18. Volume versus temperature graph of two mole of helium gas is as shown in figure. The ratio of change in internal energy and the work done by the gas in process 1-2 is

(1) 52

(2) 32

(3) 72

(4) 73

19. The efficiency of the reversible heat engine is rη

and that of irreversible heat engine is .Iη Which

of the following is correct?

(1) 1and 1r iη < η > (2) r iη < η

(3) 1and 1r iη > η < (4) r iη > η

20. Temperature of a body θ is slightly more than the temperature of the surrounding 0θ , its rate of

cooling (R) versus temperature of body ( θ ) is plotted, its shape would be (as per Newton’s law of cooling)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

21. The specific heat of substance varies with temperature (T) as S = 0.20 + 1.4T cal/gm°C. Heat required to raise the temperature of 2 gm of the substance from 5°C to 25°C is (T is in °C)

(1) 848 cal (2) 424 cal

(3) 336 cal (4) 672 cal

22. Expansion of liquid on heating is different from that solids, since expansion of liquid is

(1) More than solids because molecular spacing in them is less

(2) More than solids because molecular spacing in them is more

(3) Less than solid because molecular spacing in them is more

(4) Less than solids because molecular spacing in them is less

23. A body of mass 25 g is under water at a depth of 50 cm. If the specific gravity of material of body is 5, the work necessary to lift the body slowly to the surface is (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 980 × 105 erg (2) 9.8 × 105 erg

(3) 980 × 106 erg (4) 98 × 105 erg

24. Charge Q is distributed on two metallic spheres having radii R and 3R such that both spheres have equal charge density then charge on smaller sphere is

(1) 10Q (2)

9Q

(3) 910Q (4) 10

11Q

25. Charge is distributed non-uniformly in a volume of solid insulating sphere of radius ‘a’ such that volume charge density ( ρ ) varies with distance

from the centre (r) as ρ (r) = Cr (r ≤ a, and C is constant). Magnitude of electric field strength outside the sphere at a distance ‘r’ from centre will be

(1) 5

205ε

Car

(2) 4

205

Carε

(3) 4

204

Carε

(4) 5

204ε

Car


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26. There are four identical metal plates each of area A. The plates are placed at equal distance ‘d’

successively as shown in figure. If 0 2ε

= µA

Fd

and source of emf 10 V is connected between x and y, then charge on plate x will be

(1) 30 C+ µ (2) 10 C+ µ

(3) 20 C+ µ (4) 20 C− µ

27. The current flowing in the given circuit is 0.2 A. The potential difference between the points A and B will be

(1) 0.4 V (2) 2 V

(3) 0.2 V (4) 1 V

28. Current I is carried in a wire of length L. If the wire is turned into a circular coil. The maximum magnitude of torque acting on it, when placed in a given uniform magnetic field B, will be

(1) 2

2LiB (2)

2

2Li B

(3) 2

4πL iB (4)

2

4πLi B

29. The relation between voltage sensitivity vσ and

the current sensitivity iσ of a moving coil galvanometer is (Given G is the resistance of the galvanometer)

(1) v iGσ = σ (2) iv G

σσ =

(3) v i Gσ σ = (4) 1v i G

σ σ =

30. If a coil of 50 turns area 5.0 cm2 is suddenly removed from magnetic field. It is observed that charge of 5 × 10–4 C flows into the coil. If the resistance of the coil is 100 Ω , the magnetic flux density in Wb/m2 is

(1) 1 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 4

31. A transformer is used to light 150 W, 30 V lamp from a 240 V mains. The current in the main cable is 0.8 ampere. The efficiency of the transformer is nearly

(1) 78% (2) 48%

(3) 88% (4) 92%

32. In the circuit shown, there is a box containing a resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor of capacitance C connected in series to an alternating source of angular frequency 4 rad/s.

Box has power factor 13

and the circuit has

overall power factor 1. The impedance of the box is

(1) 34 2C

(2) 14C

(3) 14 2C

(4) 34 2C

33. Let P and E denotes the linear momentum and energy of photon. If the wavelength is decreased

(1) Both P and E decrease

(2) Both P and E increase

(3) P increase and E decrease

(4) P decrease and E increase

34. The number of photons emitted per second by 60 W source of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å is

(1) 1.5 × 1020 (2) 1.5 × 10–18

(3) 3.5 × 1020 (4) 3.5 × 10–18

35. The ratio of magnetic dipole moment to angular momentum in a hydrogen like atom is

(1) em

(2) 4em

(3) 3em

(4) 2em


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36. A photon of energy 70 eV collides with He+ ion. Due to this collision, He+-atom gets ionized. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is

(1) 13.6 eV (2) 15.6 eV

(3) 27.2 eV (4) 31.2 eV

37. The energy required to split 168O nucleus into

four α-particles is (The mass of α-particle is 4.002603 U and that of oxygen is 15.994915 U)

(1) 14.43 MeV (2) 6.53 MeV

(3) 10.2 MeV (4) 18.4 MeV

38. A certain substance decays to th1

64of its initial

activity in 24 days. The half-life of the substance will be

(1) 6 days (2) 4 days

(3) 3 days (4) 2 days

39. In a moderately doped P-type semiconductor, the fermi energy level lies

(1) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the conduction band

(2) In the forbidden energy gap nearer to the valence band

(3) In the middle of forbidden energy gap

(4) Outside the forbidden energy gap

40. 4 ideal diodes are connected as shown in circuit. The current through 20 Ω resistor will be

(1) 0.2 A

(2) 0.3 A

(3) 0.5 A

(4) Zero

41. The combination of the gate shown below produces

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate (3) NOR gate (4) OR gate 42. A ray of light passes normally through a slab

( 1.5)µ = of thickness 50 mm. If speed of light in vacuum be 3 × 108 m/s, then time taken by the ray to cross the slab will be

(1) 250 ps (2) 5 ps (3) 250 ns (4) 5 ns 43. A diverging lens of focal length 20 cm having

refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 3. The focal length and nature of the lens in liquid is

(1) 20 cm divergent (2) 20 cm convergent (3) 10 cm divergent (4) 10 cm convergent 44. The wavelength of light used in two young’s

double slit experiments are 400 nm and 500 nm. If the fringe width are equal when the screen are placed at 1.2 m and 1.6 m respectively. The ratio of the distance between the slits is

(1) 45

(2) 34

(3) 12

(4) 35

45. Two polaroid sheets are placed one over the other with their axes inclined to each other at an angle θ. If only 12.5% of intensity of unpolarised light incident on the first sheet emerges out from the second sheet, the value of θ is

(1) 45° (2) 90° (3) 30° (4) 60°

CHEMISTRY46. Na2SO4.xH2O on heating loses 55.9% of its

weight, value of x is.

(1) 2 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 10

47. 1 L of an unknown gas at NTP weighs 1.97g, formula of the gas may be

(1) CO (2) CO2

(3) NO (4) SO2


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48. Number of radial nodes for 3d orbital is

(1) 3 (2) Zero

(3) 2 (4) 1

49. Which of the following transitions will emit photon with minimum wavelength?

(1) n4 → n5 (2) n4 → n2

(3) n4 → n1 (4) n2 → n1

50. For a gas at 273 K and 20 atm, molar volume is 20 percent greater than that for an ideal gas under similar conditions. The correct statement about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is

(1) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

(2) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

(3) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant

(4) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant

51. A certain gas takes four times as long to effuse out as helium under similar conditions. The molecular mass of gas will be

(1) 8

(2) 16

(3) 32

(4) 64

52. At 298 K, a gas expands 0.1 L to 0.4 L against a constant pressure of 20 atm. The work done during the process is (given: 1 L atm = 100 J)

(1) –600 J (2) +600 J

(3) –400 J (4) –800 J

53. Two moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

(1) 2 R cal (2) R cal

(3) 10 R cal (4) Zero

54. Molecule with sp3d hybridised central atom is

(1) XeOF2 (2) XeF2

(3) PCl5 (4) All of these

55. Select the molecule/ion having highest bond order among the following

(1) O2 (2) 2O+

(3) 2O− (4) 22O −

56. Which of the following pairs of solution in not an acidic buffer?

(1) CH3COOH and CH3COONa

(2) H3PO4 and NaH2PO4

(3) HNO3 and KNO3

(4) HCN and NaCN

57. 5 3 2PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g) ; H x kcal+ ∆ = +

above reaction is favoured in forward direction by

(1) Addition of PCl3(g)

(2) Removal of Cl2(g)

(3) Increasing the temperature

(4) Both (2) and (3)

58. Oxidation states of N in NH4NO3 are

(1) 0, 0 (2) +3, –3

(3) –3, +5 (4) +3, +5

59. Ion which cannot be oxidized by KMnO4?

(1) 23SO − (2) 2

2 3S O −

(3) 3NO− (4) 2S −

60.

Compound ‘D’ is

(1) OCl2 (2) Ca(OH)2

(3) CaOCl2 (4) CaHCO3

61. Correct order of mobility of the alkali metal ions in water is

(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+

(2) Rb+ > K+ > Na+

(3) Na+ > Rb+ > K+

(4) K+ > Na+ > Rb+

62. Number of B – O – B bonds is a borax molecule is

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 2 (4) 4

63. NaBH4 + I2 → (X) compound of boron + other products. (X) is

(1) H3BO3 (2) BI3

(3) [BI4]– (4) B2H6


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64. Most common fullerene C60 contains

(1) 20 Hexagonal and 15 pentagonal rings




65. IUAPC name of is

(1) 1–Methoxy propane

(2) Methoxy isopropane

(3) Isopropoxy methane

(4) 2–Methoxy propane

66. During nitrogen estimation of an organic compound by kjeldehl’s method, the ammonia evolved by 0.80 g of on organic compound was neutralised by 10 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. Percentage of nitrogen in compound is

(1) 17.5 (2) 35

(3) 56 (4) 42

67. Least stable carbocation is

(1) 3CH⊕

(2) 3 3CH CH CH⊕

− −

(3) 3CH C O⊕

− = (4) 2CH CH⊕

=

68. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by

(1) But–2–ene (2) Propene

(3) But–1–ene (4) Both (2) and (3)

69. Select the compound which is non-aromatic among the following

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

70. 2

2Hg , H /H O

60 C MajorPh C CH (X),

+ +

°− ≡ → compound (X) is

(1) An alkene (2) An aldehyde

(3) A ketone (4) An alcohol

71. On monochlorination of 2–Methyl butane, the total number of optically active compounds formed is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

72. The compound added to prevent chloroform to get oxidized to form phosgene gas is

(1) Acetone (2) Methyl alcohol

(3) Aniline (4) Ethyl alcohol

73. Most reactive alcohol towards sodium metal is

(1) CH3OH (2) (CH3)2CHOH

(3) (CH3)3COH (4) CH3CH2CH2OH

74. Which of the following is/are the common components of classical smog?

(1) SO2 (2) NO2

(3) PAN (4) All of these

75. Chemical which is the main cause of ozone layer depletion, is

(1) NO2 (2) NO

(3) CFCs (4) H2O2

76. Positive Fehling test is not given by

(1) H–CHO (2) CH3CHO

(3) C6H5CHO (4) Glucose

77. 3 2NH / Br /NaOH3CH COOH X Y∆→ →

(1) C2H5Br (2) CH3Br

(3) CH3OH (4) CH3NH2

78. 3 2 2(CH COO) Ca (HCOO) Ca ∆+ → Product(s)

Product(s) formed is/are

(1) CH3CHO (2) H–CHO

(3) 3 3

OII

CH C CH− − (4) All of these

79. 2H /H OCN

3

O||

CH – C – H HCN (X) (Y)+−

+ → →

compound (Y) is

(1) Acetic acid (2) Oxalic acid

(3) Lactic acid (4) Acetamide

80.

(1) CH3OH (2) HCOO–Na

+

(3) CH3CH2OH (4) C2H6


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81. Carbylamine test is not given by (1) CH3 – NH – CH3 (2) CH3NH2

(3) C6H5 – NH2 (4) C2H5NH2

82. . Select the

appropriate reagent (X) in the above reaction (1) H2O2 (2) Na in liquid NH3 (3) Pd–BaSO4 (4) DIBAL–H 83. Name of the polymer manufactured from

caprolactam is (1) Nylon–2–nylon–6 (2) Nylon–6 (3) Nylon–6, 6 (4) Dacron 84. Glucose and fructose are (1) Position isomers (2) Chain isomers (3) Functional group isomers (4) Metamers 85. Magnetic moment 3.87 BM is given by which of

the following ions? (1) Cr3+ (2) Mn2+ (3) Sc3+ (4) Zn2+ 86. If initial concentration of the reactant is doubled

then half life of first order reaction is (1) Not affected (2) Halved (3) Doubled (4) Tripled

87. Highest and lowest flocculation power among 2 3 4

4 6Cl , S , PO and [Fe(CN) ]− − − − for a positive charge sol is

(1) 34Cl , PO− − (2) 4

6[Fe(CN) ] , Cl− −

(3) 3 24PO , S− − (4) 2 3

4S , PO− −

88. Consider the given standard electrode potentials

2Zn /Zn Ag /AgE 0.726 V, E 0.8 V+ +

° °= − = +

2 2Cu /Cu Fe /FeE 0.345 V, E 0.44 V+ +

° °= + = −

Which among the following has highest oxidising power?

(1) Ag+ (2) Fe2+

(3) Zn2+ (4) Cu2+

89. In Li2O, having antifluorite structure, the coordination number for Li+ ion and O2– ion are respectively

(1) 4 and 8 (2) 3 and 6

(3) 6 and 6 (4) 4 and 4

90. Morphine is an example of

(1) Narcotic analgesics

(2) Non–narcotic analgesics

(3) Tranquilizers

(4) Antacids

BOTANY91. Which of the given part of oxysome is a

peripheral membrane protein and contains the site for ATP synthesis?

(1) Headpiece (2) Base (3) Stalk (4) F0 - part 92. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t isobrachial

chromosome. (1) They are metacentric chromosome (2) The centromere is present at the centre (3) During anaphase, these chromosome are

divided into two equal arms (4) They appear L – shaped during anaphase 93. A bacterium is multiplying in a cup and takes 36

minutes to fill one-fourth of the cup with its population. Calculate the time by which cup will be completely filled with bacterial population.

[Hint: Generation time = 1 minute]

(1) 108 minutes (2) 48 minutes

(3) 38 minutes (4) 60 minutes

94. Crossing-over is seen in

(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene

(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene

95. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(i) Amoeba – Fission

(ii) Filamentous algae – Fragmentation

(iii) Planaria – Budding

(iv) Parrot – True regeneration

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) Both (i) and (iii)

(3) Only (ii) (4) Both (iii) and (iv)


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96. The basic and lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is

(1) Kingdom (2) Species

(3) Genus (4) Order

97. Which of the given is smallest living organism and can survive without oxygen?

(1) Mycoplasma (2) Trypanosoma

(3) Paramecium (4) Euglena

98. The parasitic fungus on mustard plant is

(1) Albugo (2) Ustilago

(3) Puccinia (4) Colletotrichum

99. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical angiosperm is

(1) n (2) 2n

(3) 3n (4) 4n

100. Which of the given organisms reproduce asexually by non-motile spores?

(1) Laminaria (2) Polysiphonia

(3) Chara (4) Volvox

101. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family Liliaceae?

(1) Aloe (2) Belladona

(3) Ashwagandha (4) Muliathi

102. In monocotyledonous seed, the plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheath which are called

and respectively.

(1) A – Coleorhiza, B – Coleoptile

(2) A – Coleoptile, B – Coleorhiza

(3) A – Coleorhiza, B – Epiblast

(4) A – Coleoptile, B – pericarp

103. Which of the given tissues give rise to lateral roots in monocot root?

(1) Pericycle (2) Vascular bundles

(3) Cambium (4) Pith

104. Read the statements (A – B) and select the correct option.

Statement A: Bulliform cells are absent in dicot leaf.

Statement B: The spring wood is lighter in colour and has a lower density.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct

(3) Both A and B are correct

(4) Both A and B are incorrect.

105. Select the correct movement of water in given presentation of cells.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

106. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.

(A) Simple diffusion is carried out by special membrane proteins.

(B) Facilitated diffusion is highly selective in nature.

(C) Facilitated diffusion is ATP dependent.

(D) Active transport uses energy and pump to transport molecules against concentration gradient.

A B C D

(1) T T T T

(2) F T F T

(3) T F T T

(4) F T T F

107. Which of the given group of elements deficiency delay flowering?

(1) N, S, Mo (2) Na, K, S

(3) Mg, S, Si (4) Na, K, Mg

108. How many molecules of ATP are required to fix one molecule of nitrogen during biological N2 fixation?

(1) 8 (2) 16

(3) 32 (4) 12


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109. Primary photosynthetic pigment in green plants is/are

(1) Carotene (2) Xanthophylls

(3) Chlorophyll a (4) Chlorophyll b

110. Which of the given is primary CO2 acceptor in C4-plants?

(1) PEP (2) OAA

(3) PGA (4) RuBP

111. Net consumption of ATP for every CO2 molecule fixed in C4 plants is

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 5 (4) 6

112. Which of the given steps is first step of glycolysis and catalysed by hexokinase?

(1) Glucose → Glucose - 6 - phosphate

(2) Glucose - 6 - phosphate

→ Fructose - 6 - phosphate

(3) Fructose - 6 - phosphate

→ Fructose - 1, 6 - bisphosphate

(4) 2 – phosphoglycerate

→ phosphoenolpyruvate

113. Which of the given has maximum value of respiratory quotient under aerobic respiration?

(1) Malic acid (2) Oxalic acid

(3) Glucose (4) Tripalmitin

114. Which of the given pair of hormones shows their synergistic effect on cell division?

(1) I A A and Cytokinin

(2) Ethylene and ABA

(3) I A A and GA3

(4) Ethylene and cytokinin

115. How many of the plants listed in the box are LDPs?

Wheat, Sugarbeet, Radish, Soyabean, Tobacco, Cucumber

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

116. Which of the given organisms have maximum life-span?

(1) Elephant (2) Parrot

(3) Banyan tree (4) Cow

117. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. plants their mode of reproduction.

(1) Rhizome – Banana

(2) Offset – Eichhornia

(3) Conidia – Chlamydomonas

(4) Bulbil – Oxalis

118. Organic material, resistant to physical and biological decomposition and forms the outer layer of pollen is

(1) Sporopollenin (2) Callose

(3) α-cellulosic fibres (4) Pectin

119. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 120 seeds in an angiospermic plant?

(1) 30 (2) 120

(3) 150 (4) 60

120. How many maximum types of gametes are formed if genotype of a plant is TtRr?

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 1

121. A haemophilic male marries a homozygous normal female. What is the percentage of their son to become hemophilic?

(1) 0% (2) 50%

(3) 75% (4) 25%

122. Select the incorrect match.

(1) zw – zz type – Birds

(2) xx – xo type – Drosophila

(3) zo – zz type – Butterflies

(4) xx – xy type – Human

123. 5′ – C A T A G G C T T – 3′ is the one strand of DNA. What will be the most appropriate sequence for its another strand of DNA?

(1) 5′ – G T A T C C G A A – 3′

(2) 3′ – A A G C C T A T G – 5′

(3) 5′ – A A G C C T A T G – 3′

(4) 3′ – G T A T C C G A A – 5′

124. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was developed by

(1) T.H Morgan (2) Altmann

(3) Alec Jeffrey (4) Jacob and Monod


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125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t humus.

(1) Essential for nutritional cycling

(2) Is light coloured amorphous substance

(3) Is slightly acidic, colloidal and acts as reservoir of nutrients

(4) Is highly resistant to microbial action

126. Lice on human is an example of

(1) Ectoparasitism

(2) Endoparasitism

(3) Brood parasitism

(4) Mutualism

127. The productivity of oceans is billion tons and for terrestrial ecosystem is billion tons.

(1) A – 155, B – 115

(2) A – 15, B – 55

(3) A –55, B – 115

(4) A –55, B –15

128.

With reference to above schematic representation of energy flow in an ecosystem, select the P, Q and R.

P Q R

(1) Gases NPP GPP

(2) Water vapours

GPP NPP

(3) Dust particle

NPP GPP

(4) Clouds Secondary productivity

Primary productivity

129. Match column-I with column-II w.r.t sacred groves and their locations.

Column-I Column-II (A) Khasi and Jaintia Hills(i) Rajasthan

(B) Aravali Hills (ii) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Western Ghat (iii) Meghalaya (D) Sarguja (iv) Karnataka

A B C D

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

130. How many biosphere reserves are in India?

(1) 14 (2) 41

(3) 98 (4) 25

131. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is reported to be caused by

(1) CO (2) SO2

(3) NO2 (4) Hydrocarbons

132. Noise becomes unbearable at

(1) 140 dB (2) 25 dB

(3) 30 – 60 dB (4) 60 – 80 dB

133. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of bacterium

(1) Penicillium roquefortii

(2) Penicillium cambertii

(3) Lactobacillus

(4) Propionibacterium sharmanii

134. ‘Pusa swarnim’ developed by hybridisation and resistant against white rust, is a variety of

(1) Wheat (2) Brassica

(3) Cauliflower (4) Cowpea

135. From 1960 to 2000, wheat production increased from A million tonnes to B million tonnes.

(1) A – 11, B – 75

(2) A – 21, B – 75

(3) A – 11, B – 95

(4) A – 11, B – 85


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ZOOLOGY 136. Unit of natural selection is ______ and unit of

evolution is ______

Choose the option which fills blanks correctly respectively

(1) Individual, population

(2) Population, individual

(3) Species, genera

(4) Genera, species

137. Which one among the following has maximum life span?

(1) Parrot

(2) Crow

(3) Indian elephant

(4) Horse

138. Following flow chart represents hormonal control of testis.

Choose option which correctly represents

A, B, C and D.

A B C D

(1) Gonad-otropin

FSH Cells of Sertoli

Androgen

(2) GHRH FSH Cells of Leydig

Prolactin

(3) GnRH LH Androgen Cells of Sertoli

(4) GnRH LH Cells of Sertoli

Testos-terone

139. Read statements A and B carefully and choose the correct option.

A : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation to the next generation.

B : For normal fertility in humans at least 40% of total sperms in each ejaculate must have normal shape and size and at least 60% of them must show vigorous motility

(1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct 140. Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD? (1) Lippe’s loop (2) Multiload - 375 (3) LNG - 20 (4) Progestasert 141. Choose the correct match w.r.t. disease and its

causative agent. (1) Genital herpes – Human papilloma virus (2) Genital warts – Herpes simplex virus (3) Trichomoniasis – Chlamydia trachomatis (4) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum 142. The process by which organisms with same

evolutionary history evolve different phenotypic adaptations in response to different environmental challenges is called

(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Adaptive convergence (4) Saltation 143. Choose correct option to complete the analogy

between placental mammals and Australian marsupials

Anteater : Numbat : : Lemur : _________ (1) Bobcat (2) Marsupial mole (3) Flying phalanger (4) Spotted cuscus 144. Select incorrect statement w.r.t Homo habilis (1) They were the first human like beings, the

hominids (2) The brain capacities were between

650 – 800cc (3) They probably did not eat meat (4) They used hides to protect their body and

buried their dead


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145. Who finally dismissed the theory of spontaneous generation?

(1) S.L Miller

(2) A.I Oparin

(3) Louis Pasteur

(4) Ernst von Baer

146. Which gas was probably absent in free form in early atmosphere?

(1) CH4

(2) O2

(3) NH3

(4) CO2

147. Choose a disease which is not transmitted from one person to another

(1) Tuberculosis

(2) Ringworm

(3) Hepatitis – B

(4) Cancer

148. Match Column - A with Column - B and select the option having correct match.

Column - A Column - B

(i) Physical barriers (a) Skin & mucous membrane

(ii) Physiological barriers (b) NK cells and neutrophils

(iii) Cytokine barriers (c) Acid in stomach and tears in eye

(iv) Cellular barriers (d) Interferons

(1) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv - d

(2) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv - b

(3) i – a, ii – d, iii – c, iv - b

(4) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv - a

149. H2 L2 represents –

(1) Heavy chains and light chains in antibody

(2) Heavy meromyosin and light meromyosin

(3) Higher and lower parts of antibody

(4) Heavy domains and light domains within antigens

150. Read following statements w.r.t AIDS and select the correct option.

Statement A – AIDS is an infectious disease caused by a retrovirus that contains enzyme reverse transcriptase for synthesis of host DNA.

Statement B – HIV infected macrophages can survive while the virus replicates and is released.

(1) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct.

(2) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect.

(3) Only statement ‘A’ is correct.

(4) Only statement ‘B’ is correct.

151. Choose option which is matched correctly w.r.t drugs, their receptors and effect

Drugs Receptors Effect

(1) Morphine CNS Sedative

(2) Charas Cardiovascular system

Analgesic

(3) Cocaine Gastrointestinal tract

Depressant

(4) Nicotine CNS Hallucinogen

152. Choose incorrect statement

(1) Outbreeding can involve mating of animals within the same breed with no common ancestors or within different breeds.

(2) A single outcross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression.

(3) Outcrossing is necessary to evolve pure line in any animal.

(4) Breeding between two different species is called interspecific hybridisation.

153. Superovulation in multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology is possible with the help of certain hormones having effect similar to

(1) FSH

(2) LH

(3) Progesterone

(4) Oestrogen


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154. Insertional inactivation in pUC8 plasmid is done at site of lac-Z gene coding for enzyme β-galactosidase. The colonies of recombinant bacteria containing this pUC8 plasmid are grown onto agar medium containing ampicillin and X-gal. The colonies appeared

(1) White in colour

(2) Blue in colour

(3) Orange in colour

(4) Red in colour

155. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t observing DNA fragments separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?

(1) DNA can be seen in visible light after staining with any stain

(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light

(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light

(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen only after exposure to UV light

156. SCID is caused by defect in gene coding for

(1) Adenosine deaminase

(2) DNA polymerase

(3) Carboxypeptidase

(4) Restriction endonuclease

157. Which product of genetic engineering is useful in dissolving fibrin of blood clot?

(1) tPA

(2) Human insulin

(3) α interferon

(4) Erythropoietin

158. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t blood

(1) Blood is a fluid connective tissue

(2) It consists of formed elements and plasma

(3) Blood cells and plasma both are responsible for transportation of O2 and CO2

(4) Cells of blood form matrix and structural proteins like other connective tissues

159. Select the mismatched option w.r.t tissue and their occurrence in various parts of the body

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

– Renal capsule and PCT of nephron

(2) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

– Trachea and large bronchi

(3) White fibrous connective tissue

– Sclera of eye and periosteum of bones

(4) Transitional epithelium

– Ureters and inner lining of urinary bladder

160. If double stranded DNA molecule of a eukaryotic cell contains 20% guanine, the percentage of other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are

(1) C 20%, A 30%, T 30%

(2) C 30%, A 25%, T 25%

(3) C 40%, A 20%, T 20%

(4) C 23%, A 27%, T 30%

161. A graph is plotted between potential energy at y-axis and progression of the structural transformation of substrate into product on x-axis. Which of the following describe the given graph correctly?

(1) ‘B’ represents activation energy without

enzyme

(2) ‘A’ represents activation energy with enzyme

(3) Reaction is endothermic

(4) Reaction is exothermic

162. Vital capacity of lungs is correctly represented as

(1) TV + IRV + ERV (2) TV + IRV + RV

(3) TV + ERV (4) IRV + ERV


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163. In chronic smokers, the alveoli of lungs are enlarged and damaged which reduces total surface area for exchange of respiratory gases. This disease is called

(1) Asthma

(2) Atelectasis

(3) Bronchitis

(4) Emphysema

164. Amino acids are absorbed by intestinal mucosa of small intestine by all of the following processes except

(1) Simple diffusion

(2) Facilitated diffusion

(3) Active transport

(4) Osmosis

165. In a patient, the parietal cells of gastric mucosa are damaged. Which of the following is not likely to occur?

(1) Iron deficiency anaemia

(2) Megaloblastic anaemia

(3) Chances of peptic ulcer

(4) Impaired protein digestion in stomach

166. Which of the following is not an organ of lymphatic system?

(1) Lymph nodes

(2) Spleen

(3) Thymus

(4) Kidney

167. Heart attack is also known as

(1) Heart block

(2) Myocardial infarction

(3) Cardiac arrest

(4) Heart failure

168. In which of the following phylum are all animals exclusively marine?

(1) Chordata

(2) Mollusca

(3) Porifera

(4) Echinodermata

169. Read statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ carefully and choose the correct option.

Statement A : All eucoelomates are triploblastic but all triploblastic animals are not eucoelomates.

Statement B : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

(1) Both A and B are incorrect

(2) Both A and B are correct

(3) Only A is correct

(4) Only B is correct

170. Diagrammatic view of ear is given in following figure.

Choose option which represents A and B correctly.

(1) ‘A’ is eustachian tube and ‘B’ is cochlear nerve

(2) ‘A’ is external auditory meatus and ‘B’ is cochlear nerve

(3) ‘A’ is external auditory meatus and ‘B’ is vestibular nerve

(4) ‘A’ is eustachian tube and ‘B’ is external auditory meatus

171. Select the incorrect statement among following

(1) Brain stem does not include hypothalamus

(2) Breathing centre is not located in medulla oblongata

(3) Cerebral cortex has motor areas to regulate movement of voluntary muscles

(4) Cerebral aqueduct occurs as a narrow passage in midbrain


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172. Aquatic animals are mostly ammonotelic because

(1) Ammonia helps in checking inflow of water into body.

(2) Excretion of ammonia requires large amount of water which is available to these animals.

(3) Water contains less nitrogen.

(4) They all have protonephric kidney.

173. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

(1) Distal convoluted tubule

– Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries

(2) Afferent arteriole

– Carries blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein

(3) Podocytes – Create slit pores for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule

(4) Henle’s loop

– Maximum reabsorption of major substances from the glomerular filtrate.

174. Intervertebral disc consists of a shock absorber skeletal connective tissue known as

(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Elastic cartilage

(3) Fibro cartilage (4) Calcified cartilage

175. Read the following statements carefully

Statement A : Age related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fracture.

Statement B : Its causative factors include deficiency of calcium, vitamin D and imbalance of hormones like calcitonin, PTH and sex steroids.

These above characters are associated with which disease?

(1) Gout (2) Osteoporosis

(3) Arthritis (4) Muscular dystrophy

176. Choose incorrect option w.r.t hormone, chemical nature and function

Hormone Chemical nature

Function

(1) Aldosterone Steroid Salt retention

(2) Prostaglandins Fatty acid derivative

Uterine contraction

(3) Melatonin Amine Regulates biological clock

(4) Parathormone Protein Hypocalcemia

177. Which one of the following hormones does not work through a single definite target organ?

(1) LH (2) GH (3) Glucagon (4) PRL 178. Choose incorrect statement. (1) Cutaneous respiration is found in

earthworm and frog. (2) Both insects and birds have wings for flight

and crop for storage and digestion of food. (3) Polyp and medusa forms are exhibited by

Hydra. (4) Echinoderms are considered advanced non

chordates due to mesodermal endoskeleton, enterocoelom and deuterostomic development.

179. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t locomotory structures?

(1) Nereis – Parapodia (2) Hydra – Tentacles (3) Cockroach – Jointed legs (4) Sponges – Osculum 180. How many structures in the given box are

unpaired and found in a male cockroach?

Labrum, Labium, Mandible, Hypopharynx, Compound eye, Antenna, Spermatheca, Ejaculatory duct, Vagina, Phallomere, Nerve cord, Anus

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 8

test - 11€¦ · test - 11 . topics covered : complete syllabus of xi & xii . instructions :...

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