test booklet no. iz'uif=dk ÿ- a paper-i · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily...

32
Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ questions or questions repeated or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same may please be noted. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk 1. ifj{kkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dks iÚ;kr fygkok- rls p vki.kkal fnys Y;k mŸkjif=ds pk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok- 2. ;k iz'uif=dsr lkB cgqfuoM iz'u vkgsr] ;kiS dh ijh{kkF;k±uk dks.krsgh iUukl iz'u lksMok;ps vkgsr- tj ijh{kkF;kZus iUuklis{kk tkLr iz'u lks Mfoys rj R;kos ˇs l R;kus lks Mfoys ys ifgys iUukl iz 'up riklys tkbZ y- 3. ijh{kk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5 feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vo'; riklwu igkO;kr- (i) iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=ds oj ykoys ys lhy m?kMkos - lhy ulysyh fdaok lhy m?kMysyh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s- (ii) ifgY;k i`"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i`"Bs rls p iz 'uif=ds rhy ,dw .k iz 'uka ph la [;k iMrkˇw u igkoh- i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpk ÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dk lq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zos{kdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljh iz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywu feˇ.kkj ukgh rls p os ˇgh ok<ow u feˇ.kkj ukgh ;kph œi;k fo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh- (iii) ojhyizek.ks loZ iMrkˇwu ifgY;kuarjp iz'uif=dsoj vks -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=ds pk uacj fygkok- 4. izR;sd iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyh vkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ks dkˇk@fuˇk djkok- mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj- 5. ;k iz 'uif=ds rhy iz 'uka ph mŸkjs vks -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=ds rp n'kZ okohr- brj fBdk.kh fyfgys yh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj ukghr- 6. vkr fnys Y;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr- 7. iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh tksMysY;k dks Ú;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos - 8. tj vki.k vks-,e-vkj- oj uewn dsysY;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dksBsgh uko] vklu ÿekad] Qksu uacj fdaok vksˇ[k iVsy v'kh dks.krhgh [kw.k ds ys yh vk<ˇw u vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"ks pk okij fda ok brj xS jekxk± pk voyac dsY;kl fo|kF;kZyk ijh{ksl vik= Bjfo.;kr ;sbZy- 9. ijh{kk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ewˇ vks -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;Zos {kdkadMs ijr dj.k s vko';d vkgs - rFkkih] iz 'uif=dk o vk s -,e-vkj- mŸkjif=ds ph f}rh; izr vkiY;kcjkscj us.;kl fo|kF;k±uk ijokuxh vkgs- 10. Q‰ fuˇÓk fdaok dkˇÓk ckWy isupkp okij djkok- 11. dWyD;qysVj fdaok ykWx Vscy okij.;kl ijokuxh ukgh- 12. pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh- Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ 2. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ Seat No. (In figures as in Admit Card) Seat No. .............................................................. (In words) OMR Sheet No. (To be filled by the Candidate) Paper-I DEC - 00013 A B D A B D A Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ-

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Page 1: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided

on the top of this page.2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions,

out of which the candidate would be required to answer anyfifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attemptingmore than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attemptedby the candidate would be evaluated.

3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you arerequested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions or questions repeated or not in serialorder or any other discrepancy should not beaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedfrom the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samemay please be noted.

(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example : where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any placeother than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put

any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at theend of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it withyou outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowedto carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet onconclusion of examination.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

fo|kF;k±lkBh egŸokP;k lwpuk1. ifj{kkFkh±uh vkiyk vklu ÿekad ;k i`"Bkojhy ojP;k dksiÚ;kr fygkok-

rlsp vki.kkal fnysY;k mŸkjif=dspk ÿekad R;k[kkyh fygkok-2. ;k iz'uif=dsr lkB cgqfuoM iz'u vkgsr] ;kiSdh ijh{kkF;k±uk dks.krsgh

iUukl iz'u lksMok;ps vkgsr- tj ijh{kkF;kZus iUuklis{kk tkLr iz'ulksMfoys rj R;kos sl R;kus lksMfoysys ifgys iUukl iz'up riklys tkbZy-

3. ijh{kk lq: >kY;koj fo|kF;kZyk iz'uif=dk fnyh tkbZy- lq#okrhP;k 5feuhVkae/;s vki.k lnj iz'uif=dk m?kMwu [kkyhy ckch vo'; riklwuigkO;kr-(i) iz'uif=dk m?kM.;klkBh iz'uif=dsoj ykoysys lhy m?kMkos-

lhy ulysyh fdaok lhy m?kMysyh iz'uif=dk fLodk: u;s-(ii) ifgY;k i`"Bkoj uewn dsY;kizek.ks iz'uif=dsph ,dw.k i`"Bs

rlsp iz'uif=dsrhy ,dw.k iz'ukaph la[;k iMrk wu igkoh-i`"Bs deh vlysyh@deh iz'u vlysyh@iz'ukapk pwdhpkÿe vlysyh fdaok brj =qVh vlysyh lnks"k iz'uif=dklq#okrhP;k 5 fefuVkrp i;Zos{kdkyk ijr ns≈u nqljhiz'uif=dk ekxowu ?;koh- R;kuarj iz'uif=dk cnywufeˇ.kkj ukgh rlsp os gh ok<owu feˇ.kkj ukgh ;kph œi;kfo|kF;k±uh uksan ?;koh-

(iii) ojhyizek.ks loZ iMrkˇwu ifgY;kuarjp iz'uif=dsojvks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dspk uacj fygkok-

4. izR;sd iz'uklkBh (A), (B), (C) vkf.k (D) v'kh pkj fodYi mŸkjs fnyhvkgsr- R;krhy ;ksX; mŸkjkpk jdkuk [kkyh n'kZfoY;kizek.ks Bˇdi.ksdkˇk@fuˇk djkok-mnk- % tj (C) gs ;ksX; mŸkj vlsy rj-

5. ;k iz'uif=dsrhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsrp n'kZokohr-brj fBdk.kh fyfgysyh mŸkjs riklyh tk.kkj ukghr-

6. vkr fnysY;k lwpuk dkˇthiwoZd okpkO;kr-7. iz'uif=dsP;k 'ksoVh tksMysY;k dksÚ;k ikukojp dPps dke djkos-8. tj vki.k vks-,e-vkj- oj uewn dsysY;k fBdk.kk O;frjh‰ brj dksBsgh

uko] vklu ÿekad] Qksu uacj fdaok vks [k iVsy v'kh dks.krhgh [kw.kdsysyh vk< wu vkY;kl vFkok vlH; Hkk"kspk okij fdaok brj xSjekxk±pkvoyac dsY;kl fo|kF;kZyk ijh{ksl vik= Bjfo.;kr ;sbZy-

9. ijh{kk laiY;kuarj fo|kF;kZus ew vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dk i;Zos{kdkadMsijr dj.ks vko';d vkgs- rFkkih] iz'uif=dk o vks-,e-vkj- mŸkjif=dsphf}rh; izr vkiY;kcjkscj us.;kl fo|kF;k±uk ijokuxh vkgs-

10. Q‰ fuˇÓk fdaok dkˇÓk ckWy isupkp okij djkok-11. dWyD;qysVj fdaok ykWx Vscy okij.;kl ijokuxh ukgh-12. pqdhP;k mŸkjklkBh xq.k dikr dsyh tk.kkj ukgh-

Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60

Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

2. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

Seat No.

(In figures as in Admit Card)

Seat No. ..............................................................

(In words)

OMR Sheet No.

(To be filled by the Candidate)

Paper-I

DEC - 00013

A B DA B D

ATest Booklet No.

iz'uif=dk ÿ-

Page 2: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

2

DEC - 00013/I—A

Page 3: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

3 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

1. Openbook tests are recommended

mainly because :

(A) they reduce malpractice in

examinations

(B) students need not spend time in

studying for examination

(C) they reduce emphasis on rote

memory

(D) students are relaxed at the time

of examination

2. What is the best use of internet in

teaching ?

(A) For presenting content through

audio-visual media

(B) For providing latest information

(C) For saving time and energy of

a teacher

(D) For making learning inter-

active

1. iqLrd oki:u mŸkjs fyfg.;kP;k pkp.;kaph

f'kQkjl dj.;kps izeq[k dkj.k Eg.kts %

(A) R;kaP;keq s ijh{kkae/khy xSjO;ogkj deh

gksrkr

(B) fo|kF;k±uk ijh{ksP;k r;kjhlkBh osˇ

?kkyokok ykxr ukgh

(C) R;kaP;keq s ;kaf=d Lej.kkojhy Hkj deh

gksrks

(D) ijh{ksP;k os h fo|kFkhZ fuf‹apr vlrkr

2. v/;kiukr varjtkykpk loks ZŸke mi;ksx

dks.krk \

(A) n`d&JkO; ek/;ekrwu vk'k; lknj

dj.;klkBh

(B) vR;k/kqfud ekfgrh iqjfo.;klkBh

(C) f'k{kdkpk os o Je okpfo.;klkBh

(D) v/;;u vkarjfÿ;kRed dj.;klkBh

Paper I

iz'uif=dk I

Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100

Note : (1) This Paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question

carrying Two (2) marks.

(2) Attempt any Fifty (50) questions.

lwpuk % (1) ;k iz'uif=dsr lkB (60) cgqfuoM iz'u fnysys vlwu izR;sd iz'ukyk nksu (2) xq.kvkgsr-

(2) dks.kR;kgh iUukl (50) iz'ukaph mŸkjs fygk-

Page 4: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

4

DEC - 00013/I—A

3. The most recently accepted

paradigm of learning is that a

learner is a :

(A) constructor of knowledge

(B) receiver of knowledge

(C) consumer of knowledge

(D) collector of knowledge

4. The main purpose of including

practical work in curriculum is :

(A) reducing over-emphasis on

theory

(B) developing various skills in

students

(C) helping students score better in

examination

(D) keeping students engaged

throughout the year

3. v/;;ukckcrph lokZr vfydMs Lohdkjysyh

fopkj/kkjk Eg.kts v/;;udrkZ gk %

(A) Kkukpk jpf;rk vkgs

(B) Kkukpk Lohdkjd vkgs

(C) Kkukpk miHkksDrk vkgs

(D) Kkukpk ladyd vkgs

4. vH;klÿekr izkR;f{kd dk;Z lekfo"V

dj.;kpk izeq[k gsrw Eg.kts %

(A) lSºkfUrd Hkkxkojhy vfrfjDr Hkj deh

dj.ks

(B) fo|kF;k±P;k fofo/k dkS'kY;kapk fodkl

dj.ks

(C) fo|kF;k±uk ijh{ksr vf/kd xq.k feˇo.;kr

enr dj.ks

(D) fo|kF;k±uk o"kZHkj xqarowu Bso.ks

Page 5: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

5 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

5. The best way to understand content

is to :

(A) read the content repeatedly

(B) read the content aloud and then

silently

(C) write down the content from

memory

(D) prepare an appropriate

summary of the content

6. Which of the following is not an

example of intrinsic motivation ?

(A) Vishal is interested in Chemistry

(B) Suneeta is curious to know

about innovations in her

subject

(C) Ravi completes projects to

become eligible to appear for

examination

(D) Tripta opts for communication

as she wants to enter into

marketing business

5. vk'k; vkdyukpk loksZŸke ekxZ Eg.kts %

(A) vk'k; iqu%iqUgk okp.ks

(B) vk'k;kps izdV o uarj ekSu okpu

(C) Lej.kkrwu vk'k; fygwu dk<.ks

(D) vk'k;kpk ;Fkk;ksX; lkjka'k r;kj dj.ks

6. [kkyhyiSdh dks.krs mnkgj.k vkarfjd izsj.ksps

ukgh \

(A) fo'kkyyk jlk;u'kkL=kr vfHk#ph

vkgs

(B) lquhrkyk frP;k fo"k;krhy uoksiÿe

tk.kwu ?ks.;kph mRlqdrk vkgs

(C) ijh{ksyk cl.;kl ik= Ogkos ;klkBh joh

izdYi iw.kZ djrks

(D) foÿhP;k O;olk;kr izos'k dj.;kph

bPNk vlY;keq s r`Irk laizs"k.k fo"k;kph

fuoM djrs

Page 6: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

6

DEC - 00013/I—A

7. Sampling in qualitative research is

similar to ................................ sampling

in quantitative research.

(A) simple random

(B) systematic

(C) quota

(D) purposive

8. Close ended questions are those

that :

(A) relate to basic demographic

characteristics

(B) encourage elaborate response

(C) allows respondents not to

answer

(D) have a fixed range of possible

answers

9. Cross-cultural studies are an

example of :

(A) case study

(B) comparative study

(C) experimental study

(D) cross-sectional study

7. xq.kkRed la'kk s/kukrhy uequk fuoM gh

la[;kRed la'kks/kukrhy uequk fuoMhP;k

------------------------ ;k izdkjklkj[kh vlrs-

(A) lk/kh ;kn`fPNd uequk fuoM

(B) iºr'khj uequk fuoM

(C) fufnZ"Vka'k uequk fuoM

(D) lgsrqd uequk fuoM

8. i;kZ;cº iz'u gs %

(A) ewˇHkwr yksdla[;k'kkL=h; xq.k/kekZ'kh

lacaf/kr vlrkr

(B) nh?kZ izfroknkyk izksRlkgu nsrkr

(C) dqBY;kgh mŸkjkph 'kD;rk ukdkjrkr

(D) laHkkO; mŸkjkaph fof'k"V O;kIrh vl.kkjs

vlrkr

9. vkarjlkaLœfrd vH;kl gs -------------------- ps

mnkgj.k vkgs-

(A) O;f"V vH;kl

(B) rkSyfud vH;kl

(C) izk;ksfxd vH;kl

(D) fr;Zd NsnkRed vH;kl

Page 7: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

7 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

10. What is a research design ?

(A) A way of conducting research

that is not grounded in theory

(B) The choice between using

qualitative and quantitative

methods

(C) The study in which you present

research findings

(D) A framework for every stage of

collection and analysis of data

11. ................................. hypothesis is a

proposal based on specific

observations.

(A) Directional

(B) Null

(C) Deductive

(D) Inductive

12. Which one of the following is the

most important component of

normative research ?

(A) survey

(B) participatory observation

(C) deductive method

(D) field work

10. la'kks/ku vkjk[kMk Eg.kts \

(A) lSºkafrd vk/kkj ulysys la'kk s/ku

dj.;kpk ekxZ

(B) xq.kkRed o la[;kRed iºrhaiSdh ,dk

iºrhph fuoM

(C) la'kks/ku Qfyrkps lknjhdj.k dj.;kph

iºr

(D) ladyu o fo‹ys"k.k ;klkBh r;kj dsysyh

pkSdV ekfgrh

11.-------------------------- ifjdYiuk gh fof'k"V

fujh{k.kkaoj vk/kkfjr ;kstuk vlrs-

(A) fn'kkn'kZd

(B) fujkdj.kh;

(C) vuqekukRed

(D) izorZukRed

12. ewY;kRed la'kks/kukpk lokZr egŸokpk ?kVd

dks.krk \

(A) losZ{k.k

(B) lgHkkxkRed fujh{k.k

(C) fuxeukRed iºr

(D) {ks= dk;Z

Page 8: Test Booklet No. iz'uif=dk ÿ- A Paper-I · requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal

8

DEC - 00013/I—A

Answer question Nos. 13 to 18

based on either the English

passage or the Marathi passage :

In the lack of good knowledge of

grammar, it is impossible for one

to write correctly and effectively. It

must be borne in mind that all

well-informed and knowledgeable

persons judge a man’s mind by his

writing or speaking. Indeed, to

acquire the knowledge of grammar

is not an easy task. The grammar

is not like arithmetic — a science

consisting of several distinct

departments, some of which may

be dispensed with; it is a whole

and the whole must be learnt, or

no part is learnt. Its learning

demands much reflection and

iz'u ÿ- 13 rs 18 gs iq<s fnysY;k mrkÚ;koj

vk/kkfjr vkgsr- baxzthrhy fdaok ejkBhrhy

mrkÚ;kojhy iz'ukaph mŸkjs |k %

ok≥~e;kph oxZokjh dsoˇ R;kP;k vH;klklkBh

gksr vlrs- txkrhy dks.kR;kgh dykoarkP;k

vuqHkokph dykRe vfHkO;Drh gs lkfgR; vlrs

vkf.k rsp [kjs lkfgR; vlrs- R;k O;frfjDr

izflº >kysys 'kCn yfyrlkfgR; ;k laKsl

ik= Bjr ulrs- ekuoh lekt fodflr gks.kkjk

lekt vkgs- R;kP;k fodklkP;k izR;sd voLFksus

R;kr jkg.kkÚ;k ek.klkyk lekt vkf.k

O;fDrdMs] fulxZ vkf.k bfrgklkdMs c?k.;kph

,d n`"Vh fnysyh vlrs- ,dkp lektkrhy

fHkUu&fHkUu O;Drhaps O;fDreŸo ,d lkj[ks

ulrs- dkj.k uSlfxZd lafprkr vkiys Lor%ps

vftZr xq.k vkf.k thoun`"Vh felˇorkuk

,dla/k O;fDreŸokyk fofo/k vkdkj izkIr

gksrkr- gh fofo/krkp izk.kh vkf.k ek.kwl ;krhy

O;oPNsnd js"kk vkgs- R;keq s dks.kR;kgh O;Drhus

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9 [P.T.O.

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much patience, but when one task

is performed it is performed for life,

and in everyday of that life it will

be found to be, in a greater or less

degree, a source of pleasure or

profit, or both together. The

learning of grammar needs no

bodily exertion; it exposes the

student to no cold, no hunger, no

suffering of any sort. What more,

the study does not affect the hours

of business, nor the hours of

necessary exercise, but the hours

usually spent on the tea and coffee

shops and in the mere gossip which

accompanies them. The wasted

hours of only one year, employed

in the study of English grammar,

would make you a correct speaker

dks.kR;kgh dkˇkr vkiY;kyk ykHkysY;k vkf.k

dekoysY;k thoun`"Vhrwu vkiys vuqHko

vfHkO;Dr dsys rj rs lkfgR;p vlrs- R;kyk

vki.k izkphu] e/;;qxhu] vokZphu vls

dky[kaMkr] fdaok ikf‹pekR;] ikSokZR; vls

jk"V™kar] xzkeh.k] 'kgjh vls izns'kkar fdaok

mPpoxhZ;] loZgkjk v'kk oxk±r foHkkxr vlrks-

;k foHkkx.khr dky] izns'k] oxZ b- Hksn vlys

rjh R;kdMs lkfgR; Eg.kwu ikg.;kr Hksn

Bsork ;sr ulrkr- R;kph leh{kk dks.kR;kgh

oxZokjhP;k vuq"kaxkus dsyh rjh frpk xkHkk

ok≥~e;hu vkf.k dyk Eg.kwup vlkok ykxrks-

yfyr ok≥~e; gh ewyr% dyk vkgs vkf.k

dysps f=dkykck/khr 'kkL= vlw 'kdr ukgh-

T;kauh dysyk vifjorZuh; 'kkL=kr cka/kwu

Bso.;kpk iz;Ru dsyk R;k dyk foy; ikoY;k

vkf.k T;k Hkk"ksus v'kh 'kkL=s fuekZ.k dsyh

R;k Hkk"kk e`rizk; >kY;k- laLœr gs R;kps cksyds

mnkgj.k vkgs- lkfgfR;d dykoarkP;k izfrHksyk

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10

DEC - 00013/I—A

and writer for the rest of your life.

One needs no school, no study

room, no expenses and not many

tuitions and coachings of any sort.

If you are willing, you can

accomplish this undertaking with

ease whether you are poor, pressed

with business or other conveniences

and have many other sorts of

problems.

13. Why is the knowledge of grammar

essential ?

(A) It is essential for an image in

the society

(B) It is necessary for judging the

mind of others

(C) It is essential for good speaking

and writing

(D) None of the above

tls LFky&dkykps] l aLœrh&ij aij sp s ]

lekt&jktdkj.kkps lanHkZ vlrkr vkf.k R;klg

rh fodflr gksr vlrs- leh{kk'kkL= fdaok

lkSan;Z'kkL= dykfufeZrhiwohZ vfLrRokr ulrs-

R;kpk mxe vkf.k fodkl ijthoh vlrks-

lkfgR; vkf.k dykaP;k vuq"kaxkus R;kpk lrr

fodkl gksr vlrks- fodflr dykfufeZrhizek.ks

R;kyk Lor%yk fodflr Ogkos ykxrs fdaok

futhZo fujFkZd cukos ykxrs- ewˇkr dysykp

thoukps vusd lanHkZ vlY;keqˇs frP;k

Lok;Ÿkrspk fopkjp la'k;kLin vkgs-

13. ok≥~e;kp s oxh Zdj.k gh lkfgR;kP;k

vH;klkrhy ,d lks; vlyh] rjh dks.krsgh

oxhZdj.k dykRed vfHkO;Drhpsp ,d :i

vlrs %

(A) iwokZ/kZ pwd

(B) mŸkjk/kZ pwd

(C) laiw.kZ fo/kku cjkscj

(D) laiw.kZ fo/kku pwd

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11 [P.T.O.

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14. lektkrhy izR;sd O;Drh vuU;lk/kkj.k vlrs]

dkj.k %

(A) thoun`"Vhrhy fofo/krk

(B) vftZrxq.kkaph lekurk

(C) lafprkph fo'kkyrk

(D) ojhyiSdh ,dgh ukgh

15. lkfgR;kP;k fufeZrhr ys[kdkP;k thoukuqHkwrhyk

ftrds egŸo vlrs] frrds dky[kaMkrhy

vuqHkokyk egŸo ulrs %

(A) mŸkjk/kZ cjkscj

(B) iwokZ/kZ cjkscj

(C) laiw.kZ fo/kku cjkscj

(D) laiw.kZ fo/kku pwd

16. lkfgR;kr dky[kaMkuqlkj] jk"V™kuqlkj] izns'kkuqlkj

Hksn vlys] rjh R;kps lkfgR;ewY; deh gksr

ukgh %

(A) iwokZ/kZ pwd

(B) mŸkjk/kZ pwd

(C) laiw.kZ fo/kku cjkscj

(D) laiw.kZ fo/kku pwd

14. How should grammar be learnt ?

(A) It must be learnt as a whole

(B) Some of its parts may be

omitted like arithmetic

(C) It is not essential, you can

ignore anything

(D) None of the above

15. The study of grammar demands :

(A) constant body exertion

(B) only the leisure time

(C) physical hardship

(D) heavy expenses for tuitions

16. A suitable title for the passage is :

(A) The importance of Grammar in

Life

(B) The importance of Grammar in

Writing

(C) The importance of Grammar

(D) None of the above

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12

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17. dyk gh vifjorZuh; vlY;keqˇs] fryk

vifjorZuh; 'kkL=kr cka/k wu Bsork ;sr

ukgh %

(A) laiw.kZ fo/kku cjkscj

(B) laiw.kZ fo/kku pwd

(C) mŸkjk/kZ pwd

(D) iwokZ/kZ pwd

18. leh{kk'kkL= gs dykf/kf"Br ulY;kus] R;kph

fufeZrh gh Lora=i.ks gksr vlrs %

(A) laiw.kZ fo/kku cjkscj

(B) laiw.kZ fo/kku pwd

(C) iwokZ/kZ cjkscj

(D) mŸkjk/kZ cjkscj

19. laKkiukph ifj.kkedkjdrk loZlk/kkj.ki.ks

d'kkP;k vk/kkjs Bjfoyh tkrs \

(A) izfrlknkpk ntkZ

(B) izs"kdkps gsrw vkf.k fud"k

(C) ek/;ekpk lq;ksX; okij

(D) lans'kkpk lksisi.kk

17. Acquisition of the knowledge of

grammar :

(A) happens by subconscious

learning

(B) can only be done through

tuitions

(C) is an easy task

(D) is not an easy task

18. The most important factor affecting

learning of grammar is :

(A) availability of time

(B) willingness to learn

(C) quality of coaching

(D) the monetary means

19. The effectiveness of communication

is usually decided on the basis of :

(A) quality of feedback

(B) sender’s intention and criteria

(C) economic use of medium

(D) simplicity of message

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20. iq<hyiSdh dks.krh tksMh pqdhph vkgs \

(A) nwjfp=ok.kh % Vh- vkj- ih-

(B) o`Ÿki= % jWe

(C) osclkbZV % fgV~l~

(D) fp=iV % ckWDl vkWfQl

21. i q<hyi Sdh dk s. kR;k l aKkiui zdkjkr

izfrlkn@izR;kHkj.k rqyusus laFk] dedqor vkf.k

vizR;{k iºrhus ;srks \

(A) nksu O;Drhae/khy laokn

(B) xV laKkiu

(C) tu laKkiu

(D) fu%'kCn laKkiu

22. iq<hyiSdh ;ksX; tksMh@tksMÓk fuoMk %

(i) ekufld vMFkˇk—izrhd

(ii) lkaLœfrd vMFkˇk—fuoMd Jo.k

(iii) rkaf=d vMFkˇk—vkoktkrhy vMFkˇk

(A) (i), (ii) vkf.k (iii)

(B) (i) vkf.k (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (ii) vkf.k (iii)

20. Which of the following is an incorrect

pair ?

(A) Television : TRP

(B) Newspaper : RAM

(C) Website : Hits

(D) Film : Box office

21. In which of the following types of

communication is feedback compara-

tively slow, weak and indirect ?

(A) Inter-personal communication

(B) Group communication

(C) Mass communication

(D) Non-verbal communication

22. Choose the correct match(es) :

(i) Psychological barriers—Symbol

(ii) Cultural barriers—Selective

listening

(iii) Technological barriers—Voice

disruption

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

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14

DEC - 00013/I—A

23. When a teacher uses a video clip

or sound clip or PowerPoint

presentation in classroom teaching,

the communication can be best

described as :

(A) Mass communication

(B) Technological communication

(C) Visual communication

(D) Mediated group communication

24. Communication is classified into

“intra-personal”, “inter-personal”,

“group” and “mass” communication

on the basis of :

(A) medium used for communi-

cation

(B) form of message exchanged

between participants

(C) number of participants in

communication

(D) social context of communication

23. tsOgk f'k{kd oxkZe/;s n`d~&JkO;] /ouhQhr

fdaok ikWojikWb±V lknjhdj.k okijrkr rsOgk R;k

laKkiukps lokZf/kd ;FkkFkZ o.kZu iq<hyiSdh

d'kkus djrk ;sbZy \

(A) tulaKkiu

(B) ra=KkukRed laKkiu

(C) n`d~ laKkiu

(D) ek/;ecº xVlaKkiu

24. flLolaoknfi] fllaoknfi] flxVlaKkiufi vkf.k

fltulaKkiufi gs laKkiukps izdkj dks.kR;k

fud"kkaoj csrysys vkgsr \

(A) laKkiuklkBh okijysys ek/;e

(B) lgHkkxh ?kVdkae/khy lans'kkps Lo:i

(C) laKkiuke/;s lgHkkxh >kysY;k O;Drhaph

la[;k

(D) laKkiukpk lkekftd lanHkZ

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15 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

25. Fill in the blank by an appropriate

number in the following series :

5, 35, 7, 42, 6, ............, 9, 36, 4.

(A) 45

(B) 48

(C) 54

(D) 56

26. Which of the following numbers is

different from the others ?

(A) 3156

(B) 4164

(C) 5255

(D) 6366

27. Find an appropriate letter

combination in place of the question

mark (?) :

KP MN OL QJ SH ?

(A) UF

(B) UG

(C) TF

(D) VG

25. iq<hy ÿfedsr fjdkE;k tkxh ;ksX; la[;k

fuoMk %

5, 35, 7, 42, 6, ............, 9, 36, 4.

(A) 45

(B) 48

(C) 54

(D) 56

26. iq<hy la[;kaiSdh brjkais{kk osxˇh la[;k

dks.krh vkgs \

(A) 3156

(B) 4164

(C) 5255

(D) 6366

27. iq<hy ÿfedsr iz'ufpUgkP;k (\) tkxh ;ksX;

i;kZ; fnysY;k v{kjlewgkrwu fuoMk %

KP MN OL QJ SH ?

(A) UF

(B) UG

(C) TF

(D) VG

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16

DEC - 00013/I—A

28. In a certain code language using

code symbols for mathematical

operations, 18 + 3 = 6; 9 – 2 = 18;

11 × 11 = 22 and 18 ÷ 3 = 15.

Evaluate the following operation in

this code language :

8 × 4 – 12 + 3 ÷ 2 = ?

(A) 7

(B) 12

(C) 14

(D) 22

29. X, Y and Z are non-zero numbers.

If X = 2Y and Y ≠ Z, then which

of the following statements can be

valid ?

(A) X = Y + Z

(B) X – Y = Z

(C) X < Z

(D) All the above statements can be

valid

30. Which of the following numbers is

different from the others ?

49, 81, 100, 144

(A) 49

(B) 81

(C) 100

(D) 144

28. ,dk lkadsfrd Hkk"ksr xf.krh; fÿ;kalkBh osxˇh

ladsrfpUgs okijrkr- ;kuqlkj 18 + 3 = 6;

9 – 2 = 18; 11 × 11 = 22 vkf.k

18 ÷ 3 = 15. ;k Hkk"ksuqlkj iq<hy fÿ;sps

ewY;ekiu djk %

8 × 4 – 12 + 3 ÷ 2 = ?

(A) 7

(B) 12

(C) 14

(D) 22

29. X, Y o Z ;k la[;k 'kwU;kgwu osxˇÓk vkgsr-

tj X = 2Y vkf.k Y ≠ Z vlsy] rj iq<hyiSdh

dks.krs@rh fo/kku@us [kjs@jh vlw 'kdsy@

'kdrhy \

(A) X = Y + Z

(B) X – Y = Z

(C) X < Z

(D) ojhy loZ fo/kkus [kjh vlw 'kdrhy

30. iq<hyiSdh dks.krh la[;k brjkais{kk osxˇh

vkgs \

49, 81, 100, 144

(A) 49

(B) 81

(C) 100

(D) 144

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17 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

31. Suresh and Vidya are cousins.

Madhuri is the sister of Vidya.

Ganesh is the father of Suresh. How

is Madhuri related to Ganesh ?

(A) Daughter

(B) Niece

(C) Cousin

(D) Uncle

32. In a code language, the word BAD

is written as 658. In the same

language, what could be the code for

FIG ?

(A) 9 12 10

(B) 10 13 11

(C) 8 11 13

(D) 10 12 13

33. Which of the following pairs is

different from others ?

(A) Brother—Sister

(B) Tall—Short

(C) Black—White

(D) Old—Young

31. lqjs'k vkf.k fo|k gh pqyrHkkoaMs vkgsr-

ek/kqjh gh fo|kph cgh.k vkgs- x.ks'k gs

lqjs'kps oMhy vkgsr- rj ek/kqjhps x.ks'k'kh

dk; ukrs vkgs \

(A) dU;k

(B) iqr.kh

(C) pqyrcfg.k

(D) pqyrs

32. ,dk lkadsfrd Hkk"ksr BAD gk 'kCn 658

vlk fyfgrkr- rj R;kp Hkk"ksr FIG ;k 'kCnkpk

lkadsrkad dk; vlsy \

(A) 9 12 10

(B) 10 13 11

(C) 8 11 13

(D) 10 12 13

33. iq<hyiSdh dks.krh 'kCntksMh brjkais{kk osxˇh

vkgsr rs lkaxk %

(A) Hkk≈µcfg.k

(B) mapµ[kqtk

(C) dkˇkµika<jk

(D) o`ºµr#.k

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18

DEC - 00013/I—A

34. Find the odd-one from thefollowing :

(A) DFEG

(B) JLKM

(C) GHIK

(D) RTSU

35. There are three statements I, IIand III. Based on these statements,which of the conclusions iscorrect ?

Statements :

I. Mahesh is taller than Arun.

II. Ganesh is shorter than Arun.

III. Seema is taller than Ganesh.

Conclusions :

(A) Arun is the tallest of all.

(B) Ganesh is shorter than Seema.

(C) Seema is taller than Mahesh.

(D) Mahesh is taller than Seema.

36. Assuming that the followingstatements I and II are true, whichof the following conclusions could betrue ?

Statements :

I. All teachers are managers.

II. Some teachers are females.

Conclusions :

1. Some teachers are managers.

2. No manager is a female.

(A) Only conclusion 1 follows.

(B) Only conclusion 2 follows.

(C) Both conclusions 1 and 2 follow.

(D) Both conclusion 1 andconclusion 2 not follow.

34. iq<hyiSdh dks.krk i;kZ; brjkais{kk osxˇk vkgsrs fygk %(A) DFEG

(B) JLKM

(C) GHIK

(D) RTSU

35. iq<s I, II o III v'kh fo/kkus fnyh vkgsr-R;koj vk/kkfjr iq<hyiSdh dks.krs fu"d"kZ cjkscjvkgsr rs fygk-fo/kkus %I. egs'k gk v#.kis{kk map vkgs-II. x.ks'k v#.kis{kk maphus deh vkgs-

III. lhek x.ks'kis{kk map vkgs-fu"d"kZ %(A) v#.k gk lokZr map vkgs-(B) x.ks'k gk lhekis{kk maphus deh vkgs-

(C) lhek gh egs'kis{kk map vkgs-(D) egs'k gk lhekis{kk map vkgs-

36. iq<hy fo/kkus I o II lR; vkgsr vls x`ghr/kjY;kl] iq<hyiSdh dks.krs fu"d"kZ cjkscj vkgsrrs lkaxk-fo/kkus %I. loZ f'k{kd O;oLFkkid vkgsr-II. dkgh f'k{kd fL=;k vkgsr-

fu"d"kZ %1. dkgh f'k{kd O;oLFkkid vkgsr-

2. ,dgh O;oLFkkid L=h ukgh-(A) QDr fu"d"kZ 1 cjkscj vkgs-

(B) QDr fu"d"kZ 2 cjkscj vkgs-(C) fu"d"kZ 1 o 2 nksUgh cjkscj vkgsr-

(D) fu"d"kZ 1 vkf.k fu"d"kZ 2 nksUgh cjkscjukghr-

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19 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

Read the following table and

answer the questions 37 and 38 :

Details of Percentage

Expenditure

Expenses on food 30

House rent 25

Education 12

Clothing 18

Sundry 15

37. A family earning Rs. 35,000 per

month went on a holiday for two

weeks. How much could they have

saved on food if they had stayed with

relatives during the holidays ?

(A) Rs. 1,750

(B) Rs. 5,250

(C) Rs. 1,050

(D) Rs. 1,030

38. A newly married couple earns

Rs. 35,000 per month. If they spend

as per the table, how much can

they save in two years ?

(A) Rs. 20,000

(B) Rs. 1,00,000

(C) Rs. 1,00,800

(D) Nil

iq<hy rDrk okpwu iz'u ÿ- 37 o 38 ps

mŸkjs fygk %

[kpkZpk ri'khy VDdsokjh

[kk.;kfi.;kpk [kpZ 30

?kjHkkMs 25

f'k{k.k 12

diMs 18

brj (fdjdks ) 15

37. ekfld mRiUu 35,000 #- vl.kkjs ,d dqVqac

nksu vkBoMÓkaP;k lqVhoj xsys- lqVhP;k dkˇkr

tj R;kauh vkiY;k ukrsokbZdkadMs okLrO; dsys

vlrs] rj R;kaP;k [kk.;kfi.;kP;k [kpkZr fdrh

cpr >kyh vlrh \

(A) 1,750 #-

(B) 5,250 #-

(C) 1,050 #-

(D) 1,030 #-

38. ,dk uofookfgr nkEiR;kps ekfld mRiUu

35,000 #- brds vkgs- tj R;kauh rDR;kr

nk[koY;k izek.ks [kpZ dsyk] rj nksu o"kk±r

rs fdrh cpr d: 'kdrhy \

(A) 20,000 #-

(B) 1,00,000 #-

(C) 1,00,800 #-

(D) dkghgh ukgh

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20

DEC - 00013/I—A

Attempt questions 39 and 40

using the data given in the

following table :

The following table shows the

number of breakdown calls received

by six different breakdown service

centres of a bus operator in a city

for a period of six months April-

September.

Service April May June July August September

Centre

U 67 79 48 70 78 88

V 68 75 87 62 84 74

W 71 55 58 78 59 69

X 83 64 56 52 63 52

Y 61 58 65 66 65 75

Z 75 49 76 72 56 42

39. The service centre that received the

minimum number of calls during the

six months is :

(A) V

(B) X

(C) Z

(D) U

iq<hy rDR;ke/khy ekfgrho:u iz'u ÿ-

39 vkf.k 40 lksMok %

,dk 'kgjkrhy cl okgrqdnkjkP;k rkaf=d

fc?kkM lsok dsaÊkl ,fizy rs lIVsacj ;k lgk

efgU;kae/;s vkysY;k lans'kkaph la[;k iq<hy

rDR;ke/;s fnyh vkgs-

lfOgZl ,fizy es twu tqyS vkWxLV lIVsacj

lsaVj

U 67 79 48 70 78 88

V 68 75 87 62 84 74

W 71 55 58 78 59 69

X 83 64 56 52 63 52

Y 61 58 65 66 65 75

Z 75 49 76 72 56 42

39. lgk efgU;k ar ,dw.k lan s'kk aph la[;k--------------------------- lfOgZl lsaVjlkBh lokZr

deh vkgs-

(A) V

(B) X

(C) Z

(D) U

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21 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

40. The difference between the

maximum number and the

minimum number of monthly calls

is the largest for service centre :

(A) V

(B) U

(C) Z

(D) X

41. Quantitative data are best compared

in the form of a :

(A) table

(B) histogram

(C) dot plot

(D) pie chart

42. The proportions of related items are

best shown by a :

(A) line graph

(B) pie chart

(C) dot plot

(D) histogram

40. ekfld lans'kkaph deky la[;k vkf.k fdeku

la[;k ;kae/khy Qjd ------------------------ ;k

lfOgZl lsaVjlkBh lokZr tkLr vkgs-

(A) V

(B) U

(C) Z

(D) X

41. ifjek.kkRed ekfgrhph loks ZŸke rqyuk------------------------------ ;k}kjs gksrs-

(A) dks"Vd

(B) vk;rfp=

(C) fcUnq vkys[k

(D) o`Ÿkkdkj rDrk

42.---------------------------------- pk loksZŸke okij

lacaf/kr ckchaps izek.k n'kZfo.;klkBh dsyk

tkrks-

(A) js[kk vkys[k

(B) o`Ÿkkdkj rDrk

(C) fcUnw vkys[k

(D) vk;r fp=

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22

DEC - 00013/I—A

43. Identify the pair that appears in the

reverse chronological order of

development :

(A) Mainframe and Desktop

(B) Desktop and Laptop

(C) Tablet and Laptop

(D) Laptop and Tablet

44. Arrange the following units of

computer memory in descending

order of magnitude :

byte, gigabyte, bit, megabyte,

terrabyte

(A) terrabyte, gigabyte, megabyte,

byte, bit

(B) gigabyte, terrabyte, megabyte,

bit, byte

(C) gigabyte, megabyte, terrabyte,

byte, bit

(D) terrabyte, megabyte, gigabyte,

bit, byte

43. iq<hy tksMÓkaiSdh dkykuqÿekP;k fo#º

vlysyh tksMh vks [kk %

(A) esu›se o MsLdVkWi

(B) MsLdVkWi o yWiVkWi

(C) VWCysV o yWiVkWi

(D) yWiVkWi o VWCysV

44. iq<s fnysyh lax.kdkP;k Le`rhekiukph ,dds

mrjR;k ÿekuqlkj ekaMk %

ckbZV] fxxkckbZV] fcV] esxkckbZV] VsjkckbZV

(A) VsjkckbZV] fxxkckbZV] esxkckbZV] ckbZV]

fcV

(B) fxxkckbZV] VsjkckbZV] esxkckbZV] fcV]

ckbZV

(C) fxxkckbZV] esxkckbZV] VsjkckbZV] ckbZV]

fcV

(D) VsjkckbZV] esxkckbZV] fxxkckbZV] fcV]

ckbZV

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23 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

45. Identify the matching pairs :

(i) JPEG — Photo/Picture

(ii) MP3 — Audio/Video

(iii) XLS — PowerPoint Presentation

(iv) AVI — Statistical Information

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i) and (iv)

46. In the context of Internet, UGC

stands for :

(A) University Grants Commission

(B) Universal Graphic Communi-

cation

(C) User Group Configuration

(D) User Generated Content

47. Which of the following softwares

is used for processing photos or

pictures ?

(A) Photocrop

(B) Photoshop

(C) Visucrop

(D) Picture Perfect

45. iq<hyiSdh ;ksX; tksMÓk vks [kk %

(i) JPEG — fp=s@Nk;kfp=s

(ii) MP3 — /ouh@n`d~&JkO;

(iii) XLS — ikWojikWb±V lknjhdj.k

(iv) AVI — lkaf[;dh ekfgrh

(A) (i) vkf.k (ii)

(B) (ii) vkf.k (iii)

(C) (iii) vkf.k (iv)

(D) (i) vkf.k (iv)

46. baVjusVP;k lanHkkZr fl;w th lhfi ps foLrkj:i

dk; vkgs \

(A) ;qfuOgflZVh xz°V~l~ dfe'ku

(B) ;qfuOglZy xzkfQd dE;qfuds'ku

(C) ;qtj xzqi dkWfUQxjs'ku

(D) ;qtj tujsVsM dUVsUV

47. QksVks fdaok fp=kaoj izfÿ;k dj.;klkBh

iq<hyiSdh dks.krs lkW∂Vosvj okijys tkrs \

(A) QksVksÿkWi

(B) QksVks'kkWi

(C) fOgT;wÿkWi

(D) fiDpj ijQsDV

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24

DEC - 00013/I—A

48. In the context of Internet, identify

the incorrect pair from the

following :

(A) .gov — government website

(B) .com — commercial website

(C) .ac — accounting website

(D) .edu — educational website

49. Which one of the following regions

of India is known as “biodiversity

hot-spot” ?

(A) Eastern Ghats

(B) Thar desert

(C) Deccan plateau

(D) Western Ghats

50. The air pollutant known as

“secondary” in nature is :

(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Ammonia

(C) Peroxyacetyl nitrate

(D) Methane

48. baVjusVP;k lanHkkZr] iq<hyiSdh pqdhph tksMh

vksˇ[kk %

(A) .gov — ljdkjh ladsrLFkˇ

(B) .com — O;kikjh ladsrLFkˇ

(C) .ac — fg'kksckps ladsrLFkˇ

(D) .edu — 'kS{kf.kd ladsrLFkˇ

49. Hk kjrkrhy i q<hyi Sdh dk s. krk i zn s'k

thooSfo/;kP;k n`"Vhus flvfregŸokpkfi Eg.kwu

vks [kyk xsyk vkgs \

(A) iwoZ ?kkVh

(B) Fkjps okˇoaV

(C) nD[kups iBkj

(D) if'pe ?kkVh

50. LokHkkfodi.ks flnq∏;efi vlysyk ok;wiznw"kd

dks.krk \

(A) lYQj Mk;kWDlkbZM

(B) veksfu;k

(C) isjkWfDlvWlsfVy uk;V™sV

(D) esFksu

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25 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

51. In hilly areas, landslides occur due

to :

(A) deforestation

(B) aforestation

(C) winds

(D) grazing

52. Fly ash is produced in a factory

during :

(A) manufacturing chemical

fertilizers

(B) refining of bauxite

(C) smelting steel

(D) production of thermal power

53. Kyoto protocol aims at :

(A) containing emissions of green-

house gases

(B) stabilizing ozone cover

(C) reducing water pollution

(D) arresting desertification

51. Mksaxjkˇ izns'kkr HkwL[kyu gks.;kps dkj.k

Eg.kts %

(A) oulagkj

(B) ouhdj.k

(C) okjk

(D) pj.ks

52. dkj[kkU;krhy dks.kR;k dk;Zizfÿ;sr jk[k

r;kj gksrs \

(A) jklk;fud [krkaph fufeZrh

(B) ckWDlkbZVps 'kqºhdj.k

(C) iksyknkpk jl xkˇ.ks

(D) vkWf".kd oht fufeZrh

53. D;ksVks elq|kpk mÌs'k dks.krk \

(A) i`Foh xje dj.kkjs ok;w deh izek.kkr

gosr lksM.ks

(B) vks>ksu N=hps fLFkjhdj.k dj.ks

(C) tyiznw"k.k deh dj.ks

(D) okˇoaVhdj.k Fkkaco.ks

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26

DEC - 00013/I—A

54. A major cause of water-borne

diseases in India is :

(A) hardness of water

(B) scarcity of water

(C) pollution of water

(D) saline water

55. Which of the following is a degree-

awarding body ?

(A) Council of Scientific and

Industrial Research

(B) University Grants Commission

(C) Gokhale Institute of Politics

and Economics

(D) Indian Council of Historical

Research

56. In the Constitution of India, the

power to legislate on education is a

part of :

(A) Union list

(B) State list

(C) Concurrent list

(D) Seventh schedule

54. Hkkjrkr ik.;keqˇs gks.kkÚ;k vktkjkaps izeq[k

dkj.k Eg.kts %

(A) ik.;kpk dfB.ki.kk

(B) ik.;kps nqfHkZ{k

(C) iznwf"kr ik.kh

(D) [kkjs ik.kh

55. iq<hyiSdh dk s.krh laLFkk inoh iznku

djrs \

(A) oSKkfud rFkk vkS|ksfxd vuqla/kku

ifj"kn

(B) fo'ofo|ky; vuqnku vk;ksx

(C) xks[kys jkT;'kkL= o vFkZ'kkL= laLFkk

(D) Hkkjrh; bfrgkl vuqla/kku ifj"kn

56. Hkkjrh; jkT;?kVusu s f'k{k.k gk fo"k;

-------------------------- e/;s varHkwZr dsysyk vkgs-

(A) la?klwph

(B) jkT;lwph

(C) lkekf;d lwph

(D) lkros ifjf'k"V

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27 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

57. Full form of B.C.U.D. is :

(A) Bureau of College and

University Development

(B) Board of Councillors for

University Development

(C) Board of College and University

Directors

(D) Board of College and University

Development

58. In state universities of Maharashtra,

a Board of Studies is formed by :

(A) elected heads of departments

only

(B) elected heads of departments

and nominated experts

(C) elected heads of departments

and nominated teachers

(D) elected heads of departments,

co-opted teachers and co-opted

experts

57. ch-lh-;w-Mh- ps iw.kZ :i dks.krs \

(A) C;wjks vkWQ dkWyst v°M ;qfuOgflZVh

MsOgyiesaV

(B) cksMZ vkWQ dkSfUlylZ QkWj ;qfuOgflZVh

MsOgyiesaV

(C) cksMZ vkWQ dkWyst v°M ;qfuOgflZVh

Mk;jsDVlZ

(D) cksMZ vkWQ dkWyst v°M ;qfuOgflZVh

MsOgyiesaV

58. egkjk"V™krhy jkT; fo|kihBkar vH;kleaMˇ

---------------------------- ;kaps curs-

(A) QDr fuokZfpr foHkkxizeq[k

(B) fuokZfpr foHkkxizeq[k vkf.k infunsZf'kr

rK

(C) fuokZfpr foHkkxizeq[k vkf.k infunsZf'kr

f'k{kd

(D) fuokZfpr foHkkxizeq[k] Lohœr f'k{kd

vkf.k Lohœr rK

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28

DEC - 00013/I—A

59. Long form of AICTE is :

(A) All India Council for Technical

Education

(B) All India Commission for

Technology Education

(C) All India Committee for

Teachers’ Education

(D) All India Congress for Trainee

Education

60. Which of the following is an

extension activity of a state

university ?

(A) Continuing and Distance

Education

(B) Bridge Courses

(C) Remedial Teaching

(D) Earn and Learn Scheme

59. ,-vk;-lh-Vh-bZ- ps iw.kZ :i dk; vkgs \

(A) vkWy bafM;k dkSfUly QkWj VsfDudy

,T;qds'ku

(B) vkWy bafM;k dfe'ku QkWj VsDukWykWth

,T;qds'ku

(C) vkWy bafM;k dfeVh QkWj VhplZ ,T;qds'ku

(D) vkWy bafM;k dk°xzsl QkWj V™suh ,T;qds'ku

60. iq<hyiSdh dks.krk miÿe gk jkT; fo|kihBkP;k

foLrkj&dk;kZpk Hkkx vkgs \

(A) fujarj vkf.k nwj f'k{k.k

(B) tksM vH;klÿe jkco.ks

(C) mipkjkRed v/;kiu

(D) deok vkf.k f'kdk ;kstuk

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29 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

ROUGH WORK

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30

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ROUGH WORK

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31 [P.T.O.

DEC - 00013/I—A

ROUGH WORK

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32

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ROUGH WORK