tnpsc - previous year questions · c) golaknath vs state of punjab d) menaka vs union of india....

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TNPSC - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

POLITY

SI.NO CONTENTS PAGE.NO

POLITY

1. GROUP - I 3 – 15

2. GROUP – II 16 - 20

3. GROUP – IIA 21 - 24

4. GROUP – IV 25 – 29


TNPSC - GROUP - I PRELIMS – 2011

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

POLITY

1. Which Article of the constitution of India

gives provision to set up Panchayat?

A) Article 15 B) Article 25

C) Article 243 D) Article 42.

2. Grants-in-aid to the states by the centre are

provided with the objective of.

A) Augmenting financial resources of the

states.

B) Maintaining smooth centre-State

relation.

C) Ensuring stable government at the

centre.

D) All of these

3. In which year seats were reserved for

women in local bodies in Tamil Nadu?

1991 B) 1951

C) 1994 D) 2010

4. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was

passed during the period of.

A) Rajiv Gandhi B) A.B. Vajpayee

C) V.P. Singh D) Narasimha Rao

5. Which guarantees rights to freedom of

religion to all persons in all its aspects?

A) Articles 25 to 28 B) Article 29

C) Article 30 D) Article 34

6. As per the division of powers of India, in the

concurrent list there are.

A) 47 items B) 66 items

C) 97 items D) 77 items

7. _______ State of Indian Union has its own

constitution.

A) Punjab

B) Arunachal Pradesh

C) Sikkim

D) Jammu and Kashmir.

8. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A) : If no-confidence motion is

passed against a minister then all ministers

should resign.

Reason (R) : Only the concerned minister

resigns.

Now select your answer according to the

coding scheme given below:

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and ( R) is the

correct explanation of (A).

B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not

the correct explanation of (A).

C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


I. Directive principles of State policy is

considered as the soul of the

constitution.

II. Directive principles of State policy is

meant for protection of rights.

III. Directive principles of State policy is

crucial for constitutional remedies.

IV. Directive principles of State policy is

relevant for promotion of private

property.

Of these.

A) I alone is correct B) II & III are correct

C) III & IV are correct D) IV alone is correct.

10. Who appoints finance commission in India?

A) The president of India

B) The Prime Minister.

C) The chairman of the Rajya Sabha

D) The speaker of the Lok Sabha

11. The Special Economic Zone Act was

passed in Indian parliament in.

A) May 2005 B) April 2004

C) May 2008 D) April 2007.

12. On which of the following grounds a elected

MP can be disqualified for defection?

I. If voluntarily gives up membership of

political party.

II. If the votes or abstains from voting

contrary to the direction of his political

party.

III. If expelled by his party.

IV. If he joins some other political party

other than one from where he won.


Of these,

A) I,II,III & IV B) I,II & IV

C) I,III & IV D) II, III & IV

13. National Emergency was declared by the

congress Government headed by Indira

Gandhi in.

A) 1969 B) 1971

C) 1975 D) 1977

14. Which one of the following is not a salient

feature of the constitution of India?

A) Directive principles of State policy

B) Flexible constitution.

C) Secularism

D) Single citizenship


I. There is no direct judicial remedies

behind the Directive principles of State

policy in India.

II. There are some direct judicial remedies

for the Directive principles of State

Policy in India.

Of these.

A) I alone is correct

B) I & II are correct.

C) II alone is correct

D) None of these.

16. The doctrine of fundamental right cannot be

amended under Art.368 was propounded by

the supreme court in which of the following

cases?

A) Gopalan Vs state of Madras

B) Kesavananda Bharathi Vs State of

Kerala.

C) Golaknath Vs State of Punjab

D) Menaka Vs Union of India.

GROUP - I PRELIMS – 2014


1. There are 25 High courts in India.

2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory

of Chandigarh have a common High

court.

3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a

High court of its own.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2

(C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 3 only

18. Consider the following statements about the

Attorney-General of India.

1. He is appointed by the president of India.

2. He must have the same qualifications as

are required for a judge of the Supreme

Court

3. He must be a member of either house of

parliament.

4. He can be removed by impeachment by

parliament.

Which of these statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 2,3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

19. The parliament consists of.

(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(B) The president Lok Sahba and Rajya

sabha.

(C) Lok Sabha, Council of Ministers and

Rajya sabha

(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vice-

president.

20. Who is real executive in a state?

(A) Governor

(B) The Speaker

(C) The Chief Minister

(D) The Chief Minister and the council of

Ministers.

21. Controller and Auditor General is appointed

by the .

(A) President (B) Vice – president

(C) Rajya sabha (D) Lok Sabha.

22. Consider the following statements with

reference to India.

1. The chief Election Commissioner and

other Election commissioners enjoy

equal power but, receive unequal

salaries.


2. The Chief Election Commissioner is

entitled to the same salary as is

provided to a judge of the Supreme

Court.

3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall

not be removed from his office except in

like manner and on like grounds as a

judge of the Supreme Court.

4. The term of the Election Commissioner

is five years from the date he assumes

his office or till the day he attains the

age of 62 years whichever is earlier.


(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

23. Central Vigilance Commission was set up

on the recommendation of

(A) Gorwala Report

(B) Santhanam Committee

(C) Kripalani Committee

(D) Indian Administrative Reforms

commission.

24. Which one of the following statements about

Comptroller and Auditor General of India is

not correct?

(A) He has no direct access to the

parliament and no minister can

represent him.

(B) His salary and Emoluments are

chargeable on the consolidated fund of

India.

(C) He cannot disallow any expenditure

which in his opinion violates the

constitution.

(D) He has been debarred from holding any

office of profit under the union or state

govt. after his retirement.

25. The institution of Lokayukta was created

first in Maharashtra in the year.

(A) 1970 (B) 1972

(C) 1973 (D) 1971

26. Consider the following statements with

regard to public interest litigation.

1. In essence, a third party can bring

before the court issues in the public

interest.

2. The Supreme Court may action the

receipt of a letter or post card from a

citizen requesting protection of his

fundamental rights.

3. It is also known as social action

litigation.

4. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and T.N.

Bhagawathi were its proponents.

(A) 1and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4

27. Which is/are correct concerning the

Administrative Tribunals Act?

1. It was passed in the year 1985.

2. The Act includes both the Central

Administrative tribunals and the state

Administrative tribunals.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Who decides whether A bill is a Money Bill

or not?

(A) Speaker

(B) The Finance Minister

(C) Finance Secretary

(D) Leader of the opposition.

29. Which of the following are/is stated in the

constitution of India?

1. The president shall not be a member of

either houses of parliament.

2. The parliament shall consist of the

president and two houses

Choose the correct answer from the codes

given below:

Codes:

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 (B) Both 1 and 2

(C) 1 alone (D) 2 alone

30. Who among the following became the prime

minister of India without being earlier the

chief Minister of a state?

1. Moraji Desai 2. Charan Singh

3. V.P.Singh 4. Chandra sekar.


Select the correct answer from the codes

given below:

Codes:

(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 2 only (D) 4 only

31. The Chairman of the official Language

Commission in 1955 was

(A) Gobind Ballah pant

(B) B.G.kher

(C) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar

(D) Santhanam

32. The National commission for reviewing the

working of constitution was headed by M.N.

Venkatachalaiah was setup by the central

Government in.

(A) 2000 (B) 2001

(C) 2002 (D) 2003

33. Which Articles consists of the provision

relating to composition and its power and

functions of the Election Commission of

India?

(A) Article 324 (B) Article 356

(C) Article 370 (D) Article 243

34. Which of the statements given below is/ are

correct?

1. The State Election Commission

supervises and conducts the Election of

panchayats and Municipalities in the

state.

2. It also supervises and conducts the

Election of the state assemblies and the

Lok Sabha.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 2

(D) None of the above


73rd Amendment of the constitution has

provided constitution sanction for

1. Building a 3 tier structure of panchayat

Raj.

2. Reservation of seats for women.

3. Withdrawal of the right of govts, to hold

elections to the panchayats.

4. Taking away the right of state

Governments to give grants to the

panchayats.


(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 2,3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4

36. In which year, the Lokpal Bill was not

introduced in the parliament?

(A) 1968 (B) 1971

(C) 1985 (D) 1978

37. Which of the following institutions have

been setup by Govt. of India to check

misconduct, malpractices, corruption and

misdemeanor on the part of public

servants?

1. Central vigilance Commission.

2. Lokpal.

3. Special police Establishment.

4. Central Bureau of Investigation.

Choose the correct answer by using the

codes given below:

(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1,3 and 4

38. Which one of the following action amounts

to violence against women?

I. Physical assault.

II. Creating hostile atmosphere at

work/home.

III. Teasing.

IV. Making humiliating/displeasing remark.

(A) I and II only (B) I,II and III only

(C) I,II and IV only (D) II,III and IV only

39. Which one of the following is/are wrongly

matched?

a) 21 Feb,1947 1. Submission of the

report by the Drafting Committee to the

constituent Assembly.

b) 15 Oct,1949 2. Acceptance of the

proposal of the Drafting Committee.


c) 26 Nov,1950 3.Members of the

constituent Assembly appended

theirSignature.

d) 24th Jan,1950 4. The constitution

was adopted.

(A) Both a and c are wrong

(B) (B) Both a and b are wrong.

(C) Both b and c are wrong

(D) Both c and d are wrong.

GROUP - I PRELIMS – 2015

40. The Administrative Reforms Commission of

India was set up on 5 Jan.1966 under the

chairmanship of

A) K.Hanumanthaiya B) H.C. Mathur

C) G.S. Pathak D) Morarji R. Desai.

41. “The supreme court in the Indian union has

more powers than any other supreme court

in any part of the world” – who said so?

A) S.M. Sikri

B) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

C) M.C. Setalwad

D) Justice Kania.

42. Consider the following two statements

consisting of Assertion (A) and Reason ( R)

and select your answer using the codes

given below.

Assertion (A) : The administrative reforms

commission recommended Lokpal and

Lokayukta.

Reasoning ( R) : These are for the

Redressal of citizens grievances.

A) Both A and R are correct and R is the

correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are correct but R is not

the correct explanation of A.

C) A is True but R is false.

D) A is false but R is correct.

43. Which one of the following is not correctly

matched?

A) Article 153 – Office of the Governor.

B) Article 156 – Term of the Governor.

C) Article 154- Executive authority of

Governor.

D) Article 155 - Removal of Governor.

44. Which one of the following statement is/are

true with regard to formulation of the

Government?

A) There is a Rule in the Business of the

Government which mentions that single

largest party that gets majority will form

the government.

B) There is no written rules on inviting the

single largest party by the 2nd largest

party to form the government. It is a

convention.

C) There is a provision in part I of the

Constitution.

D) Representation of people Act provides

for inviting the longest party to form the

government.

45. Match List I with List II.

Laws Years.

a) The Banking Companies ordinance

1. 1966

b) Special Bearers Bonds Ordinance

2. 1980

c) Unlawful activities prevention ordinance

3. 1984

d) Terrorist affected areas ordinance

4. 1981

a b c d

A) 4 2 3 1

B) 3 1 2 4

C) 2 4 1 3

D) 1 3 4 2

46. The protection of Civil Rights Act came into

force on.

A) 19th December 1974

B) 19th November 1976

C) 19th December 1975

D) 19th November 1977

47. Which one of the following persons is the

ex-officio chairman of the Rules Committee,


General purpose Committee and Business

Advisory Committee?

A) The Speaker

B) A member elected by the house

C) The Deputy Speaker

D) A member of Ruling party

48. Match the following – Establishment of

states and choose the correct one:

a) 36th Amendment

1. Goa.

b) 13th Amendment

2. Manipur and Tripura.

c) 27th Amendment

3. Sikkim.

d) 56th Amendment

4. Nagaland.

a b c d

A) 3 4 2 1

B) 1 3 4 2

C) 2 3 1 4

D) 1 2 3 4

49. Which of the following are major features of

the constitutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta

as recommended by the Administrative

Reforms commission?

1. They should be demonstrably

independent and impartial.

2. They should compare with the highest

judicial functionary in the country.

3. They should be directly accountable to

parliament.

4. Their appointments should as far as

possible be non- political.

A) 1 and 4

B) 1,2 and 4

C) 1,2,3 and 4

D) None of the above (or) 1,2 and 3

50. The Indian Constitution describes

Legislative Relations between Union and

States in Article from.

A) Articles 245 to 255

B) Articles 256 to 263

C) Articles 264 to 267

D) Articles 268 to 276

51. Article 25 of the constitution of India

guarantees.

A) Right to Religion B) Right to property

C) Right to life D) Right to equality.

52. Which one of the following is not a formally

prescribed device available to the members

of parliament?

A) Question Hour B) Zero Hour

C) Half-an-hour discussion

D) Short duration discussion.

53. The National Commission to review the

working of the Constitution was set-up in the

year?

A) 2001 B) 2004

C) 2003 D) 2002

54. Match the list:

a) Fourth Schedule

1. Division of powers

b) Seventh schedule

2. Seats allotted in the

council of states.

c) Eleventh Schedule

3. Languages.

d) Eighth schedule

4. 73rd Amendement.

a b c d

A) 1 2 3 4

B) 2 1 4 3

C) 2 1 3 4

D) 1 2 4 3

55. Which one of the following amendment was

called a revision of the constitution and it

introduced changes in preamble, as many

as 53 articles seventh schedule?

A) 40th amendment B) 42nd amendment

C) 41st amendment D) 43rd amendment.

56. Which of the following recommendation are

made by the Administrative Reforms

Commission to improve relations between

the political and permanent executive?


1. Minister should try to develop a climate

of fearlessness and fair play among

senior officers.

2. Minister should not intervene in day to-

day administration except incase of

servous maladministration.

3. The official relationship of secretary to

Minister should be one of confidence of

that of Minister to secretary one of

loyalty.

4. Prime Minister should take special

interest to arrest/growing of unhealthy

personal affiliations.

5. All major decisions should be briefly

reduced to writings.

A) 1,2,4 and 5 B) 1,2,3 and 5

C) 2,3 and 4 D) 1,2 and 5

57. Which is/are correct relating to the

Tribunals?

1.Part XV of the Indian constitution deals

with the Tribunals.

2. Article 323 A deals with Administrative

tribunals and Article 323 B deals with the

tribunals for other matters.

A) 1 only B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Which of the following are matters on which

a constitutional amendment is possible only

with the ratification of the legislatures of not

less than one- Half of the state?

1. Election of the president.

2. Representation of states in parliament.

3. Any of the lists in the 7th Schedule.

4. Abolition of the legislative council of a

state.

Choose the correct answer from the codes

given below:

Codes:

A) 1,2 and 3 B) 1,2 and 4

C) 1,3 and 4 D) 2,3 and 4

59. The Session of a state from the Indian union

has been barred by the .

A) 16th Amendment B) 22nd Amendment

C) 29th Amendment D) 35th Amendment.


The Comptroller and Auditor General of

India is responsible for the audit of the

account of .

1. The Union Govt.

2. State Govts.

3. The governments of union territories

4. The Urban and rural local bodies.


A) 1,2 and 3 B) 2,3 and 4

C) 1,3 and 4 D) 1,2 and 4

61. What is the peculiar nature of the Indian

Federation?

A) Equal distribution of powers between

the centre and state.

B) Strong centre.

C) Strong states.

D) Strong Local bodies.

62. In which one of the case, ”passport” is

considered as part of personal liberty?

A) A.K.Gopalan (1950)

B) Indian Express Newspapers (1985).

C) Arumugham (1953)

D) Meneka Gandhi (1978)

63. Which of the schedule deals with division of

powers between states and union?

A) Fourth B) Sixth

C) Seventh D) Ninth.

TNPSC GROUP I – PRELIMES – 2017

POLITY

64. Who was the first Finance Minister of

Independent India?

A) Sardar Vallabai Patel

B) C. Rajagopalachari

C) B. R. Ambedkar

D) R. K. Shanmugam Chettiyar

65. Indian Constitution established

parliamentary from of Government on the

model of

A) Swiss model


B) Canadian model

C) American model

D) British (Westminister) model

66. In which schedule of the Constitution the

recognized 22 language has been included?

A) 6th Schedule B) 7th Schedule

C) 8th Schedule D) 9th Schedule

67. Which of the following is not included in the

state list in the Constitution of India?

A) Police

B) B) Public order

C) Prisons

D) Criminal procedure code

68. The idea that Indian should have a

constituent assembly to frame a

Constitution of India was initiated by

A) Rajendra Prasad B) M.N. Roy

C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) B.R. Ambedkar

69. Which one of the following statement

relating to Executive is not correct?

A) Executive Magistrates are appointed by

the state in consultation with High court

B) Executive Magistrates are subordinate

to the state in consultation with High

court

C) Order made by an Executive Magistrate

is not subject to revisional jurisdiction of

High court.

D) Executive Magistrates are quasi-judicial

70. Chairman of the first National Backward

Class Commission was

A) Kala Kalelkar B) Yugandhar

C) John Mathai D) Madhu Dandavate

71. The salary and allowances of the public

prosecutors are given by

A) High court or Supreme court

B) Central Government or State

Governments

C) District courts

D) Magistrate courts

72. According to the 74th Constitution

Amendment Act, “Metropolitan area” means

A) An area having a population of 10 lakhs

or more

B) An area having a population of 5 lakhs

C) An area having a population below 5

lakhs

D) An area having a population below 3

lakhs

73. The institution of Lokayukta was established

first in

A) Orissa B) Rajasthan

C) Andhra Pradesh D) Maharashtra

74. Match the following:

Committees Purpose

a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

1. Revitalisation of Panchayat Raj

Institutions

b) Ashok Mehta Committee

2. Rural Development and Poverty

Alleviation

c) GVK. Rao Committee

3. Examine the working of community

Development Programme

d) LM Singhvi Committee

4. Streghtening the Panchayat Raj

Institutions.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A) 2 1 4 3

B) 1 2 3 4

C) 3 4 2 1

D) 4 3 1 2

75. The Chairman and the members of UPSC

can hold office for six years or till the age of

----------- which ever is earlier

A) 65 years B) 62 years

C) 60 years D) 58 years

76. The State Reorganisation Act was passed

in

A) October 1956 B) June 1956

C) November 1956 D) July 1956

77. Setting up of Village Panchayats is

associated with which part of the Indian

Constitution?

A) Preamble


B) Fundamental Rights

C) Directive principles of State Policy

D) Fundamental Duties

78. The GATT was biased in favour of the

developed countries and was called

informally

A) Rich men‟s club B) League of nation

C) WTO D) Axis nation

79. Which one of the following cases is not

directly related to Article 21 and provision of

right to life in the Indian Constitution?

A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras

B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India

C) Express News papers Vs. Union of India

D) Pavement Dwellers Case

80. In India the first proclamation of national

emergency under Article 352 was declared

in the year

A) 1961 B) 1962

C) 1965 D) 1975

81. According to the Article 170 of the Indian

Constitution, the maximum limit of members

in a Legislative Assembly is

A) Not more than 500 and not less than 60

members

B) Not more than 400 and not less than 50

members

C) Not more than 300 and not less than 40

members

D) Not more than 280 and not less than 30

members

82. The administrative vigilance division was

created in 1955 by the

A) Ministry of trade

B) Ministry of home affairs

C) Ministry of external affairs

D) Ministry of defence

83. Sarkaria commission on centre-state

relations was appointed by the Government

of India during

A) 1973 B) 1975

C) 1983 D) 1985

84. Which one of the following statement is not

correct about public interest litigation?

A) Public interest litigation may be

transferred to appropriate High court.

B) A petition in public interest litigation filed

before the Supreme court may not be

transferred to an appropriate High court

C) The letter in public interest litigation

should be addressed to the court and

not to an individual Judge

D) Public interest litigation is under the

preview of high court

85. Who was the ruler of Jammu and Kashmir

in 1940?

A) Karan Sigh

B) Maharaj Hari Singh

C) Ram Ratan Singh

D) Saran Singh

86. “An article without which the Indian

Constitution would be nullity. I would not

refer to any other article except Article 32. It

is the very soul of the Constitution and the

very heart of it”. Who said it?.

A) Gandhiji B) B.R. Ambedkhar

C) Jawaharla Nehru D) M.N. Roy

87. The Maternity Benefits Acts was enacted in

the year

A) 1961 B) 1976

C) 1978 D) 1984

88. In our constitution, the provision relating to

the suspension of fundamental rights during

the emergency provisions has been taken

from which country?

A) England B) France

C) USA D) Germany

89. Khosla commission was estabilished to re-

investigate the death of whom?

A) Subhas Chandra Bose

B) Mahatma Gandhi

C) Rajiv Gandhi

D) Indira Gandhi

90. Article 132 of the Indian Constitution deals

with


A) The appellate jurisdiction of the

Supreme Court in Constitutional cases

B) The appellate jurisdiction of the

Supreme Court from Court in civil cases

C) Criminal appeals from High Courts to

Supreme Court

D) Special leave to appeal by Supreme

Court.

91. Which Amendment Act enabled Delhi and

Pondicherry to vote in the Presidential

Elections?

A) 70th Amendment Act

B) 69th Amendment Act

C) 64th Amendment Act

D) 74th Amendment Act

GROUP - I [PRELIMS ] - 2019

POLITY

92. Creamy layer concept was first introduced

in the case of

(A) Lakshmikant Sukla Vs State of Uttar

Pradesh

(B) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India

(C) K.K. Roy Vs State of Tripura

(D) Jitender Kumar Vs State of Uttar

Pradesh

93. Which of the following statements about

the first amendment to the constitution is

are true?

I.The first amendment was enacted in 1952.

II. The first amendment was enacted before

the first general elections.

III. It was enacted by the provisional

parliament.

(A) I and II are true

(B) II and III are ture

(C)I and III are true

(D) I,II and III are true

94. The financial control exercised by the

Parliament over the executive through

(A) The comptroller and Auditing General of

India

(B) The Auditor General

(C) The Finance Secretary

(D) The Accountant General

95. The Comptroller and Auditor General is

appointed by The President of India under

Which Article




1. Article 308 to 314 of the constitution with

regard to the All India services.

2. Article 308 exclusively apply to the

Jammu and Kashmir.

3. The Parliament has enacted the All India

Services Act in 1952.

4. Article 312 empowers the Parliament to

create new All India Services.

Choose the correct answer :

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 only

(C) 4 only (D) 4 and 3

97. Article________ was inserted into the

constitution under the 73rd Constitutional

Amendment.

(A) 245 B (B) 244 B

(C) 243 B (D) 242 B

98. Who among the following was the Cabinet

Minister without portfolio?

(A) C. Rajagopalachari

(B) T.T. Krishnamachari

(C) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar

(D) G. L. Nanda

99. Which one of the following statement is not

with regard to powers of the Parliament?

(A) Parliament can approve three types of

emergency provisions

(B) It cannot abolish State Legislative

Council

(C) It can alter boundaries of the states

(D) It can establish a common High Court

for two or more states

100. Jallikattu, the bull taming sport of Tamil

Culture and tradition is protected according

to article _____ of the Constitution of India

(A) 29 (1) (B) 39 (1)


(C) 49 (1) (D) 59 (1)

101. Who headed provincial constitution

committee of constituent assembly?

(A) J.B. Kirpalani

(B) H.C. Mukherjee

(C) A.V. Thakkar

(D) Sardar Vallabai Patel

102. Who among the following was not a

member of Drafting committee?

(A) K.M. Munshi

(B) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

(C) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

(D) Krishnamachari

103. I. the Constitution is a source of, and not an

exercise of, legislative power:

II.Constitution springs from a belief in limited

Government

Which of the Statements given above is /

are correct?

(A) I only (B) II only

(C) Both I and II (D)Neither I nor II

104. Which committee was appointed in 1986 to

deal with „Revitalisation of Panchayat Raj

institutions for democracy and

development‟?

(A) Ashok Mehta Committee

(B) G.V.K. Rao committee

(C) L.M. Singhvi committee

(D) Santhanam committee

105. Who said, “The District Administration is the

total Management of public affair”?

(A) S.S. Khera

(B) Ramsay Mac Donald

(C) Warren Hastings

(D) Anumantha Rao

106. Match the following :

Schedule Subject

(a) First Schedule

1. Division of powers between union

and states

(b) Eleventh Schedule

2. Languages

(c) Seventh Schedule

3. Names of states and union territories

(d) Eighth Schedule

4. Panchayats

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 1 3 4 2

(C) 2 1 3 4

(D) 3 1 4 2


Person Eminent field/designation

(a) Abid Hussain

1. Former Attorney General of India

(b) K. Parasaran

2. Former Ambassador of India to the

USA

(c) Subhash Kashyap

3. Former Judge of AP High Court

(d) K. Punniya

4. Former Secretary General, Lok

Sabha

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(C) 3 1 2 4

(D) 2 1 4 3

108. The Judiciary was separated from the

Executive under which article



109. The Essence of “Judicial Activism” is an

(A) Active Justice delivery system

(B) Active Implementation of Rule of law

(C) Active interpretation of law

(D) Active Intervention of Judiciary

110. Balwant Rai Mehta committee in its report

suggested

(A) Three tier system

(B) One tier system

(C) Four tier system

(D) Two tier system


111. Name the Prime Minister When for the first

time the No.Confidence was moved in the

Parliament?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(C) Indira Gandhi

(D) Morarji Desai

112. Which of the following statements regarding

the fundamental duties contained in the

constitution of India are correct?

I.Fundamental Duties have formed apart of

the Constitution of India since its adoption

II. Fundamental Duties are applicable only

to the Citizen of India.

III. Fundamental Duties have become a part

of the Constitution of India in accordance

with

the recommendation of the Swaran Singh

Committee

IV. Fundamental duties can be enforced

through writ jurisdiction

(A) I,II and III correct

(B) I,II and IV correct

(C) II, III correct

(D) III and IV correct

113. The mandate of the official language

commission under Art 344 is/are

1. The progressive use of Hindi language

for official purpose of the union

2. Restriction on the use of the English

language for the official purpose of the

union.

Choose the correct statement(s) :

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) both 1 and 2 (D) neither 1 nor 2

114. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were

added to the Preamble of Indian constitution

by

(A) The Constitution (Fist Amendment) Act

1950

(B) The Constitution (Sixteenth

Amendment) Act 1963

(C) The Constitution (Forth-First

Amendment) Act 1976

(D) The Constitution (Forty-second

Amendment) Act 1976

115. Who is among the following associated with

“PURA” model?

(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

(B) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(C) M.N. Roy

(D) B.S. Minhas

116. Which of the following group constituted the

State Reorganisation Commission?

(A) Pannikkar, Fazl Ali, Katiju

(B) Fazl Ali, Pannikkar, Kunzru

(C) Dhar, Fazl Ali, Pannikkar

(D) Kunzru, Katju, Dhar

117. Which statue is called as “Statue of unity”?

(A) Statue of Liberty

(B) Statue of Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Statue of Sardar Vallabhai Patel

(D) Statue of A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

118. Jagjit Singh Vs. State of Haryana (2007) is

the case related to

(A) Electoral Reform

(B) Election Commission

(C) Members (MLA‟s, MP‟s) support from

outside

(D) Criminalisation of politic


GROUP – I -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS

POLITY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C A C D A A D C D A A B C A A B A A B D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A B B C D D C A B D B A A A A D D C D D

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B A D B C B A A B A A B D B B A B A A A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

B D C D D C D B C A B A D C B C C A C B

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

A B C B B B A D A A A B B A B A C C B A

101 102 103 104 105 10 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 113 115 116 117 11

8

D C C C A A D A A A A C C D B B C C


TNPSC - GROUP - II PRELIMS – 2012


POLITY

1. Arrange the President of Indian in

sequential order:

I. Dr. Radhakrishnan

II. Dr. Zakir Hussain

III. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

IV. V.V.Giri

A) I,II,III,IV B) III,IV,I,II

C) III,I,II,IV D) III,II,I,IV

2. Which one of the following is corectly

matched?

A) Right to vote - Age of 16

B) Direct Election

- Members are elected by the

representatives of the people

C) Indirect Election

- People elect the

representiatives directly

D) Contesting in the election- Completed

age of 25

3. Match List I with List II and selct the correct

answer using the codes given below the

lists.

List I List II

a . Union of India 1. Prime Minister

b. state 2. Panchayat

President

c.Municipal Corporation

3. Governor

d. Gram Panchayat

4. Mayor

a b c d

A) 4 1 2 3

B) 2 3 4 1

C) 1 3 4 2

D) 3 4 1 2

4. The Pardoning power of the President

vested by the Constitution is

A) Legislative power

B) Executive power

C) Judicial Power

D) Emergency Power

5. Match List I (forms of power sharing) with

List II (form of “Govt) and select the correct

answer using the codes given below in the

lists.

List I List II

a. Power shared among different organs of

Govt.

1.Community Government

b. Power shared among Goverments at

diferent levels

2. Separation of Power

c. Power shared by different social groups

3. Coalition Government

d. Power shared by two or more political

parties

4. Federal Government

a b c d

A) 4 1 2 3

B) 2 3 4 1

C) 2 4 1 3

D) 3 4 1 2

6. How many language in India are included in

the Eighth schedule of Indian constitution?

A) 114 B) 22

C) 46 D) 48

GROUP –II – 2013

7. Assertion (A) : Delhi has not been accorded

the status of a full state.

Reason (R) : Being capital of India, it

occupies a special status

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is

correct explanation of (A)

B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not

correct explanation of (A)

C) (A) is true but (R) is wrong

D) (A) is wrong but (R) is true


8. The Chronological order of the following

Chief Justice of India is

1. Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal

2. Sarosh Homi Kapadia

3. K.G.Balakrishna

4. Altamas Kabir

A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,3,2,4

C) 1,2,4,3 D) 2,4,3,1

9. Who is the chairman of the 14th Finance

Commission?

A) Montek sing Ahluwalia

B) C. Rangarajan

C) Y.V.Reddy

D) Vijay Kelkar

10. Which one of the following is not the key

recommendation put forward by the Justice

Verma Committee, 3rd February, 2013?

A) Gender Sensitization through Education

B) End to Human Trafficking

C) Review security laws in conflict zones

D) Recommendation of death penalty in the

rarest of rare cases

11. Which Commission recommended 27%

reservation for backward communities?

A) Sarkaria Commission

B) Mandal Commission

C) Kalelkar Commission

D) Shah Commission

12. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution

specifies the powers, authority and

responsibility of Panchayats?

A) Seventh schedule

B) Ninth schedule

C) Eleventh schedule

D) Twelfth schedule

13. Assertion (A) ; Fundamental Duties do not

have any legal sanction

Reason (R) : The Fundamental duties

cannot be enforced by courts

A) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A)

B) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) does not

explain (A)

C) (A) is true but (R) is false

D) (A) is false but (R) is true

14. Consider the following statements :

a) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act

inserts certain provisions into Part IX of the

Constitution

b) It empowers the State Legislature to

make laws for the organization of

Panchayats at Village level as well as at the

higher levels of a district.

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:

A) Both (a) and (b) are true

B) (a) is true and (b) is false

C) Only (a) is true

D) Only (b) is true

15. Which Article deals with administrative

Tribunals?

A) Article 323 B) Article 323 A

C) Article 323 B D) Article 321

16. In which of the following Amendment raised

the age of retirement of a High Court

Judges from 62 to 65 years

A) 104th Amendment B) 101st Amendment

C) 102nd Amendment D) 103rd Amendment

17. The National Commission for Women was

set up in

A) 1992 B) 1993

C) 1994 D) 1995

18. Match the feature of the constitution with

country from which they have been

borrowed:-

Feature Country

a. Rule of Law 1.Ireland

b. Judicial of Review 2. Australia

c. Idea of concurrent subjects

3. Australia

d. Directive Principles of State Policy

4.England


a b c d

A) 4 3 2 1

B) 1 2 3 4

C) 2 3 1 4

D) 4 3 1 2

19. Consider the following statements:-

Assertion (A) : The JVP committee was set

up to re-examine the issue of linguistic re-

organization of Indian states.

Reason (R) : The committee members were

Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabai Patel and

Pattabhi Sitaramayya.

Select your answer according to the coding

scheme below:-

A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not

the explanation for (A)

C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the

correct explanation for (A)

D) (A) is true but (R) is false

GROUP –II - 2015

20. Identify the original states before its

bifurcation and choose the correct answer

from the codes given below:

A B

a) Haryana i. Uttar Pradesh.

b) Jharkhand ii. Madhya Pradesh.

c) Uttarkhand iii. Punjab

d) Chattisgarh iv. Bihar.

a b c d

A) iv iii i ii

B) iii ii I iv

C) iii iv i ii

D) i iii ii iv

21. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

recommends that a National Education

Commission must be setup for every.

A) One year B) Three years

C) Two years D) Five years

22. Who was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna

Award?

A) Dr.S. Radhakrishnan

B) Sri.Rajagopalachari.

C) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

23. Consider the following statements and find

out the correct ones.

1. A democratic government may be liberal

one.

2. A liberal government may be

democratic.

3. A liberated democratic government is

collectivistic.

4. A liberal democratic government is a

welfare state.

A) 1,2,4 B) 1,2,3

C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4

24. Which one of the following provisions can

be amended by a simple majority in the

parliament?

A) Provisions relating to Executive power

of the union.

B) Provisions relating to Executive power

of the state.

C) Provisions relating to constitution of a

High Court for Union Territory.

D) Provisions relating to composition of the

legislative councils of the state

25. The Lokpal bill was first introduced in the

Lok sabha in which year?

A) 1968 B) 1967

C) 1965 D) 1964

26. The Verma committee on fundamental

duties was set-up in the year.

A) 1999 B) 1998

C) 1996 D) 1994

27. Which one of the following articles says.

“The Vice President presides over the

meetings of the council of states”?

A) 89 B) 90

C) 87 D) 88


28. Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals

with.

A) War emergency

B) Constitutional Emergency in the states.

C) Financial Emergency

D) Administrative Emergency.

29. Which of the following cases prompted the

Indian parliament to enact 24th Amendment

Bill?

A) Golaknath case

B) Shankari Prasad case

C) Kesavananda Bharati case

D) Shah Banu case.

30. Match List I with List II.

List I List II

High courts Year of Establishment

a) Allahabad 1. 1862

b) Delhi 2. 1884

c) Karnataka 3. 1966

d) Madras 4. 1896

a b c d

A) 1 3 4 2

B) 2 4 3 1

C) 3 1 2 4

D) 4 3 2 1

31. Who is the thirteenth president of India?

A) Dr.A.P.J. Abdul kalam

B) Smt.Pratiba patil

C) K.R. Narayanan

D) B.D. Jatti.

32. Which one of the following is not a function

of Chief Election Commission of India?

A) Conduct of elections to the office of the

state Governor.

B) Conduct of elections to the office of the

president and vice- president.

C) Conduct of elections to parliament.

D) Conduct of elections to the state

Legislature.

33. Match the List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the code given below

the list.

List I List II

Committee Purpose.

a) Dutt Committee

1. Industrial Licensing.

b) Wanchoo Committee

2. Direct Taxes.

c) Rajamannar Committee

3. Centre States.

d) Rangarajan Committee

4. Disinvestment.

Codes:

a b c d

A) 4 3 2 1

B) 1 2 4 3

C) 1 2 3 4

D) 4 1 3 2

GROUP - II [PRELIMS ] – 2018

POLITY

34. The institution of Lok-Ayukta was

established first in the state of

(A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra

(C) Rajasthan (D) Kerala

35. Who said “The Directiver Principle of State

Policy is a Novel feature” of the Indian

Constitution?

(A) K.T. Shah

(B) B.R. Ambedkar

(C) Aladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

(D) B.N. Rao

36. The idea of concurrent list was borrowed

from

(A) British Constitution

(B) Canadian Constitution

(C) Irish Constitution

(D) Australian Constitution


37. In which year the Parliament enacted the

Official Language Act?

(A) 1955 (B) 1965

(C) 1963 (D) 1957

38. The members of the Central Administrative

Tribunal are given status of Judges of High

Court from an Amendment in the year :

(A) 2003 (B) 2004

(C) 2005 (D) 2006

39. Which Act Provided Provincial Autonomy to

India?

(A) Rowlatt Act – 1919

(B) Minto –Morley Reform Act – 1909

(C) The Government of India Act – 1935

(D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reform Act – 1919

40. Which one of the following Parliamentary

Committee is Semi-Judicial in nature?

(A) Committee on Petitions

(B) Ethics Committee

(C) Committee on Privileges

(D) Rules Committee

41. The Constituent Assembly of India was set

up according to the proposals of

(A) The Cripps Mission

(B) The Cabinet Mission Plan

(C) The Mountbatten Plan

(D) The Nehru Plan

42. Which one is not part of the Panchayat Raj?

(A) Smiti (B) Village

(C) Township (D) Zila Parishad

43. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals

with Fundamental Duties?

(A) Part II (B) Part III

(C) Part IV A (D) Part V

GROUP – II -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS

POLITY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C D C B C B A B C D B C A A B A A A B C

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

D B A D A A A C A D C A C B B D C D C C

41 42 43

B C C


TNPSC - GROUP – II(A) - PRELIMS – 2014


POLITY

1. The Vice President of India is elected by.

I. The members of Lok Sabha.

II. The members of Rajya Sabha.

Out of these,

A) Neither I nor II B) I only

C) II only D) Both I and II

2. Arrange in Chronological order:

I. Bhairon Singh Shekkawat

II. K.R.Narayanan.

III. Mohammed Hamid Ansari.

IV. Krishna Kant.

A) III,IV,I and II B) II,IV,I and III

C) I,III,II and IV D) IV,II,III and I

3. Match the following:

List I List II

a) Deputy Chairman of the

Rajya Sabha

- 1. Appointed by the President.

b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

-2. Appointed by the Lok Sabha.

c) Chairman of Public Accounts

Committee

- 3. Elected by the Lok Sabha.

d) Chief Election Commissioner

- 4. Elected by the Rajya Sabha.

Codes:

a b c d

A) 4 3 2 1

B) 2 3 4 1

C) 3 2 1 4

D) 1 3 2 4

4. Who said that, ”Prime Minister is the

Captain of the ship of the State?”

A) Munro B) Ramsay Muir

C) Jennings D) H.J. Laski.

5. By which of the following articles, the

procedure for the amendment of the Indian

Constitution is given?




Assertion (A) : India is a Republican polity.

Reason (R) : India shall have no hereditary

ruler and the people shall elect their

Government.

Now select your answer according to the

coding scheme given below.

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is

correct explanation of (A).

B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not

the correct explanation of (A).

C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

7. The Chairman of Sarkaria Commission was.

A) Ranjit Singh Sarkaria

B) Rajiv singh Sarkaria.

C) Sivaraman Sarkaria

D) Ramesh Singh Sarkaria.

8. Who was the speaker of Eleventh Lok

Sabha?

A) Bal Ram Jakhar

B) Shivraj patil

C) P.A. Sengma

D) Somnath Chatterjee..

9. Who appoints the Advocate General for the

state?

A) President B) Prime Minister

C) Governor D) Chief Justice of

Supreme court

10. Who was the Prime Minister when for the

first time Non-confidence motion was

moved in the Indian parliament?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru

B) Indira Gandhi

C) Morarji Desai

D) Lal Bahadur Shastri.


11. Which of the following statements about the

Lok pal are wrong?

i) Lok Pal will have the power to

investigate an Administrative Act done

by Minister or Secretary.

ii) Lok Pal can inquire into a Complain

maladministration.

iii) Action taken in a matter affecting

dealing with Government of India and

any foreign government.

iv) Grant of honours and awards

Code:

A) i ,iv B) ii, iii

C) i, ii D) iii, iv

12. Which one of the following is not related to

NGO.

A) Civil Society Organizations

B) Citizen Associations.

C) Non – State actors

D) Public Corporations.

13. In Indian Constitution the directive principles

of policy were incorporated in Articles from.

A) Art 40 to Art 51 B) Art 36 to Art 51

C) Art 39 to Art 51 D) Art 25 to Art 51

14. Which among the following committtes

responsible for the incorporation of

fundamental duties in the constitution?

A) Wanchoo Committee

B) Sachar Committee

C) Swaran Singh committee

D) Bhagawati Committee

GROUP – II(A) – 2016

15. Arrange the following in ascending order of

their formation;-

I. Planning Commission

II. Zonal Councils

III. National Integration Council

IV. National Development Council

A) I-II-III-IV B) I-IV-III-II

C) I-IV-II-III D) I-III-IV-II

16. Arrange the following committees in

chronological order

1. Gorwala Committee

2. Ayyangar Committee

3. Appleby Report

4. Administrative Reforms Commission

A) 1-3-2-4 B) 2-3-1-4

C) 2-1-3-4 D) 3-1-2-4

17. When did the Constituent Assembly for

undivided India meet for the first time?

A) 9th November, 1946

B) 9th December, 1946

C) 9th October, 1946

D) 9th September, 1946

18. When was the state of Nagaland formed?

A) 1961 B) 1963

C) 1965 D) 1967

19. Which of the following schedule was

inserted by the 74th Amendment Act?

A) 12th Schedule B) 11th Schedule

C) 13th Schedule D) 10th Schedule

20. Which of the following Chief Justice of

Supreme Court served as acting President

of India?

A) Justice Subha Rao

B) Justice M. Hidayatullah

C) Justice Y.V.Chandrachud

D) Justice P.N.Bhagwati

21. In 1868, the National estimate Committee of

India was headed by

A) V.K.R.V. Rao

B) Shah & Khambat

C) Dadabhai Naoroji

D) W.C.Peterson

22. Who headed steering committee of

Constituent Assembly?

A) Jawaharla Nehru

B) K.M.Munshi

C) H.C.Mookherjee

D) Rajendra Prasad


23. Which article of Indian Constitution deals

with Right to Elementary Education?

A) Article 20(a) B) Article 21 (a)

C) Article 22 (a) D) Article 21

24. Complete the following statement with

appropriate choices and select the correct

option. The State information Commissioner

shall be appointed by the Governor on the

recommendation of a committee consisting

of

1. The Chief Minister

2. The leader of opposition in the legislative

assembly.

3. A Cabinet minister, nominated by the

Chief Minister

4. The Chief Justice of the High Court

A) 1 and 2 only B) 1, 2 and 4 only

C) 1, 2 and 3 only D) 1, 3 and 4 only

25. When was supreme court of India

inaugurated?

A) Jan 26, 1950 B) Jan 28, 1950

C) Feb 28, 1950 D) April 26, 1950

26. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public

Accounts Committee of the Indian

Parliament?

A) The Prime Minister

B) The speaker of the house of people

C) Minister of Parliament Affairs

D) Committee of Parliamentary Affairs

27. Which Article empowers the President to

summon and prorogue either Houses of

Parliament



28. Which Indian Constitutional Amendment Act

on Panchayat Raj mention under clauses I

1/3 of the seats were to be allotted to

women belonging to SC‟s and ST‟s

A) 73rd Amendment

B) 74th Amendment

C) 75th amendment

D) 76th Amendment

GROUP – II(A) - 2017

29. Whether governor of a state has the power

to dissolve the state legislature?

A. Yes B. No

C. He/She can only recommend

D. Only President can

30. In the rules of business of Indian

Parliament, if the speaker admits, not of a

motion but no date is fixed for its

introduction – then it is called

A. Call attention motion

B. Adjournment motion

C. No confidence motion

D. No day – yet – named motion

31. Constitutional status to the panchayat Raj

Institutions was initiated based on the

recommendation of

A. G. V. K. Rao Committee

B. L. M. Singhvi Committee

C. Ashok Mehta Committee

D. Balwantray Mehta Committee

32. Which Article of the Constitution of India

conferred special leave petitions power to

the Supreme Court?

A. Art. 136 B. Art. 32

C. Art. 139 D. Art. 226

33. In India, power of Judicial Review is

restricted because the

A. Executive is supreme

B. Legislature is supreme

C. Constitution is supreme

D. Judges are transferable

34. The government of Indian instituted :Bharat

Ratna and Padma Shri awards under

A. Article 14 of the Indian constitution

B. Article 18 of the Indian constitution

C. Article 25 of the Indian constitution

D. Article 32 of the Indian constitution

35. The word „Secularism‟ was inserted in the

preamble of the constitution after supreme

court of India observed „Secularism‟ was a

basic feature of constitution in


A. 1975 B. 1973

C. 1976 D. 1981

36. .The special status provide to Jammu and

Kashmir under Art. 370 limits parliament to

enact laws relating to

A. List – I and List – III of the Seventh

Schedule

B. List – I only of the Seventh Schedule

C. List – II only of the Seventh Schedule

D. List – I, II & III of the Seventh Schedule

37. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity

enshrined in the preamble of the

Constitution of India were adopted under

inspiration from the

A. American Declaration of Independence

B. French Revolution

C. Russian Revolution

D. UN Charter

38. Which one of the following is not correct

related to the distinctions between the

grants under Article 275 and Article 282 of

the Constitution of India?

A. The grants-in-aid under Article 275 are

statutory where as under Article 282

they are discretionary

B. Under Article 282, the union has the

power to provide grants in-aid even for

non-plan expenditure

C. Under Article 275, the union has the

right to give grants in accordance with

the decision taken on the basis of

recommendation of Finance

Commission

D. Allocation of Grants under Article 282 is

based on the recommendation of

Cabinet Committee

GROUP – II(A) -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS POLITY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

D B A A A A A C C A A D B C C C B A A B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

C D B C B B C A D B A C B B A B D


TNPSC - GROUP – IV - 2011


POLITY

1. Which authority conducts the local body

elections?

A) Central Election Commission

B) State Election Commission

C) District Election Board

D) Observers

2. The chairman of the Rajya sabha is

A) the president of India

B) the vice-president of India

C) the speaker

D) the prime Minister

3. The link language of India is

A) French B) Japanese

C) Greek D) English

4. The age for voting right in India is

A) 21 years B) 25years

C) 18 years D) 20 Years

5. The first Indian Governor-General of free

India was

A) Gandhiji B) Nehru

C) Jinnah D) Rajaji

6. Who issues the voter identity card?

A) Election commission of India

B) District Collector

C) Municipal Commissioner

D) Chairman

GROUP – IV – 2012

7. Arrange in chronological order:

I. Dr.A.P.J. Abdul kalam

II.Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

III. K.R. Narayanan

IV. P. Venkataraman.

of these.

A) IV,II, III, and I B) III, I, II and IV

C) I, III, IV and II D) II,IV, I and III

8. The chairman of the Finance commission is

appointed by

A) the president

B) the prime Minister

C)the speaker of the Lok sabha

D) the finance Minister

9. Arrange the following Prime Minister in

chronological order:

I. Charan singh II. V.P. Singh

III. Lal Bahadur shastri

IV. Chandrasekhar

of these.

A) III, I, II & IV B) IV, II, III & I

C) II, III, IV & I D) IV, III, I & II

10. Which one of the following is not a

qualification required to be the vice-

President of India?

A) He must be a citizen of India

B) He must be able to speak, read and write

in Hindi

C)He must have completed 35 years of age.

D) He must be eligible for election as a

member of the Rajya sabha.

11. Which one of the following is correctly

matched?

A) Father of Indian planning

- Gandhiji

B) The first Governor of Tamil Nadu

- P.C. Alexander

C) First woman Prime Minister in India

- Indira Gandhi

D)First President of India

- Nehru

GROUP – IV - 2013

12. Who was the first woman judge of the

Supreme court?

A) Hanna Chandy

B) Vijaylakshmi pandit

C) Indira Gandhi

D) Fathima Beevi


Assertion (A) : The (ARC) recommended

that the institution of Lokpal and Lokayakta.

Reason (R) : 1. should be

demonstratively Independent and Impartial.


2. their appointment should be as far as

possible non- Political.


scheme given below.

A) Both (A) and ( R) are false

B) Both (A) and ( R)is correct

C) (A) is false but (R ) is true

D) (A) is true but ( R) is false.

14. Arrange the Presidents of India in

chronological order of their term in Office.

I. R. Venkatraman

II. Dr.Sankar Dayal Sharma

III. Dr. K.R. Narayanan

IV. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

A) I.II,III,IV B) III, IV, I, II

C) III, I, II, IV D) III, II, I, IV

15. Which article empowers the President to

dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time before

its tenure?

A) Art 85 B) Art 95

C) Art 81 D) Art 75

16. The first meeting of the constituent

Assembly of India was held in

A) 1950 B) 1946

C) 1948 D) 1947


Assertion (A) : The CVC has to present

annually to the president a report on its

performances.

Reason( R) : The president place this

report before both House of Parliament.


scheme given below:

A) Both (A) and ( R) are correct

B) Both (A) and (R) are false

C) (A) is false but ( R) is true

D) (A) is true but ( R) is false.

18. Who presides over the joint sessions of the

parliament?

A) The president B) The Vice-president

C) The Speaker D) The Prime Minister

19. The National Development Council was

established in the year.

A) 1952 B) 1955

C) 1959 D) 1962

20. Which article of the constitution provides for

the imposition of president‟s rule in the

states?



GROUP – IV – 2014

21. Which authority conducts the Local Bodies

Elections?

A) state Election commission

B) Central Election Commission

C) District Election Board

D) observers

22. During the period of which Indian Prime

Minister was there hung parliament?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Indira Gandhi

C) L.K. Gujral D) Rajiv Gandhi

23. Choose the answer:

_________ Article of the constitution

prohibits the state from arbitrarily arresting

any person.


C) Article24 D) Article 25

24. In which part of the Constitution of India is

dealt with Fundamental Rights?

A) Part II B) Part III

C) Part I D) Part IV

25. „Glimpses of world History‟ was written by

A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Indira Gandhi

C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Rajiv Gandhi

26. Forty- Second Amendment Act came into

force in the year

A) 1947 B) 1976

C) 1967 D) 1958

27. The Governor is appointed by

A) Judge B) Prime Minister

C) Chief Minister D) President

28. How long can a money bill be delayed by

the Rajya Sabha?

A) Two months B) Six weeks


C) 30 days D) 14 days

29. Which article permits Separate Constitution

for the state of Jammu- Kashmir?

A) Articles 370 B) Articles 390

C) Articles 161 D) Articles 356

30. Arrange the prime Minister‟s of India in

chronological order of their term in office

I. Thiru. Jawaharlal Nehru

II) Tmt. Indira Gandhi

III. Thiru. Morarji Desai

III) Thiru. Lal Bahadur Shastri

A) I,IV,II,III B) I,II,III,IV

C) IV,I,III,II D) II,III,IV,I

31. The word citizen is derived from.

A) Greek B) Latin

C) Spanish D) Urdu

32. The Multi- Functionary at the district level is

A) District Health officer

B) District Labour office

C) Tahsildar

D) District Collector


Assertion (A) : Governor can promulgate

ordinance when the state legislative is not in

session under Article - 213.

Reason (R) : These ordinance must be

approved by the legislative within six

months.


scheme given below:

A) Both (A) and (R) are false

B) (A) is false and ( R) is true

C) (A) is true and ( R) is false

D) Both (A) and (R ) are true

34. Usually the population of a corporation is

A) 5 lakhs B) 7 lakhs

C) 8 lakhs D) 10 lakhs

GROUP – IV - 2016

35. Indian Constitution Drafting Committee‟s

Chairman

A) Dr.Rajendra Prasad

B) Jawaharlal Nehru

C) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar

D) Gandhi

36. Which year the constitution of India (61st

Amendment Act) lowered the voting age

from 21 years to 18 years?

A) 1988 B) 1987

C) 1986 D) 1985

37. Article 63 of the Indian Constitution refers to

A) Vice – President B) President

C) Prime Minister D) Governor

38. Who is the chairperson of NITI Aayog?

A) President B) Prime minister

C) Vice – President

D) Supreme Court judge.

39. The writ of Habeas corpus is

A) To safeguard people from illegal arrest.

B) The Petitioner who requires legal help to

get his work done by respective public

Authorities.

C) It probability a subordinate court from

acting beyond its Jurisdiction.

D) It prevents usurpation of a public office

40. The election process at the state level is

supervised by.

A) Chief Election Commissioner

B) Supreme court Judge

C) Chief Electoral officer

D) High court judge.

41. Find out the correct statement.

The Indian constitution contains.

A) XXII Parts, 449 Articles and 12

Schedules

B) XXI parts, 438 Articles and 8 Schedules

C) XXIII parts, 469 Articles and 21

Schedules

D) XX parts, 428 Articles and 18 Schedules.

42. Which of the following is incorrectly

matched?

A) Assassination of Gandhiji

- January 30,1918

B) Republic Day

- January 26,1950


C) Independence Day

- August 15,1947

D) Constituent Assembly adopted National

Anthem – January 23,1950

43. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) The President

- Guardian of our Constitution

B) The Chief Minister

- Appointed by the Governor

C) Supreme court

- Unique Identification

D) National Anthem

- Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

44. Consumer Courts are set up in _______ tier

system.

A) Two B) Three

C) Four D) Five

GROUP - IV [PRELIMS ] – 2018

POLITY

45. The recommendations of 15th Finance

Commission will be effect from which date?

(A) January 1, 2018

(B) April 1, 2018

(C) April 1, 2020

(D) January 1, 2020


(a) Governor 1. Article 171

(b) Chief Minister 2. Article 170

(c) Legislative Council 3. Article 153

(d) Legislative Assembly 4. Article 163

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 2 4 1

(B) 3 4 1 2

(C) 1 4 3 2

(D) 2 3 1 4

47. In which Article make provision for the

appointment of a law officer, the Attorney

General by President of India?



48. The Government of India introduced the

Rights to Education on

(A) 15th August 1947

(B) 26th January 1950

(C) 1st April 2010

(D) 2nd October 2012

49. When was the Legal Services Authority Act

(LokAdalat) Passed?

(A) 1985 (B) 1987

(C) 1986 (D) 1988

50. Find out the wrong rules of the national flag.

(A) The national flag should be raised and

lowered carefully

(B) We must lower it before sun set

(C) No other flag should be placed higher

than it nor should any flag be placed to its

left

(D) We must stand in attention when the

flag is hoisted

51. Article 41 of the constitution of India

guarantees

(A) Right to work

(B) Right to property

(C) Right to live

(D) Right Against Exploitation

52. The article of the constitution provides for a

Vice President



53. National Integration Day celebrated in

(A) November-19 (B) October - 20

(C) June -10 (D) August -12


GROUP-IV -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS

POLITY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B B D A D A A A A B C D B A A B A C A C

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A C A B C B D D A A B B D D C A A B A C

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53

A D B B C B C C B C A D A

tnpsc - previous year questions · c) golaknath vs state of punjab d) menaka vs union of india....

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