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SAMPLE PAPER 1. Which one of the following Acts formally

introduced the principles of elections for the

first time?

a. Indian Councils Act, 1909

b. Government of India Act, 1919

c. Government of India Act, 1935

d. Indian Independence Act, 1947

2. Tangible immovable property of the value of

this amount or upward can be transferred

only by a registered instrument:

a. Rs. 100

b. Rs. 50

c. Rs. 25

d. Rs. 90

3. A, the accused was an educated person

living in a town where medical attendance

was available, chained up his brother, who

was suffering from periodical fits of violent

insanity, for over three months in a

unnecessarily cruel manner. Held that:

a. The accused acted in good faith

because every reasonable man would

have acted in a similar way in those

circumstances.

b. The accused acted in good faith for the

benefit of his brother and was,

therefore, not liable

c. The accused acted in good faith

because whatever he did was, in his

judgment, in the interest of his brother

and he reasonably believed that it was

for his good, more over the chaining

was without any malice or mens rea.

d. The accused did not act in good faith

because he failed to exercise due care

and attention in as much as he did not

avail of the medical care, instead

hastened to subject the victim to undue

cruelty.

4. In a case triable by a Magistrate as a

summons case, the investigation cannot be

continued under section 167(5) of Cr PC

a. beyond a period of six months from the

date of arrest of the accused

b. beyond a period of six months from the

date of commission of the offence

c. beyond a period of maximum term of

imprisonment prescribed for the

offence from the date of arrest of the

accused

d. beyond a period of maximum term of

imprisonment prescribed for the

offence from the date of commission of

the offence

5. Presumption as to the genuineness of

gazettes in electronic form has been dealt

with under

a. section 81 A of Evidence Act

b. section 88A of Evidence Act

c. section 90A of Evidence Act

d. section 73A of Evidence Act

6. Section 463 of Cr PC permits

a. oral evidence by the Magistrate of the

confession made to him

b. oral evidence to prove that the

procedure laid down under section 164,

Cr PC had actually been followed,

where the record, which ought to show

that, does not do so

c. both (a) & (b)


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d. neither (a) nor (b)

7. The abetment of offence is completed as

soon:

a. The offence abetted has been

committed

b. The abettor has incited another person

to commit an offence

c. The person abetted has done some

overt act towards the commission of

the offence

d. All the above acts have been place

8. Which of the following is not an essential

element of undue influence?

a. One party must be in a position to

dominate the will of the other party

b. The dominant party must use his

dominant position to obtain an unfair

advantage over the other party

c. The dominant party must obtain an

unfair advantage over the other party

d. One party must be in a dominant

position, but he may or may not use

his position to obtain unfair advantage

over the weaker party

9. Under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC, an

application for amendment of pleadings can

be allowed

a. before the commencement of trial

b. after the commencement of trial

c. either before or after the

commencement of trial

d. no such condition’ is required

10. Section 47 of CPC is

a. mandatory and bars a suit

b. mandatory and bars a defence

c. mandatory and bars a suit as well as a

defence

d. directory.

11. Who is considered the guardian of the

Public Purse?

a. Parliament

b. Comptroller and Auditor General

c. Public Accounts Committee

d. The President

12. Omission to give notice, under Order 21,

Rule 22 of CPC, of the execution is a defect

which renders the execution

a. null & void

b. irregular

c. voidable

d. valid

13. Which of the following is incorrect ?

a. A rejected offer cannot be accepted

b. Cross offers cannot be constructed as

an agreement

c. Counter offer constitute valid

acceptance

d. All of the above

14. A obtained a sum of Rs. 10,000/- from B by

putting B in fear of death. Which one of the

following offences was committed by A?

a. Cheating

b. Robbery

c. Mischief

d. Extortion

15. Within the meaning of Section 54 of the

Transfer of Property Act 1882 (TPA), the

‘sale’ does not include

a. hire purchase transaction

b. auction sale

c. installment payment system

d. none of the above

16. A confessional statement under section 164

of Cr PC can be recorded

a. during the course of investigation only

& not afterwards

b. during the course of investigation or at

any time afterwards before the

commencement of inquiry or trial


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c. during investigation as well as during

inquiry but before commencement of

trial

d. during the investigation, inquiry or trial

17. Under section 45 of Evidence Act the

opinion of expert can be on the question of

a. Indian law

b. Foreign law

c. both (a) and (b)

d. only (a) and not (b)

18. Under section 92 of Evidence Act oral

evidence to explain the real nature of the

transaction is admissible

a. where the document does not record all

the terms of the contract

b. where the document records all the

terms of the contract

c. where the documents is complete in

itself

d. all the above

19. Classification of compoundable & non-

compoundable offences has been provided

under

a. 1st Schedule

b. IInd Schedule

c. section 320 of Cr PC

d. section 321 of Cr PC

20. Which one of the following is not an

essential element of sale?

a. Parties

b. subject matter

c. transfer or conveyance

d. the payment of the price in cash

21. Section 97 of IPC extends the right of

private defence of property, to the offence

of:

a. Cheating

b. Misappropriation

c. Theft & Robbery

d. None

22. Uberima fidei means

a. Bad faith

b. Utmost good faith

c. Good faith

d. No faith at all

23. A suit under Order XXXVII can be filed on

the basis of

a. bills of exchange

b. hundies

c. promissory notes

d. all the above.

24. A suit in representative capacity can be filed

by virtue of

a. under Order I, Rule 8 of CPC

b. under Order I, Rule 9 of CPC

c. under Order I, Rule 8A of CPC

d. under Order I, Rule 10A of CPC

25. Under a single, integrated, hierarchial

judicial system, the High Courts in the

States are directly under the:

a. President

b. Governor of the State

c. Union Parliament

d. Supreme Court

26. Which of the following Acts gave

representation to Indians for the first time in

the Legislature?

a. Indian Councils Act, 1909

b. Indian Councils Act, 1919

c. Government of India Act, 1935

d. None of the above

27. Pleadings must state

a. Facts

b. Law

c. Evidence

d. all the above

28. Which of the following is not a duty of the

seller?

a. to produce title deeds

b. to disclose patent defects


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c. to execute the conveyance

d. to pay the outgoings

29. A minor enters into a contract for the

purchase of certain necessaries. In such a

case

a. He is liable to return the necessaries

b. He is liable to pay

c. His estate is liable to pay

d. His guardian is liable to pay

30. A promises, for no consideration, to give to

B Rs 1,000.

a. This is a void agreement

b. This is a valid agreement

c. This is a voidable agreement


31. Under the Transfer of Property Act 1882

(TPA) is a transfer of

a. an interest in a specific immovable

property

b. a right to enjoy the immovable property

c. ownership


32. All void agreements are always

a. Illegal

b. Valid

c. Enforceable


33. The essence of sedition is

a. Intention

b. Benefits or gains of the accused

c. Result

d. Both intention and result

34. Transfer of tangible immovable property of

the value of Rs. 100 can be made:

a. only by a registered instrument

b. by an unregistered instrument

c. by delivery of property

d. by placing the buyer in possession of

the property

35. Which classification of offence comes under

Criminal Procedure Coder

a. cognizable & non-cognizable

b. bailable & non-bailable

c. summons cases 8: warrant cases

d. all the above

36. Leave to investigate into a non-cognizable

offence can be granted by a

a. Magistrate in any part of India

b. Magistrate in any part of the State

c. Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the

case

d. either (a) or (b) or (c)

37. Secondary evidence of a document is

admissible as a substitute for

a. admissible primary evidence

b. inadmissible primary evidence under

certain circumstances

c. inadmissible primary evidence under

all the circumstances

d. both (a) & (b) are correct

38. Section 79 of Evidence Act applies to

a. certificates issued by a Government

officer

b. certified copies issued by a

Government officer

c. other documents duly certified to be

genuine by a Government officer

d. all the above

39. A dying declaration is admissible

a. only in criminal proceedings

b. only in civil proceedings

c. in civil as well as criminal proceedings

‘both’

d. in criminal proceedings alone 8: not in

civil proceedings

40. The definition of ‘Sale’ is contained in the

Transfer of Property Act 1882 (TPA) in

section

a. 105


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b. 100

c. 54


41. For presumption under section 107 of

Evidence Act, the person is to be shown to

be alive

a. within 7 years

b. within 12 years

c. within 3 years

d. within 30 years

42. Acceptance to an offer may be given by

a. Any person

b. Competent person

c. Authorized person

d. Both by (b) and (c)

43. Section 84 of IPC provides for

a. Medical insanity

b. Legal insanity

c. Moral insanity

d. None

44. Right to private defence is

a. Available under all circumstances

b. Available where there is time to have

the resource to the protection of public

authorities

c. Available where there is not time to

have resource to the protection of

public authorities

d. None

45. X with a view of murdering Y enters Y’s

bedroom at night when Y is out of station. X

is guilty of

a. Murder

b. House trespass

c. Attempt to murder

d. No offence

46. In a summons trial case instituted on a

complaint wherein the summons have been

issued to the accused, the non-appearance or

death of the complainant shall entail

a. discharge of the accused

b. acquittal of the accused

c. either discharge or acquittal depending

on the facts & circumstances of the

case

d. (d) only (a) & (c) above

47. In which of the following sections of the

Transfer of Property Act 1882 (TPA)

doctrine of marshalling has been provided

a. 56 and 81

b. 81

c. 81 and 82

d. 85

48. A retracted confession

a. can be made solely the basis of

conviction

b. cannot be made solely the basis of

conviction under any circumstances

c. cannot be made solely the basis of

conviction unless the same is

corroborated

d. both (a) & (c) are incorrect

49. Which of the following legal pleas need not

be pleaded

a. Estoppel

b. Limitation

c. res-judicata

d. none of the above

50. In execution of a decree for the

maintenance, salary of a person can be

attached to the extent of

a. one fourth

b. one third

c. two third

d. one half

51. Which of the following kinds of mortgage is

not included in section 58 of the Transfer of

Property Act 1882

a. Usufructuary mortgage

b. Anomalous mortgage


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c. Simple mortgage

d. Mortgage by deposit of title deeds

52. Besides its permanent seat at Delhi, the

Supreme Court can also meet at :

a. any other metropolitan city

b. any other major city

c. any other place as decided by the Chief

Justice of India in consultation with the

President

d. any other Union Territory

53. Which one of the following comes under the

jurisdiction of both the High Court and the

Supreme Court ?

a. Disputes between the Centre and the

States

b. Disputes between the States

c. Protection of the Fundamental Rights

d. Protection against the violation of the

Constitution

54. In case of merger of the complaint with the

police report the procedure to be followed

for the trial

a. shall be of the complaint case

b. shall be of the case instituted on the

police report

c. shall be of both as per convenience

during the trial

d. shall be the one as directed ‘by the

Magistrate

55. In which of the following circumstances,

does the offer come to an end ?

a. Lapse of time

b. Counteroffer

c. Death of offerer or offeree before

Acceptance

d. All of the above

56. Which one of the following pairs is correctly

matched?

a. Writ of Habeas Corpus - available

against private individual as well

b. Writ of Quo Warranto - available

against subordinate courts only

c. Writ of Prohibition - available against

autonomous bodies only

d. Writ of Certiorari - available against

public servants only

57. Under the meaning of Section 54 of the

Transfer of Property Act 1882 (TPA), the

‘sale’ is a transfer of ownership in exchange

for

a. price paid

b. price promised

c. price partly promised and paid

d. all the above

58. Under tort what kind of damages are

awarded?

a. Liquidated

b. Unliquidated

c. Vindictive

d. Exemplary

59. Under law of tort who can file a suit:

a. Person who has suffered injury

b. Relatives of the person who have

suffered injury

c. Any competent person

d. State

60. Which one of the following is an essential

element of tort?

a. Consent of parties

b. Intention of the wrongdoer

c. Motive


The given sentence is in active/ passive voice.

Change the voice of the sentence.

61. Champagne is drunk on new year’s eve.

a. People drink champagne on new year’s

eve

b. Let us drink champagne on new year’s

eve


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c. They will drink champagne on new

year’s eve

d. People always drink champagne on

new year’s eve

62. We hate him

a. He has hated by us

b. He is hated by us

c. He was hated by us

d. He will hated by us

Fill in the blanks with appropriate modals.

63. Speak slowly lest you ................awake the

child

a. Should

b. Would

c. Both of the above


64. Children ...............take tea at night

a. Should

b. Must

c. Would

d. Want

Select the word that is most similar to the

following word

65. Miserable

a. Object

b. Subject

c. Abject

d. Inject

66. Quote

a. Sight

b. Site

c. Cite

d. Fight

Select the word that is most dissimilar to the

following word

67. Worthy

a. Unsuitable

b. Deserving

c. Skilled

d. Honourable

68. He said to Manoj, “May you prosper"

a. He wished that Manoj should prosper

b. He wished that Manoj may prosper

c. He wished that Manoj might prosper

d. He wished Manoj to prosper

69. I've never ___ sushi before

a. Ate

b. Eat

c. Eaten


70. Weather report: "It's seven o'clock in

Dehradun and _______

a. There is snow

b. It’s snowing

c. It snows

d. It snowed

71. Jayshree .....her blue jeans today, but usually

she wears a skirt or a dress.

a. Wears

b. Wearing

c. Wear

d. Is wearing

72. I will write a letter to you tentatively ____

the dates of the program

a. Involving

b. Urging

c. Guiding

d. Indicating

73. How much did it ____ to reach Jaipur by

Car?

a. Charge

b. Price

c. Cost

d. Money

74. The decision to drop the atom bomb on

Hiroshima was a grave one.

a. Serious

b. Momentous


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c. Instinctive

d. Impulsive

75. If the others hadn’t voted in favor of the

younger candidate, I probably wouldn’t have

done so

a. Even

b. Either

c. Too

d. Also

76. Rita said to me,"Will you lend me this class

note book ?"

a. Rita asked me If I would lend her that

class note book.

b. Rita asked me If she would lend me that

class note book

c. Rita asked me If I will lend her that

class note book

d. Rita asked me would I lend her that

class note book

77. Neelam has a guitar, _______ she plays it

really well

a. So

b. And

c. But

d. Or

78. To get from Vancouver to Victoria, you can

fly, _______ you can ride the ferry

a. So

b. And

c. But

d. Or

Select the word that is most similar to the

following word

79. Harmony

a. Commentary

b. Cemetery

c. Symmetry

d. Elementary

80. Watchfulness

a. Vigil

b. Custody

c. Supervision

d. All of the above

81. Who can remove the Judge of the Supreme

Court?

a. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

b. Only President

c. Only Parliament

d. Both Parliament and President

82. Who among the following has the right to

establish the bench of Supreme Court

elsewhere in the country?

a. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

b. The President of India

c. The Parliament

d. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has

the right to allow to establish the bench

of the Supreme Court elsewhere in the

country with prior approval of the

President.

83. Which institution has resolved to clear all

pending cases against sitting and former

legislators in a time bound manner?

a. Bar Council of India

b. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of

India

c. National Administrative Tribunal

d. Supreme Court of India

84. What is the theme of the ‘World

Development Report’ 2021?

a. Data for better lives

b. Development after Covid

c. Self-Reliant countries

d. Replacement of Jobs

85. Which organisation released the ‘Forest

Governance by Indigenous and Tribal

Peoples’ report?

a. World Bank

b. ADB


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c. FAO

d. Germanwatch

86. Which Ministry has released the “Women

and Men in India 2020” report?

a. Ministry of Home Affairs

b. Ministry of Women and Child

Development

c. Ministry of Statistics and Programme

Implementation

d. Ministry of Defence

87. Which state approved a law to give life

imprisonment to food adulterators?

a. Kerala

b. Tamil Nadu

c. Karnataka

d. Madhya Pradesh

88. Iranaitivu is an island situated in which

country?

a. Saudi Arabia

b. USA

c. UK

d. Sri Lanka

89. ‘Maitri Setu’ bridge has been constructed

over which river?

a. Feni

b. Ganga

c. Brahmaputra

d. Kosi

90. Who has been appointed as the new Chief

Executive of the National Health Authority

(NHA)?

a. N S Viswanathan

b. R S Sharma

c. Tarun Gogoi

d. B P Kanungo

91. ‘Business Confidence Index’, which was

making news recently, is released by which

institution?

a. RBI

b. NABARD

c. NCAER

d. SEBI

92. Pierre Cardin, who recently passed away,

was a famous Designer of which country?

a. United States

b. France

c. Germany

d. Italy

93. TRIFED is a federation under which

ministry?

a. Ministry of Human Resources

b. Ministry of Social Justice

c. Ministry of Agriculture

d. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

94. Carolina Marin, who won the singles

women title at the Thailand Open badminton

tournament, is from which country?

a. Switzerland

b. Japan

c. Spain

d. Thailand

95. Which Ministry releases the Annual

Ranking of best performing Police stations?

a. Ministry of Law

b. Ministry of Defence

c. Ministry of Home Affairs

d. Ministry of Social Justice and

Empowerment

96. Bashan Char Island, which were seen in the

news, are located in which country?

a. Japan

b. China

c. Bangladesh

d. Laos

97. The National Green Tribunal has directed

which state to prepare an action plan for 14

proposed elephant corridors?

a. Tamil Nadu

b. Kerala

c. Odisha


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d. Maharashtra

98. A fungal disease named ‘Mucormycosis’ is

registered in Covid-19 patients of which

state?

a. Kerala

b. Gujarat

c. Bihar

d. Assam

99. India has appealed against the international

arbitration court’s ruling in favour of which

Telecom company?

a. Jio

b. Vodafone

c. Airtel

d. Orange SA

100. Benjamin Netanyahu, who was making

news recently, was the Prime Minister of

which country?

a. Brazil

b. Israel

c. Italy

d. Germany


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ANSWER KEY

1. A

2. A

3. D

4. A

5. A

6. B

7. B

8. D

9. A

10. C

11. B

12. A

13. C

14. D

15. D

16. B

17. B

18. A

19. C

20. D

21. C

22. B

23. D

24. A

25. D

26. C

27. A

28. B

29. C

30. A

31. C

32. D

33. A

34. A

35. D

36. C

37. A

38. D

39. C

40. C

41. D

42. D

43. B

44. C

45. B

46. B

47. A

48. C

49. B

50. D

51. C

52. C

53. C

54. B

55. D

56. D

57. D

58. B

59. A

60. C

61. A

62. B

63. A

64. B

65. C

66. C

67. A

68. C

69. C

70. B

71. D

72. D

73. C

74. A

75. B

76. A

77. B

78. D

79. C

80. A

81. D

82. D

83. D

84. A

85. C

86. C

87. D

88. D

89. A

90. B

91. C

92. B

93. D

94. C

95. C

96. C

97. C

98. B

99. B

100. B


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