trial examination year 2012 stpm biology paper filepage 1 of 16 penang chinese girls’ high...

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Page 1 of 16 PENANG CHINESE GIRLS’ HIGH SCHOOL TRIAL EXAMINATION YEAR 2012 STPM BIOLOGY PAPER ONE 1 hour 45 minutes Attempt all the multiple choice questions below. Shade the best answer or solution in the attached answer sheet. 1. Which statement is true of the structure of a glucose ring? C ch1 A. Carbon atom number I forms a bond with oxygen on carbon atom number 5 B. α or β isomer is determined by the position of the hydroxyl group on carbon atom number 2. C. Carbon atom number 1 and carbon atom number 5 bind to each other to form a ring structure. D. There are five hydroxyl groups within the ring structure. 2. In the diagram below, side A has a 3 percent sucrose solution and side B has a 10 percent sucrose solution. The membrane separating the sides is permeable to water but impermeable to sucrose. A ch 1 Which of the following best describes the movement of sucrose in this system? A. There is no net movement of sucrose. B. Sucrose only moves from A to B. C. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net movement is from B to A. D. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net movement is from A to B. 3. Which proteins conformation corresponds to its correct description? B ch1 Conformation Description A. Primary A repeated regular structure of a polypeptide chain. B. Secondary The coiling and folding of a polypeptide chain involve hydrogen bonds only. C. Tertiary The aggregation of two or more proteins subunits. D. Quarternary The complex three-dimensional structure of polypeptide chain.

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Page 1: TRIAL EXAMINATION YEAR 2012 STPM BIOLOGY PAPER filePage 1 of 16 PENANG CHINESE GIRLS’ HIGH SCHOOL TRIAL EXAMINATION YEAR 2012 STPM BIOLOGY PAPER ONE 1 hour 45 minutes Attempt all

Page 1 of 16

PENANG CHINESE GIRLS’ HIGH SCHOOL

TRIAL EXAMINATION YEAR 2012

STPM BIOLOGY PAPER ONE

1 hour 45 minutes

Attempt all the multiple choice questions below. Shade the best answer or solution in the attached answer sheet.

1. Which statement is true of the structure of a glucose ring? C ch1

A. Carbon atom number I forms a bond with oxygen on carbon atom number 5

B. α or β isomer is determined by the position of the hydroxyl group on carbon

atom number 2.

C. Carbon atom number 1 and carbon atom number 5 bind to each other to form a

ring structure.

D. There are five hydroxyl groups within the ring structure.

2. In the diagram below, side A has a 3 percent sucrose solution and side B has a 10

percent sucrose solution. The membrane separating the sides is permeable to

water but impermeable to sucrose.

A ch 1

Which of the following best describes the movement of sucrose in this system?

A. There is no net movement of sucrose. B. Sucrose only moves from A to B. C. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net movement is from B to A. D. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net movement is from A to B.

3. Which proteins conformation corresponds to its correct description? B ch1

Conformation Description

A. Primary A repeated regular structure of a polypeptide chain.

B. Secondary The coiling and folding of a polypeptide chain involve

hydrogen bonds only.

C. Tertiary The aggregation of two or more proteins subunits.

D. Quarternary The complex three-dimensional structure of polypeptide

chain.

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4. A hydrogen bond is … C ch1

A. a sharing of a pair of electrons between a hydrogen and an oxygen nucleus B. a sharing of a pair of electrons between a hydrogen nucleus and either an

oxygen or a nitrogen nucleus C. an attractive force that usually involves a polarly-bonded hydrogen atom and

another polarly-bonded atom with a partial negative charge D. the loss of an electron by hydrogen to a highly electronegative atom

5. The diagram below shows part of a DNA molecule. A ch1

How many hydrogen bonds are involved in holding these strands of DNA

together?

A. 11 B. 9 C. 8 D. 4

6. The diagram shows the changes in pressure potential (ΨP), solute potential (ΨS)

and water potential (Ψ) when a plasmolysed plant cell is placed in pure water.

Which shows the correct curves for each potential? D ch1

X Y Z

A. Ψ ΨP ΨS

B. ΨP ΨS Ψ

C. ΨS Ψ ΨP

D. ΨP Ψ ΨS

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7. A cell that primarily synthesises lipids have an abundant of … B ch2

A. rough endoplasmic reticulum

B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C. lysosomes

D. chloroplasts

8. The transitional epithelium found in the mammalian urinogenital system is for …

A. secretion of mucus

B. reabsoprtion of water

C. elasticity of urinary bladder

D. glomerular filtration

C ch 2

9. Which of the following characteristics is not that of hyaline cartilage or compact

bone? A ch 2

A. to withstand compression

B. to bind with connective tissues

C. to produce matrix substances

D. both are found in lacunae

10. In the following graph, each of the curves P, Q and R represents an enzyme-

controlled reaction in one of the following situations:

(i) with the enzyme uninhibited

(ii) with a non-competitive inhibitor added to the enzyme

(iii) with a competitive inhibitor added to the enzyme

Which curve represents each situation? A Ch3

Uninhibited

enzyme

With competitive

inhibitor

With non-competitive

inhibitor

A. P Q R

B. P R Q

C. R P Q

D. R Q P

11. The table shows the percentage of bases in DNA from various types of cell.

Source of

DNA

Percentage of bases in DNA

adenine guanine thymine cytosine

Calf thymus 28.2 21.5 27.8 22.5

Bull spleen 27.9 22.7 27.3 22.1

Bull sperm 28.6 22.2 27.2 22.0

Rat bone marrow 28.7 21.4 28.4 21.5

Yeast 31.3 18.7 32.9 17.1

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What is a valid deduction from these data? A ch3

A. The four bases show complementary base pairing.

B. Small differences in DNA from different cells have large effects.

C. The structure of DNA is different in yeast and animal cells.

D. All cells from the same species have approximately the same content of

DNA.

12. Phase I, II and III of the Calvin cycle are shown in the diagram below. B ch 4

Which processes regarding the three phases are correct?

I II III

A. Fixation of CO2 Regeneration of RUBP Reduction of CO2

B. Fixation of CO2 Reduction of CO2 Regeneration of RUBP

C. Reduction of CO2 Fixation of CO2 Regeneration of RUBP

D. Regeneration of RUBP Fixation of CO2 Reduction of CO2

13. This diagram represents the processes of photosynthesis in a green plant.

What is the product labeled "E"? D ch4

A. carbon dioxide

B. glucose

C. water

D. oxygen

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14. Which of the following graphs is that of the absorption of carotenoid? D ch4

15. Which of the following is correct about the substances in the catabolism of food

reserves? C ch5

I II III IV V

A. Protein Amino acid Fatty acid Fat Glycerol

B. Protein Amino acid Fat Fatty acid Glycerol

C. Fat Glycerol Fatty acid Protein Amino acid

D. Fat Fatty acid Glycerol Protein Amino acid

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16. Which enzyme does not correspond to the catalytic reaction involved in

glycolysis?

Enzyme Catalytic reaction

A. Enolase Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to

2-phosphoglycerate

B. Phosphoglucoisomerase Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to

fructose-6-phosphate

C. Phosphofructokinase Transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to

fructose-6-phosphate

D. Phosphoglycerokinase Transfer of a phosphate group from

1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADP

A ch5

17. Which of the following combinations is correct for chemosynthetic bacteria?

Fe2+

Fe3+

S SO42–

NH4+ NO2

– NO2

– NO3

A. Leptothrix Thiobacillus Nitrobacter Nitrosomonas

B. Leptothrix Thiobacillus Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter

C. Thiobacillus Leptothrix Nitrobacter Nitrosomonas

D. Thiobacillus Leptothrix Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter

B ch6

18. The graphs show changes in the percentage saturation of haemoglobin in the

blood of humans and of another vertebrate animal. The partial pressure of CO2

remains constant at 1.0 kPa and the temperature is constant at 25 °C.

Which conclusion is justified from the graph? C ch7

A. Haemoglobin does not become fully saturated in the lungs of vertebrate X.

B. At the temperature of 25 °C the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen

increases more in humans than in vertebrate X.

C. Oxygen is more easily released from haemoglobin in the muscle of

vertebrate X than in human muscle.

D. The Bohr effect in the haemoglobin of vertebrate X is greater than in human

haemoglobin.

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19. The events which lead to the opening of a stoma are as follows: D ch7

I The stoma is open.

II The guard cells become turgid.

III The water potential of the guard cells decreases.

IV Water enters the guard cells osmotically.

V Potassium ions are actively transported into the guard cells.

Which sequence of events is correct?

A. III IV V II I

B. III V IV II I

C. V IV III II I

D. V III IV II I

20. Which of the following statements about the control of heart beat is correct?

A. The secretion of adrenaline increases the rate of heart beat.

B. The decrease in blood pH inhibits neurons in the chemoreceptors at the aorta

and carotid artery.

C. The propagation of impulse through the sympathetic nerve towards the

sinoatrial and atrioventricle nodes decreases the rate of heart beat.

D. The propagation of impulse through the parasympathetic nerve towards the

sinoatrial and atrioventricle nodes increases the rate of heart beat.

A ch8

21. The diagram represents the phloem pathway, with adjacent cells, from leaf to

root in a plant.

Which process is occurring and what is the effect on the water potential? A ch8

Process from X to Y Water potential at Y

A. Active transport of sucrose Becomes more negative

B. Active transport of sucrose Becomes less negative

C. Active transport of starch Becomes less negative

D. Diffusion of sucrose Becomes more negative

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22.

The following are the main functions of W, X, Y and Z.

I to break down haemoglobin to biliverdin and bilirubin

II to transport high concentration of glucose

III to secrete bile salts

IV to transport deoxygenated blood

Which of the following combinations is correct? D ch9

W X Y Z

A. I II III IV

B. I IV II III

C. II I III IV

D. II III I IV

23. Which of the followings are correct sequence of events occurred when impulse

crossing a synapse? B ch10

I Calcium ions enter the synaptic knob

II Action potential is produced in the postsynaptic membrane

III Acetylcholine vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane

IV Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine

A. I, II, IV, III

B. I, III, II, IV

C. III, I, II, IV

D. III, I, IV, I

24. The diagram below shows the findings of an experiment on the effect of light

on the flowering of a plant.

Which of the following are true of the plant? C ch11

I The plant is a long day plant.

II The plant is a short day plant.

III Far-red light cancels off the action of red light.

IV Red light can replace the requirement of dark period.

A. I and III

B. I and IV

C. II and III

D. II and IV

W is hepatic portal vein

X is liver cell

Y is Kupffer cell

Z is central vein

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25. The diagram below shows the structure of a sarcomere. What are P, Q and R?

P Q R

A. I band Myosin Actin

B. A band Myosin Actin

C. I band Actin Myosin

D. A band Actin Myosin

B ch10

26. Which statement is not true of auxin? C ch11

A. It stimulates the division of cell in a stem.

B. It stimulates the elongation of coleoptile.

C. It promotes the formation of lateral shoot.

D. It inhibits the elongation of root at high concentration.

27. The diagram shows the response to a pathogen by the immune system. Which

row correctly identifies P, Q, R and S? B ch12

P Q R S

A. Antibody T-lymphocyte Antigen Plasma cell

B. Antigen B-lymphocyte Antibody Memory cell

C. Antigen T-lymphocyte Antigen B-lymphocyte

D. Bacteria B-lymphocyte Antibody T-lymphocyte

28. In the process of initiating humoral immune response in humans, the role of the

helper T cell is to secrete … D ch12

A. perforin to lyse the infected cell

B. interleukin I to stimulate B lymphocytes to differentiate into plasma and

memory cells

C. interleukin II to stimulate T lymphocytes to differentiate into cytotoxic T

and memory cells

D. interleukin II to stimulate B lymphocytes to differentiate into plasma and

memory cells

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29. Which of the following is true of an oviparous animal? A Ch13

A. An individual hatches from the egg outside the female parent’s body.

B. An individual hatches from the egg in the uterus of the female parent.

C. An individual is born before maturity and continues to develop in the sac of

the female parent.

D. An individual develops in the uterus of the female parent and the embryo

obtains the nutrient from the placenta.

30. The diagram below shows the structure of a barley grain. B Ch14

Where are the sites of gibberellin synthesis and α-amylase synthesis?

Gibberellin synthesis α-amylase synthesis

A. S P

B. S Q

C. Q R

D. R Q

31. Which of the following is the correct match for I, II and III? B ch15

Type of dormancy Importance

I Aestivation P reduces water loss during

hot and dry conditions

II Diapause Q reduces energy

consumption for body heat

III Hibernation R inhibits insect growth

I II III

A. P Q R

B. P R Q

C. Q P R

D. Q R P

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32. In Drosophila, the gene for eye colour is locate on the X chromosome. Male

flies are hemizygous carrying only the allele for eye colour on the single X

chromosome. What are the results obtained when mutant white-eyed female

Drosophila flies crossed with wild-type (red-eyed) males? C ch16

A. All the F1 flies have red eyes

B. All the F1 flies have white eyes

C. All the F1 male flies have white eyes and all the female flies have red eyes

D. All the F1 female flies have red eyes and all the female flies have white

eyes

33. Drosophilia flies heterozygous for the size of the wing and body colour were

crossed with flies with vestigial wings and ebony bodies. The F1 offspring

obtained were as follows:

• Normal wing, grey body: 522

• Vestigial wing, grey body: 98

• Normal wing, ebony body: 104

• Vestigial wing, ebony body: 496

What is the crossover value? C ch16

A. 8% B. 9% C. 17% D. 20%

34. The diagram below shows a type of gene mutation.

The mutation results in … B ch17

A. Beta-Thalassaemia Major

B. Sickle-cell Anaemia

C. Down's syndrome

D. Cri-du-chat syndrome

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35. The diagram below shows a karyotype of a person.

The karyotype above belongs to a person that shows A ch17

A. Turner syndrome

B. Klinefelter syndrome

C. Down syndrome

D. Cri-du-chat syndrome

36. The diagram below shows how modern bread wheat (Triticum aestivum) is thought

to have evolved.

What is the chromosome number of Triticum monococcum? B ch17

A. 7 B. 14 C. 21 D. 28

37. Which reason best explains why certain mutant genes cannot be eliminated

from a gene pool? C ch18

A. Genetic drift causes the mutant genes to spread throughout the population.

B. Mutant genes are dominant and are carried by both heterozygous and

homozygous individuals.

C. Mutant genes are recessive and are carried by heterozygous individuals.

D. Mutant genes have potential value for survival of the future generations.

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38. A study on 400 mice about their resistance towards a type of poison has been

carried out. The resistance characteristic is controlled by the dominant allele R.

36% of the mice population is found to be resistant towards the poison.

Calculate the number of mice expected to have Rr genotype. C ch18

A. 16 B. 72 C. 128 D. 256

39. Which enzyme initiates transcription when the operon is not bound to the

repressor protein? D ch19

A. Helicase

B. Ligase

C. DNA polymerase

D. RNA polymerase

40. A mutation in the lactose operon occurs which causes the repressor protein not

being able to bind with the operator region. Which of the following statements

is true of the mutation? B ch19

A. β-galactosidase enzyme is not produced at all.

B. β-galactosidase enzyme is produced continuously with or without lactose.

C. β-galactosidase enzyme is produced continuously in the absence of lactose

only.

D. β-galactosidase enzyme is produced continuously in the presence of lactose

only.

41. Which DNA sequences are palindromic? D ch20

A. 5’ AAGGGTT3’

3’ TTCCCAA5’

B. 5’ CATCATCATCAT3’

3’GTAGTAGTAGTA5’

C. 5’GGGGGATTTT3’

3’CCCCCTAAAA5’

D. 5’GAGGCCTC3’

3’ CTCCGGAG5’

42. Pinus radiata, Pinus strobus and Pinus banksiana are … C ch21

A. three different classes of pine trees

B. three different families of pine trees

C. three species belonging to the same genus

D. three scientific names for the same organism

43. Which of the following statements describes phenetics correctly? A ch21

A. Phenetics is a numerical taxonomy based on phenotypic similarities

B. Phenetics strives to differentiate between homology and homoplasy

C. Phenetics focus on ancestral characters.

D. Phenetics can be used to form a cladogram.

44. The taxa Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia are of the same … D ch22

A. class but of different orders

B. order but of different families

C. kingdom but of different phyla

D. phylum but of different classes

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45. Based on the table below, match the phyla of organisms to their characteristics.

Phylum Characteristic

I Cnidaria P Body divided into head, muscular foot and visceral

mass

II Arthropoda Q Diploblastic body, polymorphism

III Mollusca R Segmented legs, chitinous exoskeleton

IV Nematoda S Body covered with thin and elastic cuticle,

pseudocoelom

I II III IV

A. P Q S R

B. Q R P S

C. R S Q P

D. S R P Q

B ch22

46. The graphs below show the effects of three types of natural selections.

Which of the following is correct regarding Biston betularia in industrial areas,

human birth weight in developed countries and rabbit population in the Andes

Mountains? D ch23

Biston betularia in

industrial areas

Human birth weight in

developed countries

Rabbit population in

the Andes Mountains

A. P Q R

B. Q R P

C. Q P R

D. R P Q

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47. Populations of squirrels in the north of the Grand Canyon do no mate with the

squirrels in the south. They are isolated by … A ch23

A. Geographical barrier

B. Sympatric barrier

C. Mechanical barrier

D. Gamete incompatibility

48. Phosphorus cycle is shown in the diagram below.

What processes are represented by P, Q, R, S and T? B ch 24

P Q R S T

A. Erosion Osmosis Excretion Decompo-

sition

Sedimentation

B. Erosion Active

transport

Decomposition Excretion Geological

land uplift

C. Sedimenta-

tion

Active

transport

Respiration Decompo-

sition

Geological

land uplift

D. Decompo-

sition

Diffusion Sedimentation Excretion Geological

land uplift

49. Which of the following are true of an ecosystem? C ch24

I Phytoplanktons are producers.

II The last consumer obtains the highest energy.

III Ecosystem is an open system with input and output of energies.

IV Heterotrophs include herbivores, carnivores, omnivores,

decomposers and detritivores.

A. I and II

B. III and IV

C. I, III and IV

D. II, III and IV

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50. A student analyses the population of species X in an area S by using 1m X 1m

quadrats (as shown in the diagram below). The numbers in the quadrats

represent the number of species X. Calculate the density and frequency of

species X.

Density (m –2

) Frequency (%)

A. 22.4 100

B. 22.4 50

C. 44.8 100

D. 44.8 50

A ch 25

Prepared by Madam YEAP CHEE BENG

Checked by Confirmed by